Search Results

Search found 3909 results on 157 pages for 'roger light'.

Page 142/157 | < Previous Page | 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149  | Next Page >

  • Exchange 2003-Exchange 2010 post migration GAL/OAB problem

    - by user68726
    I am very new to Exchange so forgive my newbie-ness. I've exhausted Google trying to find a way to solve my problem so I'm hoping some of you gurus can shed some light on my next steps. Please forgive my bungling around through this. The problem I cannot download/update the Global Address List (GAL) and Offline Address Book (OAB) on my Outlook 2010 clients. I get: Task 'emailaddress' reported error (0x8004010F) : 'The operation failed. An object cannot be found.' ---- error. I'm using cached exchange mode, which if I turn off Outlook hangs completely from the moment I start it up. (Note I've replaced my actual email address with 'emailaddress') Background information I migrated mailboxes, public store, etc. from a Small Business Server 2003 with Exchange 2003 box to a Server 2008 R2 with Exchange 2010 based primarily on an experts exchange how to article. The exchange server is up and running as an internet facing exchange server with all of the roles necessary to send and receive mail and in that capacity is working fine. I "thought" I had successfully migrated everything from the SBS03 box, and due to huge amounts of errors in everything from AD to the Exchange install itself I removed the reference to the SBS03 server in adsiedit. I've still got access to the old SBS03 box, but as I said the number of errors in everything is preventing even the uninstall of Exchange (or the starting of the Exchange Information Store service), so I'm quite content to leave that box completely out of the picture while trying to solve my problem. After research I discovered this is most likely because I failed to run the “update-globaladdresslist” (or get / update) command from the Exchange shell before I removed the Exchange 2003 server from adsiedit (and the network). If I run the command now it gives me: WARNING: The recipient "domainname.com/Microsoft Exchange System Objects/Offline Address Book - first administrative group" is invalid and couldn't be updated. WARNING: The recipient "domainname.com/Microsoft Exchange System Objects/Schedule+ Free Busy Information – first administrative group" is invalid and couldn't be updated. WARNING: The recipient "domainname.com/Microsoft Exchange System Objects/ContainernameArchive" is invalid and couldn't be updated. WARNING: The recipient "domainname.com/Microsoft Exchange System Objects/ContainernameContacts" is invalid and couldn't be updated. (Note that I’ve replaced my domain with “domainname.com” and my organization name with “containername”) What I’ve tried I don’t want to use the old OAB, or GAL, I don’t care about either, our GAL and distribution lists needed to be organized anyway, so at this point I really just want to get rid of the old reference to the “first administrative group” and move on. I’ve tried to create a new GAL and tell Exchange 2010 to use that GAL instead of the old GAL, but I'm obviously missing some of the commands or something dumb I need to do to start over with a blank slate/GAL/OAB. I'm very tempted to completely delete the entire "first administrative group" tree from adsiedit and see if that gets rid of the ridiculous reference that no longer exists but I dont want to break something else. Commands run to try to create a new GAL and tell exch10 to use that GAL: New-globaladdresslist –name NAMEOFNEWGAL Set-globaladdresslist GUID –name NAMEOFNEWGAL This did nothing for me except now when I run get-globaladdresslist or with the | FL pipe I see two GALs listed, the “default global address list” and the “NAMEOFNEWGAL” that I created. After a little more research this morning it looks like you can't change/delete/remove the default address list, and the only way to do what I'm trying to do would be to maybe remove the default address list via adsiedit and recreate with a command something like new-GlobalAddressList -Name "Default Global Address List" -IncludedRecipients AllRecipients. This would be acceptable but I've searched and searched and can't find instructions or a breakdown of where exactly the default GAL lives in AD, and if I'd have to remove multiple child references/records. ** Of interest** I'm getting an event ID 9337 in my application log OALGen did not find any recipients in address list ‘\Global Address List. This offline address list will not be generated. -\NAMEOFMYOAB --------- on my Exchange 2010 box, which pretty much to me seems to confirm my suspicion that the empty GAL/OAB is what's causing the Outlook client 0x8004010F error. Help please!

    Read the article

  • PC: Quick Freeze, then BSOD, then forced reboot, then freezes again

    - by cr0z3r
    Lately I have been experiencing a weird issue. My PC will hang for a second and then BSOD - it stays there, so I have to reboot. Once Windows starts again and I'm logged in, after 1-10min it freezes again, this time without BSOD. RECAP: 1 second freeze BSOD, hangs there I have to force-reboot Once PC rebooted, I log back into Windows second freeze between a 1-10min range, no BSOD (alternatively, I get a freeze with a constant sound/noise, no BSOD) I contacted my PC provider, who told me my graphics-card might be flawed (Quadro 4000), so I used a Quadro 2000 that they lend me. The issue still occurred. The issue now seemed to belong to a flawed RAM module. Following my provider's steps, I removed all but the first from the left column and kept using my PC for a week or so without any issues. I then added the bottom-right module, and so on, until all modules were back inside - I had no problems. Now it seemed that a simple take-out-put-back-in of the RAM modules had fixed the issue. However, after a few months, the issue was back. I redid all the RAM-swapping I had done before, and concluded that the lower-right module was flawed. My provider changed it for another, and everything was great until now. My PC froze again for barely a second, hanged on a BSOD, I rebooted it, logged-in to Windows to get a freeze (without BSOD or reboot) 40 seconds later. Something worth noting, is that every time I reboot after the BSOD, it is something within Chrome that freezes my PC (e.g. this time I clicked the "restore" button as Chrome mentioned it had exited unexpectedly - from the previous freeze obviously - and it instantly froze). Finally, the Event Viewer lists 2 critical events in the past hour as "ID: 41, Type: Kernel-Power". PC-Specs: http://i.imgur.com/VZpbr.jpg Previous Dump-files: https://dl.dropbox.com/u/716600/DumpFiles_08_2012.zip I would like to thank anybody in advance for your help. You're great. UPDATE 1: I realized that I did not mention an awkward fact about this issue. After I have gotten the 1-sec freeze followed by a BSOD, after I rebooted because the BSOD hanged, and after I logged back in to get another (this time, eternal) freeze and rebooted once again, the PC does not boot back up. The power-light is on, but my monitor says "no signal", as if the PC wouldn't really be turned on. This truly seems a like a power-related issue, doesn't it? UPDATE 2: I just got a freeze, but without BSOD. My screen froze (while on Chrome, which is starting to seem suspicious to me) with an ongoing sound/noise. I had to force-reboot my PC. I would say this is a graphics-card issue, but this issue also happened when I was using the Quadro 2000 from my provider. UPDATE 3: I just got a BSOD while trying to render something (quite heavy, actually) in 3ds Max 2012. I left the BSOD "running", as it said it was writing dump files to disk. However, the percentage number stayed at 0, so after 15 minutes I force-rebooted. I then used the software WhoCrashed (thank you Dave) which reported the following from the C:\Windows\Memory.dmp file: On Thu 22.11.2012 22:13:45 GMT your computer crashed crash dump file: C:\Windows\memory.dmp uptime: 01:05:27 This was probably caused by the following module: Unknown () Bugcheck code: 0x124 (0x0, 0xFFFFFA80275AC028, 0xF200001F, 0x100B2) Error: WHEA_UNCORRECTABLE_ERROR Bug check description: This bug check indicates that a fatal hardware error has occurred. This bug check uses the error data that is provided by the Windows Hardware Error Architecture (WHEA). This is likely to be caused by a hardware problem problem. This problem might be caused by a thermal issue. A third party driver was identified as the probable root cause of this system error. It is suggested you look for an update for the following driver: Unknown . Google query: Unknown WHEA_UNCORRECTABLE_ERROR

