Search Results

Search found 39386 results on 1576 pages for 'public ip'.

Page 144/1576 | < Previous Page | 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151  | Next Page >

  • How to disable Tcp/Ip settings in windows 7 via GPO?

    - by Akash Kava
    I have enabled following policies, "Prohibit TCP/IP advanced connection" "Prohibit access to properties of components of a LAN connection" "Enable Windows 2000 Network Connections setings for Administrators" after doing all these, all machines running windows xp, 2000 and vista have network settings properties button disabled as expected. However all machines running windows 7 have no effect, I believe there are few more steps, all Windows 7 machines are on domain and we want to control this via Domain Controler's GPO. Please let me know, what I need to do to have Windows 7 disable the properties of network connection, I am not network expert, I read few articles about what new has been added in GPO of windows 7 but I am blank. Everything works fine on Windows XP, Vista, 2003 Server. Only Windows 7 is a problem.

    Read the article

  • Why would my router have different MAC addresses for IP and IPv6 transactions?

    - by user329161
    Today I was using tcpdump and I noticed my computer was having IPv6 traffic with a particular MAC address that I could not match with an IP using nmap or arping. After looking at the tcpdump logs a little more closely, I figured out it was another MAC address my router was using but exclusively for IPv6 traffic. 22:49:01.936830 90:0d:cb:ff:31:91 (oui Unknown) > 33:33:00:00:00:01 (oui Unknown), ethertype IPv6 (0x86dd), length 158: fe80::920d:cbff:feff:3191 > ip6-allnodes: ICMP6, router advertisement, length 104 Why would a router offer a different MAC address for IPv6?

    Read the article

  • VMWare Player guest does not re-aquire IP on bridged interface after host loses and re-acquires network connectivity

    - by Vineet
    I am running a Ubuntu Linux image in VMWare Player on my laptop. The host is Windows XP. There are two network adapters configured in VMWare Player - one is host-only and the other is bridged. Everything works fine as long as the host does not lose network connectivity. If the host loses connectivity (even briefly) and then re-acquires it, my bridged adapter in VMWare Player is still unable to get an IP address. The host-only adapter remains unaffected. Disconnecting/Reconnecting the bridged adapter does not help. Simply restarting the guest OS does not help. Restarting VMWare Player does not help. The only remedy is to reboot the host and then bring up VMWare Player all over again. Is there something I can try to avoid this reboot? I searched the existing questions but they seemed to talk about adapters in NAT mode, whereas I am interested in retaining Bridged mode.

    Read the article

  • How to Configure IIS 7.5 to Host Several Classic ASP Sites using 1 IP Address?

    - by SidC
    We are running Windows Server 2008 R2 with IIS 7.5 and have 4-5 Classic ASP sites to install. The main site is stored in wwwroot and the other sites are stored in folders below wwwroot. We have 1 IP address for the server. How do I configure IIS to allow folks to browse/test the sites before domain names are pointed to te server? When I setup one of the sites in a subfolder of wwwroot and assign a separate port to it, I receive a message stating: Config Error Cannot add duplicate collection entry of type 'add' with unique key attribute 'value' set to 'index.asp' How do I remedy this error and permit IIS to render the site?

    Read the article

  • using iptables to change a destination port but keep the ip the same.

    - by Scott Chamberlain
    I am playing around with transparent proxies, The current way I am doing things is the program makes a request to a computer on port 80, I use iptables -t nat -A OUTPUT -p tcp --destination-port 80 -j REDIRECT --to-port 1234 to redirect to my proxy that I am playing with. the proxy will send out a request to port 81 (as all outbound port 80 are being fed back in to the proxy so I want to do something like iptables -t nat -A OUTPUT -p tcp --destination-port 81 -j DNAT --to-destination xxxx:80 The problem lies with the xxxx part. How do I change the destination port without changing changing the destination ip? Or am I doing this setup completely wrong, I am learning after all and constructive criticism is definitely appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Can I set up a COM Port that Connects via TCP/IP?

