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  • Static variables and long running thread on IIS 7.5

    - by Dmitry
    Hello people. Help me solve next problem. I have ASP .NET MVC2 application. I run it on IIS 7.5. In one page user clicks button and handler for this button sends request to server (jquery.ajax). At server action in controller starts new thread (it makes long time import): var thread = new Thread(RefreshCitiesInDatabase); thread.Start(); State of import is available in static variable. New thread changes value of variable in the begin of work. User can check state of import too with the help of this variable, which is used in view. And user sees import's state. When I start this function few minutes everything is okey. On page I see right state of import, quantity of imported records is changed, I see changes in logs. But after few minutes begin troubles. When I refresh page with import state sometimes I see that import is okey but sometimes I see page with default values about import (like application is just started), but after that again I can see page with normal import's state. I tried to attach Visual Studio to IIS process and debug application. But when request comes to controller sometimes static variables have right values and sometimes they have default values (static int has 0, static string has "" etc.). Tell me what I do wrong. May be I must start additional thread in other way? Thanks in advance, Dmitry

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  • Signals and Variables in VHDL (order) - Problem

    - by Morano88
    I have a signal and this signal is a bitvector (Z). The length of the bitvector depends on an input n, it is not fixed. In order to find the length, I have to do some computations. Can I define a signal after defining the variables ? It is giving me errors when I do that. It is working fine If I keep the signal before the variables (that what is showing below) .. but I don't want that .. the length of Z depends on the computations of the variables. What is the solution ? library IEEE; use IEEE.STD_LOGIC_1164.ALL; use IEEE.STD_LOGIC_ARITH.ALL; use IEEE.STD_LOGIC_UNSIGNED.ALL; entity BSD_Full_Comp is Generic (n:integer:=8); Port(X, Y : inout std_logic_vector(n-1 downto 0); FZ : out std_logic_vector(1 downto 0)); end BSD_Full_Comp; architecture struct of BSD_Full_Comp is Component BSD_BitComparator Port ( Ai_1 : inout STD_LOGIC; Ai_0 : inout STD_LOGIC; Bi_1 : inout STD_LOGIC; Bi_0 : inout STD_LOGIC; S1 : out STD_LOGIC; S0 : out STD_LOGIC ); END Component; Signal Z : std_logic_vector(2*n-3 downto 0); begin ass : process Variable length : integer := n; Variable pow : integer :=0 ; Variable ZS : integer :=0; begin while length /= 0 loop length := length/2; pow := pow+1; end loop; length := 2 ** pow; ZS := length - n; wait; end process; end struct;

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  • NSDate out of scope

    - by therealtkd
    Having problems with out of scope for NSDate in an iphone app. I have an interface defined like this: @interface MyObject : NSoObject { NSMutableArray *array; BOOL checkThis; NSDate *nextDue; } Now in the implementation I have this: -(id) init { if( (self=[super init]) ) { checkThis = NO; array = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; nextDue = [[NSDate date] retain]; NSDate *testDate = [NSDate date]; } return self; } Now, if I trace through the init, before I actually assign the variables checkThis shows as boolean. array shows as pointer 0x0 because it hasn't ben assigned. But the nextDue is showing as 'out of scope'. I don't understand why this is out of scope but the other variables aren't. If I trace through the code until after the variables are assigned, array now shows as being correctly assigned but nextDue is still out of scope. Interestingly, the testDate variable is assigned just fine and the debugger shows this as a valid date. Further interesting point is if I move the mouse over the testDate variable while I am debugging, it shows as an 'NSDate *' type which I would expect since that's its definition. Yet the nextDue, which to me is defined the same way is showing as a '_NSCFDate *'. Any googling I did on the subject said that the retain is the problem, but its actually out of scope before I even try to assign the variable. However, in another class, the same definition for NSDate work ok. It shows as nil before a value is assigned to it. Arghhh

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  • Issue Querying LDAP DirectoryEntry in ASP.NET