    Read the article

  • Active Directory Time Synchronisation - Time-Service Event ID 50

    - by George
    I have an Active Directory domain with two DCs. The first DC in the forest/domain is Server 2012, the second is 2008 R2. The first DC holds the PDC Emulator role. I sporadically receive a warning from the Time-Service source, event ID 50: The time service detected a time difference of greater than %1 milliseconds for %2 seconds. The time difference might be caused by synchronization with low-accuracy time sources or by suboptimal network conditions. The time service is no longer synchronized and cannot provide the time to other clients or update the system clock. When a valid time stamp is received from a time service provider, the time service will correct itself. Time sync in the domain is configured with the second DC to synchronise using the /syncfromflags:DOMHIER flag. The first DC is configured to sync time using a /syncfromflags:MANUAL /reliable:YES, from a peerlist consisting of a number of UK based stratum 2 servers, such as ntp2d.mcc.ac.uk. I'm confused why I receive this event warning. It implies that my PDC emulator cannot synchronise time with a supposedly reliable external time source, and it quotes a time difference of 5 seconds for 900 seconds. It's worth also mentioning that I used to use a UK pool from ntp.org but I would receive the warning much more often. Since updating to a number of UK based academic time servers, it seems to be more reliable. Can someone with more experience shed some light on this - perhaps it is purely transient? Should I disregard the warning? Is my configuration sound? EDIT: I should add that the DCs are virtual, and installed on two separate VMware ESXi/vSphere physical hosts. I can also confirm that as per MDMarra's comment and best practice, VMware timesync is disabled, since: c:\Program Files\VMware\VMware Tools\VMwareToolboxCmd.exe timesync status returns Disabled. EDIT 2 Some strange new issue has cropped up. I've noticed a pattern. Originally, the event ID 50 warnings would occur at about 1230pm each day. This is interesting since our veeam backup happens at 12 midday. Since I made the changes discussed here, I now receive an event ID 51 instead of 50. The new warning says that: The time sample received from peer server.ac.uk differs from the local time by -40 seconds (Or approximately 40 seconds). This has happened two days in a row. Now I'm even more confused. Obviously the time never updates until I manually intervene. The issue seems to be related to virtualisation and veeam. Something may be occuring when veeam is backing up the PDCe. Any suggestions? UPDATE & SUMMARY msemack's excellent list of resources below (the accepted answer) provided enough information to correctly configure the time service in the domain. This should be the first port of call for any future people looking to verify their configuration. The final "40 second jump" issue I have resolved (there are no more warnings) through adjusting the VMware time sync settings as noted in the veeam knowledge base article here: http://www.veeam.com/kb1202 In any case, should any future reader use ESXi, veeam or not, the resources here are an excellent source of information on the time sync topic and msemack's answer is particularly invaluable.

    Read the article

  • Understanding NFS4 (Linux server)

    - by drumfire
    I've been a bit bothered by NFS4 on Linux. Some information 'out there' seems to conflict with other information, and other information appears hard to find. So here are a couple of things that caught my attention, hopefully someone out there can shed some light on this. This question focuses exclusively on NFS4 without Kerberos etc. 1. Exports There is ambiguous information in the exports manpage on the structure of /etc/exports. To quote from exports(5): Also, each line may have one or more specifications for default options after the path name, in the form of a dash ("-") followed by an option list. The option list is used for all subsequent exports on that line only. What does "subsequent exports on that line only" mean? 1.2 fsid=0 not required anymore? I was searching for fsid when I found a comment on the linux-nfs list stating fsid=0 is not required anymore. Now I'm just confused, do I need it with nfs4 or not?! 2. Non-exported directory still mountable Say I have the following tree: /exp /exp/users /exp/distr /exp/distr/archlinux /exp/distr/debian And I have the following entries in this fstab entry: /dev/disk/by-label/users /mnt/users ext4 defaults 0 0 /dev/disk/by-label/distr /mnt/distr ext4 defaults 0 0 /mnt/users /exp/users none bind 0 0 /mnt/distr /exp/distr none bind 0 0 And my exports is exactly this: /exp 192.168.1.0/24(fsid=0,rw,async,no_subtree_check,no_root_squash) /exp/distr 192.168.1.0/24(rw,async,no_subtree_check,no_root_squash) And exportfs -arv shows: exporting 192.168.1.0/24:/exp/distr exporting 192.168.1.0/24:/exp Then why am I able to do this and get no error on a client: mount -t nfs4 server:/exp/users /tmp/test Even though /exp/users is not exported? I didn't export this directory, and while I don't see the contents of /dev/disk/by-label/users unless I specify crossmnt, I am still able to write to the directory. Everything I write to there goes to the underlying directory of /exp/users which can be seen when I umount /exp/users; ls /exp/users.. 3. The odd case of showmount -d server As stated by rpc.mountd(8), this command should display directories that are either currently mounted by clients, or stale entries in /var/lib/nfs/rmtab, as can be read: The rpc.mountd daemon registers every successful MNT request by adding an entry to the /var/lib/nfs/rmtab file. When receivng a UMNT request from an NFS client, rpc.mountd simply removes the matching entry from /var/lib/nfs/rmtab, as long as the access control list for that export allows that sender to access the export. (...) Note, however, that there is little to guarantee that the contents of /var/lib/nfs/rmtab are accurate. A client may continue accessing an export even after invoking UMNT. If the client reboots without sending a UMNT request, stale entries remain for that client in /var/lib/nfs/rmtab. After reading this I surely wonder: Isn't it terribly insecure to just expose this type of client information; Aren't unaware server admins bound to have an rmtab with a lot of stale clients; Is this the reason that clients that mount nfs4 directories with mount -v get to see output like "nothing was mounted" even though something was mounted? I have a lot of other questions regarding nfs4, but I'll keep it at this for the moment.. :)

    Read the article

  • What do these messages in the Qmail maillog indicate?

    - by Griffo
    There seems to be an endless supply of messages in the Qmail maillog for a single address. Can anyone shed some light on why this might be and whether it is a problem? To me it looks like either spam or some sort of unhandled problem. It strikes me as unusual that the 'from=' field is blank. This is on a VPS using Plesk in case that's important. Jun 30 15:10:17 vps-1001108-595 qmail-remote-handlers[23593]: [email protected] Jun 30 15:10:17 vps-1001108-595 qmail-remote-handlers[23586]: from= Jun 30 15:10:17 vps-1001108-595 qmail-remote-handlers[23586]: [email protected] Jun 30 15:10:17 vps-1001108-595 qmail-remote-handlers[23585]: from= Jun 30 15:10:17 vps-1001108-595 qmail-remote-handlers[23585]: [email protected] Jun 30 15:10:17 vps-1001108-595 qmail-remote-handlers[23584]: from= Jun 30 15:10:17 vps-1001108-595 qmail-remote-handlers[23584]: [email protected] Jun 30 15:10:17 vps-1001108-595 qmail-remote-handlers[23583]: from= Jun 30 15:10:17 vps-1001108-595 qmail-remote-handlers[23583]: [email protected] Jun 30 15:10:17 vps-1001108-595 qmail-remote-handlers[23600]: from= Jun 30 15:10:17 vps-1001108-595 qmail-remote-handlers[23600]: [email protected] Jun 30 15:10:17 vps-1001108-595 qmail-remote-handlers[23599]: from= Jun 30 15:10:17 vps-1001108-595 qmail-remote-handlers[23599]: [email protected] EDIT Here's a sample of one of the emails: Received: (qmail 5603 invoked for bounce); 29 Jun 2011 07:46:31 +0100 Date: 29 Jun 2011 07:46:31 +0100 From: [email protected] To: [email protected] Subject: failure notice Hi. This is the qmail-send program at vps-1001108-595.cp.blacknight.com. I'm afraid I wasn't able to deliver your message to the following addresses. This is a permanent error; I've given up. Sorry it didn't work out. <[email protected]>: 200.147.36.13 does not like recipient. Remote host said: 450 4.7.1 Client host rejected: cannot find your hostname, [78.153.208.195] Giving up on 200.147.36.13. I'm not going to try again; this message has been in the queue too long. --- Below this line is a copy of the message. Return-Path: <[email protected]> Received: (qmail 15585 invoked by uid 48); 22 Jun 2011 07:38:26 +0100 Date: 22 Jun 2011 07:38:26 +0100 Message-ID: <[email protected]> To: [email protected] Subject: Cadastre-se e Concorra ? um Carro! MIME-Version: 1.0 Content-type: text/html; charset=iso-8859-1 From: Cielo Fidelidade <[email protected]> <!DOCTYPE HTML> <html> ... <body text removed> <html> If I understand this correctly, this is saying that an email sent by my server, from address [email protected], could not be delivered. However, [email protected] is not a valid email address on my server, so how can email be sent from this address on my server? I have tested whether my server is acting as an open relay, and it isn't. So how else could this be happening? I am getting thousands of these every day. What can I do to prevent it?

    Read the article

  • Strange enduser experience with Liferay, Glassfish and Apache on RedHat

    - by Pete Helgren
    Tried multiple forums to get to the bottom of this. I hope I can get some direction here: Here is the stack I am working with: Red Hat Enterprise Linux Server release 5.6 (Tikanga) Liferay 6.0.6 on Glassfish 3.0.1 MySQL 5.0.77 Apache 2.2.3 The Liferay portal provides a variety of portlets to end users. Static content (web pages), static resources (primarily pdf and mp3 files 1mb - 80mb in size), File upload and download capabilities (primarily 40-60mb mp3 files) and online streaming of those MP3 files. Here is the strange end user experiences: Under normal load: (20-30) users uploading, downloading or streaming files and 20-30 accessing static content (some of it downloads), we see the following: 1) Clicking a link triggers the download of a portion of an MP3 (the portion is a few seconds long). 2) Clicking on a link tiggers the download of the page content rather than rendering. 3) Clicking a link causes the page to dump binary data to the end user rather than the expected content. 4) Clicking a link returns the text of a javascript file rather than rendering the page. Each occurrence is totally random (or appears so). Sometimes it works, sometimes it doesn't. It seems to have no relation to browser or client OS. The strange events seem to occur much more frequently when using an SSL connection rather than regular http. Apache serves as a proxy server only (reverse). It basically passes all the requests through to Glassfish. There isn't any static content proxy served by Apache. We rebuilt the entire stack from scratch and redeployed the portlet wars and still have the same issues. Liferay is running as a single server (not clustered). We disabled mod_cache in Apache. The problems are more frequent as the server load grows. This morning the load is pretty light and we are seeing few problems but the use of the site will grow, particularly tonight around 9pm CST through Wednesday morning. You could try the site (http://preview.bsfinternational.org) during those times and I would expect that you might experience one of the weirdnesses as you randomly click links on the site (https is invoked only when signed in). Again, https seems to exacerbate the issue. This seems very much like a caching issue but I don't know where in the stack to start peeling the onion. Apache? Liferay? Glassfish? MySQL? Maybe even Redhat? We are stumped and most forums we have posted to (LifeRay and Glassfish) have returned very few suggestions. I just need an idea of where to start looking. I understand that we could have a portlet EDIT: Opening the files in a Hex editor that appear to be pages that download rather than render, we see that the first 4000 characters are "junk" and then the "HTTP/1.1 ...." 'normal' header is seen. So something is dumping a jumble of characters up to offset 4000 (when viewing it in a Hex editor). Perhaps a clue? Ideas?

