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  • how to use SQL wildcard % with Queryset extra>select?

    - by tylias
    I'm trying to add weights to search terms I'm using to filter a queryset. Using the '%' wildcard is causing me some problems. I'm using the extra() modifier to add a weight parameter to the queryset, which I will be using to inform a sort ordering. (See http://docs.djangoproject.com/en/1.1/ref/models/querysets/#extra-select-none-where-none-params-none-tables-none-order-by-none-select-params-none ) Here's the gist of the code: def viewname(request) ... exact_matchstrings="" exact_matchstrings.append("(accountprofile.first_name LIKE '" + term + "')") exact_matchstrings.append("(accountprofile.first_name LIKE '" + term + '\%' + "')") extraquerystring = " + ".join(exact_matchstrings) return_queryset = return_queryset.extra( select = { 'match_weight': extraquerystring }, ) The effect I'm going for is that if the search term matches exactly, the weight associated with the record is 2, but if the term merely starts with the search term and isn't an exact match, the weight is 1. (for example, if 'term' = 'Jon', an entry with first_name='Jon' gets a weight of 2 but an entry with an entry with first_name = 'Jonathan' gets a weight of 1.) I can test the statement in SQL and it seems to work well enough. If I make this SQL query from the mysql shell, no problem: select (first_name like "Carl") + (first_name like "Car%") from accountprofile; But trying to run it via the extra() modifier in my view code and evaluating the resulting queryset gives me the following error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "<console>", line 1, in <module> File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/models/query.py", line 68, in __repr__ data = list(self[:REPR_OUTPUT_SIZE + 1]) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/models/query.py", line 83, in __len__ self._result_cache.extend(list(self._iter)) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/models/query.py", line 238, in iterator for row in self.query.results_iter(): File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/models/sql/query.py", line 287, in results_iter for rows in self.execute_sql(MULTI): File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/models/sql/query.py", line 2369, in execute_sql cursor.execute(sql, params) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/backends/util.py", line 22, in execute sql = self.db.ops.last_executed_query(self.cursor, sql, params) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/backends/__init__.py", line 217, in last_executed_query return smart_unicode(sql) % u_params ValueError: unsupported format character ''' (0x27) at index 309 I've tried it escaping and not escaping % wildcard but that doesn't solve the problem. Doesn't seem to affect it at all, really. Any ideas?

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  • DynamicMethod for ConstructorInfo.Invoke, what do I need to consider?

    - by Lasse V. Karlsen
    My question is this: If I'm going to build a DynamicMethod object, corresponding to a ConstructorInfo.Invoke call, what types of IL do I need to implement in order to cope with all (or most) types of arguments, when I can guarantee that the right type and number of arguments is going to be passed in before I make the call? Background I am on my 3rd iteration of my IoC container, and currently doing some profiling to figure out if there are any areas where I can easily shave off large amounts of time being used. One thing I noticed is that when resolving to a concrete type, ultimately I end up with a constructor being called, using ConstructorInfo.Invoke, passing in an array of arguments that I've worked out. What I noticed is that the invoke method has quite a bit of overhead, and I'm wondering if most of this is just different implementations of the same checks I do. For instance, due to the constructor matching code I have, to find a matching constructor for the predefined parameter names, types, and values that I have passed in, there's no way this particular invoke call will not end up with something it should be able to cope with, like the correct number of arguments, in the right order, of the right type, and with appropriate values. When doing a profiling session containing a million calls to my resolve method, and then replacing it with a DynamicMethod implementation that mimics the Invoke call, the profiling timings was like this: ConstructorInfo.Invoke: 1973ms DynamicMethod: 93ms This accounts for around 20% of the total runtime of this profiling application. In other words, by replacing the ConstructorInfo.Invoke call with a DynamicMethod that does the same, I am able to shave off 20% runtime when dealing with basic factory-scoped services (ie. all resolution calls end up with a constructor call). I think this is fairly substantial, and warrants a closer look at how much work it would be to build a stable DynamicMethod generator for constructors in this context. So, the dynamic method would take in an object array, and return the constructed object, and I already know the ConstructorInfo object in question. Therefore, it looks like the dynamic method would be made up of the following IL: l001: ldarg.0 ; the object array containing the arguments l002: ldc.i4.0 ; the index of the first argument l003: ldelem.ref ; get the value of the first argument l004: castclass T ; cast to the right type of argument (only if not "Object") (repeat l001-l004 for all parameters, l004 only for non-Object types, varying l002 constant from 0 and up for each index) l005: newobj ci ; call the constructor l006: ret Is there anything else I need to consider? Note that I'm aware that creating dynamic methods will probably not be available when running the application in "reduced access mode" (sometimes the brain just won't give up those terms), but in that case I can easily detect that and just calling the original constructor as before, with the overhead and all.

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  • Disable Autocommit in H2 with Hibernate/C3P0 ?

    - by HDave
    I have a JPA/Hibernate application and am trying to get it to run against H2 (as well as other databases). Currently I am using Atomikos for transaction and C3P0 for connection pooing. Despite my best efforts I am still seeing this in the log file (and DAO integration tests are failing): [20100613 23:06:34] DEBUG [main] SessionFactoryImpl.(242) | instantiating session factory with properties: .....edited for brevity.... hibernate.connection.autocommit=true, ....more stuff follows The connection URL to H2 has AUTOCOMMIT=OFF, but according to the H2 documentation: this will not work as expected when using a connection pool (the connection pool manager will re-enable autocommit when returning the connection to the pool, so autocommit will only be disabled the first time the connection is used So I figured (apparently correctly) that Hibernate is where I'll have to indicate I want autocommit off. I found the autocommit property documented here and I put it in my EntityManagerFactory config as follows: <bean id="myappTestLocalEmf" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean"> <property name="persistenceUnitName" value="myapp-core" /> <property name="persistenceUnitPostProcessors"> <bean class="com.myapp.core.persist.util.JtaPersistenceUnitPostProcessor"> <property name="jtaDataSource" ref="myappPersistTestJdbcDataSource" /> </bean> </property> <property name="jpaVendorAdapter"> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.vendor.HibernateJpaVendorAdapter"> <property name="showSql" value="true" /> <property name="database" value="$DS{hibernate.database}" /> <property name="databasePlatform" value="$DS{hibernate.dialect}" /> </bean> </property> <property name="jpaProperties"> <props> <prop key="hibernate.transaction.factory_class">com.atomikos.icatch.jta.hibernate3.AtomikosJTATransactionFactory</prop> <prop key="hibernate.transaction.manager_lookup_class">com.atomikos.icatch.jta.hibernate3.TransactionManagerLookup</prop> <prop key="hibernate.connection.autocommit">false</prop> <prop key="hibernate.format_sql">true"</prop> <prop key="hibernate.use_sql_comments">true</prop> </property> </bean>

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  • Infinite loop using Spring Security - Login page is protected even though it should allow anonymous

