Search Results

Search found 6630 results on 266 pages for 'cname record'.

Page 143/266 | < Previous Page | 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150  | Next Page >

  • Entity Framework: An object with the same key already exists in the objectstatemanager

    - by NealR
    I see that this question has been asked a lot, however I haven't found anything yet that solves the problem I'm having. Obviously i'm using the Entity Framework to perform an update to a record. Once the updates are complete, however, whenever I try to save I get the following error message: An object with the same key already exists in the objectstatemanager At first I was passing in a collection object from the view that contained a copy of the the ZipCodeTerritory model object zipToUpdate. I changed the code by pulling this object out and just sending in the relevant fields instead. However, I'm still getting the same error. What's also weird is the first time I run this code, it works fine. Any attempt after that I get the error. Controller Here is the code from the method calling the edit function public static string DescriptionOnly(ZipCodeIndex updateZip) { if (!string.IsNullOrWhiteSpace(updateZip.newEffectiveDate) || !string.IsNullOrWhiteSpace(updateZip.newEndDate)) { return "Neither effective or end date can be present if updating Territory Code only; "; } _updated = 0; foreach (var zipCode in updateZip.displayForPaging.Where(x => x.Update)) { ProcessAllChanges(zipCode, updateZip.newTerritory, updateZip.newStateCode, updateZip.newDescription, updateZip.newChannelCode); } _msg += _updated + " record(s) updated; "; return _msg; } And here is the method that actually does the updating. private static void ProcessAllChanges(ZipCodeTerritory zipToUpdate, string newTerritory, string newStateCode, string newDescription, string newChannelCode) { try { if (!string.IsNullOrWhiteSpace(newTerritory)) zipToUpdate.IndDistrnId = newTerritory; if (!string.IsNullOrWhiteSpace(newStateCode)) zipToUpdate.StateCode = newStateCode; if (!string.IsNullOrWhiteSpace(newDescription)) zipToUpdate.DrmTerrDesc = newDescription; if (!string.IsNullOrWhiteSpace(newChannelCode)) zipToUpdate.ChannelCode = newChannelCode; if (zipToUpdate.EndDate == DateTime.MinValue) zipToUpdate.EndDate = DateTime.MaxValue; _db.Entry(zipToUpdate).State = EntityState.Modified; _db.SaveChanges(); _updated++; } catch (DbEntityValidationException dbEx) { _msg += "Error during update; "; EventLog.WriteEntry("Monet", "Error during ProcessAllChanges: " + zipToUpdate.ToString() + " |EX| " + dbEx.Message); } catch (Exception ex) { _msg += "Error during update; "; EventLog.WriteEntry("Monet", "Error during ProcessAllChanges: " + zipToUpdate.ToString() + " |MESSAGE| " + ex.Message); } } EDIT The ZipCodeIndex object contains a list of ZipCodeTerritory model objects. These aren't being pulled from a linq query, but instead simply passed back to the controller from the view. Here is the signature of the controller method that starts the process: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Update(ZipCodeIndex updateZip, string button)

    Read the article

  • Changing javascript confirm dialog box to bootstrap

    - by Scape Goat
    I already this something Here is the original code: <script type='text/javascript'> function delete_user( id ){ var answer = confirm('Are you sure?'); //if user clicked ok if ( answer ){ //redirect to url with action as delete and id to the record to be deleted window.location = 'delete.php?id=' + id; } } </script> How do I remove the old javascript confirm dialog box and replace it with bootstrap?

    Read the article

  • Rails - Always have to check exists, and then value?

    - by Jason B
    I am checking to see if a value in a related table exists quite often in my view, in this case, expenses have approvals. If they have not been submitted, then there is no record of them in the approvals table. I am ending up with some really awkward code <% if !expense_item.expense_approval || expense_item.expense_approval.approval_status == 0 %> Is there a way to do an if statement on a value, without having to check if it exists first? Or some default way to set it nil?

