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  • Asynchronous URL connection objective C

    - by tweety
    I created an asynchronous URL connection to call a web service using HTTP POST method. after I am pinging the web i set an NSTimerInterval in the completion handler. my problem is when I'm trying to display the time on the view controller it is not doing promptly. I know block is stored in the heap and gets executed later on anytime and probably that's why i'm not getting prompt answer. I was wondering is there any other way to do this? Thanks in advance. my code: __block NSDate *start= [NSDate date]; __block NSDate *end; __block double miliseconds; __block NSTimeInterval time; [NSURLConnection sendAsynchronousRequest:urlRequest queue:queue completionHandler:^(NSURLResponse *response, NSData *data, NSError *error) { if([data length]==0 && error==nil){ end=[NSDate date]; time=[end timeIntervalSinceDate:start]; NSLog(@"Successfully Pinged"); miliseconds = time; // calling a method to display ping time [self label:miliseconds]; } -(void) label:(double) mili{ double miliseconds=mili*1000; self.timeDisplay.text=[NSString stringWithFormat:@"Time: %.3f ms", miliseconds];

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  • Change URL Submitted to Depending on Form Selection

    - by Chris
    I have a form which I need to submit to one of three different URLs depending on a selection made in the form. I suspect the easiest solution is to use jQuery to insert the appropriate path before the rest of the form parameters as the selection is made, but not sure on what the code would be. Any pointers greratly appreciated! <form id="myForm" action='/booking/default-path' accept-charset='utf-8' method='get'> <select name="paramA" id="paramA"> <option id="optionA" value="A" selected="selected">Option A</option> <option id="optionB" value="B">Option B</option> </select> <select name="currency" id="currency"> <option id="GBP" value="GBP" selected="selected">British Pounds</option> <option id="EUR" value="EUR">Euros</option> <option id="USD" value="USD">US Dollars</option> </select> <input type="submit" value="submit" id="submit" name="submit" /> </form> Where the three different URLs would be: ../booking/default-path-gbp?...[params here]... ../booking/default-path-eur?...[params here]... ../booking/default-path-usd?...[params here]... I know it would be a lot easier to incorporate the parameter in the usual way and just use one submission URL root, but unfortunately I'm submitting to an eComms system out of my control and am stuck with having to find a solution to this. Should be easy I think, but not sure where to start, jQuery used elsewhere, so would prefer to use this framework in any solutions.

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  • jquery tabs - load url in current tab?

    - by BigDogsBarking
    I'm trying to figure out how to load the url each tab links to inside the tab area onclick, and have been trying to following the docs at http://docs.jquery.com/UI/Tabs#...open_links_in_the_current_tab_instead_of_leaving_the_page, but am clearly not getting it.... This is the HTML markup: <div class="tabs"> <ul class="tabNav"> <li><a href="/1.html#tabone">Tab One</a></li> <li><a href="/2.html#tabtwo">Tab Two</a></li> <li><a href="/3.html#tabthree">Tab Three</a></li> </ul> </div> <div id="tabone"> <!-- Trying to load content from 1.html in this div on click --> </div> <div id="tabtwo"> <!-- Trying to load content from 2.html in this div on click --> </div> <div id="tabthree"> <!-- Trying to load content from 3.html in this div on click --> </div> And this is the jquery I'm trying to use: $(".tabs").tabs({ load: function(event, ui) { $('a', ui.panel).click(function() { $(ui.panel).load(this.href); return false; }); } }); I know I've got some part of this wrong.... I've gone through several iterations (too many to post), and all I get is a blank div... I don't know... Feeling a bit confused here... Help?

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  • Route URL laravel 4

    - by nabil l.
    How can I do this in Laravel 4 URL::route('auth.reset', array('kh34KHh4K342')) Instead of http://domain.tld/auth/reset?kh34KHh4K342 I want to get this : http://domain.tld/auth/reset/kh34KHh4K342 EDIT This my routes.php : The problem is because I have two routes with the same name? How do you explain that ? Should i set a different name event is the same kind, and different methods // Set locale $locale = Request::segment(1); if(in_array($locale, Config::get('app.languages'))) { \App::setLocale($locale); } else { $locale = null; } Route::group( array( 'prefix' => $locale ), function () { Route::get('/'), array( 'uses' => 'HomeController@getIndex', 'as' => '/' )); // Auth Route::group( array( 'prefix' => 'auth' ), function () { // Login Route::get( 'login', array( 'before' => 'guest', 'uses' => 'UserController@getLogin', 'as' => 'auth.login' ) ); Route::post( 'login', array( 'before' => 'guest|csrf', 'uses' => 'UserController@postLogin', 'as' => 'auth.login' ) ); Route::get( 'reset/{$token}', array( 'uses' => 'UserController@getReset', 'as' => 'auth.reset' ) ); Route::post( 'reset', array( 'uses' => 'UserController@postReset', 'as' => 'auth.reset' ) ); } );