    Read the article

  • What would make a noise in a PC on graphics operations on a passively-cooled system?

    - by T.J. Crowder
    I have this system based on the Intel D510MO motherboard, which is basically an Atom D510 (dual-core HT Atom w/built-in GPU), an Intel NM10 chipset, and a Realtek Gigabit LAN controller. It's entirely passively cooled. I noticed almost immediately that there was a kind of very, very soft noise that corresponded with graphics operations, sort of the noise you'd get if you had a sheet of flat paper and slid something really light across it — but more electronic than that. I wrote it off as observation error and/or disk activity triggered by the graphics operation (although the latter seemed like a lot of unnecessary disk activity). It isn't. I got curious enough that I finally did a few controlled experiments, and here's what I've determined: It isn't the HDD. For one thing, the sounds the HDD makes (when seeking, when reading or writing, when just sitting there spinning) is different. For another, I used sudo hdparm -y /dev/sda (I'm using Ubuntu 10.04 LTS) to temporarily put the disk on standby while making sure that non-disk graphics op was happening in a loop. The disk spun down, but the other sound continued, corresponding perfectly with the timing of the graphics op. (Then the disk spun up again, but it takes long enough that I could rule out the HDD.) It isn't the monitor; I ensured the two were well physically-separated and the sound was definitely coming from the main box. It isn't something else in the room; the sound is coming from the box. It isn't cross-talk to an audio circuit coming out the speakers. (It doesn't have any speakers.) It isn't my mouse (e.g., when I'm trying to make graphics ops happen); the sound happens if I set up a recurring operation and don't use the mouse at all, or if I lift the mouse off the table slightly (but enough that the laser still registers movement). It isn't the voices in my head; they never whisper like that. Other observations: It doesn't seem to matter what the graphics operation is; anything that changes what's on the screen seems to do it. I get the sound when moving the mouse over the Chromium tab bar (which makes the tab backgrounds change); I get it when a web page has a counter on it that changes the text on the page: I get it when dragging window contents around. The sound is very, very slightly louder if the graphics op is larger, like scrolling a text area when writing a question on superuser.com, than for smaller operations like the tick counter on the web page. But it's very slight. It's fairly loud (and of good duration) when the op involves color changes to substantial surface areas. For instance, when asking a question here on superuser and you move the cursor between the question box and the tag box, and the help to the right fades out, changes, and fades back in. (Yet another example related to the web browser, so let me say: I hear it when operations completely unrelated to the web browser as well.) It doesn't sound like arcing or anything like that (I'd've shut off the machine Right Quick Like if it did). Moving windows does it. Scrolling windows (by and large) doesn't. I have the feeling I've heard this sort of thing before, when all system fans were on low and such, with other systems — but (again) written it off as observational error. For all the world it's like I'm hearing the CPU working (as opposed to the GPU; note the window scroll thing above) or data being transferred somewhere, but that just seems...unlikely. So what am I hearing? This may seem like a very localized question, but perhaps other silent PC enthusiasts may be interested as well...

    Read the article

  • Exchange 2003-Exchange 2010 post migration GAL/OAB problem

    - by user68726
    I am very new to Exchange so forgive my newbie-ness. I've exhausted Google trying to find a way to solve my problem so I'm hoping some of you gurus can shed some light on my next steps. Please forgive my bungling around through this. The problem I cannot download/update the Global Address List (GAL) and Offline Address Book (OAB) on my Outlook 2010 clients. I get: Task 'emailaddress' reported error (0x8004010F) : 'The operation failed. An object cannot be found.' ---- error. I'm using cached exchange mode, which if I turn off Outlook hangs completely from the moment I start it up. (Note I've replaced my actual email address with 'emailaddress') Background information I migrated mailboxes, public store, etc. from a Small Business Server 2003 with Exchange 2003 box to a Server 2008 R2 with Exchange 2010 based primarily on an experts exchange how to article. The exchange server is up and running as an internet facing exchange server with all of the roles necessary to send and receive mail and in that capacity is working fine. I "thought" I had successfully migrated everything from the SBS03 box, and due to huge amounts of errors in everything from AD to the Exchange install itself I removed the reference to the SBS03 server in adsiedit. I've still got access to the old SBS03 box, but as I said the number of errors in everything is preventing even the uninstall of Exchange (or the starting of the Exchange Information Store service), so I'm quite content to leave that box completely out of the picture while trying to solve my problem. After research I discovered this is most likely because I failed to run the “update-globaladdresslist” (or get / update) command from the Exchange shell before I removed the Exchange 2003 server from adsiedit (and the network). If I run the command now it gives me: WARNING: The recipient "domainname.com/Microsoft Exchange System Objects/Offline Address Book - first administrative group" is invalid and couldn't be updated. WARNING: The recipient "domainname.com/Microsoft Exchange System Objects/Schedule+ Free Busy Information – first administrative group" is invalid and couldn't be updated. WARNING: The recipient "domainname.com/Microsoft Exchange System Objects/ContainernameArchive" is invalid and couldn't be updated. WARNING: The recipient "domainname.com/Microsoft Exchange System Objects/ContainernameContacts" is invalid and couldn't be updated. (Note that I’ve replaced my domain with “domainname.com” and my organization name with “containername”) What I’ve tried I don’t want to use the old OAB, or GAL, I don’t care about either, our GAL and distribution lists needed to be organized anyway, so at this point I really just want to get rid of the old reference to the “first administrative group” and move on. I’ve tried to create a new GAL and tell Exchange 2010 to use that GAL instead of the old GAL, but I'm obviously missing some of the commands or something dumb I need to do to start over with a blank slate/GAL/OAB. I'm very tempted to completely delete the entire "first administrative group" tree from adsiedit and see if that gets rid of the ridiculous reference that no longer exists but I dont want to break something else. Commands run to try to create a new GAL and tell exch10 to use that GAL: New-globaladdresslist –name NAMEOFNEWGAL Set-globaladdresslist GUID –name NAMEOFNEWGAL This did nothing for me except now when I run get-globaladdresslist or with the | FL pipe I see two GALs listed, the “default global address list” and the “NAMEOFNEWGAL” that I created. After a little more research this morning it looks like you can't change/delete/remove the default address list, and the only way to do what I'm trying to do would be to maybe remove the default address list via adsiedit and recreate with a command something like new-GlobalAddressList -Name "Default Global Address List" -IncludedRecipients AllRecipients. This would be acceptable but I've searched and searched and can't find instructions or a breakdown of where exactly the default GAL lives in AD, and if I'd have to remove multiple child references/records. Of interest I'm getting an event ID 9337 in my application log OALGen did not find any recipients in address list \Global Address List. This offline address list will not be generated. -\NAMEOFMYOAB --------- on my Exchange 2010 box, which pretty much to me seems to confirm my suspicion that the empty GAL/OAB is what's causing the Outlook client 0x8004010F error. Help please!