    - by Tai Squared
    I have a Spring application (Spring version 2.5.6.SEC01, Spring Security version 2.0.5) with the following setup: web.xml <welcome-file-list> <welcome-file> index.jsp </welcome-file> </welcome-file-list> The index.jsp page is in the WebContent directory and simply contains a redirect: <c:redirect url="/login.htm"/> In the appname-servlet.xml, there is a view resolver to point to the jsp pages in WEB-INF/jsp <bean id="viewResolver" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.InternalResourceViewResolver"> <property name="viewClass" value="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.JstlView" /> <property name="prefix" value="/WEB-INF/jsp/" /> <property name="suffix" value=".jsp" /> </bean> In the security-config.xml file, I have the following configuration: <http> <!-- Restrict URLs based on role --> <intercept-url pattern="/WEB-INF/jsp/login.jsp*" access="ROLE_ANONYMOUS" /> <intercept-url pattern="/WEB-INF/jsp/header.jsp*" access="ROLE_ANONYMOUS" /> <intercept-url pattern="/WEB-INF/jsp/footer.jsp*" access="ROLE_ANONYMOUS" /> <intercept-url pattern="/login*" access="ROLE_ANONYMOUS" /> <intercept-url pattern="/index.jsp" access="ROLE_ANONYMOUS" /> <intercept-url pattern="/logoutSuccess*" access="ROLE_ANONYMOUS" /> <intercept-url pattern="/css/**" filters="none" /> <intercept-url pattern="/images/**" filters="none" /> <intercept-url pattern="/**" access="ROLE_ANONYMOUS" /> <form-login login-page="/login.jsp"/> </http> <authentication-provider> <jdbc-user-service data-source-ref="dataSource" /> </authentication-provider> However, I can't even navigate to the login page and get the following error in the log: WARNING: The login page is being protected by the filter chain, but you don't appear to have anonymous authentication enabled. This is almost certainly an error. I've tried changing the ROLE_ANONYMOUS to IS_AUTHENTICATED_ANONYMOUSLY, changing the login-page to index.jsp, login.htm, and adding different intercept-url values, but I can't get it so the login page is accesible and security applies to the other pages. What do I have to change to avoid this loop?

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  • JNDI / Classpath problem in glassfish

    - by Michael Borgwardt
    I am in the process of converting a large J2EE app from EJB 2 to EJB 3 (all stateless session beans, using glassfish 2.1.1), and running out of ideas. The first EJB I converted (let's call it Foo) ran without major problems (it was the only one in its ejb-module and I could completely replace the deployment descriptor with annotations) and the app ran fine. But after converting the second one (let's call it Bar, one of several in a different ejb-module) there is a weird combination of problems: The app deploys without errors (nothing in the logs either) There is an error when looking up Bar via JNDI When looking at the JNDI tree in the glassfish admin console, Bar is not present at all. Then when I look at the logs, I see this (Foo is the correct name of the EJB's remote interface of the first converted, previously working EJB): Caused by: javax.naming.NamingException: ejb ref resolution error for remote business interface Foo [Root exception is java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: Foo] at com.sun.ejb.EJBUtils.lookupRemote30BusinessObject(EJBUtils.java:425) at com.sun.ejb.containers.RemoteBusinessObjectFactory.getObjectInstance(RemoteBusinessObjectFactory.java:74) at javax.naming.spi.NamingManager.getObjectInstance(NamingManager.java:304) at com.sun.enterprise.naming.SerialContext.lookup(SerialContext.java:414) at com.sun.enterprise.naming.SerialContext.list(SerialContext.java:603) at javax.naming.InitialContext.list(InitialContext.java:395) at com.sun.enterprise.admin.monitor.jndi.JndiMBeanHelper.getJndiEntriesByContextPath(JndiMBeanHelper.java:106) at com.sun.enterprise.admin.monitor.jndi.JndiMBeanImpl.getNames(JndiMBeanImpl.java:231) ... 68 more Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: XXX at org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.loadClass(WebappClassLoader.java:1578) at com.sun.ejb.EJBUtils.getBusinessIntfClassLoader(EJBUtils.java:679) at com.sun.ejb.EJBUtils.lookupRemote30BusinessObject(EJBUtils.java:348) ... 75 more This is followed by more exceptions for all the entries that (like Foo) do appear in the JNDI tree. These look like this: Caused by: javax.naming.NotContextException: BarHome cannot be listed at com.sun.enterprise.naming.SerialContext.list(SerialContext.java:607) at javax.naming.InitialContext.list(InitialContext.java:395) at com.sun.enterprise.admin.monitor.jndi.JndiMBeanHelper.getJndiEntriesByContextPath(JndiMBeanHelper.java:106) at com.sun.enterprise.admin.monitor.jndi.JndiMBeanImpl.getNames(JndiMBeanImpl.java:231) ... 68 more However, no exception for Bar, it does not appear in the log at all except one entry during deployment. The other EJBs in the same module do appear, as does Foo. Any ideas what could cause this or how to diagnose it further? The beans are pretty straightforward: @Stateless(name = "Foo") @RolesAllowed("FOOUSER") @TransactionAttribute(TransactionAttributeType.SUPPORTS) public class FooImpl extends BaseBean implements Foo { I'm also having some problems with the deployment descriptor for Bar (I'd like to eliminate it, but glassfish doesn't seem to like having a bean appear only in sun-ejb-jar.xml, or having some beans in a module declared in the descriptor and others use only annotations), but I can't see how that could cause the ClassNotFoundException on Foo. Is there a way to see the ClassPath that Glassfish is actually using?

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  • Disable Autocommit with Spring/Hibernate/C3P0/Atomikos ?

    - by HDave
    I have a JPA/Hibernate application and am trying to get it to run against H2 and MySQL. Currently I am using Atomikos for transactions and C3P0 for connection pooling. Despite my best efforts I am still seeing this in the log file (and DAO integration tests are failing with org.hibernate.NonUniqueObjectException even though Spring Test should be rolling back the database after each test method): [20100613 23:06:34] DEBUG [main] SessionFactoryImpl.(242) | instantiating session factory with properties: .....edited for brevity.... hibernate.connection.autocommit=true, ....more stuff follows The connection URL to H2 has AUTOCOMMIT=OFF, but according to the H2 documentation: this will not work as expected when using a connection pool (the connection pool manager will re-enable autocommit when returning the connection to the pool, so autocommit will only be disabled the first time the connection is used So I figured (apparently correctly) that Hibernate is where I'll have to indicate I want autocommit off. I found the autocommit property documented here and I put it in my EntityManagerFactory config as follows: <bean id="myappTestLocalEmf" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean"> <property name="persistenceUnitName" value="myapp-core" /> <property name="persistenceUnitPostProcessors"> <bean class="com.myapp.core.persist.util.JtaPersistenceUnitPostProcessor"> <property name="jtaDataSource" ref="myappPersistTestJdbcDataSource" /> </bean> </property> <property name="jpaVendorAdapter"> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.vendor.HibernateJpaVendorAdapter"> <property name="showSql" value="true" /> <property name="database" value="$DS{hibernate.database}" /> <property name="databasePlatform" value="$DS{hibernate.dialect}" /> </bean> </property> <property name="jpaProperties"> <props> <prop key="hibernate.transaction.factory_class">com.atomikos.icatch.jta.hibernate3.AtomikosJTATransactionFactory</prop> <prop key="hibernate.transaction.manager_lookup_class">com.atomikos.icatch.jta.hibernate3.TransactionManagerLookup</prop> <prop key="hibernate.connection.autocommit">false</prop> <prop key="hibernate.format_sql">true"</prop> <prop key="hibernate.use_sql_comments">true</prop> </property> </bean>