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  • Upload image from URL to FTP server using PHP

    - by user1807556
    I want to upload a picture from another site to my FTP server using PHP. Example: File to upload("http://page.mi.fu-berlin.de/krudolph/stuff/stackoverflow.png") FTP-path("pictures/") This is what I've already tried: 1 $image = file_get_contents("http://img.youtube.com/vi/Rz8KW4Tveps/1.jpg"); file_put_contents("imgfolder/imgID.jpg", $image); 2 copy('http://img.youtube.com/vi/Rz8KW4Tveps/1.jpg', 'imgfolder/imgID.jpg'); 3 <?php set_time_limit (24 * 60 * 60); if (!isset($_POST['submit'])) die(); $file = fopen ($url, "rb"); if ($file) { $newf = fopen ($newfname, "wb"); if ($newf) while(!feof($file)) { fwrite($newf, fread($file, 1024 * 2000 ), 1024 * 2000 ); } } if ($file) { fclose($file); } if ($newf) { fclose($newf); } ?> 4 http://www.teckdevil.com/php-server-to-server-transfer-script-to-remotely-transfer-files/ 5 (kinda the same as first linked) Download files directly to my server # I don't get any errors when I'm running the scripts and I have chmod the directory to 777.

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  • Hide div based on url

    - by Ghetto Styles
    Sorry if this is another repost. I have been attempting to find a solution but nothing works that I have tried. I am using a blog which I have full html control over. I can usually find my way around basic html but when it comes to Java or CSS I am a complete newb. Sorry, I know absolutely nothing. Now that that is out of the way. I have two sidebar div's that I am trying to hide on one specific url to utilize more space for a content iframe. This is one of the coded I have tried to use which doesn't seem to work or I am missing something. <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <head> <script language="text/javascript" <?php &#36;(function(){ if (window.location.search === "mywebsite/Videos.html") { &#36;('#navleft').hide(); } else { &#36;('#navleft').show(); } }); ?> </script> Please remember I do not know anything when it comes to php or java. I want to do this for both #navright and #navleft. Also this is in the CSS section. Thanks for any help!! #navright{ width: 200px; } #navleft{ width: 200px; } #content{ margin:0px; }

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  • Jquery gradient behavior applies to all but first URL

    - by Dustin
    I've got a page that shows my photography portfolio. I'm trying to do a jquery gradient on the text, and it's working on all but the first link. Here's the html: <h1><a href="portfolio/engagements"><span></span>engagements</a> | </h1><br> <h1><a href="portfolio/weddings"><span></span>weddings</a> | </h1> <br> <h1><a href="portfolio/bridals"><span></span>bridals</a> | </h1> <br> <h1><a href="portfolio/families"><span></span>families</a> | </h1> <br> <h1><a href="portfolio/seniors"><span></span>seniors</a> </h1> <br> And here's the jquery call: $(".jquery h1").prepend("<span></span>"); And here's the css for it: .gradient4 span { background: url(images/gradient-dark.png) repeat-x; position: absolute; bottom: -0.1em; display: inline; width: 100%; height: 29px; } The problem I'm having is that all urls but the first link (currently 'engagements'), have the gradient effect. Any ideas why the first link isn't working?