    Read the article

  • Putting indexes in separate filegroup kills our queries

    - by womp
    Can anyone shed some light on this? On our dev boxes, our database resides entirely in the PRIMARY filegroup, and everything works fine. On one of our production servers, recently upgraded from 2005 to 2008, we noticed it was performing slower than it should. On this machine, there are two filegroups - PRIMARY and INDEXES. Both filegroups contain 1 file per logical volume, one logical volume per CPU, (and each logical volume is a RAID 10 of 4 physical disks). We isolated a few queries that were performing fast on the dev boxes and slow (up to 40x slower) on the production machine. Turned out these queries were using the non-clustered indexes that resided in the INDEXES filegroup. Tweaking some of the queries to only use clustered indexes that were in the PRIMARY filegroup dropped their times back to normal. As a final confirmation, we redeployed the same database on the same machine to have everything in PRIMARY, and things went back to normal! Here's the statistics output of one of the queries, run identically on the machine with different filegroup configurations (table names changed to protect the innocent): FAST (everything in PRIMARY filegroup): (3 row(s) affected) Table '0'. Scan count 2, logical reads 14, ... Table '1'. Scan count 0, logical reads 0, ... Table '1'. Scan count 0, logical reads 0, ... Table '2'. Scan count 2, logical reads 7, ... Table '3'. Scan count 2, logical reads 1012, ... Table '4'. Scan count 1, logical reads 3, ... SQL Server Execution Times: CPU time = 437 ms, elapsed time = 445 ms. SLOW (indexes split into their own filegroup): (3 row(s) affected) Table '0'. Scan count 209, logical reads 428, ... Table '1'. Scan count 0, logical reads 0,... Table '2'. Scan count 1021, logical reads 9043,.... Table '3'. Scan count 209, logical reads 105754, .... Table '4'. Scan count 0, logical reads 0, .... Table '5'. Scan count 1, logical reads 695, ... **Table '#46DA8CA9'. Scan count 205, logical reads 205, ...** Table '6'. Scan count 6, logical reads 436, ... Table '7'. Scan count 1, logical reads 12,.... SQL Server Execution Times: CPU time = 17581 ms, elapsed time = 17595 ms. Notice the weird temp table and extra tables involved in the slow query. It seems clear that having a second file group is making SQL Server batty with choosing an execution plan. What the heck is going on?

    Read the article

  • VPS 512 MB RAM with WordPressMU comes to consumes lots of memory

    - by CAPitalZ
    I have googled for days and gathered all optimization suggestions and tried. My sites are not getting any high hits. May be like 100 hits per day [all my sites combined]. Here are my specs I have 512 MB RAM VPS with burstable 1024 MB. Centos 5 32-bit & cPanel/WHM Apache 2.2 MySQL 5.0 PHP 5.3.2 Here is my Configs I have 2 WordPressMU production sites, and 1 test site my.cnf # The following options will be passed to all MySQL clients [client] #password = your_password port = 3306 socket = /var/lib/mysql/mysql.sock # Here follows entries for some specific programs # The MySQL server [mysqld] port = 3306 socket = /var/lib/mysql/mysql.sock skip-locking skip-bdb skip-innodb key_buffer = 16M max_allowed_packet = 1M table_cache = 64 sort_buffer_size = 512K net_buffer_length = 8K read_buffer_size = 256K read_rnd_buffer_size = 512K myisam_sort_buffer_size = 8M #CAPitalZ thread_cache_size=8 thread_concurrency=4 #query_cache_type=1 #query_cache_limit=1M query_cache_size=16M concurrent_insert=2 low_priority_updates=1 max_connections=50 tmp_table_size=16M max_heap_table_size=16M join_buffer_size=1M interactive_timeout=25 wait_timeout=1000 #connect_timout=10 not able to restart mysql max_connect_errors=10 # Don't listen on a TCP/IP port at all. This can be a security enhancement, # if all processes that need to connect to mysqld run on the same host. # All interaction with mysqld must be made via Unix sockets or named pipes. # Note that using this option without enabling named pipes on Windows # (via the "enable-named-pipe" option) will render mysqld useless! # skip-networking # Disable Federated by default skip-federated # Replication Master Server (default) # binary logging is required for replication log-bin=mysql-bin # required unique id between 1 and 2^32 - 1 # defaults to 1 if master-host is not set # but will not function as a master if omitted server-id = 1 [mysqld_safe] open_files_limit=8192 [mysqldump] quick max_allowed_packet = 16M [mysql] no-auto-rehash # Remove the next comment character if you are not familiar with SQL #safe-updates [isamchk] key_buffer = 20M sort_buffer_size = 20M read_buffer = 2M write_buffer = 2M [myisamchk] key_buffer = 20M sort_buffer_size = 20M read_buffer = 2M write_buffer = 2M [mysqlhotcopy] interactive-timeout httpd.conf I have unselected many modules and recompiled using EasyApache in WHM. Only have the following modules built Deflate Expires Fileprotect Imagemap MPM Prefork Version [default] EAccelerator for PHP Bcmath Calendar CurlSSL [I'm using Curl. But I don't have any https sites] Expat GD [for image cropping] Gettext Imap Mbregex [default] Mbstring [need both Mbregex and Mbstring for utf-8] Mysql of the system MySQL "Improved" extension. Sockets TTF (FreeType) [I'm using custom font] Zlib Under Global Configuration I only have FollowSymLinks enabled I Have TraceEnable, ServerSignature, FileETag OFF ServerTokens ProductOnly DirectoryIndex Priority has index.php as the first one I have removed Clamd [Clam Anti-virus] SpamAssasin is Off Under Tweak Settings Default catch-all/default address behavior for new accounts. This is set to "fail" All stats programs turned off I have eAccelerator installed and checked in phpinfo and its working [Pre VirtualHost Include under WHM] Timeout 20 KeepAlive On MaxKeepAliveRequests 200 KeepAliveTimeout 3 MinSpareServers 1 MaxSpareServers 3 StartServers 1 ServerLimit 50 MaxClients 50 MaxRequestsPerChild 4000 ExtendedStatus Off #ServerType standalone this throws error HostnameLookups Off <Directory "/"> AllowOverride None </Directory> My sites will take ages to load and WHM/CPanel will not even load. adadaa.com/ http://adadaa.net/ kadais.ca/ My average memory consumption is like 1000 MB! [yes always bursting] The process that consumes most CPU and also most memory is mysql But I also get like 15 httpd processes [when its bursting] I already got warning from cpuwatchcheck saying "While processing, the cpu has been maxed out for more than a 6 hour period. The current load/uptime line on the server at the time of this email is 07:00:37 up 11:30, 0 users, load average: 14.64, 16.79, 20.07" I don't know, I have tried switching these config values many different times, but nothing seems to work. Please show some light... Thanks

    Read the article

  • Monitor randomly shutting down, computer accepting no input, need to restart to get working

    - by Sebastian Lamerichs
    First off, spec list: OS: Windows 7 Ultimate 64-bit SP1 CPU: i7-4820k @ 3.7GHz (stock) GPU: Two 3GB Radeon HD 7970s @ 1.05GHz Mobo: AsRock X79 Extreme6 HDD: 2TB Seagate Barracuda 7200rpm RAM: 16GB quad-channel Kingston 1600MHz PSU: Antec HCG 900W Monitors: Acer S220HQL 1920x1080 + ViewSonic VA2251 1920x1080. Plugged into different GPUs. My problem is that, on a daily-ish basis, my monitors will turn off and not turn back on. My computer will still be running, GPU/CPU/case fans all still going, but the monitors will not turn back on. Additionally, it seems to cease all network activity. It doesn't seem to log any errors at all. I've verified that this is not a monitor issue, as when I press the num/caps/scroll lock buttons on my keyboard, the lights don't change, so the computer is clearly not accepting input. I have noticed a few other people on the internet with this problem, and some have claimed that it was solved by disabling PCI-Express Link State Power Management, but the issue still occurs for me after this. Whilst my CPU and GPUs both run at 100% 24/7, the temperatures are certainly not at dangerous levels, with the CPU averaging 65°C and the GPUs at 70°C and 78°C average. All components are brand new. I have tried forcing MSI Afterburner to start when Windows starts and to force a constant voltage, as this fixed the issue for a few days for another user, but he reported back saying that it had stopped working properly again, so I'm not putting too much faith in this working. Many people have said to adjust display sleep mode settings, but this will clearly not work, as the keyboard lights would still work if the monitors were the issue. The closest I can get to a log file for this issue is the following Folding@Home logs: 14:45:21:WU01:FS00:0x17:Completed 1120000 out of 2000000 steps (56%) 14:46:43:WU00:FS01:0x17:Completed 480000 out of 2000000 steps (24%) 14:46:49:WU01:FS00:0x17:Completed 1140000 out of 2000000 steps (57%) 14:48:30:WU01:FS00:0x17:Completed 1160000 out of 2000000 steps (58%) 14:49:55:WU01:FS00:0x17:Completed 1180000 out of 2000000 steps (59%) As you can see, the second GPU (FS01) stops computation approximately three and a half minutes before the issue occurs (it should be completing 1% every 80-120 seconds), and the first GPU (FS00) continues for a few minutes more before the logs just end. As far as I can tell, the computer has a network failure at the time the first GPU stops working, the latest IRC message I received from this time was at 14:47:58. That being said, there could have just not been any messages between then and 14:50:00, so I'm going to be connecting a laptop to the same bouncer to double-check if it happens again. The GPUs functioned perfectly well in another computer for a significant period of time, so I'm fairly confident that they aren't the issue, which means that this is being caused by either software or the motherboard, or possibly RAM. I really hope it's software. I heard from a forum board that there was a patch from Microsoft that fixed this problem, but "I've forgot which KB it was or the google search terms I used to find the patch, LOL.", so that's not much help. Haven't seen it mentioned by anyone else on about a dozen threads about this issue either. The computer is plugged in via a surge-protected power board, and I've run several other computers and pieces of hardware through it with no issues, so that is not the cause. I have just set the hard disk to never turn off, although I don't believe that that will solve the issue. Strangely, this has only happened when I'm not at the computer (which is actually a minority of the time). Until today it had only happened when I had not been actively using the computer for 6 hours, but today it happened within 10-30 minutes of me last using the computer actively. I have enabled file logging from MSI Afterburner, so hopefully this will shed some light on the issue, but I'm not too optimistic. I've heard that it could be a motherboard problem, but I figured I should ask around before RMAing it. Any help?

