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• mod_rewrite/GoDaddy problem

  - by John Deerhake

  Ok, so I really don't know much about mod_rewrite and I'm looking over the apache docs and still not figuring this out. Here is my htaccess (which is mostly just copy & pasted from a site I found): .htaccess in base dir: <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine on RewriteRule ^$ public/ [L] RewriteRule (.*) public/$1 [L] </IfModule> .htaccess in /public dir: <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.php?url=$1 [PT,L] </IfModule> Basically I'm using the above htaccess files on my current test server and it works great and exactly like I would expect (everything gets seamlessly redirected to public dir). Now when I throw this on my GoDaddy hosting account i get "Internal Server Errror". I've done some searching and I'm fairly certain I should be able to use mod_rewrite with GoDaddy. I suspect this is because I'm not using the base directory to host the site in. The site is in in the folder html/myapp/ (where html is the base directory) and i have a subdomain set up in GoDaddy to look in that folder.

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• bash and flock (file lock) - Doesn't seem to be locking....

  - by Rory

  I am playing with using flock, a bash command for file locks to prevent 2 different instances of the code from running more than once. I am using this testing code: ( ( flock -x 200 ; sleep 10 ; echo "original finished" ; ) 200>./test.lock ) & ( sleep 2 ; ( flock -x -w 2 200 ; echo "a finished" ) 200>./test.lock ) & I am running 2 subshells (backgrounded). The (flock NUM; ...) NUM>FILE syntax is from flock's man page. I expect that the first subshell will get an exclusive lock on test.lock, then wait 10 seconds, then print "original finished", all the time holding the lock. The second subshell will start at more or less the same time, wait 2 seconds, then try to get a lock on test.lock, but timeout after 2 seconds. If it gets a lock, then it'll print "a finished". If it doesn't get the lock, that subshell should stop, and nothing should be printed. Since the first subshell is waiting longer, it will keep the lock for 10 seconds, so the second subshell should not get the lock, and shouldn't finish. i.e. one should see "original finished" printed and not both. What actually happens is that "a finished" is printed, then "original finished" is printed. This implies that that the second subshell is either (a) not using the same lock as the first subhsell or (b) that it fails to get the lock, but continues to execute or (c) something else. Why don't those locks work?

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• Multithreading and Interrupts

  - by Nicholas Flynt

  I'm doing some work on the input buffers for my kernel, and I had some questions. On Dual Core machines, I know that more than one "process" can be running simultaneously. What I don't know is how the OS and the individual programs work to protect collisions in data. There are two things I'd like to know on this topic: (1) Where do interrupts occur? Are they guaranteed to occur on one core and not the other, and could this be used to make sure that real-time operations on one core were not interrupted by, say, file IO which could be handled on the other core? (I'd logically assume that the interrupts would happen on the 1st core, but is that always true, and how would you tell? Or perhaps does each core have its own settings for interrupts? Wouldn't that lead to a scenario where each core could react simultaneously to the same interrupt, possibly in different ways?) (2) How does the dual core processor handle opcode memory collision? If one core is reading an address in memory at exactly the same time that another core is writing to that same address in memory, what happens? Is an exception thrown, or is a value read? (I'd assume the write would work either way.) If a value is read, is it guaranteed to be either the old or new value at the time of the collision? I understand that programs should ideally be written to avoid these kinds of complications, but the OS certainly can't expect that, and will need to be able to handle such events without choking on itself.

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• How can I display multiple django modelformset forms in a grouped fieldsets?