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  • Windows Service Hosting WCF Objects over SSL (https) - Custom JSON Error Handling Doesn't Work

    - by bpatrick100
    I will first show the code that works in a non-ssl (http) environment. This code uses a custom json error handler, and all errors thrown, do get bubbled up to the client javascript (ajax). // Create webservice endpoint WebHttpBinding binding = new WebHttpBinding(); ServiceEndpoint serviceEndPoint = new ServiceEndpoint(ContractDescription.GetContract(Type.GetType(svcHost.serviceContract + ", " + svcHost.assemblyName)), binding, new EndpointAddress(svcHost.hostUrl)); // Add exception handler serviceEndPoint.Behaviors.Add(new FaultingWebHttpBehavior()); // Create host and add webservice endpoint WebServiceHost webServiceHost = new WebServiceHost(svcHost.obj, new Uri(svcHost.hostUrl)); webServiceHost.Description.Endpoints.Add(serviceEndPoint); webServiceHost.Open(); I'll also show you what the FaultingWebHttpBehavior class looks like: public class FaultingWebHttpBehavior : WebHttpBehavior { public FaultingWebHttpBehavior() { } protected override void AddServerErrorHandlers(ServiceEndpoint endpoint, EndpointDispatcher endpointDispatcher) { endpointDispatcher.ChannelDispatcher.ErrorHandlers.Clear(); endpointDispatcher.ChannelDispatcher.ErrorHandlers.Add(new ErrorHandler()); } public class ErrorHandler : IErrorHandler { public bool HandleError(Exception error) { return true; } public void ProvideFault(Exception error, MessageVersion version, ref Message fault) { // Build an object to return a json serialized exception GeneralFault generalFault = new GeneralFault(); generalFault.BaseType = "Exception"; generalFault.Type = error.GetType().ToString(); generalFault.Message = error.Message; // Create the fault object to return to the client fault = Message.CreateMessage(version, "", generalFault, new DataContractJsonSerializer(typeof(GeneralFault))); WebBodyFormatMessageProperty wbf = new WebBodyFormatMessageProperty(WebContentFormat.Json); fault.Properties.Add(WebBodyFormatMessageProperty.Name, wbf); } } } [DataContract] public class GeneralFault { [DataMember] public string BaseType; [DataMember] public string Type; [DataMember] public string Message; } The AddServerErrorHandlers() method gets called automatically, once webServiceHost.Open() gets called. This sets up the custom json error handler, and life is good :-) The problem comes, when we switch to and SSL (https) environment. I'll now show you endpoint creation code for SSL: // Create webservice endpoint WebHttpBinding binding = new WebHttpBinding(); ServiceEndpoint serviceEndPoint = new ServiceEndpoint(ContractDescription.GetContract(Type.GetType(svcHost.serviceContract + ", " + svcHost.assemblyName)), binding, new EndpointAddress(svcHost.hostUrl)); // This exception handler code below (FaultingWebHttpBehavior) doesn't work with SSL communication for some reason, need to resarch... // Add exception handler serviceEndPoint.Behaviors.Add(new FaultingWebHttpBehavior()); //Add Https Endpoint WebServiceHost webServiceHost = new WebServiceHost(svcHost.obj, new Uri(svcHost.hostUrl)); binding.Security.Mode = WebHttpSecurityMode.Transport; binding.Security.Transport.ClientCredentialType = HttpClientCredentialType.None; webServiceHost.AddServiceEndpoint(svcHost.serviceContract, binding, string.Empty); Now, with this SSL endpoint code, the service starts up correctly, and wcf hosted objects can be communicated with just fine via client javascript. However, the custom error handler doesn't work. The reason is, the AddServerErrorHandlers() method never gets called when webServiceHost.Open() is run. So, can anyone tell me what is wrong with this picture? And why, is AddServerErrorHandlers() not getting called automatically, like it does when I'm using non-ssl endpoints? Thanks!

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  • Project References DLL version hell

    - by Mr Shoubs
    We're having problems getting visual studio to pick up the latest version of a DLL from one of our projects. We have multiple class library projects (e.g. BusinessLogic, ReportData) and a number of web services, each has a reference to a Connectivity DLL we've written (this ref to the connectivity DLL is the problem). We always point references to the DLL in the bin/debug folder, (which is where we always build to for any given project) and all custom DLL references have CopyLocal = True and SpecificVersion = False ReportData has a reference to business logic (which also has a reference to connectivity - I don't see why this should cause a problem, but thought it is worth mentioning) The weird thing is, when you click "Add Reference" and browse to Connectivity/bin/debug - you hover the mouse over the DLL file, the correct (latest) version is shown (version and file version are always incremented together), but when you click ok, a previous version number is pulled though. Even when I look in the current projects debug folder (where copy local would put the DLL after compiling) that shows the latest version number. - NO WHERE does can I find the previous version of the DLL outside of visual studio, but in that project references it has the old version - even though the path is correct. I'm at a loss as to where it might be getting the old versions from. Or even why it wants that one. This is possibly the most frustraighting problem I have ever come across. Does anyone know how to ensure the latest version is pulled through (preferably automatically or on compile). EDIT: Although not exactly the scenario I'm dealing with I was reading this article and somewhere it mentions about CLR ignoring revision numbers. Understandable (even though this hasn't been a problem before - we're on revision 39), so I thought I would update the build number, still didn't work. In a vain attempt I though I would update the minor version number and see if that made any difference. I'm not saying this is the answer as I have to check quite a few things first, but on the face of it, this seems to have solved my problem... Further edit: In other class libraries this seems to have solved the problem, however in a test windows application it still pulls a previous version through :( If I increment the minor version number again, the same problem come back and I am left with the wrong version being pulled though. Further Edit - I created an entirly new project, added a reference and still had the exact same problem. This suggests the problem is restriced to the project I am referencing. Wish I knew why! Anyone had this problem before and know how to get around it? HELP!

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  • How can I close a Window using the OS-X ScriptingBridge framework, from Perl?