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  • URL path changes between dev and published version

    - by Bob Horn
    I just got Scott Hanselman's chat app with SignalR working with ASP.NET MVC 4. After hours of configuration, trial and error, and getting different versions of Windows to talk to each other on my home network, it's all working except that I'm left with one issue that I'm not sure how to handle. This line of javascript has to change, depending on if I'm running the app through Visual Studio or the published (IIS) version: Works when running within VS: var connection = $.connection('echo'); Works with published version: var connection = $.connection('ChatWithSignalR/echo'); When I run within VS, the URL is: http://localhost:9145/ And the published version is: http://localhost/ChatWithSignalR If I don't change that line of code, and try to run the app within VS, using the javascript that has ChatWithSignalR in it, I get an error like this: Failed to load resource: the server responded with a status of 404 (Not Found) http://localhost:9145/ChatWithSignalR/echo/negotiate?_=1347809290826 What can I do so that I can use the same javascript code and have it work in both scenarios? var connection = $.connection('??????'); Note, this is in my Global.asax.cs: RouteTable.Routes.MapConnection<MyConnection>("echo", "echo/{*operation}");

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  • Server Unable to Capture the POST Data sent from another server by Redirecting the URL

    - by user1749092
    Recently i started working on the Payment Gateway( further spelled as 'PG') process for my site. And for the process we have to send the Post data by form to PG server by redirecting to there page and by response from the PG about the Transaction they are sending POST data by redirecting the URL to our server page, the problem arises here, as my server unable to retrieve the POST Data sent from PG server. As i am coding in PHP, i tried to print all the response coming from PG by print_r($_POST); and even tried with print_r($_REQUEST);. I didn't found any data printing except the PHPSESSID and some other data array. As for the confirmation I checked wether they sending the Data or not by the IE addon as "TamperIE" where it is showing the all the POST Data sending from there server. But it is not at all coming to our server. And I tried this process on some other Server, there i able to get the POST response but not with currently working server. So please can you suggest me what might be the problem. Thanks!

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  • Adding an integer at the end of an input's name to get a specific url

    - by Gadgetster
    I am trying to get a url where I can retrieve the selected values from. For example, if I put a check mark on a and b then sumbit, I will get: index.php?category=1&&category=2 I want to get this instead: index.php?category0=1&&category1=2 So that I can later get this specific value with $_GET['category0'] Is there a way to add a counter for the selected checkboxes and add 0,1,2,3.. at the end of the name of its input? <form action="" method="get"> <!-- this will be a php loop instead of hardcored which will retrieve data from the db --> <label><input type="checkbox" name="category" value="1">a</label> <label><input type="checkbox" name="category" value="2">b</label> <label><input type="checkbox" name="category" value="3">c</label> <label><input type="checkbox" name="category" value="4">d</label> <label><input type="checkbox" name="category" value="5">e</label> <input type="submit"> </form>

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  • Apache mod_rewrite : How to REWRITE (or whatever) child directories to parent?

    - by ????
    Actually i am trying to make a PHP MVC like application. A basic one. The current milestone i am reaching already includes: Basic RESTful Routing Means, if i type: www.example.com/items/book/8888 .. it properly just stays there as it is and i can already slice out the URL by slashes / and loads the responsible Controllers .... etc from the top single index.php file. I mean, so it is OK for the backend PHP. But the only problem is, it still CAN NOT process the REWRITES properly. For example, the CSS & JS are BROKEN as if i VIEW PAGE SOURCE of the page www.example.com/items/book/8888, the asset files are being called as: www.example.com/items/book/8888/css/main.css www.example.com/items/book/8888/js/jquery.js .. which really are PROBLEMS because in the code is like: <link type="text/css" rel="stylesheet" media="all" href="css/main.css"> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery.js"></script> So the question is: How can i use Apache REWRITE (or whatever approach) to make sure every ASSET FILES to be correctly being called from the DOCROOT. For example, if i am in the URL: www.example.com/items/book/8888 My ASSET FILES should still be called as: www.example.com/css/main.css www.example.com/js/jquery.js Or is there any other methods i need to follow? Please kindly help suggest. Thank you.

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  • Spring rejecting bean name, no URL paths specified

