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• New SBS 2011 installation (not migration) in an existing 2008 R2 domain

  - by Tong Wang

  My current network setup has two servers: a Windows 2008 R2 with TMG 2010 as edge firewall (TMG server), a second 2008 R2 with DC, DNS and Hyper-V roles (DCDNS server). I was trying to install SBS 2011 as a child partition on DCDNS, first I installed SBS 2011 in English and did the migration successfully. However, later on, I found that I can't change the display language in SBS 2011 once it's installed (but the clients require a different language), so I had to re-install the SBS in a different language. It is during the re-installation that the problem came up: the migration can't be completed with some error message stating "can't access the source server". I re-ran the migration preparation tool, but it didn't make any difference. I wonder if it's because the source server can only be "migrated" once. Since I only need to setup a handful of users and computers, so I decided to do a new install of SBS and picked a different domain name. But I can't get the SBS to connect to LAN: it can't ping other servers, neither can other servers ping the SBS server. I've tried to stop the DC/DNS services on DCDNS and restart SBS, but with no difference. Anyone has idea how to fix this problem?

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• XP box with 3 NICs on Server 2003 Domain

  - by Hannibal

  I have assigned all three NICs IP addresses that are outside the DHCP pool. I have 2 NICs are connected to 1 switch and the 3rd to my second switch. I want to assign one of the two NICs on the 1st switch to "normal" network activity (e.g. internet access, RDP, etc.) The other two NICs I want to reserve for mirroring ports on their respective switches. While this machine is connected to the domain I can access the internet and Remote Desktop. I have no idea which NIC I am using until I start mirroring a port, at which time, if I happen to be connected through one of the NICs I have dedicated to mirroring, I lose my remote desktop. I am aware that I would have more control over the NICs using Linux. I want to explore Windows solutions before I go that route because reinstalling another OS would be inconvenient (but not impossible). I would likely use a version of Backtrack (3 or 4 not sure). I would also have to learn how to access the machine remotely but I've done it before so this would be a minor obstacle. Thank you for your assistance.

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• Server 2008 R2 domain windows update strategy

  - by Joost Verdaasdonk

  Let me explain my question a bit. We are a small company that have now made the first move to a bigger network. For now the network contains of 5 servers 2008 R2 (dc,sql,web,etc..). Everything we need is now in place but for now we cannot afford to finish the network by implementing redundant systems. (secondary dc, dns, sql cluster, etc...) For some people this is hard to understand but this is the current situation. (and we are aware and will fix this when we can) Because we want to keep our system secure and up to date I've made sure that all systems are updated regularly. The problem is ofc that the nr of updates Microsoft rolls out that need a system reboot seam to occur more often. (maybe I'm wrong and it just feels like this) ;-) In our domain servers depend on each other for services (like SQL, WEB, or whatever) so just rebooting a server at will is NOT a good idea! For now I update all of them without rebooting at once. After all are up to date I bring them down in the order they are depended on each other. After this I reboot all of them in the inverse order. I understand ofc that if I DID have redundancy in my system that updating and rebooting would not be such a problem because the server task could be taken over by another node but this is something we generally need to add when we can. So my question is. If you read my above situation can you suggest me more Update strategies or general ideas that could help me do this process in a better / faster way? Thanks for your thoughts!

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• squid bypass for a domain

  - by krisdigitx

  i am using squid with adzap, it possible that squid/adzap does not cache for a particluar domain eg. cnn.com this is my squid.conf file # # Recommended minimum configuration: # acl manager proto cache_object acl localhost src 127.0.0.1/32 #acl localhost src ::1/128 acl to_localhost dst 127.0.0.0/8 0.0.0.0/32 #acl to_localhost dst ::1/128 # Example rule allowing access from your local networks. # Adapt to list your (internal) IP networks from where browsing # should be allowed acl localnet src 192.168.1.0/24 acl localnet src 192.168.2.0/24 acl SSL_ports port 443 acl Safe_ports port 80 # http acl Safe_ports port 21 # ftp acl Safe_ports port 443 # https acl Safe_ports port 70 # gopher acl Safe_ports port 210 # wais acl Safe_ports port 1025-65535 # unregistered ports acl Safe_ports port 280 # http-mgmt acl Safe_ports port 488 # gss-http acl Safe_ports port 591 # filemaker acl Safe_ports port 777 # multiling http acl CONNECT method CONNECT # # Recommended minimum Access Permission configuration: # # Only allow cachemgr access from localhost http_access allow manager localhost http_access deny manager # Deny requests to certain unsafe ports http_access deny !Safe_ports # Deny CONNECT to other than secure SSL ports http_access deny CONNECT !SSL_ports # We strongly recommend the following be uncommented to protect innocent # web applications running on the proxy server who think the only # one who can access services on "localhost" is a local user #http_access deny to_localhost # # INSERT YOUR OWN RULE(S) HERE TO ALLOW ACCESS FROM YOUR CLIENTS # # Example rule allowing access from your local networks. # Adapt localnet in the ACL section to list your (internal) IP networks # from where browsing should be allowed http_access allow localnet http_access allow localhost # And finally deny all other access to this proxy http_access deny all # Squid normally listens to port 3128 http_port xxx.xxx.xxx.yyy:3128 transparent visible_hostname proxyserver.local # We recommend you to use at least the following line. hierarchy_stoplist cgi-bin ? # Uncomment and adjust the following to add a disk cache directory. cache_dir ufs /var/spool/squid 1024 16 256 # Leave coredumps in the first cache dir coredump_dir /var/spool/squid # Add any of your own refresh_pattern entries above these. refresh_pattern ^ftp: 1440 20% 10080 refresh_pattern ^gopher: 1440 0% 1440 refresh_pattern -i (/cgi-bin/|\?) 0 0% 0 refresh_pattern . 0 20% 4320 access_log /var/log/squid/squid.log squid access_log syslog squid redirect_program /usr/local/adzap/scripts/wrapzap fixed using acl allow_domains dstdomain www.cnn.com always_direct allow allow_domains