  - by JT

  I have a problem with needing to provide multiple model backed forms on the same page. I understand how to do this with single forms, i.e. just create both the forms call them something different then use the appropriate names in the template. Now how exactly do you expand that solution to work with modelformsets? The wrinkle, of course, is that each 'form' must be rendered together in the appropriate fieldset. For example I want my template to produce something like this: <fieldset> <label for="id_base-0-desc">Home Base Description:</label> <input id="id_base-0-desc" type="text" name="base-0-desc" maxlength="100" /> <label for="id_likes-0-icecream">Want ice cream?</label> <input type="checkbox" name="likes-0-icecream" id="id_likes-0-icecream" /> </fieldset> <fieldset> <label for="id_base-1-desc">Home Base Description:</label> <input id="id_base-1-desc" type="text" name="base-1-desc" maxlength="100" /> <label for="id_likes-1-icecream">Want ice cream?</label> <input type="checkbox" name="likes-1-icecream" id="id_likes-1-icecream" /> </fieldset> I am using a loop like this to process the results (after form validation) base_models = base_formset.save(commit=False) like_models = like_formset.save(commit=False) for base_model, likes_model in map(None, base_models, likes_models): which works as I'd expect (I'm using map because the # of forms can be different). The problem is that I can't figure out a way to do the same thing with the templating engine. The system does work if I layout all the base models together then all the likes models after wards, but it doesn't meet the layout requirements. EDIT: Updated the problem statement to be more clear about what exactly I'm processing (I'm processing models not forms in the for loop)

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• NSPopupButton bound to NSArrayController not updating

  - by BuzzB

  I've got an NSPopupButton bound to an NSArrayController. (Man, that was harder than I thought it would be!) I have an NSArrayController bound to an NSMutableArray via the NSArrayController's "Controller Content" binding. The "Content" and "Content Values" bindings of the NSPopupButton are bound to my NSArrayController, and "Selected Object" is bound to a member in my app delegate. It is working as I expect. Except, when I add items to the NSMutableArray that my NSArrayController is bound to they don't appear in the popup. I kind of expected this to work automagically... with the NSArrayController observing the NSMutableArray and updating the NSPopupButton as necessary. Clearly I am missing something. [Update] Ok, clearly I am adding items to my array in a way that the array controller can't see. I finally found this... https://developer.apple.com/library/mac/documentation/cocoa/conceptual/CocoaBindings/Concepts/Troubleshooting.html But I really don't understand what it means. Does anyone know of a simple example of the proper way to dynamically added items to a bound NSMutableArray when the "adder" has no idea that there is a UI element bound to the array? Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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• Python minidom and UTF-8 encoded XML with hash references

  - by Jakob Simon-Gaarde

  Hi I am experiencing some difficulty in my home project where I need to parse a SOAP request. The SOAP is generated with gSOAP and involves string parameters with special characters like the danish letters "æøå". gSOAP builds SOAP requests with UTF-8 encoding by default, but instead of sending the special chatacters in raw format (ie. bytes C3A6 for the special character "æ") it sends what I think is called character hash references (ie. &#195;&#166;). I don't completely understand why gSOAP does it this way as I can see that it has marked the incomming payload as being UTF-8 encoded anyway (Content-Type: text/xml; charset=utf-8), but this is besides the question (I think). Anyway I guess gSOAP probably is obeying transport rules, or what? When I parse the request from gSOAP in python with xml.dom.minidom.parseString() I get element values as unicode objects which is fine, but the character hash references are not decoded as UTF-8 character codes. It unescapes the character hash references, but does not decode the string afterwards. In the end I have a unicode string object with UTF-8 encoding: So if the string "æble" is contained in the XML, it comes like this in the request: "&#195;&#166;ble" After parsing the XML the unicode string in the DOM Text Node's data member looks like this: u'\xc3\xa6ble' I would expect it to look like this: u'\xe6ble' What am I doing wrong? Should I unescape the SOAP XML before parsing it, or is it somewhere else I should be looking for the solution, maybe gSOAP? Thanks in advance. Best regards Jakob Simon-Gaarde

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• StringTokenizer split at "<br/>"