    - by davemackey
    I have users login to my application via Active Directory and then pull from their AD information to garner information about that user like so: Dim ID as FormsIdentity = DirectCast(User.Identity, FormsIdentity) Dim ticket as FormsAuthenticationTicket = ID.Ticket Dim adDirectory as New DirectoryEntry("LDAP://DC=my,DC=domain,DC=com") Dim adTicketID as String = ticket.Name.Substring(0, 5) Session("people_id") = adDirectory.Children.Find("CN=" & adTicketID).Properties("employeeID").Value Session("person_name") = adDirectory.Children.Find("CN=" & adTicketID).Properties("displayName").Value Now, I want to be able to impersonate other users...so that I can "test" the application as them, so I added a textbox and a button to the page and when the button is clicked the text is assigned to a session variable like so: Session("impersonate_user") = TextBox1.Text When the page reloads I check to see if Session("impersonate_user") has a value other than "" and then attempt to query Active Directory using this session variable like so: If CStr(Session("impersonate_user")) <> "" Then Dim adDirectory as New DirectoryEntry(LDAP://DC=my,DC=domain,DC=com") Dim adTicketID as String = CStr(Session("impersonate_user")) Session("people_id") = adDirectory.Children.Find("CN=" & adTicketID).Properties("employeeID").Value Session("person_name")= adDirectory.Children.Find("CN=" & adTicketID).Properties("displayName").Value Else [use the actual ticket.name to get this info.] End If But this doesn't work. Instead, it throws an error on the first Session line stating, "DirectoryServicesCOMException was unhandled by user code There is no such object on the server." Why? I know I'm giving it a valid username! Is something strange happening in the casting of the session? The code is essentially the same between each method except that in one method rather than pulling from ticket.Name I pull from a session variable for the login I'll be looking up with AD.

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  • Return and Save XML Object From Sharepoint List Web Service

    - by HurnsMobile
    I am trying to populate a variable with an XML response from an ajax call on page load so that on keyup I can filter through that list without making repeated get requests (think very rudimentary autocomplete). The trouble that I am having seems to be potentially related to variable scoping but I am fairly new to js/jQuery so I am not quite certain. The following code doesn't do anything on key up and adding alerts to it tells me that it is executing leadResults() on keyup and that the variable is returning an XML response object but it appears to be empty. The strange bit is that if I move the leadResults() call into the getResults() function the UL is populated with the results correctly. Im beating my head against the wall on this one, please help! var resultsXml; $(document).ready( function() { var leadLookupCaml = "<Query> \ <Where> \ <Eq> \ <FieldRef Name=\"Lead_x0020_Status\"/> \ <Value Type=\"Text\">Active</Value> \ </Eq> \ </Where> \ </Query>" $().SPServices({ operation: "GetListItems", webURL: "http://sharepoint/departments/sales", listName: "Leads", CAMLQuery: leadLookupCaml, CAMLRowLimit: 0, completefunc: getResults }); }) $("#lead_search").keyup( function(e) { leadResults(); }) function getResults(xData, status) { resultsXml = xData; } function leadResults() { xData = resultsXml; $("#lead_results li").remove(); $(xData.responseXML).find("z\\:row").each(function() { var selectHtml = "<li>" + "<a href=\"http://sharepoint/departments/sales/Lists/Lead%20Groups/DispForm.aspx?ID=" + $(this).attr("ows_ID") + ">" + $(this).attr("ows_Title")+" : " + $(this).attr("ows_Phone") + "</a>\ </li>"; $("#lead_results").append(selectHtml); }); }

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  • am i returning the correct values?