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• Tracking a subdomain serately within the main domain account [closed]

  - by Vinay

  I have a website, for example: xyz.com and info.xyz.com. I created a profile for xyz and tracking is good. I added a new profile for info.xyz.com in xyz.com. Analytics tracking for info.xyz.com is showing traffic from both xyz.com and info.xyz.com. How do I change to show only info.xyz traffic in the info.xyz.com profile. I used the following code: Analytics code for xyz.com domain: <script type="text/javascript"> var _gaq = _gaq || []; _gaq.push(['_setAccount', 'UA-xxxxxx-x']); _gaq.push(['_trackPageview']); (function() { var ga = document.createElement('script'); ga.type = 'text/javascript'; ga.async = true; ga.src = ('https:' == document.location.protocol ? 'https://ssl' : 'http://www') + '.google-analytics.com/ga.js'; var s = document.getElementsByTagName('script')[0]; s.parentNode.insertBefore(ga, s); })(); </script> Analytics code for info.xyz.com <script type="text/javascript"> var _gaq = _gaq || []; _gaq.push(['_setAccount', 'UA-xxxxxx-x']); _gaq.push(['_setDomainName', 'xyz.com']); _gaq.push(['_trackPageview']); (function() { var ga = document.createElement('script'); ga.type = 'text/javascript'; ga.async = true; ga.src = ('https:' == document.location.protocol ? 'https://ssl' : 'http://www') + '.google-analytics.com/ga.js'; var s = document.getElementsByTagName('script')[0]; s.parentNode.insertBefore(ga, s); })(); </script>

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• Postfix : outgoing mail in TLS for a specific domain

  - by vercetty92

  I am trying to configure postfix to send mail in TLS (starttls in fact), but only for a specific destination. I tried with "smtp_tls_policy_maps". This is the only line in my main.cf file regarding TLS configuration, but it seems not working. Here is my main.cf file: queue_directory = /opt/csw/var/spool/postfix command_directory = /opt/csw/sbin daemon_directory = /opt/csw/libexec/postfix html_directory = /opt/csw/share/doc/postfix/html manpage_directory = /opt/csw/share/man sample_directory = /opt/csw/share/doc/postfix/samples readme_directory = /opt/csw/share/doc/postfix/README_FILES mail_spool_directory = /var/spool/mail sendmail_path = /opt/csw/sbin/sendmail newaliases_path = /opt/csw/bin/newaliases mailq_path = /opt/csw/bin/mailq mail_owner = postfix setgid_group = postdrop mydomain = ullink.net myorigin = $myhostname mydestination = $myhostname, localhost.$mydomain, localhost masquerade_domains = vercetty92.net alias_maps = dbm:/etc/opt/csw/postfix/aliases alias_database = dbm:/etc/opt/csw/postfix/aliases transport_maps = dbm:/etc/opt/csw/postfix/transport smtp_tls_policy_maps = dbm:/etc/opt/csw/postfix/tls_policy inet_interfaces = all unknown_local_recipient_reject_code = 550 relayhost = smtpd_banner = $myhostname ESMTP $mail_name debug_peer_level = 2 debugger_command = PATH=/bin:/usr/bin:/usr/local/bin:/usr/X11R6/bin xxgdb $daemon_directory/$process_name $process_id & sleep 5 And here is my "tls_policy" file: gmail.com encrypt protocols=SSLv3:TLSv1 ciphers=high I also tried gmail.com encrypt My wish is to use TLS only for the gmail domain. With this configuration, I don't see any TLS line in the source of the mail. But if I tell postfix to use TLS if possible for all destination with this line, it works: smtp_tls_security_level = may Beause I can see this line in the source of my mail: (version=TLSv1/SSLv3 cipher=OTHER); But I don't want to try to use TLS for the others domains...only for gmail... Do I miss something in my conf? (I also try whith "hash:/etc/opt/csw/postfix/tls_policy", and it's the same) Thanks a lot in advance

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• Can't ping localhost/or reach locally hosted domain