    - by Gavin Brock
    Problem... Since MacPerl is no longer supported on 64bit perl, I am trying alternative frameworks to control Terminal.app. I am trying the ScriptingBridge, but have run into a problem passing an enumerated string to the closeSaving method using the PerlObjCBridge. I want to call: typedef enum { TerminalSaveOptionsYes = 'yes ' /* Save the file. */, TerminalSaveOptionsNo = 'no ' /* Do not save the file. */, TerminalSaveOptionsAsk = 'ask ' /* Ask the user whether or not to save the file. */ } TerminalSaveOptions; - (void) closeSaving:(TerminalSaveOptions)saving savingIn:(NSURL *)savingIn; // Close a document. Attempted Solution... I have tried: #!/usr/bin/perl use strict; use warnings; use Foundation; # Load the ScriptingBridge framework NSBundle->bundleWithPath_('/System/Library/Frameworks/ScriptingBridge.framework')->load; @SBApplication::ISA = qw(PerlObjCBridge); # Set up scripting bridge for Terminal.app my $terminal = SBApplication->applicationWithBundleIdentifier_("com.apple.terminal"); # Open a new window, get back the tab my $tab = $terminal->doScript_in_('exec sleep 60', undef); warn "Opened tty: ".$tab->tty->UTF8String; # Yes, it is a tab # Now try to close it # Simple idea eval { $tab->closeSaving_savingIn_('no ', undef) }; warn $@ if $@; # Try passing a string ref my $no = 'no '; eval { $tab->closeSaving_savingIn_(\$no, undef) }; warn $@ if $@; # Ok - get a pointer to the string my $pointer = pack("P4", $no); eval { $tab->closeSaving_savingIn_($pointer, undef) }; warn $@ if $@; eval { $tab->closeSaving_savingIn_(\$pointer, undef) }; warn $@ if $@; # Try a pointer decodes as an int, like PerlObjCBridge uses my $int_pointer = unpack("L!", $pointer); eval { $tab->closeSaving_savingIn_($int_pointer, undef) }; warn $@ if $@; eval { $tab->closeSaving_savingIn_(\$int_pointer, undef) }; warn $@ if $@; # Aaarrgghhhh.... As you can see, all my guesses at how to pass the enumerated string fail. Before you flame me... I know that I could use another language (ruby, python, cocoa) to do this but that would require translating the rest of the code. I might be able to use CamelBones, but I don't want to assume my users have it installed. I could also use the NSAppleScript framework (assuming I went to the trouble of finding the Tab and Window IDs) but it seems odd to have to resort to it for just this one call.

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  • Spring <jee:remote-slsb> and JBoss AS7 - No EJB receiver available for handling

    - by Lech Glowiak
    I have got @Remote EJB on JBoss AS 7, available by name java:global/RandomEjb/DefaultRemoteRandom!pl.lechglowiak.ejbTest.RemoteRandom. Standalone client is Spring application that uses <jee:remote-slsb> bean. When trying to use that bean I get java.lang.IllegalStateException: EJBCLIENT000025: No EJB receiver available for handling [appName:, moduleName:RandomEjb, distinctName:] combination for invocation context org.jboss.ejb.client.EJBClientInvocationContext@1a89031. Here is relevant part of applicationContext.xml: <jee:remote-slsb id="remoteRandom" jndi-name="RandomEjb/DefaultRemoteRandom!pl.lechglowiak.ejbTest.RemoteRandom" business-interface="pl.lechglowiak.ejbTest.RemoteRandom" <jee:environment> java.naming.factory.initial=org.jboss.naming.remote.client.InitialContextFactory java.naming.provider.url=remote://localhost:4447 jboss.naming.client.ejb.context=true java.naming.security.principal=testuser java.naming.security.credentials=testpassword </jee:environment> </jee:remote-slsb> <bean id="remoteClient" class="pl.lechglowiak.RemoteClient"> <property name="remote" ref="remoteRandom" /> </bean> RemoteClient.java public class RemoteClient { private RemoteRandom random; public void setRemote(RemoteRandom random){ this.random = random; } public Integer callRandom(){ try { return random.getRandom(100); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); return null; } } } My jboss client jar: org.jboss.as jboss-as-ejb-client-bom 7.1.2.Final pom pl.lechglowiak.ejbTest.RemoteRandom is available for client application classpath. jndi.properties contains exact properties as in <jee:environment> of <jee:remote-slsb>. Such code runs without exception: Context ctx2 = new InitialContext(); RemoteRandom rr = (RemoteRandom) ctx2.lookup("RandomEjb/DefaultRemoteRandom!pl.lechglowiak.ejbTest.RemoteRandom"); System.out.println(rr.getRandom(10000)); But this: ApplicationContext ctx = new ClassPathXmlApplicationContext("applicationContext.xml"); RemoteClient client = ctx.getBean("remoteClient", RemoteClient.class); System.out.println(client.callRandom()); ends with exception: java.lang.IllegalStateException: EJBCLIENT000025: No EJB receiver available for handling [appName:, moduleName:RandomEjb, distinctName:] combination for invocation context org.jboss.ejb.client.EJBClientInvocationContext@1a89031. jboss.naming.client.ejb.context=true is set. Do you have any idea what am I setting wrong in <jee:remote-slsb>?

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  • Implementing EAV pattern with Hibernate for User -> Settings relationship

    - by Trevor
    I'm trying to setup a simple EAV pattern in my web app using Java/Spring MVC and Hibernate. I can't seem to figure out the magic behind the hibernate XML setup for this scenario. My database table "SETUP" has three columns: user_id (FK) setup_item setup_value The database composite key is made up of user_id | setup_item Here's the Setup.java class: public class Setup implements CommonFormElements, Serializable { private Map data = new HashMap(); private String saveAction; private Integer speciesNamingList; private User user; Logger log = LoggerFactory.getLogger(Setup.class); public String getSaveAction() { return saveAction; } public void setSaveAction(String action) { this.saveAction = action; } public User getUser() { return user; } public void setUser(User user) { this.user = user; } public Integer getSpeciesNamingList() { return speciesNamingList; } public void setSpeciesNamingList(Integer speciesNamingList) { this.speciesNamingList = speciesNamingList; } public Map getData() { return data; } public void setData(Map data) { this.data = data; } } My problem with the Hibernate setup, is that I can't seem to figure out how to map out the fact that a foreign key and the key of a map will construct the composite key of the table... this is due to a lack of experience using Hibernate. Here's my initial attempt at getting this to work: <composite-id> <key-many-to-one foreign-key="id" name="user" column="user_id" class="Business.User"> <meta attribute="use-in-equals">true</meta> </key-many-to-one> </composite-id> <map lazy="false" name="data" table="setup"> <key column="user_id" property-ref="user"/> <composite-map-key class="Command.Setup"> <key-property name="data" column="setup_item" type="string"/> </composite-map-key> <element column="setup_value" not-null="true" type="string"/> </map> Any insight into how to properly map this common scenario would be most appreciated!

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  • How to configure maximum number of transport channels in WCF using basicHttpBinding?

    - by Hemant
    Consider following code which is essentially a WCF host: [ServiceContract (Namespace = "http://www.mightycalc.com")] interface ICalculator { [OperationContract] int Add (int aNum1, int aNum2); } [ServiceBehavior (InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.PerCall)] class Calculator: ICalculator { public int Add (int aNum1, int aNum2) { Thread.Sleep (2000); //Simulate a lengthy operation return aNum1 + aNum2; } } class Program { static void Main (string[] args) { try { using (var serviceHost = new ServiceHost (typeof (Calculator))) { var httpBinding = new BasicHttpBinding (BasicHttpSecurityMode.None); serviceHost.AddServiceEndpoint (typeof (ICalculator), httpBinding, "http://172.16.9.191:2221/calc"); serviceHost.Open (); Console.WriteLine ("Service is running. ENJOY!!!"); Console.WriteLine ("Type 'stop' and hit enter to stop the service."); Console.ReadLine (); if (serviceHost.State == CommunicationState.Opened) serviceHost.Close (); } } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine (e); Console.ReadLine (); } } } Also the WCF client program is: class Program { static int COUNT = 0; static Timer timer = null; static void Main (string[] args) { var threads = new Thread[10]; for (int i = 0; i < threads.Length; i++) { threads[i] = new Thread (Calculate); threads[i].Start (null); } timer = new Timer (o => Console.WriteLine ("Count: {0}", COUNT), null, 1000, 1000); Console.ReadLine (); timer.Dispose (); } static void Calculate (object state) { var c = new CalculatorClient ("BasicHttpBinding_ICalculator"); c.Open (); while (true) { try { var sum = c.Add (2, 3); Interlocked.Increment (ref COUNT); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.WriteLine ("Error on thread {0}: {1}", Thread.CurrentThread.Name, ex.GetType ()); break; } } c.Close (); } } Basically, I am creating 10 proxy clients and then repeatedly calling Add service method. Now if I run both applications and observe opened TCP connections using netstat, I find that: If both client and server are running on same machine, number of tcp connections are equal to number of proxy objects. It means all requests are being served in parallel. Which is good. If I run server on a separate machine, I observed that maximum 2 TCP connections are opened regardless of the number of proxy objects I create. Only 2 requests run in parallel. It hurts the processing speed badly. If I switch to net.tcp binding, everything works fine (a separate TCP connection for each proxy object even if they are running on different machines). I am very confused and unable to make the basicHttpBinding use more TCP connections. I know it is a long question, but please help!