    - by phill
    I wrote the following code: import java.lang.*; import DB.*; private Boolean validateInvoice(String i) { int count = 0; try { //check how many rowsets ResultSet c = connection.DBquery("select count(*) from Invce i,cust c where tranid like '"+i+"' and i.key = c.key "); while (c.next()) { System.out.println("rowcount : " + c.getInt(1)); count = c.getInt(1); } if (count > 0 ) { return TRUE; } else { return FALSE; } //end if } catch(Exception e){e.printStackTrace();return FALSE;} } The errors I'm getting are: i.java:195: cannot find symbol symbol : variable TRUE location: class changei.iTable return TRUE; i.java:197: cannot find symbol symbol : variable TRUE location: class changei.iTable return FALSE; i.java:201:: cannot find symbol symbol : variable FALSE location: class changei.iTable catch(Exception e){e.printStackTrace();return FALSE;} The Connection class comes from the DB package i created. Is the return TRUE/FALSE correct since the function is a Boolean return type?

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  • LotusScript - Setting element in for loop

    - by Kris.Mitchell
    I have an array set up Dim managerList(1 To 50, 1 To 100) As String what I am trying to do, is set the first, second, and third elements in the row managerList(index,1) = tempManagerName managerList(index,2) = tempIdeaNumber managerList(index,3) = 1 But get an error when I try to do that saying that the object variable is not set. I maintain index as an integer, and the value corresponds to a single manager, but I can't seem to manually set the third element. The first and second elements set correctly. On the flip side, I have the following code that will allow for the element to be set, For x=1 To 50 If StrConv(tempManagerName,3) = managerList(x,1) Then found = x For y=3 to 100 If managerList(x,y) = "" Then managerList(x,y) = tempIdeaNumber Exit for End If Next Exit For End If Next It spins through the array (laterally) trying to find an empty element. Ideally I would like to set the index of the element the y variable is on into the 3rd element in the row, to keep a count of how many ideas are on the row. What is the best way to keep a count like this? Any idea why I am getting a Object variable not set error when I try to manually set the element?

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  • SQL Server Reset Identity Increment for all tables

    - by DanSpd
    Basically I need to reset Identity Increment for all tables to its original. Here I tried some code, but it fails. http://pastebin.com/KSyvtK5b actual code from link: USE World00_Character GO -- Create a cursor to loop through the System Ojects and get each table name DECLARE TBL_CURSOR CURSOR -- Declare the SQL Statement to cursor through FOR ( SELECT Name FROM Sysobjects WHERE Type='U' ) -- Declare the @SQL Variable which will hold our dynamic sql DECLARE @SQL NVARCHAR(MAX); SET @SQL = ''; -- Declare the @TblName Variable which will hold the name of the current table DECLARE @TblName NVARCHAR(MAX); -- Open the Cursor OPEN TBL_CURSOR -- Setup the Fetch While that will loop through our cursor and set @TblName FETCH NEXT FROM TBL_CURSOR INTO @TblName -- Do this while we are not at the end of the record set WHILE (@@FETCH_STATUS <> -1) BEGIN -- Appeand this table's select count statement to our sql variable SET @SQL = @SQL + ' ( SELECT '''+@TblName+''' AS Table_Name,COUNT(*) AS Count FROM '+@TblName+' ) UNION'; -- Delete info EXEC('DBCC CHECKIDENT ('+@TblName+',RESEED,(SELECT IDENT_SEED('+@TblName+')))'); -- Pull the next record FETCH NEXT FROM TBL_CURSOR INTO @TblName -- End the Cursor Loop END -- Close and Clean Up the Cursor CLOSE TBL_CURSOR DEALLOCATE TBL_CURSOR -- Since we were adding the UNION at the end of each part, the last query will have -- an extra UNION. Lets trim it off. SET @SQL = LEFT(@SQL,LEN(@SQL)-6); -- Lets do an Order By. You can pick between Count and Table Name by picking which -- line to execute below. SET @SQL = @SQL + ' ORDER BY Count'; --SET @SQL = @SQL + ' ORDER BY Table_Name'; -- Now that our Dynamic SQL statement is ready, lets execute it. EXEC (@SQL); GO error message: Error: Msg 102, Level 15, State 1, Line 1 Incorrect syntax near '('. How can I either fix that SQL or reset identity for all tables to its original? Thank you

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  • Why linking doesn't work in my Xtext-based DSL?