  - by Ian

  I can't reach a locally hosted domain, and in testing I have discovered I can't ping localhost or the actual IP either. OS is Windows7 64bit, Pro. DNS works, I can ping others on my network, they can ping me, and they can reach the hosted domain. The ONLY problem I have found is that I can't reach the locally hosted domains! C:\Users\ianipconfig /all Windows IP Configuration Host Name . . . . . . . . . . . . : leda Primary Dns Suffix . . . . . . . : Node Type . . . . . . . . . . . . : Hybrid IP Routing Enabled. . . . . . . . : No WINS Proxy Enabled. . . . . . . . : No DNS Suffix Search List. . . . . . : hcs Ethernet adapter Local Area Connection: Connection-specific DNS Suffix . : hcs Description . . . . . . . . . . . : Atheros AR8121/AR8113/AR8114 PCI-E Ethern et Controller Physical Address. . . . . . . . . : 00-23-54-7C-E2-2A DHCP Enabled. . . . . . . . . . . : No Autoconfiguration Enabled . . . . : Yes IPv4 Address. . . . . . . . . . . : 192.168.0.12(Preferred) Subnet Mask . . . . . . . . . . . : 255.255.255.0 Default Gateway . . . . . . . . . : 192.168.0.1 DNS Servers . . . . . . . . . . . : 192.168.0.1 NetBIOS over Tcpip. . . . . . . . : Enabled Ethernet adapter VirtualBox Host-Only Network #2: Connection-specific DNS Suffix . : Description . . . . . . . . . . . : VirtualBox Host-Only Ethernet Adapter #2 Physical Address. . . . . . . . . : 08-00-27-00-88-4A DHCP Enabled. . . . . . . . . . . : No Autoconfiguration Enabled . . . . : Yes Autoconfiguration IPv4 Address. . : 169.254.205.215(Preferred) Subnet Mask . . . . . . . . . . . : 255.255.0.0 Default Gateway . . . . . . . . . : NetBIOS over Tcpip. . . . . . . . : Enabled C:\Users\ianping localhost Pinging leda [127.0.0.1] with 32 bytes of data: Request timed out. Request timed out. Request timed out. Request timed out. Ping statistics for 127.0.0.1: Packets: Sent = 4, Received = 0, Lost = 4 (100% loss), C:\Users\ianping coachmaster.leda.hcs Pinging coachmaster.leda.hcs [192.168.0.12] with 32 bytes of data: Request timed out. Request timed out. Request timed out. Request timed out. Ping statistics for 192.168.0.12: Packets: Sent = 4, Received = 0, Lost = 4 (100% loss), C:\Users\ian I can reach a hosted VM in VirtualBox and the VM can browse the hosted sites. I've removed Zone Alarm and disabled Windows Firewall - same results. So how can I browse my locally hosted sited? What could be blocking it? Thanks Ian

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• Hostname vs webpage domain.

  - by Mark

  Hi All, Im just starting to look at deploying a webpage and get into the joy of DNS etc. And im wondering how you set up multiple web-servers all with thier own hostnames/public IP addresses, and yet have them serve up a webpage from one domain. For example, lets say you have a website example.com, and an A record in DNS that points at it's IP address of 1.2.3.4 . You want to have two servers, prod1 and prod2 with some kind of load balancer in front of them for fail over reasons. The way I see it you would want to have the hostnames of these servers as prod1.example.com and prod2.example.com and perhaps loadb.example.com. How would you set up the DNS so this would all work. ie you could ssh to any of the server domains, prod1.example.com, prod2.example.com or loadb.example.com and also just use the www.example.com url to go to the website. And would all these server names be resolvable from the public internet and is that safe? This would be a linux environment, for arguments sake ubuntu, a django framework dynamic website, running in apache 2.2 Cheers Mark

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• Map path server with workgroup to other server with domain

  - by bzamfir

  I have the following situation, and I need some help to setup properly I have two VPS (hosted with the same provider, maximumasp). Server A is 2008R2, set with WORKGROUP, and server B is 2012, set with domain, maximumasp.local. On server A I have an old web app, which uses a special folder, c:\MyUploads, to store uploaded files. App is using this using an appSetting. It will be kept running for a while for safety / compatibility reasons. I installed a new version of the application on server B, running under AppPoolIdentity. Both instances of the app (A and B) will connect to the same database, so I need them to share also the access to upload folder c:\MyUploads. How should I setup the app on machine B to access the folder c:\MyUploads ? My idea is to share the folder as \A\MyUploads, and then map it to server B. But the problem is, I don't know to give Read/write to c:\MyUploads on machine A to IIS AppPools\ on machine B I was trying a test, and shared the c:\MyUploads to Everyone, ReadWrite. I was able to access it from machine B using \\MyUploads But when app from machine B tried to access a file, it gave error. Any idea how can I accomplish this? Some advice on best practices for such situation would be great. Thank you

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• Integrating external computer into a domain - some recommendations please

  - by TomTom

  Given: * A multi loation company. Every office has local routers that connect to a central VPN capable rouer in a data center. All fine so far. We now need to move a computer off site into a hosting center across the globe, to get it closer to some supplier computers we work for. it will run limited logic but latency is important, and our latency so far is too large. This computer will be in a data center and does no require incoming connections except for adminsitrative purposes, although it needs outgoing connetions. I have no real chance to put one of my VPN routers there, sadly - otherwise I would have no problem. Usage of RRAs is not recommended (we had various probblems there over time). I could deal with it. The computer MUSt integrate into the corporate structure via VPN and join the domain and be fully "tracked" (controlled for performance). What is the best suggestion? So far it looks like my best bets woudl be to log in via RRAS and deal with whatever issues arise there plus uise the local firewall the limit incoming connections to this computer to what is needed (which runs down to an emergency RDP connection allowance). Anyone a better idea?