  - by AnAmuser

  Maybe I am stupid but I don't understand why the behaviour of StringTokenizer here: import static org.apache.commons.lang.StringEscapeUtils.escapeHtml; String object = (String) value; String escaped = escapeHtml(object); StringTokenizer tokenizer = new StringTokenizer(escaped, escapeHtml("<br/>")); If fx. value is Hej<br/>$user.get(0).name Har vundet<br/><table border='1'><tr><th>Name</th><th>Played</th><th>Brewed</th></tr>#foreach( $u in $user )<tr><td>$u.name</td> <td>$u.played</td> <td>$u.brewed</td></tr>#end</table><br/> Then the result is Hej $use . e (0).name Ha vunde a e o de ='1' h Name h h P ayed h h B ewed h #fo each( $u in $use ) d $u.name d d $u.p ayed d d $u. ewed d #end a e It makes no sense to me. How can I make it behave as I expect to.

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• What are the drawbacks of using PHP to create variables in my CSS stylesheet?

  - by Greg

  One significant drawback of CSS is that one can't use variables. For example, I'd like to use variables to control the location of imported CSS, and it would be awesome to create variables for colors that are used repeatedly in a design. One approach is to use a PHP file for the CSS stylesheet. In other words, create a "style.php" with... <?php header("Content-type: text/css"); ?> ...at the top of the file, and then link to it using... <link href="style.php" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> ...in any file that uses these styles. So what's the catch? I think it might be performance -- I did a few quick experiments in Firefox/Firebug and as one would expect, the CSS stylesheet is cached, but the PHP stylesheet isn't. So we're paying the price of an additional GET. The other annoying thing is that TextMate does not syntax highlight properly for CSS in a .php file. Are there other drawbacks? Have you used this approach, and if so, would you recommend it?

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• using indexer to retrieve Linq to SQL object from datastore

  - by fearofawhackplanet

  class UserDatastore : IUserDatastore { ... public IUser this[Guid userId] { get { User user = (from u in _dataContext.Users where u.Id == userId select u).FirstOrDefault(); return user; } } ... } One of the developers in our team is arguing that an indexer in the above situation is not appropriate and that a GetUser(Guid id) method should be prefered. The arguments being that: 1) We aren't indexing into an in-memory collection, the indexer is basically performing a hidden SQL query 2) Using a Guid in an indexer is bad (FxCop flagged this also) 3) Returning null from an indexer isn't normal behaviour 4) An API user generally wouldn't expect any of this behaviour I agree to an extent with (most of) these points. But I'm also inclined to argue that one of the characteristics of Linq is to abstract the database access to make it appear that you're simply working with a bunch of collections, even though the lazy evaluation paradigm means those collections aren't evaluated until you run a query over them. It doesn't seem inconsistent to me to access the datastore in the same manner as if it was a concrete in-memory collection here. Also bearing in mind this is an inherited codebase which uses this pattern extensively and consistently, is it worth the refactoring? I accept that it might have been better to use a Get method from the start, but I'm not yet convinced that it's completely incorrect to be using an indexer. I'd be interested to hear all opinions, thanks.

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• Resolving Circular References for Objects Implementing ISerializable

  - by Chris

  I'm writing my own IFormatter implementation and I cannot think of a way to resolve circular references between two types that both implement ISerializable. Here's the usual pattern: [Serializable] class Foo : ISerializable { private Bar m_bar; public Foo(Bar bar) { m_bar = bar; m_bar.Foo = this; } public Bar Bar { get { return m_bar; } } protected Foo(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { m_bar = (Bar)info.GetValue("1", typeof(Bar)); } public void GetObjectData(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { info.AddValue("1", m_bar); } } [Serializable] class Bar : ISerializable { private Foo m_foo; public Foo Foo { get { return m_foo; } set { m_foo = value; } } public Bar() { } protected Bar(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { m_foo = (Foo)info.GetValue("1", typeof(Foo)); } public void GetObjectData(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { info.AddValue("1", m_foo); } } I then do this: Bar b = new Bar(); Foo f = new Foo(b); bool equal = ReferenceEquals(b, b.Foo.Bar); // true // Serialise and deserialise b equal = ReferenceEquals(b, b.Foo.Bar); If I use an out-of-the-box BinaryFormatter to serialise and deserialise b, the above test for reference-equality returns true as one would expect. But I cannot conceive of a way to achieve this in my custom IFormatter. In a non-ISerializable situation I can simply revisit "pending" object fields using reflection once the target references have been resolved. But for objects implementing ISerializable it is not possible to inject new data using SerializationInfo. Can anyone point me in the right direction?