    - by Kristopher Johnson
    I have an RS232 device connected to a Digi PortServer on my network. I can telnet to the Digi's IP and port number to communicate with that RS232 device. I have a Windows application that knows how to talk to the device, but it wants to connect directly to an RS232 port. So, my question: Is there some way to set up a COM port so that when this application connects to it, it goes through the network to the Digi to communicate with the device? I have run across the utility TCP-Com, which seems like it might be a solution. Is this the best option?

    Read the article

  • How to associate a domain name and IP address?

    - by StackedCrooked
    The situation is as follows: I am renting a dedicated server using SliceHost. On this server I have installed a small HTTPServer. I can verify that it works by nativating directly to its IP address (example). I have also purchased a domain name from gandi.net and would like to link it with to my server. However, I'm having much trouble finding clear instructions on how to create this link. After a few hours of reading documentation and trying out things I ended up the following configuration. on the DNS registrar I have specified the following settings: on the Slicehost server I specified these "records": But it doesn't seem to work. I end up on this page telling me the domain name is not available. Does anyone have an idea what I am doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • Why ping another innet machine from MacBook get netgate's ip address?

    - by Xinwang
    I have three machine in my home network connected by a wireless router. One is server installed linux at 192.168.1.1, another is Thinkpad with MS Windows XP at 192.168.1.2, last one is MacBook Pro with Mac OS X 10.6.3 at 192.168.1.3. When I ping the Linux Server from Thinkpad (MS Windows XP) I can get the correct ip address, but when I ping it from Mac I get the global address of my router, like 61.135.181.175. Could you tell me why this happen? And how do I get same ping result on Mac and Windows. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Does an SMTP request contain host header information (or just the IP of the targeted SMTP server)?

    - by Olaf
    We are using an external commercial smtp server for our newsletters (sending them through .NET components), and they offer two smtp URLs - smtp.critsend.com and fast.critsend.com -, and the second one is reserved for sending singular emails, the first one for bulk. Using nslookup shows that both resolve to the same 4 IP addresses (fast.critsend.com being an Alias). Question: (how) is it possible for the smtp relay to distinguish between different names? Is there something in the headers that can be compared to host headers in http protocol (I didn't find any intelligible information for a non-sysadmins)? The reason I'm asking is because we would like to use one of the IPs in our newsletter script (which works) rather than a name (in order to save DNS requests), and we are wondering about potential problems.

    Read the article

  • Win 2003 STD network adapter always showing DHCP when in static IP configuration, + it loses the DNS

    - by Darragh
    Hi, I have a server that after the first configuration it was DHCP, now I have added it to our domain and in a static IP, however after a few moments it returns to DHCP but with only some of the IPv4 setting staying the same, It loses DNS for example. I'm not sure what is causing the problem but all I know is this started to happen after I added it to the domain, Would it be a domain policy? or the NIC drivers Spec; Dell M605 Blade server Windows 2003 STD SP1 Intel Xeon Quad core NIC: Dual embedded Broadcom NetXtreme IITM 5708 Gigabit Ethernet NIC w/ TOE

    Read the article

  • How to connect a remote IP Phone to our VOIP Network?

    - by Mistiry
    We have an IP phone system in our office, and about 8 VoIP phones running on the system. We have a remote worker, who is literally states away. We'd like to connect his phone to our VoIP network, so that he has a business phone and an extension to which we could transfer calls. I was thinking, although I don't know for sure, that a pair of Cisco routers could be used in some way to make this work. I imagine a VPN solution, where I have one router connected to the phone network and the other router connected to the remote phone. Then have a site-to-site VPN set up so that the remote router... And that's where I'm stuck. I know the remote router will need to use the DHCP server of the phone system. I've never set up something like this, so I am seeking the help of the community here. What is the best way to get this remote VoIP phone RELIABLY connected to our internal VoIP network?

    Read the article

  • Why ping another inet machine from MacBook get netgate's ip address?