    - by richever
    I am trying to register an interceptor using a annotation-driven controller configuration. As far as I can tell, I've done everything correctly but when I try testing the interceptor nothing happens. After looking in the logs I found the following: 2010-04-04 20:06:18,231 DEBUG [main] support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory (AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:452) - Finished creating instance of bean 'org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping#0' 2010-04-04 20:06:18,515 DEBUG [main] handler.AbstractDetectingUrlHandlerMapping (AbstractDetectingUrlHandlerMapping.java:86) - Rejected bean name 'org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping#0': no URL paths identified 2010-04-04 20:06:19,109 DEBUG [main] support.AbstractBeanFactory (AbstractBeanFactory.java:241) - Returning cached instance of singleton bean 'org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping#0' Look at the second line of this log snippet. Is Spring rejecting the DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping bean? And if so could this be the problem with my interceptor not working? Here is my application context: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:p="http://www.springframework.org/schema/p" xmlns:context="http://www.springframework.org/schema/context" xmlns:mvc="http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc" xsi:schemaLocation=" http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/context http://www.springframework.org/schema/context/spring-context-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc/spring-mvc-3.0.xsd" default-autowire="byName"> <!-- Configures the @Controller programming model --> <mvc:annotation-driven /> <!-- Scan for annotations... --> <context:component-scan base-package=" com.splash.web.controller, com.splash.web.service, com.splash.web.authentication"/> <bean id="authorizedUserInterceptor" class="com.splash.web.handler.AuthorizedUserInterceptor"/> <bean class="org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping"> <property name="interceptors"> <list> <ref bean="authorizedUserInterceptor"/> </list> </property> </bean> Here is my interceptor: package com.splash.web.handler; import javax.servlet.http.HttpServletRequest; import javax.servlet.http.HttpServletResponse; import org.apache.log4j.Logger; import org.springframework.beans.factory.annotation.Autowired; import org.springframework.web.servlet.handler.HandlerInterceptorAdapter; public class AuthorizedUserInterceptor extends HandlerInterceptorAdapter { @Override public boolean preHandle(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response, Object handler) throws Exception { log.debug(">>> Operation intercepted..."); return true; } } Does anyone see anything wrong with this? What does the error I mentioned above actually mean and could it have any bearing on the interceptor not being called? Thanks!

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  • getting autodiscover URL from Exchange email address

    - by Anthony
    I'm starting with an address for an Exchange 2007 server: [email protected] And I attempted to send an autodiscover request, as documented at MSDN. I attempted to use the generic autodiscover address documented at the TechNet White Paper. So, using curl on PHP, I sent the following request: <Autodiscover xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/exchange/autodiscover/outlook/requestschema/2006"> <Request> <EMailAddress>[email protected]</EMailAddress> <AcceptableResponseSchema> http://schemas.microsoft.com/exchange/autodiscover/outlook/responseschema/2006a </AcceptableResponseSchema> </Request> </Autodiscover> to the following URL: https://domain.exchangeserver.org/autodiscover/autodiscover.xml But got no response, just an eventual timeout. I also tried: https://autodiscover.domain.exchangeserver.org/autodiscover/autodiscover.xml With the same result. Now, since my larger goal is to use Autodiscover with Exchange Web Services, and since all of the EWS URLs start with the same sub-domain as the Outlook Web Access address, I thought I'd give that a try: OWA: https://wmail.domain.exchangeserver.org So I tried: https://wmail.domain.exchangeserver.org/autodiscover/autodiscover.xml And sure enough, I got back the expected response. However, I only knew the OWA sub-domain because it's the server I have access to and that I'm using to test everything. I would not know it for sure or be able to guess it if this were a live app and the user was entering in their own Exchange email. I know that whatever generic autodiscover settings must be turned on, because I can enter: [email protected] into Apple Mail on Snow Leopard and it finds everything without trouble. So the question is... Should https://domain.exchangeserver.org/autodiscover/autodiscover.xml have worked, and I just missed a step when trying to connect to it? Or, Is there some trick (maybe involving pinging the email address?) that Apple Mail and other clients use to resolve the address to the OWA subdomain before sending the autodiscover request? Thanks to anyone who knows or can take a wild guess.

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  • ASP.NET 2.0 and 4.0 seem to treat the root url differently in Forms Authentication