    Read the article

  • Getting the first row of the mysql resource string?

    - by mrNepal
    Here is my problem. I need more than one row from the database, and i need the first row for certain task and then go through all the list again to create a record set. $query = "SELECT * FROM mytable"; $result = mysql_query($query); $firstrow = //extract first row from database //add display some field from it while($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)) { //display all of them } Now, how to extract just the first row?

    Read the article

  • mysql_affected_rows() always returns 1 even though no row was updated.

    - by happyhardik
    What I am trying to do is: (programmatically) Update status where id is something, if no rows where updated, give error: we cannot find the record with id something, otherwise give message success. Here I am using mysql_affected_rows() to know if a row was updated or not, but it always return 1, so the user gets a success message, even though there was no row updated. Can anyone tell me what could it be?

    Read the article

  • How to get VS or Xcode warning with something like "x = x++"?

    - by Jim Buck
    In the spirit of undefined behavior associated with sequence points such as “x = ++x” is it really undefined?, how does one get the compiler to complain about such code? Specifically, I am using Visual Studio 2010 and Xcode 4.3.1, the latter for an OSX app, and neither warned me about this. I even cranked up the warnings on VS2010 to "all", and it happily compiled this. (For the record, VS2010's version added 1 to the variable where Xcode's version kept the variable unchanged.)

    Read the article

  • Create trigger for auto incerment id and default unix datetime

    - by user1804985
    Any one help me to create a trigger for auto increment fld_id and Unix datetime. My table field is fld_id(int),fld_date(number),fld_value(varchar2). My insert query is insert into table (fld_value)values('xxx'); insert into table (fld_value)values('yyy'); I need the table record like this fld_id fld_date fld_value 1 1354357476 xxx 2 1354357478 yyy Please help me to create this.I can't able to do this..

    Read the article

  • Check mysql_query results if DELETE query worked?

    - by Camran
    I have a DELETE query which deletes a record from a mysql db. is there any way to make sure if the delete was performed or not? I mean, for a query to FIND stuff you do $res=mysql_query($var); $nr=mysql_num_rows($res); and you get nr of rows returned. Is there any similiar method for deletion of records? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Download a file+

    - by Martin
    Hi, First PHP project and I'm stuck! I wish to allow users to click a button or a link and download a file. However, my PHP must first perform some tasks, choose the right file, record the download event in a db etc. This I can do, but how do I then send the file as a response to the user's click? Thanks for any help.

    Read the article

  • How to retrieve from two tables with same foriegn key repeated more than once?

    - by Sarenya
    How to display the datas of tables, that are linked by a primay key and foriegn key, where the foriegn key of the data repeats? For ex. I have two tables, ParentTable and Childtable. The primarykey of the Parent table acts as the foriegn key of the Child table. There are more than one record with same ParentId in Child table. How to retrieve them and display in a single Grid or List or any type of view?

    Read the article

  • MySQL: averaging with nulls...

    - by Zombies
    Is there a simple way I can exclude nulls from affecting the avg? They appear to count as 0, which is not what I want. I simply don't want to take their average into account, yet here is the catch, I can't drop them from the result set, as that record has data on it that I do need.