    - by Xinwang
    I have three machine in my home network connected by a wireless router. One is server installed linux at 192.168.1.1, another is Thinkpad with MS Windows XP at 192.168.1.2, last one is MacBook Pro with Mac OS X 10.6.3 at 192.168.1.3. When I ping the Linux Server from Thinkpad (MS Windows XP) I can get the correct ip address, but when I ping it from Mac I get the global address of my router, like 61.135.181.175. Could you tell me why this happen? And how do I get same ping result on Mac and Windows. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Can't copy Ilias-folder via FQDN, but via ip-address?

    - by Lars
    I have an Ilias-Installation, which is available through two virtual hosts: the FQDN and the ip-address. The first server is ssl only, the second plain http. Both configuration files look the same except for the SSL-part: SSLEngine on SSLCertificateFile /etc/apache2/ssl/ilias.pem In the Ilias-Webinterface, I can copy a folder on the plain http. But if I try to copy the same folder on the ssl virtual host, I get the notice, that the copy was started (rough german translation here), but the folder does not show up. There are no errors in the error-logs of php or the webserver and as said, no differences beside the ssl-part. The guys at an ilias-forum did not have an idea, either. Any ideas in here?

    Read the article

  • How to set up a DNS name server to always resolve to a constant IP address for every request

    - by Andy Higgins
    I am looking for a simple DNS name server set up to always return the same IP address no matter what the request is. The reason for this is we are a domain registrar and when a domain is first registered we need it to have valid name servers (and don't want to have to first create name server records before registering a domain). We will then subsequently change the name server records after the domain has been registered. I assume this is possible to do with bind but was wondering if there might be a simpler solution available using one of the more light weight name servers out there? Any suggestions on how to accomplish this in a simple manner will be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • How to set which IP to use for a HTTP request?

    - by GetFree
    This is probably a silly question. I'm doing some http requests using wget from the command line, and I want those connections to be made through one specific IP of the 4 IPs my server has. Those http requests go to one specific range of IPs so I only want those to be routed differently. The 4 interfaces in my server are eth0, eth0:0, eth0:1, eth0:2. I tried with the following command: route add -net 192.164.10.0/24 dev eth0:0 But when I see the routing table it says: Destination Gateway Genmask Flags MSS Window irtt Iface 192.164.10.0 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 U 0 0 0 eth0 The interface is set to eth0 not eth0:0 as my command says. What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • Map localhost to IP address on Windows XP & Internet Explorer 7+?

    - by roblocop
    I'm trying to map 'localhost' to an IP address elsewhere on the network, say '10.0.1.1' for example. I've tried editing my hosts file, changing the entry from: 127.0.0.1 localhost to 10.0.1.1 localhost with no luck. The closest I've gotten is using DNS spoofing via Charles. Adding a DNS spoof entry mapping the host name 'localhost' to '10.0.1.1' works fine in Firefox, but fails in Internet Explorer, basically showing IE's 404 page. I'm wondering if there's some specific setting or way I can get DNS spoofing to work in IE? The main issue I'm trying to resolve is that our development environment points to 'localhost' and rather than setting the dev env up in a legacy Windows laptop to try and debug, point to a server that has it all setup and I can make the changes remotely.

    Read the article

  • Windows updates behind a physical firewall with only IP based rules and generic outbound connections are turned off

    - by user125245
    I have some boxes that I do not want to allow any in or outbound traffic to the internet Except for windows updates. However the fire wall in place (Cisco ASA) apparently only supports ip based rules. As best I can tell access to Microsoft updates via anything other then the half dozen URL masks the Microsoft lists as needed does not appear possible. I have kicked around building a full WSUS that I would then manually copy the update files to so that no direct Microsoft access is needed but this sounds very top heavy for the very few boxes involved. I have also kicked around manual updates all around but am not certain how to be conveniently and confidently sure that the correct updates are being applied in the correct order. Any ideas from any direction would be appreciated. I want this as simple / cost effective as possible but have very little flexibility on the only absolutely required internet access policy.

    Read the article

  • Folder sync application which can sync over Internet (the other machine specified by an IP)?