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• How to overload operator<< for qDebug

  - by iyo

  Hi, I'm trying to create more useful debug messages for my class where store data. My code is looking something like this #include <QAbstractTableModel> #include <QDebug> /** * Model for storing data. */ class DataModel : public QAbstractTableModel { // for debugging purposes friend QDebug & operator<< (const QDebug &d, DataModel model); //other stuff }; /** * Overloading operator for debugging purposes */ QDebug & operator<< (QDebug &d, DataModel model) { d << "Hello world!"; return d; } I expect qDebug() << model will print "Hello world!". However, there is alway something like "QAbstractTableModel(0x1c7e520)" on the output. Do you have any idea what's wrong?

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• UIView animation only animating some of the things I ask it to

  - by Ben

  I have a series of (say) boxes on the screen in a row, all subviews of my main view. Each is a UIView. I want to shift them all left and have a new view also enter the screen from the right in lockstep. Here's what I'm doing: // First add a dummy view offscreen UIView * stagingView = /* make this view, which sets up its width/height */ CGRect frame = [stagingView frame]; frame.origin.x = /* just off the right side of the screen */; [stagingView setFrame:frame]; [self stagingView]; And then I set up animations in one block for all of my subviews (which includes the one I just added): [UIView beginAnimations:@"shiftLeft" context:NULL]; [UIView setAnimationCurve:UIViewAnimationCurveEaseInOut]; [UIView setAnimationDelegate:self]; [UIView setAnimationDidStopSelector:@selector(_animationDidStop:context:)]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.3]; for (UIView * view in [self subviews]) { CGRect frame = [view frame]; frame.origin.x -= (frame.size.width + viewPadding); [view setFrame:frame]; } [UIView commitAnimations]; Here's what I expect: The (three) views already on screen get shifted left and the newly staged view marches in from the right at the same time. Here's what happens: The newly staged view animates in exactly as expected, and the views already on the screen do not appear to move at all! (Or possibly they jump without animation to their end locations). And! If I comment out the whole business of creating the new subview offscreen... the ones onscreen do animate correctly! Huh? (Thanks!)

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• JConsole does not connect when a program is waiting for a console input

  - by Calm Storm

  Hi, I have a problem similar to the one mentioned here. I have a program which launches a selenium browser and refreshes it every 2 seconds. My idea here was to monitor the memory usage of my application as the page is being hit. This console program does a "System.in.read" and when a user presses enter key, this stops the browser refresh thread. I run the program and it runs as I would expect it to. But when I fire jconsole and attach it to the process, it looks like jconsole waits forever to attach. This is because of the "System.in.read", apparently as shown in the JConsole source. In my code it makes perfect sense for me to terminte the browser when user presses something so is there any alternative available at all ? (Posted code sample below) package com.ekanathk; import java.util.ArrayList; import java.util.List; import org.junit.Test; public class MultiThread { @Test public void testSimple() throws Exception { List<Integer> x = new ArrayList<Integer>(); for(int i = 0; i < 1000; i++) { x.add(i); } System.out.print("Press Enter to stop (try attach a jconsole now...."); System.in.read(); } } The problem here seems to be that any System.in.read (either in Main thread or any threads) seems to completely block jconsole. I guess the problem essentially boils down to multiple threads requesting system inputs at the same time? Is there a solution ?