    Read the article

  • Connection Reset on MySQL query

    - by sunwukung
    OK, I'm flummoxed.(i've asked this question over on Stack too - but I need to get it fixed so I'm asking here too - any help is GREATLY appreciated) I'm trying to execute a query on a database (locally) and I keep getting a connection reset error. I've been using the method below in a generic DAO class to build a query string and pass to Zend_Db API. public function insert($params) { $loop = false; $keys = $values = ''; foreach($params as $k => $v){ if($loop == true){ $keys .= ','; $values .= ','; } $keys .= $this->db->quoteIdentifier($k); $values .= $this->db->quote($v); $loop = true; } $sql = "INSERT INTO " . $this->table_name . " ($keys) VALUES ($values)"; //formatResult returns an array of info regarding the status and any result sets of the query //I've commented that method call out anyway, so I don't think it's that try { $this->db->query($sql); return $this->formatResult(array( true, 'New record inserted into: '.$this->table_name )); }catch(PDOException $e) { return $this->formatResult($e); } } So far, this has worked fine - the errors have been occurring since we generated new tables to record user input. The insert string looks like this: INSERT INTO tablename(`id`,`title`,`summary`,`description`,`keywords`,`type_id`,`categories`) VALUES ('5539','Sample Title','Sample content',' \'Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. In et pellentesque mauris. Curabitur hendrerit, leo id ultrices pellentesque, est purus mattis ligula, vitae imperdiet neque ligula bibendum sapien. Curabitur aliquet nisi et odio pharetra tincidunt. Phasellus sed iaculis nisl. Fusce commodo mauris et purus vehicula dictum. Nulla feugiat molestie accumsan. Donec fermentum libero in risus tempus elementum aliquam et magna. Fusce vitae sem metus. Aenean commodo pharetra risus, nec pellentesque augue ullamcorper nec. Class aptent taciti sociosqu ad litora torquent per conubia nostra, per inceptos himenaeos. Nullam vel elit libero. Vestibulum in turpis nunc.\'','this,is,a,sample,array',1,'category title') Here are the parameters it's getting before assembling the query (var_dump): array 'id' => string '1' (length=4) 'title' => string 'Sample Title' (length=12) 'summary' => string 'Sample content' (length=14) 'description' => string '<p>'Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. In et pellentesque mauris. Curabitur hendrerit, leo id ultrices pellentesque, est purus mattis ligula, vitae imperdiet neque ligula bibendum sapien. Curabitur aliquet nisi et odio pharetra tincidunt. Phasellus sed iaculis nisl. Fusce commodo mauris et purus vehicula dictum. Nulla feugiat molestie accumsan. Donec fermentum libero in risus tempus elementum aliquam et magna. Fusce vitae sem metus. Aenean commodo pharetra risus, nec pellentesque augue'... (length=677) 'keywords' => string 'this,is,a,sample,array' (length=22) 'type_id' => int 1 'categories' => string 'category title' (length=43) The next port of call was checking the limits on the table, since it seems to insert if the length of "description" is around the 300 mark (it varies between 310 - 330). The field limit is set to VARCHAR(1500) and the validation on this field won't allow anything past bigger than 1200 with HTML, 800 without. The real kicker is that if I take this sql string and execute it via the command line, it works fine - so I can't for the life of me figure out what's wrong. I've tried extending the server parameters i.e. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1964554/unexpected-connection-reset-a-php-or-an-apache-issue So, in a nutshell, I'm stumped. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • How to configure Apache and Tomcat with vhosts?

    - by Umar Farooq Khawaja
    I have a server with a static, public IP address. I also have a registered domain name. For the sake of illustration, let's suppose they are IP Address: 12.34.56.78 Domain Name: example.com I have a single machine on which I am running the following: A website (over IIS7) available locally at localhost:80 A JetBrains TeamCity instance (over Tomcat) available locally at localhost:1234 A VisualSVN Server instance (over Apache) available locally at localhost:5678/svn I have set up an A record for example.com and the following CNAME records: www.example.com builds.example.com sources.example.com I would like to configure Tomcat and Apache such that: if I point my browser at builds.example.com, I end up at the JetBrains TeamCity instance and, if I point my browser at sources.example.com, I end up at the VisualSVN Server instance. I thought I could configure the Apache to vhost example.com:5678/svn to point to sources.example.com and added the following lines to the Apache httpd.conf file Listen 5678 NameVirtualHost *:5678 <VistualHost *:5678> ServerName sources.example.com DocumentRoot /svn </virtualHost> That broke the VisualSVN instance, so I had to revert that to Listen 5678 Help!