    - by Adal
    I need to sync some folders between two Win 7 machines. While they are connected to the same LAN, they can't see each-other over Windows Networking since sharing is disabled on both of them (security reasons). Do you know any sync app which can work over IP? The folder I need to sync has 500,000 files in it (80 GB in total), so the sync app should be pretty efficient. At the moment I copy the files from one machine to the other over FTP, but it takes forever, since a separate connection is opened for each file. Or maybe you know some app which can efficiently transfer a large number of files between two machines on the Internet?

    Read the article

  • XP Filesharing works with IP's but not computer names.

    - by Luminose
    I recently ran into a problem where I was setting up a 5 person LAN. I enabled filesharing on the main computer and wanted to allow the other 4 computers to have access. 2 computers were able to access \expample without any issues. 1 computer would only connect if I uses the ip address \x.x.x.x\data. The third computer was able to access \example but required the user to login every time they tried to access the share. Why is there such inconsistency in these connections? All 5 computers are Windows XP Professional.

    Read the article

  • Can a VPN tell my country besides looking at my IP address?

    - by Tankgurl
    I VPN into a network daily. I'm currently in the USA, but will relocate soon. I am looking into buying a dedicated IP address located in the USA and setting up my router to use that from the other country. Is there a way those operating the VPN network could tell my location through whatever information their VPN sees? I already know the time/date stamp on my computer is an issue because I don't have admin rights to change it – so I'm working on a solution for that.

    Read the article

  • IP Helper service uses 50-60% CPU every 1 minute for 3-4 seconds on Windows 7

    - by Sarveshwar
    I have checked everything - all the processes in the process explorer. IP Helper service is causing CPU usage of over 50 % every 1 minute for 3-4 seconds then comes back to normal. In the task manager, the process is svchost.exe and the service is iphlpsvc. Here's the result of "ipconfig /all" command: ![alt text][1] [1]: From Snapshots Here's a screenshot of "netsh interface teredo show state" command: ![alt text][1] [1]: From Snapshots Please help me resolve this. Also utorrent is not showing the teredo address.

    Read the article

  • NHibernate unmapped class exception

    - by John Prideaux
    I am trying to implement a one-to-many relationship using NHibernate 2.1.2 but keep getting "Association references unmapped class" exceptions. I have verified that my hbm.xml files are embedded resource. Here are my classes and mappings. Any ideas? public class OrderStatus { public virtual decimal MainCommit { get; set; } public virtual decimal CommitNumber { get; set; } public virtual string InvoiceNumber { get; set; } public virtual string ShipTo { get; set; } public virtual string CustomerOrderNumber { get; set; } public virtual string Station { get; set; } public virtual DateTime RequestedShipDate { get; set; } public virtual decimal EstimatedValue { get; set; } public virtual decimal EstimatedWeight { get; set; } public virtual string Customer { get; set; } public virtual DateTime InvoiceDate { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<Promise> Promises { get; set; } } <class name="AladdinDb.Models.OrderStatus, AladdinDb" table="vorder_status"> <id name="CommitNumber" type="decimal" column="commit_no"> <generator class="assigned"> <param name="property"> Plan </param> </generator> </id> <property name="MainCommit" column="main_commit" type="decimal" /> <property name="InvoiceNumber" column="invoice_no" type="string" /> <property name="ShipTo" column="ship_to" type ="string"/> <property name="CustomerOrderNumber" column="cust_order_no" type="string" /> <property name="Station" column="station" type="string" /> <property name="RequestedShipDate" column="req_ship_date" type="DateTime" /> <property name="EstimatedValue" column="estimated_value" type="decimal"/> <property name="EstimatedWeight" column="estimated_weight" type="decimal" /> <property name="Customer" column="customer" type="string" /> <property name="InvoiceDate" column="invoice_date" /> <set name="Promises"> <key column="commit_no"></key> <one-to-many class="Promise" /> </set> </class> public class Promise { public virtual decimal CommitNumber { get; set; } public virtual DateTime PromiseDate { get; set; } public virtual string WhoAsked { get; set; } public virtual string WhoGave { get; set; } public virtual string Iffy { get; set; } } <class name="AladdinDb.Models.Promise, AladdinDb" table="promise"> <id name="CommitNumber" type="decimal" column="commit_no"> <generator class="assigned" /> </id> <property name="PromiseDate" column="promise_date" /> <property name="WhoAsked" column="who_asked" /> <property name="WhoGave" column="who_gave" /> <property name="Iffy" column="iffy" /> </class>