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• Domain name is bringing up wrong site

  - by daniel0mullins

  I have a VPS that hosts several domains. I have set up Apache in the following manner: First VirtualHost /etc/apache2/sites-available/somedomain.com <VirtualHost somedomain.com:80> ServerName somedomain.com ServerAlias www.somedomain.com ... </VirtualHost> Second VirtualHost /etc/apache2/sites-available/someotherdomain.com <VirtualHost someotherdomain.com:80> ServerName someotherdomain.com ServerAlias www.someotherdomain.com ... </VirtualHost> Then I symlink the config files from sites-available to sites-enabled and all is well. I had a need to 'turn off' someotherdomain.com, so I removed the symlink to /etc/apache2/sites-available/someotherdomain.com from sites-enabled and the site no longer shows up... BUT typing someotherdomain.com into a web browser brings up somedomain.com!!! I need it to not resolve at all. Does somethiing need to be done in the VirtualHost to just automatically return a 500 or something along those lines. I really don't want people to reach one website from a different domain. Thanks! EDIT ports.conf looks like this NameVirtualHost *:80 Listen 80 <IfModule mod_ssl.c> NameVirtualHost *:443 Listen 443 </IfModule> <IfModule mod_gnutls.c> Listen 443 </IfModule>

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• Can simple javascript inheritance be simplified even further?

  - by Will

  John Resig (of jQuery fame) provides a concise and elegant way to allow simple JavaScript inheritance. It was so short and sweet, in fact, that it inspired me to try and simplify it even further (see code below). I've modified his original function such that it still passes all his tests and has the potential advantage of: readability (50% less code) simplicity (you don't have to be a ninja to understand it) performance (no extra wrappers around super/base method calls) consistency with C#'s base keyword Because this seems almost too good to be true, I want to make sure my logic doesn't have any fundamental flaws/holes/bugs, or if anyone has additional suggestions to improve or refute the code (perhaps even John Resig could chime in here!). Does anyone see anything wrong with my approach (below) vs. John Resig's original approach? if (!window.Class) { window.Class = function() {}; window.Class.extend = function(members) { var prototype = new this(); for (var i in members) prototype[i] = members[i]; prototype.base = this.prototype; function object() { if (object.caller == null && this.initialize) this.initialize.apply(this, arguments); } object.constructor = object; object.prototype = prototype; object.extend = arguments.callee; return object; }; } And the tests (below) are nearly identical to the original ones except for the syntax around base/super method calls (for the reason enumerated above): var Person = Class.extend( { initialize: function(isDancing) { this.dancing = isDancing; }, dance: function() { return this.dancing; } }); var Ninja = Person.extend( { initialize: function() { this.base.initialize(false); }, dance: function() { return this.base.dance(); }, swingSword: function() { return true; } }); var p = new Person(true); alert("true? " + p.dance()); // => true var n = new Ninja(); alert("false? " + n.dance()); // => false alert("true? " + n.swingSword()); // => true alert("true? " + (p instanceof Person && p instanceof Class && n instanceof Ninja && n instanceof Person && n instanceof Class));

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• Object oriented n-tier design. Am I abstracting too much? Or not enough?