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  • ASP.NET MVC, Webform hybrid

    - by Greg Ogle
    We (me and my team) have a ASP.NET MVC application and we are integrating a page or two that are Web Forms. We are trying to reuse the Master Page from our MVC part of the app in the WebForms part. We have found a way of rendering an MVC partial view in web forms, which works great, until we try and do a postback, which is the reason for using a WebForm. The Error: Validation of viewstate MAC failed. If this application is hosted by a Web Farm or cluster, ensure that configuration specifies the same validationKey and validation algorithm. AutoGenerate cannot be used in a cluster. The Code to render the partial view from a WebForm (credited to "How to include a partial view inside a webform"): public static class WebFormMVCUtil { public static void RenderPartial(string partialName, object model) { //get a wrapper for the legacy WebForm context var httpCtx = new HttpContextWrapper(System.Web.HttpContext.Current); //create a mock route that points to the empty controller var rt = new RouteData(); rt.Values.Add("controller", "WebFormController"); //create a controller context for the route and http context var ctx = new ControllerContext( new RequestContext(httpCtx, rt), new WebFormController()); //find the partial view using the viewengine var view = ViewEngines.Engines.FindPartialView(ctx, partialName).View; //create a view context and assign the model var vctx = new ViewContext(ctx, view, new ViewDataDictionary { Model = model }, new TempDataDictionary()); //ERROR OCCURS ON THIS LINE view.Render(vctx, System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Response.Output); } } My only experience with this error is in context of a web farm, which is not the case. Also, I understand that the machine key is used for decrypting the ViewState. Any information on how to diagnose this issue would be appreciated. A Work-around: So far the work-around is to move the header content to a PartialView, then use an AJAX call to call a page with just the Partial View from the WebForms, and then using the PartialView directly on the MVC Views. Also, we are still able to share non-tech-specific parts of the Master Page, i.e. anything that is not MVC specific. Still yet, this is not an ideal solution, a server-side solution is still desired. Also, this solutino has issues when working with controls that have more sophisticated controls, using JavaScript, particularly dynamically generated script as used by 3rd party controls.

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  • Determine the 'Overtype' mode using Javascript

    - by Snorkpete
    We are creating a web app to replace an old-school green-screen application. In the green-screen app, as the user presses the Insert key to switch between overtype and insert modes, the cursor changes to indicate which input mode the user is currently in. In IE (which is the official browser of the company), overtype mode also works, but there's no visual indication as to whether overtype mode is on or not, until the user starts typing and possibly over-writes existing information unexpectedly. I'd like to put some sort of visual indicator on the screen if in overtype mode. How can you determine if the browser is in 'overtype mode' from Javascript? Is there some property or function i can query to determine if the browser is in overtype mode? Even an IE-specific solution would be helpful, since our corporate policy dictates the browser to use as IE7 (pure torture, btw). (I do know that one solution is to do check for key presses of the Insert key. However, it's a solution that I'd prefer to avoid since that method seems a bit flaky & error-prone because I can't guarantee what mode the user would be in BEFORE he/she hits my page. ) The reasoning behind this question: The functionality of this portion of the green-screen app is such that the user can select from a list of 'preformatted bodies of text'. crude eg. The excess for this policy is: $xxxxxx and max limit is:$xxxxxx Date of policy is: xx/xx/xxxx and expires : xx/xx/xxxx Some other irrelevant text After selecting this 'preformatted text', the user would then use overtype to replace the x's with actual values, without disturbing the alignment of the rest of the text. (To be clear, they can still edit any part of the 'preformatted text' if they so wished. It's just that usually, they just wish to replace specific portions of the text. Keeping the alignment is important since these sections of text can end up on printed documents.) Of course, the same effect can be achieved by just selecting the x's to replace first, but it would be helpful (with respect to easing the transition to the web app) to allow old methods of doing things to continue to work, while still allowing 'web methods' to be used by the more tech-savvy users. Essentially, we're trying to make the initial transition from the green-screen app to the web app be as seemless as possible to minimise the resistance from the long-time green-screeners.

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  • Web Safe Area (optimal resolution) for web app design

    - by M.A.X
    I'm in the process of designing a new web app and I'm wondering for what 'web safe area' should I optimize the app layout and design. I did some investigation and thinking on my own but wanted to share this to see what the general opinion is. Here is what I found: Optimal Display Resolution: w3schools web stats seems to be the most referenced source (however they state that these are results from their site and is biased towards tech savvy users) http://www.w3counter.com/globalstats.php (aggregate data from something like 15,000 different sites that use their tracking services) StatCounter Global Stats Display Resolution (Stats are based on aggregate data collected by StatCounter on a sample exceeding 15 billion pageviews per month collected from across the StatCounter network of more than 3 million websites) NetMarketShare Screen Resolutions (marketshare.hitslink.com) (a web analytics consulting firm, they get data from browsers of site visitors to their on-demand network of live stats customers. The data is compiled from approximately 160 million visitors per month) Display Resolution Summary: There is a bit of variation between the above sources but in general as of Jan 2011 looks like 1024x768 is about 20%, while ~85% have a higher resolution of at least 1280x768 (1280x800 is the most common of these with 15-20% of total web, depending on the source; 1280x1024 and 1366x768 follow behind with 9-14% of the share). My guess would be that the higher resolution values will be even more common if we filter on North America, and even higher if we filter on N.American corporate users (unfortunately I couldn't find any free geographically filtered statistics). Another point to note is that the 1024x768 desktop user population is likely lower than the aforementioned 20%, seeing as the iPad (1024x768 native display) is likely propping up those number. My recommendation would be to optimize around the 1280x768 constraint (*note: 1280x768 is actually a relatively rare resolution, but I think it's a valid constraint range considering that 1366x768 is relatively common and 1280 is the most common horizontal resolution). Browser + OS Constraints: To further add to the constraints we have to subtract the space taken up by the browser (assuming IE, which is the most space consuming) and the OS (assuming WinXP-Win7): Win7 has the biggest taskbar footprint at a height of 40px (XP's and Vista's is 30px) The default IE8 view uses up 25px at the bottom of the screen with the status bar and a further 120px at the top of the screen with the windows title bar and the browser UI (assuming the default 'favorites' toolbar is present, it would instead be 91px without the favorites toolbar). Assuming no scrollbar, we also loose a total of 4px horizontally for the window outline. This means that we are left with 583px of vertical space and 1276px of horizontal. In other words, a Web Safe Area of 1276 x 583 Is this a correct line of thinking? I tried to Google some design best practices but most still talk about designing around 1024x768 which seems to be quickly disappearing. Any help on this would be greatly appreciated! Thanks.