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• How to test if raising an event results in a method being called conditional on value of parameters

  - by MattC

  I'm trying to write a unit test that will raise an event on a mock object which my test class is bound to. What I'm keen to test though is that when my test class gets it's eventhandler called it should only call a method on certain values of the eventhandlers parameters. My test seems to pass even if I comment the code that calls ProcessPriceUpdate(price); I'm in VS2005 so no lambdas please :( So... public delegate void PriceUpdateEventHandler(decimal price); public interface IPriceInterface{ event PriceUpdateEventHandler PriceUpdate; } public class TestClass { IPriceInterface priceInterface = null; TestClass(IPriceInterface priceInterface) { this.priceInterface = priceInterface; } public void Init() { priceInterface.PriceUpdate += OnPriceUpdate; } public void OnPriceUpdate(decimal price) { if(price > 0) ProcessPriceUpdate(price); } public void ProcessPriceUpdate(decimal price) { //do something with price } } And my test so far :s public void PriceUpdateEvent() { MockRepository mock = new MockRepository(); IPriceInterface pi = mock.DynamicMock<IPriceInterface>(); TestClass test = new TestClass(pi); decimal prc = 1M; IEventRaiser raiser; using (mock.Record()) { pi.PriceUpdate += null; raiser = LastCall.IgnoreArguments().GetEventRaiser(); Expect.Call(delegate { test.ProcessPriceUpdate(prc); }).Repeat.Once(); } using (mock.Playback()) { test.Init(); raiser.Raise(prc); } }

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• Copy an entity in Google App Engine datastore in Python without knowing property names at 'compile'

  - by Gordon Worley

  In a Python Google App Engine app I'm writing, I have an entity stored in the datastore that I need to retrieve, make an exact copy of it (with the exception of the key), and then put this entity back in. How should I do this? In particular, are there any caveats or tricks I need to be aware of when doing this so that I get a copy of the sort I expect and not something else. ETA: Well, I tried it out and I did run into problems. I would like to make my copy in such a way that I don't have to know the names of the properties when I write the code. My thinking was to do this: #theThing = a particular entity we pull from the datastore with model Thing copyThing = Thing(user = user) for thingProperty in theThing.properties(): copyThing.__setattr__(thingProperty[0], thingProperty[1]) This executes without any errors... until I try to pull copyThing from the datastore, at which point I discover that all of the properties are set to None (with the exception of the user and key, obviously). So clearly this code is doing something, since it's replacing the defaults with None (all of the properties have a default value set), but not at all what I want. Suggestions?

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• Replacing .NET WebBrowser control with a better browser, like Chrome?

  - by Sylverdrag

  Is there any relatively easy way to insert a modern browser into a .NET application? As far as I understand, the WebBrowser control is a wrapper for IE, which wouldn't be a problem except that it looks like it is a very old version of IE, with all that entails in terms of CSS screw-ups, potential security risks (if the rendering engine wasn't patched, can I really expect the zillion buffer overflow problems to be fixed?), and other issues. I am using Visual Studio C# (express edition - does it make any difference here?) I would like to integrate a good web browser in my applications. In some, I just use it to handle the user registration process, interface with some of my website's features and other things of that order, but I have another application in mind that will require more err... control. I need: A browser that can integrate inside a window of my application (not a separate window) A good support for CSS, js and other web technologies, on par with any modern browser Basic browser functions like "navigate", "back", "reload"... Liberal access to the page code and output. I was thinking about Chrome, since it comes under the BSD license, but I would be just as happy with a recent version of IE. As much as possible, I would like to keep things simple. The best would be if one could patch the existing WebBrowser control, which does already about 70% of what I need, but I don't think that's possible. I have found an activeX control for Mozilla (http://www.iol.ie/~locka/mozilla/control.htm) but it looks like it's an old version, so it's not necessarily an improvement. I am open to suggestions

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• PostgreSQL insert on primary key failing with contention, even at serializable level