  - by max

  Hi guys, I'm building my first enterprise grade solution (at least I'm attempting to make it enterprise grade). I'm trying to follow best practice design patterns but am starting to worry that I might be going too far with abstraction. I'm trying to build my asp.net webforms (in C#) app as an n-tier application. I've created a Data Access Layer using an XSD strongly-typed dataset that interfaces with a SQL server backend. I access the DAL through some Business Layer Objects that I've created on a 1:1 basis to the datatables in the dataset (eg, a UsersBLL class for the Users datatable in the dataset). I'm doing checks inside the BLL to make sure that data passed to DAL is following the business rules of the application. That's all well and good. Where I'm getting stuck though is the point at which I connect the BLL to the presentation layer. For example, my UsersBLL class deals mostly with whole datatables, as it's interfacing with the DAL. Should I now create a separate "User" (Singular) class that maps out the properties of a single user, rather than multiple users? This way I don't have to do any searching through datatables in the presentation layer, as I could use the properties created in the User class. Or would it be better to somehow try to handle this inside the UsersBLL? Sorry if this sounds a little complicated... Below is the code from the UsersBLL: using System; using System.Data; using PedChallenge.DAL.PedDataSetTableAdapters; [System.ComponentModel.DataObject] public class UsersBLL { private UsersTableAdapter _UsersAdapter = null; protected UsersTableAdapter Adapter { get { if (_UsersAdapter == null) _UsersAdapter = new UsersTableAdapter(); return _UsersAdapter; } } [System.ComponentModel.DataObjectMethodAttribute (System.ComponentModel.DataObjectMethodType.Select, true)] public PedChallenge.DAL.PedDataSet.UsersDataTable GetUsers() { return Adapter.GetUsers(); } [System.ComponentModel.DataObjectMethodAttribute (System.ComponentModel.DataObjectMethodType.Select, false)] public PedChallenge.DAL.PedDataSet.UsersDataTable GetUserByUserID(int userID) { return Adapter.GetUserByUserID(userID); } [System.ComponentModel.DataObjectMethodAttribute (System.ComponentModel.DataObjectMethodType.Select, false)] public PedChallenge.DAL.PedDataSet.UsersDataTable GetUsersByTeamID(int teamID) { return Adapter.GetUsersByTeamID(teamID); } [System.ComponentModel.DataObjectMethodAttribute (System.ComponentModel.DataObjectMethodType.Select, false)] public PedChallenge.DAL.PedDataSet.UsersDataTable GetUsersByEmail(string Email) { return Adapter.GetUserByEmail(Email); } [System.ComponentModel.DataObjectMethodAttribute (System.ComponentModel.DataObjectMethodType.Insert, true)] public bool AddUser(int? teamID, string FirstName, string LastName, string Email, string Role, int LocationID) { // Create a new UsersRow instance PedChallenge.DAL.PedDataSet.UsersDataTable Users = new PedChallenge.DAL.PedDataSet.UsersDataTable(); PedChallenge.DAL.PedDataSet.UsersRow user = Users.NewUsersRow(); if (UserExists(Users, Email) == true) return false; if (teamID == null) user.SetTeamIDNull(); else user.TeamID = teamID.Value; user.FirstName = FirstName; user.LastName = LastName; user.Email = Email; user.Role = Role; user.LocationID = LocationID; // Add the new user Users.AddUsersRow(user); int rowsAffected = Adapter.Update(Users); // Return true if precisely one row was inserted, // otherwise false return rowsAffected == 1; } [System.ComponentModel.DataObjectMethodAttribute (System.ComponentModel.DataObjectMethodType.Update, true)] public bool UpdateUser(int userID, int? teamID, string FirstName, string LastName, string Email, string Role, int LocationID) { PedChallenge.DAL.PedDataSet.UsersDataTable Users = Adapter.GetUserByUserID(userID); if (Users.Count == 0) // no matching record found, return false return false; PedChallenge.DAL.PedDataSet.UsersRow user = Users[0]; if (teamID == null) user.SetTeamIDNull(); else user.TeamID = teamID.Value; user.FirstName = FirstName; user.LastName = LastName; user.Email = Email; user.Role = Role; user.LocationID = LocationID; // Update the product record int rowsAffected = Adapter.Update(user); // Return true if precisely one row was updated, // otherwise false return rowsAffected == 1; } [System.ComponentModel.DataObjectMethodAttribute (System.ComponentModel.DataObjectMethodType.Delete, true)] public bool DeleteUser(int userID) { int rowsAffected = Adapter.Delete(userID); // Return true if precisely one row was deleted, // otherwise false return rowsAffected == 1; } private bool UserExists(PedChallenge.DAL.PedDataSet.UsersDataTable users, string email) { // Check if user email already exists foreach (PedChallenge.DAL.PedDataSet.UsersRow userRow in users) { if (userRow.Email == email) return true; } return false; } } Some guidance in the right direction would be greatly appreciated!! Thanks all! Max

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• Weird - "The EntityReference object could not be serialized" when serializing from an ASP.NET Web Si

  - by Mikey Cee

  I have an Entity Framework data model. Part of the model is a Customer entity. The web service provides a method to get a customer, and to receive an updated version of this customer to be persisted. To test this, I created a new ASP.NET web Application, (Solution Add New Project ASP.NET Web Application), then added a reference to my service reference using the standard Add Service Reference dialog. I then call the service using the following code: var client = new CustomerServiceClient(); var customer = client.GetCustomerByID(18); // get it customer.LimitDown = 100; // change it client.SaveCustomer(customer); // persist it Everything works as expected. Now, I do exactly the same thing, but this time with as ASP.NET Web Site (Solution Add New Web Site ASP.NET Web Site). I add the reference in a similar fashion and copy and paste the code above into the new site. But now I get the following exception thrown on the 4th line: System.InvalidOperationException The EntityReference object could not be serialized. This type of object cannot be serialized when the RelationshipManager belongs to an entity object that does not implement IEntityWithRelationships. Source Error: Line 2474: Line 2475: public SkyWalkerCustomerService.OperationResult SaveCustomer(SkyWalkerCustomerService.Customer customer) { Line 2476: return base.Channel.SaveCustomer(customer); Line 2477: } Line 2478: } Stack Trace: System.Runtime.Remoting.Proxies.RealProxy.HandleReturnMessage(IMessage reqMsg, IMessage retMsg) +9475203 System.Runtime.Remoting.Proxies.RealProxy.PrivateInvoke(MessageData& msgData, Int32 type) +345 SkyWalkerCustomerService.ICustomerService.SaveCustomer(Customer customer) +0 SkyWalkerCustomerService.CustomerServiceClient.SaveCustomer(Customer customer) in c:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v4.0.30128\Temporary ASP.NET Files\testsite2\dd2bcf8d\f95604ff\App_WebReferences.fz4h7x7l.0.cs:2476 _Default.Page_Load(Object sender, EventArgs e) in c:\Users\Mike\Documents\Repositories\UWC\SkyWalker\TestSite2\Default.aspx.cs:17 System.Web.Util.CalliHelper.EventArgFunctionCaller(IntPtr fp, Object o, Object t, EventArgs e) +14 System.Web.Util.CalliEventHandlerDelegateProxy.Callback(Object sender, EventArgs e) +35 System.Web.UI.Control.OnLoad(EventArgs e) +91 System.Web.UI.Control.LoadRecursive() +61 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +1966 Googling for this error returns very little. Why doesn't this work?