    Read the article

  • Configure APE-Server on Ubuntu10.10 webserver

    - by sadmicrowave
    I'm having problems configuring my ape-server. First, I reside behind a corporate firewall where our own DNS servers are maintained. I requested a domain name for my server and was provided uslonsweb003.us.mycompany.com from my IT group. Therefore, my website works and can be accessed via (intranet only) at http://uslonsweb003.us.mycompany.com/test.php. I followed the instructions at ape-project.org and run the Check Tool at the end only to find I get an error stating: Running test : Contacting APE Server (adding frequency) Can't contact APE Server. Please check the folowing url is pointing to your APE server : http://0.uslonsweb003.us.mycompany.com:6969 my /etc/apache2/apache2.conf module looks as follows: <VirtualHost *:80> Servername uslonsweb003.us.mycompany.com ServerAlias ape.uslonsweb003.us.mycompany.com ServerAlias *.ape.uslonsweb003.us.mycompany.com DocumentRoot "/var/www/" </VirtualHost> my /var/www/ape-jsf/Demos/config.js config section looks as follows: APE.Config.baseUrl = 'http://uslonsweb003.us.mycompany.com/ape-jsf'; APE.Config.domain = 'uslonsweb003.us.mycompany.com'; APE.Config.server = 'uslonsweb003.us.mycompany.com:6969'; The instructions at ape-project.org tell me that the APE.Config.server should be `ape.mydomain.com:6969'; but that does not work (I'm assuming because my corporate DNS does not understand the 'ape' before the domain name since 'ape' was not registered with the IT DNS). So therefore, I changed it to what you see above. Please help!! Thanks in advance UPDATE 1 per the installation instructions located on this page http://www.ape-project.org/wiki/index.php/Advanced_APE_configuration under 'Configure your Server/Computer' (I'm running it on a server obviously) It says I need to add some lines to my DNS config file. It sounds like (since I'm within a corporate network) I would ask my IT group to add the following lines to the DNS configuration file on their end: ape IN A x.x.x.x ; IP address of my APE server *.ape IN CNAME ape I just want to make sure this is all I have to have them add (or if this is even correct) before I ask them.

    Read the article

  • Attempting to update Amazon Route53 using a script, but domain is not being updated

    - by ks78
    I have several Amazon EC2 instances, running Ubuntu 10.04, with which I'd like to use Amazon's Route53. I setup a script as described in Shlomo Swidler's article, but I'm still missing something. When the script runs, it doesn't return any output, which I initially assumed meant it ran correctly. However, when I check the DNS records using MyR53DNS, there are no entries for my instances. Here's my script: #!/bin/tcsh -f set root=`dirname $0` setenv EC2_HOME /usr/lib/ec2-api-tools setenv EC2_CERT /etc/cron.route53/ec2_x509_cert.pem setenv EC2_PRIVATE_KEY /etc/cron.route53/ec2_x509_private.pem setenv AWS_ACCESS_KEY_ID myaccesskeyid setenv AWS_SECRET_ACCESS_KEY mysecretaccesskey /user/bin/ec2-describe-instances | \ perl -ne '/^INSTANCE\s+(i-\S+).*?(\S+\.amazonaws\.com)/ \ and do { $dns = $2; print "$1 $dns\n" }; /^TAG.+\sShortName\s+(\S+)/ \ and print "$1 $dns\n"' | \ perl -ane 'print "$F[0] CNAME $F[1] --replace\n"' | \ xargs -n 4 $/etc/cron.route53/cli53/cli53.py \ rrcreate -x 60 mydomain.com Does anyone see a problem with this script? If its not the script, what else could be preventing my Route53 domain from being updated? I am using the Security Groups to IP-restrict the instances. I've tried opening port 53, but that didn't seem to have an effect. Is there another port that Route53 uses? I'd appreciate any help or guidance the ServerFault community can offer. Let me know if you need any further info.