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  • How to implement login page using Spring Security so that it works with Spring web flow?

    - by simon
    I have a web application using Spring 2.5.6 and Spring Security 2.0.4. I have implemented a working login page, which authenticates the user against a web service. The authentication is done by defining a custom authentincation manager, like this: <beans:bean id="customizedFormLoginFilter" class="org.springframework.security.ui.webapp.AuthenticationProcessingFilter"> <custom-filter position="AUTHENTICATION_PROCESSING_FILTER" /> <beans:property name="defaultTargetUrl" value="/index.do" /> <beans:property name="authenticationFailureUrl" value="/login.do?error=true" /> <beans:property name="authenticationManager" ref="customAuthenticationManager" /> <beans:property name="allowSessionCreation" value="true" /> </beans:bean> <beans:bean id="customAuthenticationManager" class="com.sevenp.mobile.samplemgmt.web.security.CustomAuthenticationManager"> <beans:property name="authenticateUrlWs" value="${WS_ENDPOINT_ADDRESS}" /> </beans:bean> The authentication manager class: public class CustomAuthenticationManager implements AuthenticationManager, ApplicationContextAware { @Transactional @Override public Authentication authenticate(Authentication authentication) throws AuthenticationException { //authentication logic return new UsernamePasswordAuthenticationToken(principal, authentication.getCredentials(), grantedAuthorityArray); } The essential part of the login jsp looks like this: <c:url value="/j_spring_security_check" var="formUrlSecurityCheck"/> <form method="post" action="${formUrlSecurityCheck}"> <div id="errorArea" class="errorBox"> <c:if test="${not empty param.error}"> ${sessionScope["SPRING_SECURITY_LAST_EXCEPTION"].message} </c:if> </div> <label for="loginName"> Username: <input style="width:125px;" tabindex="1" id="login" name="j_username" /> </label> <label for="password"> Password: <input style="width:125px;" tabindex="2" id="password" name="j_password" type="password" /> </label> <input type="submit" tabindex="3" name="login" class="formButton" value="Login" /> </form> Now the problem is that the application should use Spring Web Flow. After the application was configured to use Spring Web Flow, the login does not work anymore - the form action to "/j_spring_security_check" results in a blank page without error message. What is the best way to adapt the existing login process so that it works with Spring Web Flow?

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  • How do I reward my developers for the little things they get right?

    - by Nat
    I am in a tech lead role and my developers get stuff right most of the time. How do I communicate to them thier value to me? (I.e. they have value because I do not have to go through and point out mistakes which means I do not have to watch them like a hawk which frees me to do more useful things). In summary For doing the mundane well on a day to day basis, it is good to recognise the developers effort verbally to them. An honest thankyou that mentions the specific behaviour and its positive repercussions to you personally will be well received, adjust the language to suite each individual. (Note that other developers within earshot may also respond to this by increasing their efforts in this specific activity.) Other things that should be done regularly are: Team drinks In many cultures this is an entirely worthy way of giving the team some time to socialise and relax. Be sure that you do not exclude people who do not drink or are not keen on pub culture. Shared meals are another option. Formal written (email) acknowledgment and praise to senior managers of the teams efforts and successes. (Note that acknowledging individuals alone may damage team spirit) Work the hours you expect your team to do. If they absolutely must work late for a deadline, be there in support Go to bat for the team. Refuse to let them be forced to work long periods of overtime without compensation. Protect them from level politics and stress. Give your team the best equipment you can afford. Good tools show respect and improve productivity. Small or large team rewards where appropriate can consist of many interesting activities/ items. If it allows the team to get together in a fun and even lightly competitive manner it will work (foosball table, go-karting, darts board, video game console etc). Don’t forget to listen to what the team wants, each team will have different ideas. Ensure they are getting a fair deal financially from the company. While different people may have different expectations of their pay, someone being paid unfairly will rot morale for the entire team

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  • Extracting the source code of a facebook page with JavaScript

    - by Hafizi Vilie
    If I write code in the JavaScript console of Chrome, I can retrieve the whole HTML source code by entering: var a = document.body.InnerHTML; alert(a); For fb_dtsg on Facebook, I can easily extract it by writing: var fb_dtsg = document.getElementsByName('fb_dtsg')[0].value; Now, I am trying to extract the code "h=AfJSxEzzdTSrz-pS" from the Facebook Page. The h value is especially useful for Facebook reporting. How can I get the h value for reporting? I don't know what the h value is; the h value is totally different when you communicate with different users. Without that h correct value, you can not report. Actually, the h value is AfXXXXXXXXXXX (11 character values after 'Af'), that is what I know. Do you have any ideas for getting the value or any function to generate on Facebook page. The Facebook Source snippet is below, you can view source on facebook profile, and search h=Af, you will get the value: <code class="hidden_elem" id="ukftg4w44"> <!-- <div class="mtm mlm"> ... .... <span class="itemLabel fsm">Unfriend...</span></a></li> <li class="uiMenuItem" data-label="Report/Block..."> <a class="itemAnchor" role="menuitem" tabindex="-1" href="/ajax/report/social.php?content_type=0&amp;cid=1352686914&amp;rid=1352686914&amp;ref=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.facebook.com%2 F%3Fq&amp;h=AfjSxEzzdTSrz-pS&amp;from_gear=timeline" rel="dialog"> <span class="itemLabel fsm">Report/Block...</span></a></li></ul></div> ... .... </div> --> </code> Please guide me. How can extract the value exactly? I tried with following code, but the comment block prevent me to extract the code. How can extract the value which is inside comment block? var a = document.getElementsByClassName('hidden_elem')[3].innerHTML;alert(a);

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  • Amusing or Sad? Network Solutions

    - by dbasnett
    When I got sick my email ended up in every drug sellers email list. Some days I get over 200 emails selling everything from Viagra to Xanax. Either they don't know what my condition is or they are telling me you are a goner, might as well chill-ax and have a good time. In order to cut down on the mail being downloaded I thought I would add all of the Junk email senders from Outlook to my Network Solution mail server. Much to my amazement I could not find that import Spammers button, so I submitted a tech support request. Here is the response: Thank you for contacting Network Solutions Customer Service Department. We are committed to creating the best Customer experience possible. One of the first ways we can demonstrate our commitment to this goal is to quickly and efficiently handle your recent request. We apologize for any inconvenience this might have caused you. With regard to your concern, please be advised that we cannot import blocked senders in to you e-mail servers. An alternative option is for you to create a Custom Filter that filters unwanted e-mails. To create a Custom Filter: Open a Web browser (e.g., Netscape, Microsoft Internet Explorer, etc.). Type mail.[domain name].[ext] in the address line. Login to your Network Solutions email account. Click on the Configuration left menu tab. Click on the Custom Filter link. Type the rule name. blah, blah, blah Basically add them one at a time. "We are committed to creating the best Customer experience possible." No you are not. You are trying to squeeze every nickle you can out of me. "With regard to your concern, please be advised that we cannot import blocked senders in to you e-mail servers." Maybe I should apply for a job to write those ten complicated lines of code... Maybe I should question my choice of vendors, because if they truly "cannot" then they are to stupid to have my business. It is both amusing and sad. I'll be posting this in every forum I am a member of.