  - by Steven Schlansker

  I'm trying to insert or update data in a PostgreSQL db. The simplest case is a key-value pairing (the actual data is more complicated, but this is the smallest clear example) When you set a value, I'd like it to insert if the key is not there, otherwise update. Sadly Postgres does not have an insert or update statement, so I have to emulate it myself. I've been working with the idea of basically SELECTing whether the key exists, and then running the appropriate INSERT or UPDATE. Now clearly this needs to be be in a transaction or all manner of bad things could happen. However, this is not working exactly how I'd like it to - I understand that there are limitations to serializable transactions, but I'm not sure how to work around this one. Here's the situation - ab: => set transaction isolation level serializable; a: => select count(1) from table where id=1; --> 0 b: => select count(1) from table where id=1; --> 0 a: => insert into table values(1); --> 1 b: => insert into table values(1); --> ERROR: duplicate key value violates unique constraint "serial_test_pkey" Now I would expect it to throw the usual "couldn't commit due to concurrent update" but I'm guessing since the inserts are different "rows" this does not happen. Is there an easy way to work around this?

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• Why does adding Crossover to my Genetic Algorithm gives me worse results?

  - by MahlerFive

  I have implemented a Genetic Algorithm to solve the Traveling Salesman Problem (TSP). When I use only mutation, I find better solutions than when I add in crossover. I know that normal crossover methods do not work for TSP, so I implemented both the Ordered Crossover and the PMX Crossover methods, and both suffer from bad results. Here are the other parameters I'm using: Mutation: Single Swap Mutation or Inverted Subsequence Mutation (as described by Tiendil here) with mutation rates tested between 1% and 25%. Selection: Roulette Wheel Selection Fitness function: 1 / distance of tour Population size: Tested 100, 200, 500, I also run the GA 5 times so that I have a variety of starting populations. Stop Condition: 2500 generations With the same dataset of 26 points, I usually get results of about 500-600 distance using purely mutation with high mutation rates. When adding crossover my results are usually in the 800 distance range. The other confusing thing is that I have also implemented a very simple Hill-Climbing algorithm to solve the problem and when I run that 1000 times (faster than running the GA 5 times) I get results around 410-450 distance, and I would expect to get better results using a GA. Any ideas as to why my GA performing worse when I add crossover? And why is it performing much worse than a simple Hill-Climb algorithm which should get stuck on local maxima as it has no way of exploring once it finds a local max?

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• jsf immediate="true" question regarding binding to session bean

  - by jamiebarrow

  Hi, I have a listing page that goes to an add page. The add page has a name textbox whose value is bound to a session scoped bean. The listing page has an add button that goes via an action method to the add page. This action method clears the object that the name textbox is bound to. I also have a cancel button on the add page, which is bound to an action method that again clears the value that the name textbox is bound to. If nothing is set to immediate, this all works fine. However, if I set the cancel button to immediate, if I enter values in the name field, and then click cancel, the action method is fired and clears the object in the backing bean and goes to the listing page. If I then click add, the action method clears the object again (ignore if it's best method or not) and then goes to the add page. I would now expect the add page's name textbox to be empty, but it's not?! Surely, since the add button is not immediate, the values should be re-bound and empty? Below is the relevant XHTML for the add button on the listing page <h:commandButton id="addButton" value="Add" action="#{myBean.gotoAdd}"/> Below is the relevant XHTML for the input box on the add page (myBean is session scoped), followed by that of the cancel button on the add page.: <h:inputText id="newName" value="#{myBean.newObject.name}" binding="#{myBean.newNameInput}" styleClass="name" /> <h:commandButton id="cancelButton" value="Cancel" immediate="true" action="#{myBean.cancelAdd}" onclick="return confirm('You sure?');"/>

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• Photoshop CS5 not recognising activeDocument