    Read the article

  • Server 2003, XP Clients, DNS issues

    - by ron
    Hello, Im having DNS issues on my network. My DC is my DNS server 10.76.4.11 and recently I configured a forwarder to 10.4.36.10. My workstations are not working because they cannot resolve the domain controller name because of DNS. an ipconfig /all reveals that they know the IP of the DNS server is 10.76.4.11, but if I nslookup 10.76.4.11 it forwards the request to 10.4.36.10 and goes nowhere. I have since removed the forwarder, but still any nslookup requests on workstations are going to 10.4.36.10. If I nslookup 10.76.4.11 on the server it can resolve its name, but for some reason when it receives the same request from workstations it doesnt know what to do. All the A, CNAME records etc are correct. DHCP's DNS is set correctly, GPOs are correct (even though they cant refresh cos of this problem!), the servers network adapter has its DNS set to 10.76.4.11. Just don't know. Very confused.

    Read the article

  • Cannot join Win7 workstations to Win2k8 domain

    - by wfaulk
    I am trying to connect a Windows 7 Ultimate machine to a Windows 2k8 domain and it's not working. I get this error: Note: This information is intended for a network administrator. If you are not your network's administrator, notify the administrator that you received this information, which has been recorded in the file C:\Windows\debug\dcdiag.txt. DNS was successfully queried for the service location (SRV) resource record used to locate a domain controller for domain "example.local": The query was for the SRV record for _ldap._tcp.dc._msdcs.example.local The following domain controllers were identified by the query: dc1.example.local dc2.example.local However no domain controllers could be contacted. Common causes of this error include: Host (A) or (AAAA) records that map the names of the domain controllers to their IP addresses are missing or contain incorrect addresses. Domain controllers registered in DNS are not connected to the network or are not running. The client is in an office connected remotely via MPLS to the data center where our domain controllers exist. I don't seem to have anything blocking connectivity to the DCs, but I don't have total control over the MPLS circuit, so it's possible that there's something blocking connectivity. I have tried multiple clients (Win7 Ultimate and WinXP SP3) in the one office and get the same symptoms on all of them. I have no trouble connecting to either of the domain controllers, though I have, admittedly, not tried every possible port. ICMP, LDAP, DNS, and SMB connections all work fine. Client DNS is pointing to the DCs, and "example.local" resolves to the two IP addresses of the DCs. I get this output from the NetLogon Test command line utility: C:\Windows\System32>nltest /dsgetdc:example.local Getting DC name failed: Status = 1355 0x54b ERROR_NO_SUCH_DOMAIN I have also created a separate network to emulate that office's configuration that's connected to the DC network via LAN-to-LAN VPN instead of MPLS. Joining Windows 7 computers from that remote network works fine. The only difference I can find between the two environments is the intermediate connectivity, but I'm out of ideas as to what to test or how to do it. What further steps should I take? (Note that this isn't actually my client workstation and I have no direct access to it; I'm forced to do remote hands access to it, which makes some of the obvious troubleshooting methods, like packet sniffing, more difficult. If I could just set up a system there that I could remote into, I would, but requests to that effect have gone unanswered.) 2011-08-25 update: I had DCDIAG.EXE run on a client attempting to join the domain: C:\Windows\System32>dcdiag /u:example\adminuser /p:********* /s:dc2.example.local Directory Server Diagnosis Performing initial setup: Ldap search capabality attribute search failed on server dc2.example.local, return value = 81 This sounds like it was able to connect via LDAP, but the thing that it was trying to do failed. But I don't quite follow what it was trying to do, much less how to reproduce it or resolve it. 2011-08-26 update: Using LDP.EXE to try and make an LDAP connection directly to the DCs results in these errors: ld = ldap_open("10.0.0.1", 389); Error <0x51: Fail to connect to 10.0.0.1. ld = ldap_open("10.0.0.2", 389); Error <0x51: Fail to connect to 10.0.0.2. ld = ldap_open("10.0.0.1", 3268); Error <0x51: Fail to connect to 10.0.0.1. ld = ldap_open("10.0.0.2", 3268); Error <0x51: Fail to connect to 10.0.0.2. This would seem to point fingers at LDAP connections being blocked somewhere. (And 0x51 == 81, which was the error from DCDIAG.EXE from yesterday's update.) I could swear I tested this using TELNET.EXE weeks ago, but now I'm thinking that I may have assumed that its clearing of the screen was telling me that it was waiting and not that it had connected. I'm tracking down LDAP connectivity problems now. This update may become an answer.