    - by reprogrammer
    The following is the Xtext grammar for my DSL. Model: variableTypes=VariableTypes predicateTypes=PredicateTypes variableDeclarations= VariableDeclarations rules=Rules; VariableType: name=ID; VariableTypes: 'var types' (variableTypes+=VariableType)+; PredicateTypes: 'predicate types' (predicateTypes+=PredicateType)+; PredicateType: name=ID '(' (variableTypes+=[VariableType|ID])+ ')'; VariableDeclarations: 'vars' (variableDeclarations+=VariableDeclaration)+; VariableDeclaration: name=ID ':' type=[VariableType|ID]; Rules: 'rules' (rules+=Rule)+; Rule: head=Head ':-' body=Body; Head: predicate=Predicate; Body: (predicates+=Predicate)+; Predicate: predicateType=[PredicateType|ID] '(' (terms+=Term)+ ')'; Term: variable=Variable; Variable: variableDeclaration=[VariableDeclaration|ID]; terminal WS: (' ' | '\t' | '\r' | '\n' | ',')+; And, the following is a program in the above DSL. var types Node predicate types Edge(Node, Node) Path(Node, Node) vars x : Node y : Node z : Node rules Path(x, y) :- Edge(x, y) Path(x, y) :- Path(x, z) Path(z, y) When I used the generated Switch class to traverse the EMF object model corresponding to the above program, I realized that the nodes are not linked together properly. For example, the getPredicateType() method on a Predicate node returns null. Having read the Xtext user's guide, my impression is that the Xtext default linking semantics should work for my DSL. But, for some reason, the AST nodes of my DSL don't get linked together properly. Can anyone help me in diagnosing this problem?

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  • How to implement "business rules" in Rails?

    - by Zabba
    What is the way to implement "business rules" in Rails? Let us say I have a car and want to sell it: car = Cars.find(24) car.sell car.sell method will check a few things: does current_user own the car? check: car.user_id == current_user.id is the car listed for sale in the sales catalog? check: car.catalogs.ids.include? car.id if all o.k. then car is marked as sold. I was thinking of creating a class called Rules: class Rules def initialize(user,car) @user = user @car = car end def can_sell_car? @car.user_id == @user.id && @car.catalogs.ids.include? @car.id end end And using it like this: def Car def sell if Rules.new(current_user,self).can_sell_car ..sell the car... else @error_message = "Cannot sell this car" nil end end end As for getting the current_user, I was thinking of storing it in a global variable? I think that whenever a controller action is called, it's always a "fresh" call right? If so then storing the current user as a global variable should not introduce any risks..(like some other user being able to access another user's details) Any insights are appreciated! UPDATE So, the global variable route is out! Thanks to PeterWong for pointing out that global variables persist! I've now thinking of using this way: class Rules def self.can_sell_car?(current_user, car) ......checks.... end end And then calling Rules.can_sell_car?(current_user,@car) from the controller action. Any thoughts on this new way?

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  • PHP Session data not being saved

    - by Crackerjack
    I have one of those "I swear I didn't touch the server" situations. I honestly didn't touch any of the php scripts. The problem I am having is that php data is not being saved across different pages or page refreshes. I know a new session is being created correctly because I can set a session variable (e.g. $_SESSION['foo'] = "foo" and print it back out on the same page just fine. But when I try to use that same variable on another page it is not set! Is there any php functions or information I can use on my hosts server to see what is going on? Here is an example script that does not work on my hosts' server as of right now: <?php session_start(); if(isset($_SESSION['views'])) $_SESSION['views'] = $_SESSION['views']+ 1; else $_SESSION['views'] = 1; echo "views = ". $_SESSION['views']; echo '<p><a href="page1.php">Refresh</a></p>'; ?> The 'views' variable never gets incremented after doing a page refresh. I'm thinking this is a problem on their side, but I wanted to make sure I'm not a complete idiot first. Here is the phpinfo() for my hosts' server (PHP Version 4.4.7):