  - by Max Kielland

  I wrote a quite big script for Photoshop CS5.1 on my 64bit Vista machine. Now when I run the very same script on my new 64bit Windows 7 machine, Adobe ExtendScript Tool complains about activeDocument (no such element) in this simple script: #target photoshop var pDoc = app.activeDocument; alert("Done!"); I have tried both and without #target and choosing the target in the ExtendedScript Tool. Is there something I have missed, or do I need to install something more. I only installed the 64bit version of Photoshop. Is it so that the 32bit Photoshop has the script extensions? I don't see why I need to install both 32bit and 64bit versions if I'm only going to use the 64bit version. EDIT I installed the 32bit version as well. Tried the same script against 32 and 64 bit, still no difference. SOLVED The mystery is solved. It is embarrassing simple if you interpret the error message more careful. Of course I can't get an activeDocument if there are no documents in Photoshop, duh!?! I interpreted it as the statement activeDocument wasn't recognised, but of course if I have no document there is no such element (as a photoshop document) to give me. I'm used to C++ and would expect the reuslt to be a NULL value or similar if there is a problem to get the document... excuses, excuses ;) Well, if someone else should get into the same problem, here is the answer on my expense :D

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• Memory Bandwidth Performance for Modern Machines

  - by porgarmingduod

  I'm designing a real-time system that occasionally has to duplicate a large amount of memory. The memory consists of non-tiny regions, so I expect the copying performance will be fairly close to the maximum bandwidth the relevant components (CPU, RAM, MB) can do. This led me to wonder what kind of raw memory bandwidth modern commodity machine can muster? My aging Core2Duo gives me 1.5 GB/s if I use 1 thread to memcpy() (and understandably less if I memcpy() with both cores simultaneously.) While 1.5 GB is a fair amount of data, the real-time application I'm working on will have have something like 1/50th of a second, which means 30 MB. Basically, almost nothing. And perhaps worst of all, as I add multiple cores, I can process a lot more data without any increased performance for the needed duplication step. But a low-end Core2Due isn't exactly hot stuff these days. Are there any sites with information, such as actual benchmarks, on raw memory bandwidth on current and near-future hardware? Furthermore, for duplicating large amounts of data in memory, are there any shortcuts, or is memcpy() as good as it will get? Given a bunch of cores with nothing to do but duplicate as much memory as possible in a short amount of time, what's the best I can do?

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• VB .Net - Reflection: Reflected Method from a loaded Assembly executes before calling method. Why?

  - by pu.griffin

  When I am loading an Assembly dynamically, then calling a method from it, I appear to be getting the method from Assembly executing before the code in the method that is calling it. It does not appear to be executing in a Serial manner as I would expect. Can anyone shine some light on why this might be happening. Below is some code to illustrate what I am seeing, the code from the some.dll assembly calls a method named PerformLookup. For testing I put a similar MessageBox type output with "PerformLookup Time: " as the text. What I end up seeing is: First: "PerformLookup Time: 40:842" Second: "initIndex Time: 45:873" Imports System Imports System.Data Imports System.IO Imports Microsoft.VisualBasic.Strings Imports System.Reflection Public Class Class1 Public Function initIndex(indexTable as System.Collections.Hashtable) As System.Data.DataSet Dim writeCode As String MessageBox.Show("initIndex Time: " & Date.Now.Second.ToString() & ":" & Date.Now.Millisecond.ToString()) System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(5000) writeCode = RefreshList() End Function Public Function RefreshList() As String Dim asm As System.Reflection.Assembly Dim t As Type() Dim ty As Type Dim m As MethodInfo() Dim mm As MethodInfo Dim retString as String retString = "" Try asm = System.Reflection.Assembly.LoadFrom("C:\Program Files\some.dll") t = asm.GetTypes() ty = asm.GetType(t(28).FullName) 'known class location m = ty.GetMethods() mm = ty.GetMethod("PerformLookup") Dim o as Object o = Activator.CreateInstance(ty) Dim oo as Object() retString = mm.Invoke(o,Nothing).ToString() Catch Ex As Exception End Try return retString End Function End Class

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• In .NET, Why Can I Access Private Members of a Class Instance within the Class?