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  • Becoming a professional programmer / software engineer

    - by Matt
    This isn't strictly about programming, more about being a programmer, so I'm sorry if its not the right kind of question to ask on this forum (mod, please delete if it isn't) I'm a computer tech in the US Army, and once I'm out I'll have eight years on the job. I'm about to start a degree through an online school (the only way I can get the army to pay for it while I'm still in), and I'm seriously looking at getting a computer science degree. I'm great with computers. I can take one apart and put it back together with my eyes closed. I'm A+ and Network+ certified and I'm getting a couple other CompTIA certs before I get out. I can work Windows as well as anyone on this planet and I'm not terrible with Linux. A job in computers is something I've always wanted. But, aside from being a computer technician, it seems that every job in the field requires programming ability. I like programming as a hobby. I programmed TI BASIC in high school and I'm teaching myself Python, but that's as far as my experience goes. That sort of brings me to my questions: I've always heard that the first language is the most difficult, and once you learn it well then all the others sort of fall into place for you. Is that true? Like, if I spend the next eight months mastering Python, will I pretty much be able to pick up at least fair proficiency in any other OO language within a month of studying it or whatever? How easy is it to burn out? the biggest thing I'm afraid of is just burning out on programming. I can go all day long if I'm programming strictly for my own personal desire, but I can imagine it being really easy to burn out after a few years of programming to deadlines and certain specifications. Especially if its a big project involving a dozen different designers. From what I told you about myself, would I already be qualified to work as a regular technician (geek squad type or maybe running a computer repair shop). Is Python a good base to learn from? I've heard that it makes you hate other languages because they feel more convoluted when learning, but also that its a great beginner language. If you're a professional programmer, did you have any of the same fears? Would you recommend that I stick to computer repair and Python rather than try to get into corporate programming? (just from what you've read in this thread, anyway) Thanks for taking the time to read all this and answer (if you did)

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  • ExecuteNonQuery on a stored proc causes it to be deleted

    - by FinancialRadDeveloper
    This is a strange one. I have a Dev SQL Server which has the stored proc on it, and the same stored proc when used with the same code on the UAT DB causes it to delete itself! Has anyone heard of this behaviour? SQL Code: -- Check if user is registered with the system IF OBJECT_ID('dbo.sp_is_valid_user') IS NOT NULL BEGIN DROP PROCEDURE dbo.sp_is_valid_user IF OBJECT_ID('dbo.sp_is_valid_user') IS NOT NULL PRINT '<<< FAILED DROPPING PROCEDURE dbo.sp_is_valid_user >>>' ELSE PRINT '<<< DROPPED PROCEDURE dbo.sp_is_valid_user >>>' END go create procedure dbo.sp_is_valid_user @username as varchar(20), @isvalid as int OUTPUT AS BEGIN declare @tmpuser as varchar(20) select @tmpuser = username from CPUserData where username = @username if @tmpuser = @username BEGIN select @isvalid = 1 END else BEGIN select @isvalid = 0 END END GO Usage example DECLARE @isvalid int exec dbo.sp_is_valid_user 'username', @isvalid OUTPUT SELECT valid = @isvalid The usage example work all day... when I access it via C# it deletes itself in the UAT SQL DB but not the Dev one!! C# Code: public bool IsValidUser(string sUsername, ref string sErrMsg) { string sDBConn = ConfigurationSettings.AppSettings["StoredProcDBConnection"]; SqlCommand sqlcmd = new SqlCommand(); SqlDataAdapter sqlAdapter = new SqlDataAdapter(); try { SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(sDBConn); sqlcmd.Connection = conn; conn.Open(); sqlcmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; sqlcmd.CommandText = "sp_is_valid_user"; // params to pass in sqlcmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@username", sUsername); // param for checking success passed back out sqlcmd.Parameters.Add("@isvalid", SqlDbType.Int); sqlcmd.Parameters["@isvalid"].Direction = ParameterDirection.Output; sqlcmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); int nIsValid = (int)sqlcmd.Parameters["@isvalid"].Value; if (nIsValid == 1) { conn.Close(); sErrMsg = "User Valid"; return true; } else { conn.Close(); sErrMsg = "Username : " + sUsername + " not found."; return false; } } catch (Exception e) { sErrMsg = "Error :" + e.Source + " msg: " + e.Message; return false; } }

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  • EntityManagerFactory error on Websphere

    - by neverland
    I have a very weird problem. Have an application using Hibernate and spring.I have an entitymanger defined which uses a JNDI lookup .It looks something like this <bean id="entityManagerFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean"> <property name="dataSource" ref="dataSource" /> <property name="persistenceUnitName" value="ConfigAPPPersist" /> <property name="jpaVendorAdapter"> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.vendor.HibernateJpaVendorAdapter"> <property name="showSql" value="true" /> <property name="generateDdl" value="false" /> <property name="databasePlatform" value="org.hibernate.dialect.Oracle9Dialect" /> </bean> </property> </bean> <bean id="dataSource" class="org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.WebSphereDataSourceAdapter"> <property name="targetDataSource"> <bean class="org.springframework.jndi.JndiObjectFactoryBean"> <property name="jndiName" value="jdbc/pmp" /> </bean> </property> </bean> This application runs fine in DEV. But when we move to higher envs the team that deploys this application does it successfully initially but after a few restarts of the application the entitymanager starts giving this problem Caused by: javax.persistence.PersistenceException: [PersistenceUnit: ConfigAPPPersist] Unable to build EntityManagerFactory at org.hibernate.ejb.Ejb3Configuration.buildEntityManagerFactory(Ejb3Configuration.java:677) at org.hibernate.ejb.HibernatePersistence.createContainerEntityManagerFactory(HibernatePersistence.java:132) at org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean.createNativeEntityManagerFactory(LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean.java:224) at org.springframework.orm.jpa.AbstractEntityManagerFactoryBean.afterPropertiesSet(AbstractEntityManagerFactoryBean.java:291) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.invokeInitMethods(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:1368) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.initializeBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:1334) ... 32 more Caused by: org.hibernate.MappingException: **property mapping has wrong number of columns**: com.***.***.jpa.marketing.entity.MarketBrands.$performasure_j2eeInfo type: object Now you would say this is pretty obvious the entity MarketBrands is incorrect. But its not it maps to the table just fine. And the same code works on DEV. Also the jndi cannot be incorrect since it deploys and works fine initially but throws uo this error after a restart. This is weird and not very logical. But if someone has faced this or has any idea on what might be causing this Please!! help The persistence.xml for the persitence unit has very little <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <persistence xmlns="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/persistence" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/persistence http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/persistence/persistence_1_0.xsd" version="1.0"> <persistence-unit name="ConfigAPPPersist"> <!-- commented code --> </persistence-unit> </persistence>

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  • How to create JPA EntityMananger in Spring Context?