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• Powershell: Select-Object with additional calculated difference value

  - by David.Chu.ca

  Let me explain my question. I have a daily report about one PC's free space as in text file (sp.txt) like: DateTime FreeSpace(MB) ----- ------------- 03/01/2010 100.43 DateTime FreeSpace(MB) ----- ------------- 03/02/2010 98.31 .... Then I need to use this file as input to generate a report with difference of free space between dates: DateTime FreeSpace(MB) Change ----- ------------- ------ 03/01/2010 100.43 03/02/2010 98.31 2.12 .... Here are some codes I have to get above result without the additional "Change" calculation: Get-Content "C:\report\sp.txt" ` | where {$_.trim().length -gt 0 -and -not ($_ -like "Date*") -and -not ($_ -like "---*")} ` | Select-Object @{Name='DateTime'; expression={[DateTime]::Parse($_.SubString(0, 10).Trim())}}, ` @{Name='FreeSpace(MB)'; expression={$_.SubString(12, 12).Trim()}}, ` | Sort-Object DateTime ` | Select-Object DateTime, 'FreeSpace(MB)' |ft -AutoSize # how to add additional column Change to this Select-Object? My understanding is that Select-Object will return a collection of objects. Here I create this collection from an input text file(parse each line into parts: datetime and freespace(MB)). In order to calculate the difference between dates, I guess that I need to add additional calculated value to the result of the last Select-Object, or pipe the result to another Select-Object with the calculation as additional property or column. In order to do it, I need to get the previous row's FreeSpace value. Not sure if it is possible and how?

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• Activate COM object using website doesn't work in Windows 2003 server

  - by Tarun

  I have been trying really hard to activate and launch a COM object using an ASP.NET web application. The aspx website has a code-behind file that has a reference to this COM object (which is an actual application - a CAD software). When required, the VB code creates (or launches) the application. The complete set-up works in a Win-XP (32-bit) environment both under debugging using visual studio and when the website is accessed by an outside user (through IIS server in XP). But the same application doesn't get activated when it is hosted onto the Win-2003 (32-bit) IIS server. I get "Object reference not set to an instance of an object" error. The way I have setup in Win-XP was to grant ASP user and Internet guest user permissions to the COM object in the DCOM Config and since the windows firewall is enabled, I add the exe file (associated with the COM object) to the exception list. For the case of Win-2003 server, I add the Network Service permission to the COM object. But the setup doesn't seem to work at all. I am not sure what I am missing and how to get the application to launch. Any help will be greatly appreciated.

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• Powershell / .Net: Get a reference to an object returned by a method

  - by Dan Menes

  I am teaching myself PowerShell by writing a simple parser. I use the .Net framework class Collections.Stack. I want to modify the object at the top of the stack in place. I know I can pop() the object off, modify it, and then push() it back on, but that strikes me as inelegant. First, I tried this: $stk = new-object Collections.Stack $stk.push( (,'My first value') ) ( $stk.peek() ) += ,'| My second value' Which threw an error: Assignment failed because [System.Collections.Stack] doesn't contain a settable property 'peek()'. At C:\Development\StackOverflow\PowerShell-Stacks\test.ps1:3 char:12 + ( $stk.peek <<<< () ) += ,'| My second value' + CategoryInfo : InvalidOperation: (peek:String) [], RuntimeException + FullyQualifiedErrorId : ParameterizedPropertyAssignmentFailed Next I tried this: $ary = $stk.peek() $ary += ,'| My second value' write-host "Array is: $ary" write-host "Stack top is: $($stk.peek())" Which prevented the error but still didn't do the right thing: Array is: My first value | My second value Stack top is: My first value Clearly, what is getting assigned to $ary is a copy of the object at the top of the stack, so when I the object in $ary, the object at the top of the stack remains unchanged. Finally, I read up on teh [ref] type, and tried this: $ary_ref = [ref]$stk.peek() $ary_ref.value += ,'| My second value' write-host "Referenced array is: $($ary_ref.value)" write-host "Stack top is still: $($stk.peek())" But still no dice: Referenced array is: My first value | My second value Stack top is still: My first value I assume the peek() method returns a reference to the actual object, not the clone. If so, then the reference appears to be being replaced by a clone by PowerShell's expression processing logic. Can somebody tell me if there is a way to do what I want to do? Or do I have to revert to pop() / modify / push()?

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• nHibernate Domain Model and Mapping Files in Separate Projects

  - by Blake Blackwell

  Is there a way to separate out the domain objects and mapping files into two separate projects? I would like to create one project called MyCompany.MyProduct.Core that contains my domain model, and another project that is called MyCompany.MYProduct.Data.Oracle that contains my Oracle data mappings. However, when I try to unit test this I get the following error message: Named query 'GetClients' not found. Here is my mapping file: <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" assembly="MyCompany.MyProduct.Core" namespace="MyCompany.MyProduct.Core" > <class name="MyCompany.MyProduct.Core.Client" table="MY_CLIENT" lazy="false"> <id name="ClientId" column="ClientId"></id> <property name="ClientName" column="ClientName" /> <loader query-ref="GetClients"/> </class> <sql-query name="GetClients" callable="true"> <return class="Client" /> call procedure MyPackage.GetClients(:int_SummitGroupId) </sql-query> </hibernate-mapping> Here is my unit test: try { var cfg = new Configuration(); cfg.Configure(); cfg.AddAssembly( typeof( Client ).Assembly ); ISessionFactory sessionFactory = cfg.BuildSessionFactory(); IStatelessSession session = sessionFactory.OpenStatelessSession(); IQuery query = session.GetNamedQuery( "GetClients" ); query.SetParameter( "int_SummitGroupId", 3173 ); IList<Client> clients = query.List<Client>(); Assert.AreNotEqual( 0, clients.Count ); } catch( Exception ex ) { throw ex; } I think I may be improperly referencing the assembly, because if I do put the domain model object in the MyComapny.MyProduct.Data.Oracle class it works. Only when I separate out in to two projects do I run into this problem.