    Read the article

  • My 3D Games crashing in these scenarios

    - by desaivv
    I have a situation here which I am unable to solve. I bought a PC last year March, here are my specs: Intel Core i3 550 @ 3GHz 4 GB RAM @400 MHz XFX GeForce 9500 GT graphics card 1GB @550MHz 500 GB HDD Lately as soon as I load my save game of Skyrim, it crashes. I have been playing Skyrim since I joined Gaming.SE site. Crashes as in the entire scene gets red lines. I can not ALT + TAB back or even CTRL + ALT + DEL either. My only recourse is a hard reset via the power button. Can not take a screen shot either. I have the latest Forceware 296.10 drivers also. This has been happening since the last 2 weeks. I always use Driver Sweeper to clean my old drivers, since that is what XFXForce recommends before installing new drivers. I installed MSI Afterburner lately to see my GPU temperature. My GPU is default, never over-clocked it. In MSI's Afterburner, I can not adjust fan speed. It is greyed out. Also in settings there is no fan tab. With normal Internet browsing it stays at 51 C. Ran Memtest86 over night with level 11. Took about 13 hours, but no errors in my RAM. I even re-installed my OS, with just the 296 drivers. The fan for the GPU does come on. I can play Diablo 2. I can not get past Warcraft 3's menu selection. There WAS some dust in my machine, but I always try and keep everything clean, since in my home town dust is an issue. Always keep cool my entire PC cabinet. My friend came with his functioning graphics card, we bought our PCs at the same time with exact same specifications. His card did not work either. Same problem with the scene freezing with red lines. I did do my research before posting here. That is how I was able to learn about MSI Afterburner, Driver Sweeper, SpeedFan etc. I followed posts on Tom's Hardware too regarding people that had similar problems. One person suggested and was followed by worked as well the suggestion to "Bake the card in an oven". Since I bought it, played Diablo 2 for months, Starcraft 2 campaign for months and Skyrim recently for months. Bought ME3 also. I am at my wits end. I do not know what else to do. I can go out and buy a card, but my friend's card did not work either. I can use the machine for Eclipse or VS2010 development just fine. Just not with 3D gaming. I originally posted this question on Gaming.SE But I was directed here. I have browsed the SU database for my problem and found this, this, and this. But none of these cover my question. My machine is only one year old. Can some experienced superuser(s) shed some light on this scenario? Is it a 3D graphics card problem? Will a brand new card work? What else can I try to pin point the problem? Can it be the Motherboard? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Silverlight 4 WCF RIA Services and MVVM is not as simple

    - by Thomas Jaskula
    [Disclaimer: I'm ASP.NET MVC Developer] Hi, I'm looking for some best practices with implementing MVVM pattern with WCF RIA in Silverlight 4. I'm not looking to use MEF of IoC for locating my ViewModels. What I would like to know is how to apply MVVM pattern with Silverlight 4 and WCF RIA. I don't want to use other stuff like Prism or MVVM Light toolkit. I found many examples on Internet showing how it is wonderful to drag and drop a datasource on the view and the job is done (it reminds me about my first VB6 developments). I tried to implement MVVM with WCF RIA and it's not strightforward at all. If I understand, the MVVM should contain all the logic in order to unit test it in isolation but when it comes to combine it with WCF RIA it's another story. I have the following questions. Can I use a generated metadata as model ? It would be easier to use it that if I write all from the scratch. As I saw the only way I could get data is through DomainContext or through direct binding in the view (local ressource). I don't want the direct binding in the view, not testable at all. On the other hand I can't use DomainContext, it doesn't expose any single entity !!! All I have is the EntitySet that I can bind to datagrid. How do I bind a single Entity to the DataForm from the ViewModel ? How do I udpate the model to the database ? How do I navigate from one Entity to a collection of it's itemps. For example if I have a Company Entity I would like to show a DataFrom to update a entite informations and a datagrid to show companies adresses. When saving a form would like to save information to Company and for example an information avout which adress was selected as active. Please help me understand how to do it well. Or maybe I should drop the WCF RIA and to do it with WCF from scratch ? What do you think ?

    Read the article

  • Convert IEnumerable to EntitySet

    - by Gregorius
    Hey all, Hoping somebody can shed some light, and perhaps a possible solution to this issue I'm having... I have used LINQ to SQL to pull some data from a database into local entities. They are products from a shopping cart system. A product can contain a collection of KitGroups (which are stored in an EntitySet (System.Data.Linq.EntitySet). KitGroups contain collections of KitItems, and KitItems can contain Nested Products (which link back up to the original Product type - so its recursive). From these entities I'm building XML using LINQ to XML - all good here - my XML looks beautiful, calling a "GenerateProductElement" function, which calls itself recursively to generate the nested products. Wonderful stuff. However, here's where i'm stuck.. i'm now trying to deserialize that XML back to the original objects (all autogenerated by Linq to SQL)... and herein lies the problem. Linq tO Sql expects my collections to be EntitySet collections, however Linq to Xml (which i'm tyring to use to deserailise) is returning IEnumerable. I've experimented with a few ways of casting between the 2, but nothing seems to work... I'm starting to think that I should just deserialise manually (with some funky loops and conditionals to determine which KitGroup KitItems belong to, etc)... however its really quite tricky and that code is likely to be quite ugly, so I'd love to find a more elegant solution to this problem. Any suggestions? Here's a code snippet: private Product GenerateProductFromXML(XDocument inDoc) { var prod = from p in inDoc.Descendants("Product") select new Product { ProductID = (int)p.Attribute("ID"), ProductGUID = (Guid)p.Attribute("GUID"), Name = (string)p.Element("Name"), Summary = (string)p.Element("Summary"), Description = (string)p.Element("Description"), SEName = (string)p.Element("SEName"), SETitle = (string)p.Element("SETitle"), XmlPackage = (string)p.Element("XmlPackage"), IsAKit = (byte)(int)p.Element("IsAKit"), ExtensionData = (string)p.Element("ExtensionData"), }; //TODO: UUGGGGGGG Converting b/w IEnumerable & EntitySet var kitGroups = (from kg in inDoc.Descendants("KitGroups").Elements("KitGroup") select new KitGroup { KitGroupID = (int) kg.Attribute("ID"), KitGroupGUID = (Guid) kg.Attribute("GUID"), Name = (string) kg.Element("Name"), KitItems = // THIS IS WHERE IT FAILS - "Cannot convert source type IEnumerable to target type EntitySet..." (from ki in kg.Descendants("KitItems").Elements("KitItem") select new KitItem { KitItemID = (int) ki.Attribute("ID"), KitItemGUID = (Guid) ki.Attribute("GUID") }); }); Product ImportedProduct = prod.First(); ImportedProduct.KitGroups = new EntitySet<KitGroup>(); ImportedProduct.KitGroups.AddRange(kitGroups); return ImportedProduct; }

    Read the article

  • How do I correctly Re-render a Recaptcha in ASP.NET MVC 2 after an AJAX POST

    - by Eoin Campbell
    Ok... I've downloaded and implemented this Recaptcha implementation for MVC which uses the ModelState to confirm the validity of the captcha control. It works brilliantly... except when I start to use it in an AJAX Form. In a nutshell, when a div is re-rendered with AJAX, the ReCaptcha that it should contain does not appear, even though the relevant <scripts> are in the source after the partial render. Code Below. using (Ajax.BeginForm("CreateComment", "Blog", new AjaxOptions() { HttpMethod = "POST", UpdateTargetId = "CommentAdd", OnComplete="ReloadRecaptcha", OnSuccess = "ShowComment", OnFailure = "ShowComment", OnBegin = "HideComment" })) {%> <fieldset class="comment"> <legend>Add New Comment</legend> <%= Html.ValidationSummary()%> <table class="postdetails"> <tbody> <tr> <td rowspan="3" id="blahCaptcha"> <%= Html.CreateRecaptcha("recaptcha", "blackglass") %> </td> .... Remainder of Form Omitted for Brevity I've confirmed the Form is perfectly functional when the Recaptcha Control is not present and the Javascript calls in the AjaxOptions are all working fine. The problem is that if the ModelState is Invalid as a result of the Recaptcha or some other validation, then the ActionResult returns the View to reshow the form. [RecaptchaFilter(IgnoreOnMobile = true)] [HttpPost] public ActionResult CreateComment(Comment c) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { try { //Code to insert Comment To DB return Content("Thank You"); } catch { ModelState.AddRuleViolations(c.GetRuleViolations()); } } else { ModelState.AddRuleViolations(c.GetRuleViolations()); } return View("CreateComment", c); } When it's InValid and the form posts back, for some reason the ReCaptcha Control does not re-render. I've checked the source and the <script> & <noscript> blocks are present in the HTML so the HTML Helper function below is obviously working <%= Html.CreateRecaptcha("recaptcha", "blackglass") %> I assume this has something to do with scripts injected into the DOM by AJAX are not re-executed. As you can see from the HTML snippet above, I've tried to add an OnComplete= javascript function to re-create the Captcha on the client side, but although the script executes with no errors, it doesn't work. OnComplete Function is. function ReloadRecaptcha() { Recaptcha.create("my-pub-key", 'blahCaptcha', { //blahCaptcha is the ID of the <td> where the ReCaptcha should go. theme: 'blackglass' }); } Can anyone shed any light on this ? Thanks, Eoin C