    Read the article

  • MVC Persist Collection ViewModel (Update, Delete, Insert)

    - by Riccardo Bassilichi
    In order to create a more elegant solution I'm curios to know your suggestion about a solution to persist a collection. I've a collection stored on DB. This collection go to a webpage in a viewmodel. When the go back from the webpage to the controller I need to persist the modified collection to the same DB. The simple solution is to delete the stored collection and recreate all rows. I need a more elegant solution to mix the collections and delete not present record, update similar records ad insert new rows. this is my Models and ViewModels. public class CustomerModel { public virtual string Id { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual IList<PreferredAirportModel> PreferedAirports { get; set; } } public class AirportModel { public virtual string Id { get; set; } public virtual string AirportName { get; set; } } public class PreferredAirportModel { public virtual AirportModel Airport { get; set; } public virtual int CheckInMinutes { get; set; } } // ViewModels public class CustomerViewModel { [Required] public virtual string Id { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual IList<PreferredAirporViewtModel> PreferedAirports { get; set; } } public class PreferredAirporViewtModel { [Required] public virtual string AirportId { get; set; } [Required] public virtual int CheckInMinutes { get; set; } } And this is the controller with not elegant solution. public class CustomerController { public ActionResult Save(string id, CustomerViewModel viewModel) { var session = SessionFactory.CurrentSession; var customer = session.Query<CustomerModel>().SingleOrDefault(el => el.Id == id); customer.Name = viewModel.Name; // How cai I Merge collections handling delete, update and inserts ? var modifiedPreferedAirports = new List<PreferredAirportModel>(); var modifiedPreferedAirportsVm = new List<PreferredAirporViewtModel>(); // Update every common Airport foreach (var airport in viewModel.PreferedAirports) { foreach (var custPa in customer.PreferedAirports) { if (custPa.Airport.Id == airport.AirportId) { modifiedPreferedAirports.Add(custPa); modifiedPreferedAirportsVm.Add(airport); custPa.CheckInMinutes = airport.CheckInMinutes; } } } // Remove common airports from ViewModel modifiedPreferedAirportsVm.ForEach(el => viewModel.PreferedAirports.Remove(el)); // Remove deleted airports from model var toDelete = customer.PreferedAirports.Except(modifiedPreferedAirports); toDelete.ForEach(el => customer.PreferedAirports.Remove(el)); // Add new Airports var toAdd = viewModel.PreferedAirports.Select(el => new PreferredAirportModel { Airport = session.Query<AirportModel>(). SingleOrDefault(a => a.Id == el.AirportId), CheckInMinutes = el.CheckInMinutes }); toAdd.ForEach(el => customer.PreferedAirports.Add(el)); session.Save(customer); return View(); } } My environment is ASP.NET MVC 4, nHibernate, Automapper, SQL Server. Thank You!!