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• iPhone: Get indexPath of Predicate Object

  - by Nic Hubbard

  I am using a predicate to find an object in core data. I can successfully find the object that I want, but I need to also get the indexPath of that object, so that I can push a details view in for that object. Currently I have the following code for getting my object: NSFetchRequest *fetchRequest = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; [fetchRequest setEntity:[NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Ride" inManagedObjectContext:self.managedObjectContext]]; NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"title = %@ AND addressFull = %@", view.annotation.title, view.annotation.subtitle]; [fetchRequest setPredicate:predicate]; NSMutableArray *sortDescriptors = [NSMutableArray array]; [sortDescriptors addObject:[[[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"title" ascending:YES] autorelease]]; [sortDescriptors addObject:[[[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"addressFull" ascending:YES] autorelease]]; [fetchRequest setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; [fetchRequest setReturnsObjectsAsFaults:NO]; [fetchRequest setPropertiesToFetch:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"title", @"addressFull", nil]]; NSError *error = nil; NSArray *fetchedItems = [self.managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:fetchRequest error:&error]; // Sohow what record we returned NSLog(@"%@",[fetchedItems objectAtIndex:0]); So, I can correctly get my object into an array. But how do I translate that object into an indexPath?

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• passing java mail message object from between applications

  - by jezhilvalan

  I'm using java mail api 1.4.1 to obtain new emails. Two classes are being used to obtain emails and then parsing it. "GetMail" class communicates with mail server(Gmail,yahoo etc) and obtains the message object. Then the message object is passed to yet another class "MailFormatter" class, which then parses the message object, obtains the email headers (From,To,Subject etc) and then it parses the Multipart content to obtain the main body and attachments.Since both "Mail getting" and "Mail formatting" process are very resource intensive, these classes are going to be implemented as separate web applications.This application is going to monitor new emails for numerous email ids.If these ("GetMail" and "MailFormatter") are implemented as separate web applications, how can I pass the message object from "GetMail" app to "MailFormatter" app ? Is there a way through which I can persist the obtained message object in a certain location (a location which is common to both "GetMail" and "MailFormatter" applications), so that "GetMail" can persist the message object in that location, and then "MailFormatter" app can read "Message" objects from that location and carry out the parsing process. Message objects cannot be serialized. If they cannot be serialized how can I persist the state of java mail message object? please do help me to resolve this issue.

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• Python access an object byref / Need tagging

  - by Aaron C. de Bruyn

  I need to suck data from stdin and create a object. The incoming data is between 5 and 10 lines long. Each line has a process number and either an IP address or a hash. For example: pid=123 ip=192.168.0.1 - some data pid=123 hash=ABCDEF0123 - more data hash=ABCDEF123 - More data ip=192.168.0.1 - even more data I need to put this data into a class like: class MyData(): pid = None hash = None ip = None lines = [] I need to be able to look up the object by IP, HASH, or PID. The tough part is that there are multiple streams of data intermixed coming from stdin. (There could be hundreds or thousands of processes writing data at the same time.) I have regular expressions pulling out the PID, IP, and HASH that I need, but how can I access the object by any of those values? My thought was to do something like this: myarray = {} for each line in sys.stdin.readlines(): if pid and ip: #If we can get a PID out of the line myarray[pid] = MyData().pid = pid #Create a new MyData object, assign the PID, and stick it in myarray accessible by PID. myarray[pid].ip = ip #Add the IP address to the new object myarray[pid].lines.append(data) #Append the data myarray[ip] = myarray[pid] #Take the object by PID and create a key from the IP. <snip>do something similar for pid and hash, hash and ip, etc...</snip> This gives my an array with two keys (a PID and an IP) and they both point to the same object. But on the next iteration of the loop, if I find (for example) an IP and HASH and do: myarray[hash] = myarray[ip] The following is False: myarray[hash] == myarray[ip] Hopefully that was clear. I hate to admit that waaay back in the VB days, I remember being able handle objects byref instead of byval. Is there something similar in Python? Or am I just approaching this wrong?