    Read the article

  • Can IIS (Ideally Azure) do SSL Proxying?

    - by Acoustic
    My team has been asked to add a new feature to a project we're working on, and none of can find authoritative details on whether it's possible with Windows/IIS. The short of it is that we're hoping to have customers update their DNS with a CNAME record to point their website to our server instead of theirs (they why's are trivial - it's what the app does on behalf of your site). We're using a reverse proxy with several custom modules to serve particular content from the original servers. So far everything works perfectly until we encounter SSL. Is there a way to have IIS serve up an SSL certificate from another server? In other words, is there a way to be a trusted man in the middle? I'm hoping that's possible so that we don't have to require all our clients to re-issue their SSL certs. Frankly, we don't want to have to manage hundreds of certs. I'd also like to avoid a UCC situation if there's a way to because it seems to require re-creating the cert each time a client is added. So, any pointers on proxying/hosting SSL (or even dynamic SSL hosting like http://www.globalsign.com/cloud/) would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • AjaxControlToolkit JavaScript is not pointing correctly on IIS7 running behind Apache mod_proxy

    - by sohum
    So here's my setup. I've got a DynDNS account since I have a dynamic IP. I have Apache listening on port 80 and IIS7 on port 8080. I don't want users to have to enter in mydyndns.dyndns.com:8080 to get to IIS7, so I've added the following code to my Apache httpd.conf file to enable a proxy/reverse proxy: <VirtualHost *:80> ProxyPass / http://localhost:8080/myASPSite/ ProxyPassReverse / http://localhost:8080/myASPSite/ ServerName myaspsite.mydomain.com </VirtualHost> I've got a CNAME record set up on my DNS so that myaspsite.mydomain.com redirects to mydyndns.dyndns.com. When I type in myaspsite.mydomain.com into my browser, everything works beautifully... mostly. IIS7 serves up the ASPX pages and visitors to the site don't know any better. A problem arises, however, when I add Ajax Control Toolkit controls into my ASPX website, because these generate JavaScript and apparently mod_proxy_html isn't geared to handle the JS URIs properly. Sure enough, when I open up the source of my ASPX page, it has script elements as follows: <script src="/myASPSite/WebResource.axd?xyz" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="/myASPSite/ScriptResource.axd?xyz" type="text/javascript"></script> Sure enough, these scripts are attempting to be resolved at http://myaspsite.mydomain.com/myASPSite/WebResource..., which through the proxy translates to localhost:8080/myASPSite/myASPSite/.... How can I solve this problem. The couple of websites I found suggested turning on ProxyHTMLExtended but when I tried doing that, the server did not start. I'm guessing I didn't know how to do it properly. Anyone has a handy couple of config lines that I can add to my Apache conf file to get this working as I need? I'm using Apache 2.2.11. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Changing Domain Name DNS to Redirect web traffic to one server, and leave mail to original server

    - by David S
    Hi there, Ok, quite the idiot with DNS.. apart from the basics. I have a domain name hosted with a domain registrar. It seems to have full DNS control (i.e. ability to view/edit A Records, Mail etc..) We have recently setup a server at Rackspace which hosts the new website The original/existing server (where the old website still is and Mail) is on another shared hosting companies server I went to the domain name registrar, and checked out the DNS management as follows: click here to view the DNS screenshot So obviously the A Record is pointing to the actual server where the website/mail is I figure, and the CNAME is pointing (alias?) to the website url. So my question is this: If I want the web traffic portion to go to the Rackspace/new server, but keep the mail going to where it is now, what do I have to change? Also, should I even change this info at the domain registrar? the rackspace server account has full DNS which seems to suggest I can point to their nameservers and then re-direct the MX (Mail) traffic to where the mail server is? Sorry if that was a bit confusing.. obviously in need of DNS training ;) Any help very appreciated. David.