    - by Kev
    If have the following web.config: <configuration> <system.web> <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms name="MembershipCookie" loginUrl="Login.aspx" protection="All" timeout="525600" slidingExpiration="true" enableCrossAppRedirects="true" path="/" /> </authentication> <authorization> <deny users="?" /> </authorization> </system.web> <location path="Default.aspx"> <system.web> <authorization> <allow users="*"/> </authorization> </system.web> </location> </configuration> The application is an ASP.NET 2.0 application running on Windows 2008R2/IIS7.5. If the site's application pool is configured to run ASP.NET 2.0 and I browse to http://example.com then Default.aspx is rendered as you'd expect from the rules above. However if the application pool is set to run ASP.NET 4.0 I am redirected to the login page. If I explicitly specify http://example.com/default.aspx then all is good and default.aspx renders. I've tried rewriting / -> /default.aspx (using IIS UrlRewriter 2.0) but the result is still the same, I get kicked to the login page. I've also tried this with an ASP.NET 4.0 application with the same result (which is where the problem initially arose). The reason I tried this with a 2.0 application was to see if there was a change in behaviour, and it seems that / is handled differently in 4.0. So to summarise, using the configuration above the following is observed: ASP.NET Version Url Behaviour ------------------------------------------------------------------------- 2.0 http://example.com Renders Default.aspx 2.0 http://example.com/Default.aspx Renders Default.aspx 4.0 http://example.com Redirects to Login.aspx 4.0 http://example.com/Default.aspx Renders Default.aspx Is this a bug/breaking change or have I missed something glaringly obvious?

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  • .htaccess mod_rewrite URL query

    - by 1001001
    I was hoping someone could help me out. I'm building a CRM application and need help modifying the .htaccess file to clean up the URLs. I've read every post regarding .htaccess and mod_rewrite and I've even tried using http://www.generateit.net/mod-rewrite/ to obtain the results with no success. Here is what I am attempting to do. Let's call the base URL www.domain.com We are using php with a mysql back-end and some jQuery and javascript In that "root" folder is my .htaccess file. I'm not sure if I need a .htaccess file in each subdirectory or if one in the root is enough. We have several actual directories of files including "crm", "sales", "finance", etc. First off we want to strip off all the ".php" extensions which I am able to do myself thanks to these posts. However, the querying of the company and contact IDs are where I am stuck. Right now if I load www.domain.com/crm/companies.php it displays all the companies in a list. If I click on one of the companies it uses javascript to call a "goto_company(x)" jQuery script that writes a form and submit that form based on the ID (x) of the company. This works fine and keeps the links clean as all the end user sees is www.domain.com/crm/company.php. However you can't navigate directly to a company. So we added a few lines in PHP to see if the POST is null and try a GET instead allowing us to do www.domain.com/crm/company.php?companyID=40 which displays company #40 out of the database. I need to rewrite this link, and all other associated links to www.domain.com/crm/company/40 I've tried everything and nothing seems to work. Keep in mind that I need to do this for "contacts" and also on the sales portion of the app will need to do something for "deals". To summarize here's what I am looking to do: Change www.domain.com/crm/dash.php to www.domain.com/crm/dash Change www.domain.com/crm/company.php?companyID=40 to www.domain.com/crm/company/40 Change www.domain.com/crm/contact.php?contactID=27 to www.domain.com/crm/contact/27 Change www.domain.com/sales/dash.php to www.domain.com/sales/dash Change www.domain.com/sales/deal.php?dealID=6 to www.domain.com/sales/deal/6 (40, 27, and 6 are just arbitrary numbers as examples) Just for reference, when I used the generateit.net/mod-rewrite site using www.domain.com/crm/company.php?companyID=40 as an example, here is what it told me to put in my .htaccess file: Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^crm/company/([^/]*)$ /crm/company.php?companyID=$1 [L] Needless to say that didn't work.

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  • Is there a pattern or best practice for passing a reference type to multiple classes vs a static class?

    - by Dave
    My .NET application creates HTML files, and as such, the structure looks like variable myData BuildHomePage() variable graph = new BuildGraphPage(myData) variable table = BuildTablePage(myData) BuildGraphPage and BuildTablePage both require access data, the myData object. In the above example, I've passed the myData object to 2 constructors. This is what I'm doing now, in my current project. The myData object, and it's properties are all readonly. The problem is, the number of pages which will require this object has grown. In the real project, there are currently 4, but the new spec is to have about 20. Passing this object to the constructor of each new object and assigning it to a field is a little time consuming, but not a hardship! This poses the question whether it's better practice to continue as I have, or to refactor and create a new static class for myData which can be referenced from any where in my project. I guess my abilities to use Google are poor, because I did try and find an appropriate pattern as I am sure this type of design must be common place but my results returned nothing. Is there a pattern which is suited, or do best practices lean towards one implementation over another.

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  • Code maintenance: keeping a bad pattern when extending new code for being consistent or not ?