    Read the article

  • How to get Media Picker Field via proxy record of many-to-many in orchard

    - by Sergey Schipanov
    I need to access mediapickerfield in Widget view. This field is relative to 'ActionPart'. I have a problem, when I create many-to-many relationships to display my 'ActionPart' in the widget. When I mapped many-to-many I take an 'ActionPart' and but cannot access the mediapickerfield. Records classes public class ActionPartRecord : ContentPartRecord { public virtual string Text { get; set; } public virtual double Price { get; set; } public virtual int TextPosX { get; set; } public virtual int TextPosY { get; set; } public virtual String TextSale { get; set; } public virtual int Color { get; set; } } public class ActionListRecord { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual ActionPartRecord ActionPartRecord { get; set; } public virtual ActionWidgetPartRecord ActionWidgetPartRecord { get; set; } } public class ActionWidgetPartRecord : ContentPartRecord { public ActionWidgetPartRecord() { ActionList = new List<ActionListRecord>(); } public virtual IList<ActionListRecord> ActionList { get; set; } } public class ActionWidgetPart : ContentPart<ActionWidgetPartRecord> { public IEnumerable<ActionPartRecord> ActionList { get { return Record.ActionList.Select(x => x.ActionPartRecord); } } } ActionPart class public class ActionPart : ContentPart<ActionPartRecord> { public String Text { get { return Record.Text; } set { Record.Text = value; } } /*other field*/ } Migrations public int Create() { SchemaBuilder.CreateTable("ActionPartRecord", table => table .ContentPartRecord() .Column<string>("Text") .Column<double>("Price") .Column<int>("TextPosX") .Column<int>("TextPosY") .Column<string>("TextSale") .Column<int>("Color") ); ContentDefinitionManager.AlterPartDefinition("ActionPart", builder => builder .WithField("BaseImage", fieldBuilder => fieldBuilder.OfType("MediaPickerField").WithDisplayName("Action Image")) .WithField("PatternImage", fieldBuilder => fieldBuilder.OfType("MediaPickerField").WithDisplayName("Pattern Image")) .WithField("TimeExp", fieldBuilder => fieldBuilder.OfType("DateTimeField").WithDisplayName("Expecting date")) .Attachable()); ContentDefinitionManager.AlterTypeDefinition("Action", cfg => cfg .WithPart("CommonPart") .WithPart("TitlePart") .WithPart("RoutePart") .WithPart("BodyPart") .WithPart("ActionPart") .Creatable() .Indexed()); SchemaBuilder.CreateTable("ActionListRecord", table => table .Column<int>("Id", column => column.PrimaryKey().Identity()) .Column<int>("ActionPartRecord_Id") .Column<int>("ActionWidgetPartRecord_Id") ); SchemaBuilder.CreateTable("ActionWidgetPartRecord", table => table .ContentPartRecord() ); ContentDefinitionManager.AlterPartDefinition( "ActionWidgetPart", builder => builder.Attachable()); ContentDefinitionManager.AlterTypeDefinition("ActionWidget", cfg => cfg .WithPart("ActionWidgetPart") .WithPart("WidgetPart") .WithPart("CommonPart") .WithSetting("Stereotype", "Widget")); return 1; } Driver Display method protected override DriverResult Display( ActionWidgetPart part, string displayType, dynamic shapeHelper) { return ContentShape("Parts_ActionWidget", () => shapeHelper.Parts_ActionWidget( ContentPart: part, ActionList: part.ActionList)); } Widget View @foreach (var action in Model.ActionList) { <div class="item"> *How to access BaseImage Field in this row* <div class="sale-pattern"></div> <div class="container"> <div class="carousel-caption"> <h1>@action.Text</h1> <h1 class="price">@action.Price</h1> </div> </div> </div> }