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• Receiving generic typed <T> custom objects through remote object in Flex

  - by Aaron

  Is it possible to receive custom generic typed objects through AMF? I'm trying to integrate a flex app with an existing C# service but flex is choking on custom generic typed objects. As far as I can tell Flex doesn't even support generics, but I'd like to be able to even just read in the object and cast its members as necessary. I basically just want flex to ignore the <T>. I'm hopeful that there's a way to do this, since flex doesn't complain about typed collections (a server call returning List works fine and flex converts it to an ArrayCollection just like an un-typed List). Here's a trimmed down example of what's going on for me: The custom C# typed class public class TypeTest<T> { public T value { get; set; } public TypeTest () { } } The server method returning the typeTest public TypeTest<String> doTypeTest() { TypeTest<String> theTester = new TypeTest<String>("grrrr"); return theTester; } The corresponding flex value object: [RemoteClass(alias="API.Model.TypeTest")] public class TypeTest { private var _value:Object; public function get value():Object { return _value; } public function set value(theValue:Object):void { _value = value; } public function TypeTest() { } } and the result handler code: public function doTypeTest(result:TypeTest):void { var theString:String = result.value as String; trace(theString); } When the result handler is called I get the runtime error: TypeError: Error #1034: Type Coercion failed: cannot convert mx.utils::ObjectProxy@11a98041 to com.model.vos.TypeTest. Irritatingly if I change the result handler to take parameter of type Object it works fine. Anyone know how to make this work with the value object? I feel like i'm missing something really obvious.

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• JPA native query join returns object but dereference throws class cast exception

  - by masato-san

  I'm using JPQL Native query to join table and query result is stored in List<Object[]>. public String getJoinJpqlNativeQuery() { String final SQL_JOIN = "SELECT v1.bitbit, v1.numnum, v1.someTime, t1.username, t1.anotherNum FROM MasatosanTest t1 JOIN MasatoView v1 ON v1.username = t1.username;" System.out.println("get join jpql native query is being called ============================"); EntityManager em = null; List<Object[]> out = null; try { em = EmProvider.getDefaultManager(); Query query = em.createNativeQuery(SQL_JOIN); out = query.getResultList(); System.out.println("return object ==========>" + out); System.out.println(out.get(0)); String one = out.get(0).toString(); //LINE 77 where ClassCastException System.out.println(one); } catch(Exception e) { } finally { if(em != null) { em.close; } } } The problem is System.out.println("return object ==========>" + out); outputs: return object ==========> [[true, 0, 2010-12-21 15:32:53.0, masatosan, 0.020], [false, 0, 2010-12-21 15:32:53.0, koga, 0.213]] System.out.println(out.get(0)) outputs: [true, 0, 2010-12-21 15:32:53.0, masatosan, 0.020] So I assumed that I can assign return value of out.get(0) which should be String: String one = out.get(0).toString(); But I get weird ClassCastException. java.lang.ClassCastException: java.util.Vector cannot be cast to [Ljava.lang.Object; at local.test.jaxrs.MasatosanTestResource.getJoinJpqlNativeQuery (MasatosanTestResource.java:77) So what's really going on? Even Object[] foo = out.get(0); would throw an ClassCastException :(

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• Injecting Dependencies into Domain Model classes with Nhibernate (ASP.NET MVC + IOC)

  - by Sunday Ironfoot

  I'm building an ASP.NET MVC application that uses a DDD (Domain Driven Design) approach with database access handled by NHibernate. I have domain model class (Administrator) that I want to inject a dependency into via an IOC Container such as Castle Windsor, something like this: public class Administrator { public virtual int Id { get; set; } //.. snip ..// public virtual string HashedPassword { get; protected set; } public void SetPassword(string plainTextPassword) { IHashingService hasher = IocContainer.Resolve<IHashingService>(); this.HashedPassword = hasher.Hash(plainTextPassword); } } I basically want to inject IHashingService for the SetPassword method without calling the IOC Container directly (because this is suppose to be an IOC Anti-pattern). But I'm not sure how to go about doing it. My Administrator object either gets instantiated via new Administrator(); or it gets loaded via NHibernate, so how would I inject the IHashingService into the Administrator class? On second thoughts, am I going about this the right way? I was hoping to avoid having my codebase littered with... currentAdmin.Password = HashUtils.Hash(password, Algorithm.Sha512); ...and instead get the domain model itself to take care of hashing and neatly encapsulate it away. I can envisage another developer accidently choosing the wrong algorithm and having some passwords as Sha512, and some as MD5, some with one salt, and some with a different salt etc. etc. Instead if developers are writing... currentAdmin.SetPassword(password); ...then that would hide those details away and take care of those problems listed above would it not?

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• Transitioning from Domain Authentication to SQL Server Authentication

  - by Albert Perrien

  Greetings all, I've run into a problem that has me stumped. I've put together a database in SQL Server Express, and I'm having a strange permissions problem. The database is on my development machine with a domain user: DOMAIN\albertp. My development database server is set for "SQL Server and Windows Authentication" mode. I can edit and query my database without any problems when I log in using Windows Authentication. However, when I log in to any user that uses SQL Server authentication (Including sa) I get this message when I run queries against my database. SELECT * FROM [Testing].[dbo].[AuditingReport] I get: Msg 18456, Level 14, State 1, Line 1 Login failed for user 'auditor'. I'm logged into the server from SQL Server Management Studio as 'auditor' and I don't see anything in the error log about the login failure. I've already run: Use Testing; Grant All to auditor; Go And I still get the same error. What permissions do I have to set for the database to be usable by others outside of my personal domain login? Or am I looking at the wrong problem? My ultimate goal is to have the database be accessible from a set of PHP pages, using a either a common login (hence 'auditor') or a login specific to a set of individual users.

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