    Read the article

  • Using MVC2 to update an Entity Framework v4 object with foreign keys fails

    - by jbjon
    With the following simple relational database structure: An Order has one or more OrderItems, and each OrderItem has one OrderItemStatus. Entity Framework v4 is used to communicate with the database and entities have been generated from this schema. The Entities connection happens to be called EnumTestEntities in the example. The trimmed down version of the Order Repository class looks like this: public class OrderRepository { private EnumTestEntities entities = new EnumTestEntities(); // Query Methods public Order Get(int id) { return entities.Orders.SingleOrDefault(d => d.OrderID == id); } // Persistence public void Save() { entities.SaveChanges(); } } An MVC2 app uses Entity Framework models to drive the views. I'm using the EditorFor feature of MVC2 to drive the Edit view. When it comes to POSTing back any changes to the model, the following code is called: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(int id, FormCollection formValues) { // Get the current Order out of the database by ID Order order = orderRepository.Get(id); var orderItems = order.OrderItems; try { // Update the Order from the values posted from the View UpdateModel(order, ""); // Without the ValueProvider suffix it does not attempt to update the order items UpdateModel(order.OrderItems, "OrderItems.OrderItems"); // All the Save() does is call SaveChanges() on the database context orderRepository.Save(); return RedirectToAction("Details", new { id = order.OrderID }); } catch (Exception e) { return View(order); // Inserted while debugging } } The second call to UpdateModel has a ValueProvider suffix which matches the auto-generated HTML input name prefixes that MVC2 has generated for the foreign key collection of OrderItems within the View. The call to SaveChanges() on the database context after updating the OrderItems collection of an Order using UpdateModel generates the following exception: "The operation failed: The relationship could not be changed because one or more of the foreign-key properties is non-nullable. When a change is made to a relationship, the related foreign-key property is set to a null value. If the foreign-key does not support null values, a new relationship must be defined, the foreign-key property must be assigned another non-null value, or the unrelated object must be deleted." When debugging through this code, I can still see that the EntityKeys are not null and seem to be the same value as they should be. This still happens when you are not changing any of the extracted Order details from the database. Also the entity connection to the database doesn't change between the act of Getting and the SaveChanges so it doesn't appear to be a Context issue either. Any ideas what might be causing this problem? I know EF4 has done work on foreign key properties but can anyone shed any light on how to use EF4 and MVC2 to make things easy to update; rather than having to populate each property manually. I had hoped the simplicity of EditorFor and DisplayFor would also extend to Controllers updating data. Thanks

    Read the article

  • How to track deleted self-tracking entities in ObservableCollection without memory leaks

    - by Yannick M.
    In our multi-tier business application we have ObservableCollections of Self-Tracking Entities that are returned from service calls. The idea is we want to be able to get entities, add, update and remove them from the collection client side, and then send these changes to the server side, where they will be persisted to the database. Self-Tracking Entities, as their name might suggest, track their state themselves. When a new STE is created, it has the Added state, when you modify a property, it sets the Modified state, it can also have Deleted state but this state is not set when the entity is removed from an ObservableCollection (obviously). If you want this behavior you need to code it yourself. In my current implementation, when an entity is removed from the ObservableCollection, I keep it in a shadow collection, so that when the ObservableCollection is sent back to the server, I can send the deleted items along, so Entity Framework knows to delete them. Something along the lines of: protected IDictionary<int, IList> DeletedCollections = new Dictionary<int, IList>(); protected void SubscribeDeletionHandler<TEntity>(ObservableCollection<TEntity> collection) { var deletedEntities = new List<TEntity>(); DeletedCollections[collection.GetHashCode()] = deletedEntities; collection.CollectionChanged += (o, a) => { if (a.OldItems != null) { deletedEntities.AddRange(a.OldItems.Cast<TEntity>()); } }; } Now if the user decides to save his changes to the server, I can get the list of removed items, and send them along: ObservableCollection<Customer> customers = MyServiceProxy.GetCustomers(); customers.RemoveAt(0); MyServiceProxy.UpdateCustomers(customers); At this point the UpdateCustomers method will verify my shadow collection if any items were removed, and send them along to the server side. This approach works fine, until you start to think about the life-cycle these shadow collections. Basically, when the ObservableCollection is garbage collected there is no way of knowing that we need to remove the shadow collection from our dictionary. I came up with some complicated solution that basically does manual memory management in this case. I keep a WeakReference to the ObservableCollection and every few seconds I check to see if the reference is inactive, in which case I remove the shadow collection. But this seems like a terrible solution... I hope the collective genius of StackOverflow can shed light on a better solution. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Eclipse Galileo won't start after OS X update to 10.6.3

    - by GC
    Hi All, I have just updated os x to 10.6.3 and no Eclipse won't start the logs show the following error, but I can't figure it out. Can anyone shed any light? !SESSION 2010-03-30 10:06:38.244 ----------------------------------------------- eclipse.buildId=M20090917-0800 java.version=1.6.0_17 java.vendor=Apple Inc. BootLoader constants: OS=macosx, ARCH=x86, WS=cocoa, NL=en_US Framework arguments: -product org.eclipse.epp.package.php.product -keyring /Users/gav/.eclipse_keyring -showlocation Command-line arguments: -os macosx -ws cocoa -arch x86 -product org.eclipse.epp.package.php.product -keyring /Users/gav/.eclipse_keyring -showlocation !ENTRY org.eclipse.ui.workbench 2 0 2010-03-30 10:06:40.139 !MESSAGE A handler conflict occurred. This may disable some commands. !SUBENTRY 1 org.eclipse.ui.workbench 2 0 2010-03-30 10:06:40.139 !MESSAGE Conflict for 'com.aptana.ide.editors.views.actions.actionKeyCommand': HandlerActivation(commandId=com.aptana.ide.editors.views.actions.actionKeyCommand, handler=com.aptana.ide.editors.views.actions.ActionKeyCommandHandler, expression=,sourcePriority=0) HandlerActivation(commandId=com.aptana.ide.editors.views.actions.actionKeyCommand, handler=com.aptana.ide.editors.views.actions.ActionKeyCommandHandler, expression=,sourcePriority=0) !ENTRY org.eclipse.ui 4 0 2010-03-30 10:06:40.964 !MESSAGE Unhandled event loop exception !STACK 0 java.lang.NullPointerException at org.eclipse.swt.graphics.Device.getFontList(Device.java:369) at org.eclipse.jface.resource.FontRegistry.filterData(FontRegistry.java:465) at org.eclipse.jface.resource.FontRegistry.createFont(FontRegistry.java:499) at org.eclipse.jface.resource.FontRegistry.defaultFontRecord(FontRegistry.java:563) at org.eclipse.jface.resource.FontRegistry.defaultFontData(FontRegistry.java:575) at org.eclipse.jface.resource.FontRegistry.getFontData(FontRegistry.java:591) at org.eclipse.ui.internal.themes.ThemeElementHelper.installFont(ThemeElementHelper.java:116) at org.eclipse.ui.internal.themes.ThemeElementHelper.populateRegistry(ThemeElementHelper.java:59) at org.eclipse.ui.internal.Workbench$33.runWithException(Workbench.java:1482) at org.eclipse.ui.internal.StartupThreading$StartupRunnable.run(StartupThreading.java:31) at org.eclipse.swt.widgets.RunnableLock.run(RunnableLock.java:35) at org.eclipse.swt.widgets.Synchronizer.runAsyncMessages(Synchronizer.java:134) at org.eclipse.swt.widgets.Display.runAsyncMessages(Display.java:3405) at org.eclipse.swt.widgets.Display.readAndDispatch(Display.java:3102) at org.eclipse.ui.internal.Workbench.runUI(Workbench.java:2316) at org.eclipse.ui.internal.Workbench.access$4(Workbench.java:2221) at org.eclipse.ui.internal.Workbench$5.run(Workbench.java:500) at org.eclipse.core.databinding.observable.Realm.runWithDefault(Realm.java:332) at org.eclipse.ui.internal.Workbench.createAndRunWorkbench(Workbench.java:493) at org.eclipse.ui.PlatformUI.createAndRunWorkbench(PlatformUI.java:149) at org.eclipse.ui.internal.ide.application.IDEApplication.start(IDEApplication.java:113) at org.eclipse.equinox.internal.app.EclipseAppHandle.run(EclipseAppHandle.java:194) at org.eclipse.core.runtime.internal.adaptor.EclipseAppLauncher.runApplication(EclipseAppLauncher.java:110) at org.eclipse.core.runtime.internal.adaptor.EclipseAppLauncher.start(EclipseAppLauncher.java:79) at org.eclipse.core.runtime.adaptor.EclipseStarter.run(EclipseStarter.java:368) at org.eclipse.core.runtime.adaptor.EclipseStarter.run(EclipseStarter.java:179) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:597) at org.eclipse.equinox.launcher.Main.invokeFramework(Main.java:559) at org.eclipse.equinox.launcher.Main.basicRun(Main.java:514) at org.eclipse.equinox.launcher.Main.run(Main.java:1311) It looks like the update may have upgraded the Java version, possibly :S but I don't know if this can be rolled back even if it did update it. java version "1.6.0_17" Java(TM) SE Runtime Environment (build 1.6.0_17-b04-248-10M3025) Java HotSpot(TM) 64-Bit Server VM (build 14.3-b01-101, mixed mode) Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Resizing QT's QTextEdit to Match Text Height: maximumViewportSize()