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Validation Complete

    - by Ricardo Peres
    OK, so let’s talk about validation. Most people are probably familiar with the out of the box validation attributes that MVC knows about, from the System.ComponentModel.DataAnnotations namespace, such as EnumDataTypeAttribute, RequiredAttribute, StringLengthAttribute, RangeAttribute, RegularExpressionAttribute and CompareAttribute from the System.Web.Mvc namespace. All of these validators inherit from ValidationAttribute and perform server as well as client-side validation. In order to use them, you must include the JavaScript files MicrosoftMvcValidation.js, jquery.validate.js or jquery.validate.unobtrusive.js, depending on whether you want to use Microsoft’s own library or jQuery. No significant difference exists, but jQuery is more extensible. You can also create your own attribute by inheriting from ValidationAttribute, but, if you want to have client-side behavior, you must also implement IClientValidatable (all of the out of the box validation attributes implement it) and supply your own JavaScript validation function that mimics its server-side counterpart. Of course, you must reference the JavaScript file where the declaration function is. Let’s see an example, validating even numbers. First, the validation attribute: 1: [Serializable] 2: [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Property, AllowMultiple = false, Inherited = true)] 3: public class IsEvenAttribute : ValidationAttribute, IClientValidatable 4: { 5: protected override ValidationResult IsValid(Object value, ValidationContext validationContext) 6: { 7: Int32 v = Convert.ToInt32(value); 8:  9: if (v % 2 == 0) 10: { 11: return (ValidationResult.Success); 12: } 13: else 14: { 15: return (new ValidationResult("Value is not even")); 16: } 17: } 18:  19: #region IClientValidatable Members 20:  21: public IEnumerable<ModelClientValidationRule> GetClientValidationRules(ModelMetadata metadata, ControllerContext context) 22: { 23: yield return (new ModelClientValidationRule() { ValidationType = "iseven", ErrorMessage = "Value is not even" }); 24: } 25:  26: #endregion 27: } The iseven validation function is declared like this in JavaScript, using jQuery validation: 1: jQuery.validator.addMethod('iseven', function (value, element, params) 2: { 3: return (true); 4: return ((parseInt(value) % 2) == 0); 5: }); 6:  7: jQuery.validator.unobtrusive.adapters.add('iseven', [], function (options) 8: { 9: options.rules['iseven'] = options.params; 10: options.messages['iseven'] = options.message; 11: }); Do keep in mind that this is a simple example, for example, we are not using parameters, which may be required for some more advanced scenarios. As a side note, if you implement a custom validator that also requires a JavaScript function, you’ll probably want them together. One way to achieve this is by including the JavaScript file as an embedded resource on the same assembly where the custom attribute is declared. You do this by having its Build Action set as Embedded Resource inside Visual Studio: Then you have to declare an attribute at assembly level, perhaps in the AssemblyInfo.cs file: 1: [assembly: WebResource("SomeNamespace.IsEven.js", "text/javascript")] In your views, if you want to include a JavaScript file from an embedded resource you can use this code: 1: public static class UrlExtensions 2: { 3: private static readonly MethodInfo getResourceUrlMethod = typeof(AssemblyResourceLoader).GetMethod("GetWebResourceUrlInternal", BindingFlags.NonPublic | BindingFlags.Static); 4:  5: public static IHtmlString Resource<TType>(this UrlHelper url, String resourceName) 6: { 7: return (Resource(url, typeof(TType).Assembly.FullName, resourceName)); 8: } 9:  10: public static IHtmlString Resource(this UrlHelper url, String assemblyName, String resourceName) 11: { 12: String resourceUrl = getResourceUrlMethod.Invoke(null, new Object[] { Assembly.Load(assemblyName), resourceName, false, false, null }).ToString(); 13: return (new HtmlString(resourceUrl)); 14: } 15: } And on the view: 1: <script src="<%: this.Url.Resource("SomeAssembly", "SomeNamespace.IsEven.js") %>" type="text/javascript"></script> Then there’s the CustomValidationAttribute. It allows externalizing your validation logic to another class, so you have to tell which type and method to use. The method can be static as well as instance, if it is instance, the class cannot be abstract and must have a public parameterless constructor. It can be applied to a property as well as a class. It does not, however, support client-side validation. Let’s see an example declaration: 1: [CustomValidation(typeof(ProductValidator), "OnValidateName")] 2: public String Name 3: { 4: get; 5: set; 6: } The validation method needs this signature: 1: public static ValidationResult OnValidateName(String name) 2: { 3: if ((String.IsNullOrWhiteSpace(name) == false) && (name.Length <= 50)) 4: { 5: return (ValidationResult.Success); 6: } 7: else 