    - by Guillaume
    I have to extend an existing module of a project. I don't like the way it has been done (lots of anti-pattern involved, like copy/pasted code). I don't want to perform a complete refactor. Should I: create new methods using existing convention, even if I feel it wrong, to avoid confusion for the next maintainer and being consistent with the code base? or try to use what I feel better even if it is introducing another pattern in the code ? Precison edited after first answers: The existing code is not a mess. It is easy to follow and understand. BUT it is introducing lots of boilerplate code that can be avoided with good design (resulting code might become harder to follow then). In my current case it's a good old JDBC (spring template inboard) DAO module, but I have already encounter this dilemma and I'm seeking for other dev feedback. I don't want to refactor because I don't have time. And even with time it will be hard to justify that a whole perfectly working module needs refactoring. Refactoring cost will be heavier than its benefits. Remember: code is not messy or over-complex. I can not extract few methods there and introduce an abstract class here. It is more a flaw in the design (result of extreme 'Keep It Stupid Simple' I think) So the question can also be asked like that: You, as developer, do you prefer to maintain easy stupid boring code OR to have some helpers that will do the stupid boring code at your place ? Downside of the last possibility being that you'll have to learn some stuff and maybe you will have to maintain the easy stupid boring code too until a full refactoring is done)

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  • Creating Google sitemap.xml , is it okay for the images to be wrapped in url tags?

    - by AzizAG
    I'm using a tool to generate the sitemap.xml file for me, it started to crawl my website, got the pages and all images, but when exporting it, I review the xml(to make sure nothing is wrong) and I noticed that the images in my website are wrapped in url tags(I think it should be in image tags). See this: <url><loc>http://mywebsite.com/images/12.jpg</loc><lastmod>2012-05-23T13:39:02+00:00</lastmod><changefreq>weekly</changefreq><priority>0.50</priority></url> Shouldn't it be wrapped in image tag?(just like videos wrapped in video tag) Thanks.

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  • Best way to redirect users back to the pretty URL who land on the _escaped_fragment_ one?

    - by Ryan
    I am working on an AJAX site and have successfully implemented Google's AJAX recommendation by creating _escape_fragment_ versions of each page for it to index. Thus each page has 2 URLs: pretty: example.com#!blog ugly: example.com?_escaped_fragment_=blog However, I have noticed in my analytics that some users are arriving on the site via the "ugly" URL and am looking for a clean way to redirect them to the pretty URL without impacting Google's ability to index the site. I have considered using a 301 redirect in the head but fear that Googlebot might try to follow it and end up in an endless loop. I have also considered using a JavaScript redirect that Googlebot wouldn't execute but fear that Google may interpret this as cloaking and penalize the website. Is there a good, clean, acceptable way to redirect real users away from the ugly URL if for some reason or another they end up arriving at the site that way?

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  • Are first-class functions a substitute for the Strategy pattern?

    - by Prog
    The Strategy design pattern is often regarded as a substitute for first-class functions in languages that lack them. So for example say you wanted to pass functionality into an object. In Java you'd have to pass in the object another object which encapsulates the desired behavior. In a language such as Ruby, you'd just pass the functionality itself in the form of an annonymous function. However I was thinking about it and decided that maybe Strategy offers more than a plain annonymous function does. This is because an object can hold state that exists independently of the period when it's method runs. However an annonymous function by itself can only hold state that ceases to exist the moment the function finishes execution. So my question is: when using a language that features first-class functions, would you ever use the Strategy pattern (i.e. encapsulate the functionality you want to pass around in an explicit object), or would you always use an annonymous function? When would you decide to use Strategy when you can use a first-class function?

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  • Is there a name for the Builder Pattern where the Builder is implemented via interfaces so certain parameters are required?