    - by HDave
    I have a JPA/Spring application that uses Hibernate as the JPA provider. In one portion of the code, I have to manually create a DAO in my application with the new operator rather than use Spring DI. When I do this, the @PersistenceContext annotation is not processed by Spring. In my code where I create the DAO I have an EntityManagerFactory which I used to set the entityManager as follows: @PersistenceUnit private EntityManagerFactory entityManagerFactory; MyDAO dao = new MyDAOImpl(); dao.setEntityManager(entityManagerFactory.createEntityManager()); The problem is that when I do this, I get a Hibernate error: Could not find UserTransaction in JNDI [java:comp/UserTransaction] It's as if the HibernateEntityManager never received all the settings I've configured in Spring: <bean id="myAppTestLocalEmf" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean"> <property name="persistenceUnitName" value="myapp-core" /> <property name="persistenceUnitPostProcessors"> <bean class="com.myapp.core.persist.util.JtaPersistenceUnitPostProcessor"> <property name="jtaDataSource" ref="myappPersistTestJdbcDataSource" /> </bean> </property> <property name="jpaProperties"> <props> <prop key="hibernate.transaction.factory_class">org.hibernate.transaction.JTATransactionFactory</prop> <prop key="hibernate.transaction.manager_lookup_class">com.atomikos.icatch.jta.hibernate3.TransactionManagerLookup</prop> </props> </property> <property name="jpaVendorAdapter"> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.vendor.HibernateJpaVendorAdapter"> <property name="showSql" value="true" /> <!-- The following use the PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer but it doesn't work in Eclipse --> <property name="database" value="$DS{hibernate.database}" /> <property name="databasePlatform" value="$DS{hibernate.dialect}" /> I am not sure, but I think the issue might be that I am not creating the entity manager correctly with the plain vanilla createEntityManager() call rather than passing in a map of properties. I say this because when Spring's LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean proxy's the call to Hibernate's createEntityManager() all of the Spring configured options are missing. That is, there is no Map argument to the createEntityManager() call. Perhaps it is another problem entirely however....not sure!

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  • Spring AOP pointcut that matches annotation on interface

    - by seanizer
    Hello, this is my first post here, so I apologize in advance for any stupidity on my side. I have a service class implemented in Java 6 / Spring 3 that needs an annotation to restrict access by role. I have defined an annotation called RequiredPermission that has as its value attribute one or more values from an enum called OperationType: public @interface RequiredPermission { /** * One or more {@link OperationType}s that map to the permissions required * to execute this method. * * @return */ OperationType[] value();} public enum OperationType { TYPE1, TYPE2; } package com.mycompany.myservice; public interface MyService{ @RequiredPermission(OperationType.TYPE1) void myMethod( MyParameterObject obj ); } package com.mycompany.myserviceimpl; public class MyServiceImpl implements MyService{ public myMethod( MyParameterObject obj ){ // do stuff here } } I also have the following aspect definition: /** * Security advice around methods that are annotated with * {@link RequiredPermission}. * * @param pjp * @param param * @param requiredPermission * @return * @throws Throwable */ @Around(value = "execution(public *" + " com.mycompany.myserviceimpl.*(..))" + " && args(param)" + // parameter object " && @annotation( requiredPermission )" // permission annotation , argNames = "param,requiredPermission") public Object processRequest(final ProceedingJoinPoint pjp, final MyParameterObject param, final RequiredPermission requiredPermission) throws Throwable { if(userService.userHasRoles(param.getUsername(),requiredPermission.values()){ return pjp.proceed(); }else{ throw new SorryButYouAreNotAllowedToDoThatException( param.getUsername(),requiredPermission.value()); } } The parameter object contains a user name and I want to look up the required role for the user before allowing access to the method. When I put the annotation on the method in MyServiceImpl, everything works just fine, the pointcut is matched and the aspect kicks in. However, I believe the annotation is part of the service contract and should be published with the interface in a separate API package. And obviously, I would not like to put the annotation on both service definition and implementation (DRY). I know there are cases in Spring AOP where aspects are triggered by annotations one interface methods (e.g. Transactional). Is there a special syntax here or is it just plain impossible out of the box. PS: I have not posted my spring config, as it seems to be working just fine. And no, those are neither my original class nor method names. Thanks in advance, Sean PPS: Actually, here is the relevant part of my spring config: <aop:aspectj-autoproxy proxy-target-class="false" /> <bean class="com.mycompany.aspect.MyAspect"> <property name="userService" ref="userService" /> </bean>

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  • How to declare and implement a COM interface on C# that inherits from another COM interface?

    - by Carlos Loth
    I'm trying to understand what is the correct why to implement COM interfaces from C# code. It is straightforward when the interface doesn't inherit from other base interface. Like this one: [ComImport, Guid("2047E320-F2A9-11CE-AE65-08002B2E1262"), InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIUnknown)] public interface IShellFolderViewCB { long MessageSFVCB(uint uMsg, int wParam, int lParam); } However things start to become weired when I need to implement an interface that inherits from other COM interfaces. For example, if I implement the IPersistFolder2 interface which inherits from IPersistFolder which inherits from IPersist as I usually on C# code: [ComImport, Guid("0000010c-0000-0000-C000-000000000046"), InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIUnknown)] public interface IPersist { void GetClassID([Out] out Guid classID); } [ComImport, Guid("000214EA-0000-0000-C000-000000000046"), InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIUnknown)] public interface IPersistFolder : IPersist { void Initialize([In] IntPtr pidl); } [ComImport, Guid("1AC3D9F0-175C-11d1-95BE-00609797EA4F"), InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIUnknown)] public interface IPersistFolder2 : IPersistFolder { void GetCurFolder([Out] out IntPtr ppidl); } The operating system is not able to call the methods on my object implementation. When I'm debugging I can see the constructor of my IPersistFolder2 implementation is called many times, however the interface methods I've implemented aren't called. I'm implementing the IPersistFolder2 as follows: [Guid("A4603CDB-EC86-4E40-80FE-25D5F5FA467D")] public class PersistFolder: IPersistFolder2 { void IPersistFolder2.GetClassID(ref Guid classID) { ... } void IPersistFolder2.Initialize(IntPtr pidl) { ... } void IPersistFolder2.GetCurFolder(out IntPtr ppidl) { ... } } What seems strange is when I declare the COM interface imports as follow, it works: [ComImport, Guid("0000010c-0000-0000-C000-000000000046"), InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIUnknown)] internal interface IPersist { void GetClassID([Out] out Guid classID); } [ComImport, Guid("000214EA-0000-0000-C000-000000000046"), InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIUnknown)] internal interface IPersistFolder : IPersist { new void GetClassID([Out] out Guid classID); void Initialize([In] IntPtr pidl); } [ComImport, Guid("1AC3D9F0-175C-11d1-95BE-00609797EA4F"), InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIUnknown)] internal interface IPersistFolder2 : IPersistFolder { new void GetClassID([Out] out Guid classID); new void Initialize([In] IntPtr pidl); void GetCurFolder([Out] out IntPtr ppidl); } I don't know why it works when I declare the COM interfaces that way (hidding the base interface methods using new). Maybe it is related to the way IUnknown works. Does anyone know what is the correct way of implementing COM interfaces in C# that inherits from other COM interfaces and why?

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