    - by Aaron
    I am trying to use a QTextEdit widget inside of a form containing several QT widgets. The form itself sits inside a QScrollArea that is the central widget for a window. My intent is that any necessary scrolling will take place in the main QScrollArea (rather than inside any widgets), and any widgets inside will automatically resize their height to hold their contents. I have tried to implement the automatic resizing of height with a QTextEdit, but have run into an odd issue. I created a sub-class of QTextEdit and reimplemented sizeHint() like this: QSize OperationEditor::sizeHint() const { QSize sizehint = QTextBrowser::sizeHint(); sizehint.setHeight(this->fitted_height); return sizehint; } this-fitted_height is kept up-to-date via this slot that is wired to the QTextEdit's "contentsChanged()" signal: void OperationEditor::fitHeightToDocument() { this->document()->setTextWidth(this->viewport()->width()); QSize document_size(this->document()->size().toSize()); this->fitted_height = document_size.height(); this->updateGeometry(); } The size policy of the QTextEdit sub-class is: this->setSizePolicy(QSizePolicy::MinimumExpanding, QSizePolicy::Preferred); I took this approach after reading this post. Here is my problem: As the QTextEdit gradually resizes to fill the window, it stops getting larger and starts scrolling within the QTextEdit, no matter what height is returned from sizeHint(). If I initially have sizeHint() return some large constant number, then the QTextEdit is very big and is contained nicely within the outer QScrollArea, as one would expect. However, if sizeHint gradually adjusts the size of the QTextEdit rather than just making it really big to start, then it tops out when it fills the current window and starts scrolling instead of growing. I have traced this problem to be that, no matter what my sizeHint() returns, it will never resize the QTextEdit larger than the value returned from maximumViewportSize(), which is inherited from QAbstractScrollArea. Note that this is not the same number as viewport()-maximumSize(). I am unable to figure out how to set that value. Looking at QT's source code, maximumViewportSize() is returning "the size of the viewport as if the scroll bars had no valid scrolling range." This value is basically computed as the current size of the widget minus (2 * frameWidth + margins) plus any scrollbar widths/heights. This does not make a lot of sense to me, and it's not clear to me why that number would be used anywhere in a way that supercede's the sub-class's sizeHint() implementation. Also, it does seem odd that the single "frameWidth" integer is used in computing both the width and the height. Can anyone please shed some light on this? I suspect that my poor understanding of QT's layout engine is to blame here.

    Read the article

  • Revisiting .NET, but what should I focus on?

    - by Wayne M
    After about a two-year hiatus, I'm brushing up on my .NET skills to find a .NET job (my previous two positions have very little development, or development using legacy technologies, so apart from a few very minor apps I have not touched .NET in close to two years). I'm aware of things like ASP.NET MVC, and I have previously read on things like NHibernate and DI/IOC, albeit I have yet to use them apart from very trivial "Hello World" type applications. I have a subscription to Rob Conery's Tekpub website and occasionally watch these videos when I have free time. My concern is this: I don't live in a very technical area. I would be surprised if any but the most tech-savvy companies have heard of, let alone use, ASP.NET MVC, NHibernate (or even LINQ/EF), or know about IoC. I would be willing to bet a large sum of money that 95% of the possible jobs I could obtain will use the following: Visual Source Safe, if any VCS at all ASP.NET 2.0 Webforms (3.5 if lucky) Raw ADO.NET on top of a very thin implementation of the Gateway pattern Stored Procedures in the database for most CRUD operations Gratuitous use of code-behind, with a Service layer if I'm lucky If I were extremely lucky, I might find a shop that has heard of ORMs and either uses one, or has wrote their own data abstraction. Also if I were lucky, the company would be using Model-View-Presenter. In light of this I'm not sure what I should focus on learning. Personally, I would prefer to be using the latest stuff - ASP.NET MVC, NHibernate, jQuery, WCF etc. Reality says I should go back to the basics, since it looks like most potential opportunities aren't going to be anywhere near the cutting edge, or anywhere close to it. And, as much as I would like to find a position and start to show the other developers the benefits, in my past experience this has usually resulted in my being fired for "not being a team player" and doing things the bad old way. So, I am curious how you would approach a situation like this? What should I focus on, in order to A) Reaquaint myself with .NET, and B) Prepare myself to obtain a .NET job again that is more than likely going to use techniques that I and most other knowledgeable developers will scoff at?

    Read the article

  • Single Sign On for a Web App

    - by Jeremy Goodell
    I have been trying to understand how this problem is solved for over a month now. I really need to come up with a general approach that works -- I'm basically the only resource who can do it. I have a theory, but I'm just not sure it's the easiest (or correct) approach and I haven't been able to find any information to support my ideas. Here's the scenario: 1) You have a complex web application that offers secure content on a subscription basis. 2) Users are required to log in to your application with user name and password. 3) You sell to large corporations, which already have a corporate authentication technology (for example, Active Directory). 4) You would like to integrate with the corporate authentication mechanism to allow their users to log onto your Web App without having to enter their user name and password. Now, any solution you come up with will have to provide a mechanism for: adding new users removing users changing user information allowing users to log in Ideally, all these would happen "automagically" when the corporate customer made the corresponding changes to their own authentication. Now, I have a theory that the way to do this (at least for Active Directory) would be for me to write a client-side app that integrates with the customer's Active Directory to track the targeted changes, and then communicate those changes to my Web App. I think that if this communication were done via Web Services offered by my web app, then it would maintain an unhackable level of security, which would obviously be a requirement for these corporate customers. I've found some information about a Microsoft product called Active Directory Federation Service (ADFS) which may or may not be the right approach for me. It seems to be a bit bulky and have some requirements that might not work for all customers. For other existing ID scenarios (like Athens and Shibboleth), I don't think a client application is necessary. It's probably just a matter of tying into the existing ID services. I would appreciate any advice anyone has on anything I've mentioned here. In particular, if you can tell me if my theory is correct about providing a client-side app that communicates with server-side Web Services, or if I'm totally going in the wrong direction. Also, if you could point me at any web sites or articles that explain how to do this, I'd really appreciate it. My research has not turned up much so far. Finally, if you could let me know of any Web applications that currently offer this service (particularly as tied to a corporate Active Directory), I would be very grateful. I am wondering if other B2B Web app's like salesforce.com, or hoovers.com offer a similar service for their corporate customers. I hate being in the dark and would greatly appreciate any light you can shed ... Jeremy

    Read the article

  • How do I backup and restore the system clipboard in C#?