8: { 9: return (new ValidationResult(String.Format("The name has an invalid value: {0}", name), new String[] { "Name" })); 10: } 11: } Note that it can be either static or instance and it must return a ValidationResult-derived class. ValidationResult.Success is null, so any non-null value is considered a validation error. The single method argument must match the property type to which the attribute is attached to or the class, in case it is applied to a class: 1: [CustomValidation(typeof(ProductValidator), "OnValidateProduct")] 2: public class Product 3: { 4: } The signature must thus be: 1: public static ValidationResult OnValidateProduct(Product product) 2: { 3: } Continuing with attribute-based validation, another possibility is RemoteAttribute. This allows specifying a controller and an action method just for performing the validation of a property or set of properties. This works in a client-side AJAX way and it can be very useful. Let’s see an example, starting with the attribute declaration and proceeding to the action method implementation: 1: [Remote("Validate", "Validation")] 2: public String Username 3: { 4: get; 5: set; 6: } The controller action method must contain an argument that can be bound to the property: 1: public ActionResult Validate(String username) 2: { 3: return (this.Json(true, JsonRequestBehavior.AllowGet)); 4: } If in your result JSON object you include a string instead of the true value, it will consider it as an error, and the validation will fail. This string will be displayed as the error message, if you have included it in your view. You can also use the remote validation approach for validating your entire entity, by including all of its properties as included fields in the attribute and having an action method that receives an entity instead of a single property: 1: [Remote("Validate", "Validation", AdditionalFields = "Price")] 2: public String Name 3: { 4: get; 5: set; 6: } 7:  8: public Decimal Price 9: { 10: get; 11: set; 12: } The action method will then be: 1: public ActionResult Validate(Product product) 2: { 3: return (this.Json("Product is not valid", JsonRequestBehavior.AllowGet)); 4: } Only the property to which the attribute is applied and the additional properties referenced by the AdditionalFields will be populated in the entity instance received by the validation method. The same rule previously stated applies, if you return anything other than true, it will be used as the validation error message for the entity. The remote validation is triggered automatically, but you can also call it explicitly. In the next example, I am causing the full entity validation, see the call to serialize(): 1: function validate() 2: { 3: var form = $('form'); 4: var data = form.serialize(); 5: var url = '<%: this.Url.Action("Validation", "Validate") %>'; 6:  7: var result = $.ajax 8: ( 9: { 10: type: 'POST', 11: url: url, 12: data: data, 13: async: false 14: } 15: ).responseText; 16:  17: if (result) 18: { 19: //error 20: } 21: } Finally, by implementing IValidatableObject, you can implement your validation logic on the object itself, that is, you make it self-validatable. This will only work server-side, that is, the ModelState.IsValid property will be set to false on the controller’s action method if the validation in unsuccessful. Let’s see how to implement it: 1: public class Product : IValidatableObject 2: { 3: public String Name 4: { 5: get; 6: set; 7: } 8:  9: public Decimal Price 10: { 11: get; 12: set; 13: } 14:  15: #region IValidatableObject Members 16: 17: public IEnumerable<ValidationResult> Validate(ValidationContext validationContext) 18: { 19: if ((String.IsNullOrWhiteSpace(this.Name) == true) || (this.Name.Length > 50)) 20: { 21: yield return (new ValidationResult(String.Format("The name has an invalid value: {0}", this.Name), new String[] { "Name" })); 22: } 23: 24: if ((this.Price <= 0) || (this.Price > 100)) 25: { 26: yield return (new ValidationResult(String.Format("The price has an invalid value: {0}", this.Price), new String[] { "Price" })); 27: } 28: } 29: 30: #endregion 31: } The errors returned will be matched against the model properties through the MemberNames property of the ValidationResult class and will be displayed in their proper labels, if present on the view. On the controller action method you can check for model validity by looking at ModelState.IsValid and you can get actual error messages and related properties by examining all of the entries in the ModelState dictionary: 1: Dictionary<String, String> errors = new Dictionary<String, String>(); 2:  3: foreach (KeyValuePair<String, ModelState> keyValue in this.ModelState) 4: { 5: String key = keyValue.Key; 6: ModelState modelState = keyValue.Value; 7:  8: foreach (ModelError error in modelState.Errors) 9: { 10: errors[key] = error.ErrorMessage; 11: } 12: } And these are the ways to perform date validation in ASP.NET MVC. Don’t forget to use them!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151  | Next Page >