    Read the article

  • JavaScript is not pointing correctly on IIS7 running behind Apache mod_proxy

    - by sohum
    So here's my setup. I've got a DynDNS account since I have a dynamic IP. I have Apache listening on port 80 and IIS7 on port 8080. I don't want users to have to enter in mydyndns.dyndns.com:8080 to get to IIS7, so I've added the following code to my Apache httpd.conf file to enable a proxy/reverse proxy: <VirtualHost *:80> ProxyPass / http://localhost:8080/myASPSite/ ProxyPassReverse / http://localhost:8080/myASPSite/ ServerName myaspsite.mydomain.com </VirtualHost> I've got a CNAME record set up on my DNS so that myaspsite.mydomain.com redirects to mydyndns.dyndns.com. When I type in myaspsite.mydomain.com into my browser, everything works beautifully... mostly. IIS7 serves up the ASPX pages and visitors to the site don't know any better. A problem arises, however, when I add Ajax Control Toolkit controls into my ASPX website, because these generate JavaScript and apparently mod_proxy_html isn't geared to handle the JS URIs properly. Sure enough, when I open up the source of my ASPX page, it has script elements as follows: <script src="/myASPSite/WebResource.axd?xyz" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="/myASPSite/ScriptResource.axd?xyz" type="text/javascript"></script> Sure enough, these scripts are attempting to be resolved at http://myaspsite.mydomain.com/myASPSite/WebResource..., which through the proxy translates to localhost:8080/myASPSite/myASPSite/.... How can I solve this problem. The couple of websites I found suggested turning on ProxyHTMLExtended but when I tried doing that, the server did not start. I'm guessing I didn't know how to do it properly. Anyone has a handy couple of config lines that I can add to my Apache conf file to get this working as I need? I'm using Apache 2.2.11. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Connection established to google DNS, can't resolve any hosts

    - by Tar
    As you can see from the picture above, I am connected to google DNS but am unable to resolve any hostnames. When I try to ping sites like google.com, yahoo.com, etc, I get 'ping: unknown host'. Yes, I am able to ping localhost, I am able to ping hostname.domain.com, but not domain.com. I can't ping my nameservers. I can ping all hosts by IP address and that works. The output of my /etc/resolv.conf: nameserver 8.8.8.8 nameserver 8.8.4.4 Anyone know what the problem could be? 23:30:04.304955 IP my_server.44457 > 8.8.8.8.domain: 28349+ A? google.com. (28) 23:30:06.137985 IP 112.100.0.78.19781 > my_server.domain: 18717 [1au] A? www.my_domain.com. (46) 23:30:06.138286 IP my_server.domain > 112.100.0.78.19781: 18717*- 2/0/1 CNAME my_domain.com., A my_server (76) 23:30:06.686582 IP 112.100.0.74.19181 > my_server.domain: 65046 [1au] A? my_domain.com. (42) 23:30:06.686811 IP my_server.domain > 112.100.0.74.19181: 65046*- 1/0/1 A my_server (58) 23:30:07.043764 IP my_server.50465 > 4.2.2.1.domain: 13865+ PTR? 142.254.22.67.in-addr.arpa. (44) 23:30:09.065904 IP my_server.45242 > 8.8.4.4.domain: 29011+ PTR? 123.72.117.130.in-addr.arpa. (45) 23:30:09.310021 IP my_server.45440 > 8.8.4.4.domain: 28349+ A? google.com. (28)

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150  | Next Page >