    - by gtaborga
    Hey everyone, I will do my best to explain in detail what I'm trying to achieve. I'm using C# with IntPtr window handles to perform a CTRL-C copy operation on an external application from my own C# application. I had to do this because there was no way of accessing the text directly using GET_TEXT. I'm then using the text content of that copy within my application. The problem here is that I have now overwritten the clipboard. What I would like to be able to do is: Backup the original contents of the clipboard which could have been set by any application other than my own. Then perform the copy and store the value into my application. Then restore the original contents of the clipboard so that the user still has access to his/her original clipboard data. This is the code I have tried so far: private void GetClipboardText() { text = ""; IDataObject backupClipboad = Clipboard.GetDataObject(); KeyboardInput input = new KeyboardInput(this); input.Copy(dialogHandle); // Performs a CTRL-C (copy) operation IDataObject clipboard = Clipboard.GetDataObject(); if (clipboard.GetDataPresent(DataFormats.Text)) { // Retrieves the text from the clipboard text = clipboard.GetData(DataFormats.Text) as string; } if (backupClipboad != null) { Clipboard.SetDataObject(backupClipboad, true); // throws exception } } I am using the System.Windows.Clipboard and not the System.Windows.Forms.Clipboard. The reason for this was that when I performed the CTRL-C, the Clipboard class from System.Windows.Forms did not return any data, but the system clipboard did. I looked into some of the low level user32 calls like OpenClipboard, EmptyClipboard, and CloseClipboard hoping that they would help my do this but so far I keep getting COM exceptions when trying to restore. I thought perhaps this had to do with the OpenClipboard parameter which is expecting an IntPtr window handle of the application which wants to take control of the clipboard. Since I mentioned that my application does not have a GUI this is a challenge. I wasn't sure what to pass here. Maybe someone can shed some light on that? Am I using the Clipboard class incorrectly? Is there a clear way to obtain the IntPtr window handle of an application with no GUI? Does anyone know of a better way to backup and restore the system clipboard?

    Read the article

  • Not your usual "The multi-part identifier could not be bound" error

    - by Eugene Niemand
    I have the following query, now the strange thing is if I run this query on my development and pre-prod server it runs fine. If I run it on production it fails. I have figured out that if I run just the Select statement its happy but as soon as I try insert into the table variable it complains. DECLARE @RESULTS TABLE ( [Parent] VARCHAR(255) ,[client] VARCHAR(255) ,[ComponentName] VARCHAR(255) ,[DealName] VARCHAR(255) ,[Purchase Date] DATETIME ,[Start Date] DATETIME ,[End Date] DATETIME ,[Value] INT ,[Currency] VARCHAR(255) ,[Brand] VARCHAR(255) ,[Business Unit] VARCHAR(255) ,[Region] VARCHAR(255) ,[DealID] INT ) INSERT INTO @RESULTS SELECT DISTINCT ClientName 'Parent' ,F.ClientID 'client' ,ComponentName ,A.DealName ,CONVERT(SMALLDATETIME , ISNULL(PurchaseDate , '1900-01-01')) 'Purchase Date' ,CONVERT(SMALLDATETIME , ISNULL(StartDate , '1900-01-01')) 'Start Date' ,CONVERT(SMALLDATETIME , ISNULL(EndDate , '1900-01-01')) 'End Date' ,DealValue 'Value' ,D.Currency 'Currency' ,ShortBrand 'Brand' ,G.BU 'Business Unit' ,C.DMRegion 'Region' ,DealID FROM LTCDB_admin_tbl_Deals A INNER JOIN dbo_DM_Brand B ON A.BrandID = B.ID INNER JOIN LTCDB_admin_tbl_DM_Region C ON A.Region = C.ID INNER JOIN LTCDB_admin_tbl_Currency D ON A.Currency = D.ID INNER JOIN LTCDB_admin_tbl_Deal_Clients E ON A.DealID = E.Deal_ID INNER JOIN LTCDB_admin_tbl_Clients F ON E.Client_ID = F.ClientID INNER JOIN LTCDB_admin_tbl_DM_BU G ON G.ID = A.BU INNER JOIN LTCDB_admin_tbl_Deal_Components H ON A.DealID = H.Deal_ID INNER JOIN LTCDB_admin_tbl_Components I ON I.ComponentID = H.Component_ID WHERE EndDate != '1899-12-30T00:00:00.000' AND StartDate < EndDate AND B.ID IN ( 1 , 2 , 5 , 6 , 7 , 8 , 10 , 12 ) AND C.SalesRegionID IN ( 1 , 3 , 4 , 11 , 16 ) AND A.BU IN ( 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 , 5 , 6 , 8 , 9 , 11 , 12 , 15 , 16 , 19 , 20 , 22 , 23 , 24 , 26 , 28 , 30 ) AND ClientID = 16128 SELECT ... FROM @Results I get the following error Msg 8180, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Statement(s) could not be prepared. Msg 4104, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 The multi-part identifier "Tbl1021.ComponentName" could not be bound. Msg 4104, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 The multi-part identifier "Tbl1011.Currency" could not be bound. Msg 207, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Invalid column name 'Col2454'. Msg 207, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Invalid column name 'Col2461'. Msg 207, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Invalid column name 'Col2491'. Msg 207, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Invalid column name 'Col2490'. Msg 207, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Invalid column name 'Col2482'. Msg 207, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Invalid column name 'Col2478'. Msg 207, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Invalid column name 'Col2477'. Msg 207, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Invalid column name 'Col2475'. EDIT - EDIT - EDIT - EDIT - EDIT - EDIT through a process of elimination I have found that following and wondered if anyone can shed some light on this. If I remove only the DISTINCT the query runs fine, add the DISTINCT and I get strange errors. Also I have found that if I comment the following lines then the query runs with the DISTINCT what is strange is that none of the columns in the table LTCDB_admin_tbl_Deal_Components is referenced so I don't see how the distinct will affect that. INNER JOIN LTCDB_admin_tbl_Deal_Components H ON A.DealID = H.Deal_ID

    Read the article

  • Jquery tools Overlay CSS Conflict, Image positioned under the overlay

    - by Ami Mahloof
    First here's what I'm usingh and trying to do: the minimal setup for this effect: flowplayer.org/tools/demos/overlay/index.html then the Apple Leopard Preview Effect: flowplayer.org/tools/demos/overlay/apple.html Now here's the page I'm having the issue with http://gentle-mist-64.heroku.com/pictures My Issue: when I click on an image the picture shows under the overlay and to the right side, This has to be a conflict between my CSS positioning to the the plugin positioning. when I try this on a blank page with no layout, it works just fine. my layout css: body{ background: url('/images/background.jpg'); } #image_stage{ position: relative; top: 30px; margin: auto; margin-top: 75px; background-color: white; width: 900px; height: 520px; } #image_inside_stage { float: left; margin-top: 7px; margin-left: 27px; } #logo{ position: absolute; left: 725px; top: 4px; } #see_through_box { position: absolute; background-color: black; opacity: 0.66; -moz-opacity: 0.66; filter:alpha(opacity=66); width: 665px; height: 432px; margin: 45px; z-index: 99; -moz-border-radius-topleft: 15px; -moz-border-radius-topright: 0; -moz-border-radius-bottomleft: 0; -moz-border-radius-bottomright: 15px; -webkit-border-top-left-radius: 15px; -webkit-border-top-right-radius: 0; -webkit-border-bottom-left-radius: 0; -webkit-border-bottom-right-radius: 15px; } .inner_content{ position: absolute; top: 75px; left: 75px; z-index: 99; color: whitesmoke; } Anyone Please Help, I want this plugin to work, this is so much better then just a light box plugin, I have used the plugin acros my entire website and would like to keep on using it. I Appreciate any input Thanks Ami

    Read the article

  • Handling Model Inheritance in ASP.NET MVC2 & NHibernate

    - by enth
    I've gotten myself stuck on how to handle inheritance in my model when it comes to my controllers/views. Basic Model: public class Procedure : Entity { public Procedure() { } public int Id { get; set; } public DateTime ProcedureDate { get; set; } public ProcedureType Type { get; set; } } public ProcedureA : Procedure { public double VariableA { get; set; } public int VariableB { get; set; } public int Total { get; set; } } public ProcedureB : Procedure { public int Score { get; set; } } etc... many of different procedures eventually. So, I do things like list all the procedures: public class ProcedureController : Controller { public virtual ActionResult List() { IEnumerable<Procedure> procedures = _repository.GetAll(); return View(procedures); } } but now I'm kinda stuck. Basically, from the list page, I need to link to pages where the specific subclass details can be viewed/edited and I'm not sure what the best strategy is. I thought I could add an action on the ProcedureController that would conjure up the right subclass by dynamically figuring out what repository to use and loading the subclass to pass to the view. I had to store the class in the ProcedureType object. I had to create/implement a non-generic IRepository since I can't dynamically cast to a generic one. public virtual ActionResult Details(int procedureID) { Procedure procedure = _repository.GetById(procedureID, false); string className = procedure.Type.Class; Type type = Type.GetType(className, true); Type repositoryType = typeof (IRepository<>).MakeGenericType(type); var repository = (IRepository)DependencyRegistrar.Resolve(repositoryType); Entity procedure = repository.GetById(procedureID, false); return View(procedure); } I haven't even started sorting out how the view is going to determine which partial to load to display the subclass details. I'm wondering if this is a good approach? This makes determining the URL easy. It makes reusing the Procedure display code easy. Another approach is specific controllers for each subclass. It simplifies the controller code, but also means many simple controllers for the many procedure subclasses. Can work out the shared Procedure details with a partial view. How to get to construct the URL to get to the controller/action in the first place? Time to not think about it. Hopefully someone can show me the light. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149  | Next Page >