  - by AMissico

  While cleaning some code today written by someone else, I changed the access modifier from Public to Private on a class variable/member/field. I expected a long list of compiler errors that I use to "refactor/rework/review" the code that used this variable. Imagine my surprise when I didn't get any errors. After reviewing, it turns out that another instance of the Class can access the private members of another instance declared within the Class. Totally unexcepted. Is this normal? I been coding in .NET since the beginning and never ran into this issue, nor read about it. I may have stumbled onto it before, but only "vaguely noticed" and move on. Can anyone explain this behavoir to me? I would like to know the "why" I can do this. Please explain, don't just tell me the rule. Am I doing something wrong? I found this behavior in both C# and VB.NET. The code seems to take advantage of the ability to access private variables. Sincerely, Totally Confused Class Jack Private _int As Integer End Class Class Foo Public Property Value() As Integer Get Return _int End Get Set(ByVal value As Integer) _int = value * 2 End Set End Property Private _int As Integer Private _foo As Foo Private _jack As Jack Private _fred As Fred Public Sub SetPrivate() _foo = New Foo _foo.Value = 4 'what you would expect to do because _int is private _foo._int = 3 'TOTALLY UNEXPECTED _jack = New Jack '_jack._int = 3 'expected compile error _fred = New Fred '_fred._int = 3 'expected compile error End Sub Private Class Fred Private _int As Integer End Class End Class

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• Accuracy of OpenGL ES Instrument

  - by Rob Jones

  I'm developing a game for the iPhone. I've decided that 30FPS is plenty so I've written some code that only allows the App to present the render buffer every 1/30 of a second. When I tried to verify this with Instruments I got varying information. On an iPod Touch (2009 edition, 32G) it reports 30 FPS for Core Animation Frames Per Second. On an iPhone 3G I get wildly varying results. And not just less than 30 FPS. I see 30 FPS on a regular basis. It actually seems to hang closer to 36-39. To investigate this anomaly I added my own FPS to the app and update it once per second. I stays right at 29 FPS on both devices. So, does anyone have any suggestions as to what might be going on? I expect Instruments to be accurate so it really concerns me that it appears inaccurate. It makes me think I have a bug somewhere, but I sure can't find it.

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• JPA/Hibernate query with class name?

  - by Petteri Hietavirta

  In this example com.test.Cat extends com.test.Animal and there is no field DB in CAT table of com.test.Cat explicitly defining its type (it wasn't me). When I query my animals from DB I get a collection of Animals. It is possible to sort them by class name: order by r.class but is there a way to use class name as a criteria? For example I would like to get all animals expect dogs. But no luck - even this does not work: where r.class = ? (String "ccc.test.Cat") as I get an exception: Caused by: java.lang.ClassCastException: java.lang.String cannot be cast to java.lang.Integer at org.hibernate.type.IntegerType.set(IntegerType.java:64) at org.hibernate.type.NullableType.nullSafeSet(NullableType.java:154) at org.hibernate.type.NullableType.nullSafeSet(NullableType.java:136) at org.hibernate.param.PositionalParameterSpecification.bind(PositionalParameterSpecification.java:62) at org.hibernate.loader.hql.QueryLoader.bindParameterValues(QueryLoader.java:514) at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.prepareQueryStatement(Loader.java:1589) at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.doQuery(Loader.java:696) at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.doQueryAndInitializeNonLazyCollections(Loader.java:259) at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.doList(Loader.java:2228) at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.listIgnoreQueryCache(Loader.java:2125) at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.list(Loader.java:2120) at org.hibernate.loader.hql.QueryLoader.list(QueryLoader.java:401) at org.hibernate.hql.ast.QueryTranslatorImpl.list(QueryTranslatorImpl.java:361) at org.hibernate.engine.query.HQLQueryPlan.performList(HQLQueryPlan.java:196) at org.hibernate.impl.SessionImpl.list(SessionImpl.java:1148) at org.hibernate.impl.QueryImpl.list(QueryImpl.java:102) at org.hibernate.ejb.QueryImpl.getResultList(QueryImpl.java:67)

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