    - by Zipper
    So we implemented the builder pattern for most of our domain to help in understandability of what actually being passed to a constructor, and for the normal advantages that a builder gives. The one twist was that we exposed the builder through interfaces so we could chain required functions and unrequired functions to make sure that the correct parameters were passed. I was curious if there was an existing pattern like this. Example below: public class Foo { private int someThing; private int someThing2; private DateTime someThing3; private Foo(Builder builder) { this.someThing = builder.someThing; this.someThing2 = builder.someThing2; this.someThing3 = builder.someThing3; } public static RequiredSomething getBuilder() { return new Builder(); } public interface RequiredSomething { public RequiredDateTime withSomething (int value); } public interface RequiredDateTime { public OptionalParamters withDateTime (DateTime value); } public interface OptionalParamters { public OptionalParamters withSeomthing2 (int value); public Foo Build ();} public static class Builder implements RequiredSomething, RequiredDateTime, OptionalParamters { private int someThing; private int someThing2; private DateTime someThing3; public RequiredDateTime withSomething (int value) {someThing = value; return this;} public OptionalParamters withDateTime (int value) {someThing = value; return this;} public OptionalParamters withSeomthing2 (int value) {someThing = value; return this;} public Foo build(){return new Foo(this);} } } Example of how it's called: Foo foo = Foo.getBuilder().withSomething(1).withDateTime(DateTime.now()).build(); Foo foo2 = Foo.getBuilder().withSomething(1).withDateTime(DateTime.now()).withSomething2(3).build();

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  • Help! Requesting a change of URL on Yahoo Directory!

    - by Sei
    I submitted a couple websites on yahoo directory a month ago. For some reason, the url they listed was not the url I asked for, they listed the Japanese version instead of the submitted English version (this is a English directory so obviously it is a mistake). I requested changes and was accepted. But the reality is they promised a change but it was never really done. I contacted them again and again through the 'request a change in URL' form, but there is no answer. Is there any effective way that I can get to them? preferably a phone number or email? Thanks a lot!

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  • In Django, what's the best way to handle optional url parameters from the template?

    - by Thierry Lam
    I have the following type of urls which are both valid: hello/ hello/1234/ My urls.py has the following: urlpatterns = patterns('hello.views', url(r'^$', 'index', name='index'), url(r'^(?P<user_id>\d+)/$', 'index', name='index'), ) In my views.py, when I pass user_id to the template, it defaults to 0 if not specified. My template looks like the following, I'm using namespace hello for my hello app: {% url hello:index user_id %} If user_id is not specified, the url defaults to hello/0/. The only way I can think of preventing the default 0 from showing in the url is by an if stmt: {% if user_id %} {% url hello:index user_id %} {% else %} {% url hello:index %} {% endif %} The above will give me hello/ if there are no user_id and hello/1234/ if it's present. Is the above solution the best way to solve this issue?

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  • Suggest encoding which removes slashes which I can use as the format for REST-style URL-paramteters

    - by Binary255
    Given a path to a REST style URL: http://site.com/rest/customer/foo/robot/bar/1 When you GET it, it returns a PDF to the foo-customer containing page 1 of the bar-URL. While foo is the name of the customer bar is an URL. The URL usually contains slashes and might look something like this: http://anothersite.com/interestingarticle.html As REST URL's separate arguments by slashes I can't just put it into the REST URL above. Which encoding should I use? I can't use Base 64 as it utilizes the slash as well. As a technical note I will encode the URL in a .NET-application and decode it in PHP.

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  • mod_rewrite per-dir redirection returning a 400

    - by Eaterrust
    I moved my images directory to a different folder, and now I want to redirect all images requests from that folder to the new one. I do not have access to the main configuraion file, so I'm doing this in a .htaccess. I tried this, and it works:     RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} old_dir/.+.(jpg|png|gif)$     RewriteRule old_dir/(.+[^/]+..+)$ $1 [L,PT] But since they have permanently moved, I want to do a proper redirect, so I added the [R] flag, like this:      %{REQUEST_URI} old_dir/.+.(jpg|png|gif)$     RewriteRule old_dir/(.+[^/]+..+)$ $1 [L,PT,R] But the server gets confused, and returns a 400, so I looked at the log file, and this is what happens:     strip per-dir prefix: C:/wamp/www/natrazyle/old_dir/images/banner.jpg - old_dir/images/banner.jpg     applying pattern 'old_dir/(.+[^/]+..+)$' to uri 'old_dir/images/banner.jpg'     rewrite 'old_dir/images/banner.jpg' - 'images/banner.jpg'     add per-dir prefix: images/banner.jpg - C:/wamp/www/natrazyle/images/banner.jpg     explicitly forcing redirect with http://localhost/C:/wamp/www/natrazyle/images/banner.jpg As you can see, the full local path gets added after localhost I know I'm doing something wrong, I just can't figure it out myself. Any help would be greatly appreciated...

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