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  • Switching languages on a website with PHP

    - by jnkrois
    Hello everybody, I'm just looking for some advice. I'm creating a website that offers (at least) 2 languages. The way I'm setting it up is by using XML files for the language, PHP to retrieve the values in the XML nodes. Say you have any XML file, being loaded as follows: <?php $lang = "en"; $xmlFile = simplexml_load_file("$lang/main.xml"); ?> Once the file contents are available, I just output each node into an HTML tag like so: <li><?php echo $xmlFile->navigation->home; ?></li> which in turn is equal to : <li><a href="#">Home</a></li> as a nav bar link. Now, the way in which I'm switching languages is by changing the value of the "$lang" variable, through a "$_POST", like so: if(isset($_POST['es'])){ $lang = "es"; }elseif(isset($_POST['en'])){ $lang = "en"; } The value of the "$lang" variable is reset and the new file is loaded, loading as well all the new nodes from the new XML file, hence changing the language. I'm just wondering if there is another way to reset the "$lang" variable using something else, other than "$_POST" or "$_GET". I don't want to use query string either. I know I could use JavaScript or jQuery to achieve this, but I'd like to make the site not too dependable on JavaScript. I'd appreciate any ideas or advice. Thanks

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  • What's your preferred pointer declaration style, and why?

    - by Owen
    I know this is about as bad as it gets for "religious" issues, as Jeff calls them. But I want to know why the people who disagree with me on this do so, and hear their justification for their horrific style. I googled for a while and couldn't find a style guide talking about this. So here's how I feel pointers (and references) should be declared: int* pointer = NULL; int& ref = *pointer; int*& pointer_ref = pointer; The asterisk or ampersand goes with the type, because it modifies the type of the variable being declared. EDIT: I hate to keep repeating the word, but when I say it modifies the type I'm speaking semantically. "int* something;" would translate into English as something like "I declare something, which is a pointer to an integer." The "pointer" goes along with the "integer" much more so than it does with the "something." In contrast, the other uses of the ampersand and asterisk, as address-of and dereferencing operators, act on a variable. Here are the other two styles (maybe there are more but I really hope not): int *ugly_but_common; int * uglier_but_fortunately_less_common; Why? Really, why? I can never think of a case where the second is appropriate, and the first only suitable perhaps with something like: int *hag, *beast; But come now... multiple variable declarations on one line is kind of ugly form in itself already.

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  • Is it normal for C++ static initialization to appear twice in the same backtrace?

    - by Joseph Garvin
    I'm trying to debug a C++ program compiled with GCC that freezes at startup. GCC mutex protects function's static local variables, and it appears that waiting to acquire such a lock is why it freezes. How this happens is rather confusing. First module A's static initialization occurs (there are __static_init functions GCC invokes that are visible in the backtrace), which calls a function Foo(), that has a static local variable. The static local variable is an object who's constructor calls through several layers of functions, then suddenly the backtrace has a few ??'s, and then it's is in the static initialization of a second module B (the __static functions occur all over again), which then calls Foo(), but since Foo() never returned the first time the mutex on the local static variable is still set, and it locks. How can one static init trigger another? My first theory was shared libraries -- that module A would be calling some function in module B that would cause module B to load, thus triggering B's static init, but that doesn't appear to be the case. Module A doesn't use module B at all. So I have a second (and horrifying) guess. Say that: Module A uses some templated function or a function in a templated class, e.g. foo<int>::bar() Module B also uses foo<int>::bar() Module A doesn't depend on module B at all At link time, the linker has two instances of foo<int>::bar(), but this is OK because template functions are marked as weak symbols... At runtime, module A calls foo<int>::bar, and the static init of module B is triggered, even though module B doesn't depend on module A! Why? Because the linker decided to go with module B's instance of foo::bar instead of module A's instance at link time. Is this particular scenario valid? Or should one module's static init never trigger static init in another module?

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  • What exactly does entitlemets.plist do ?

    - by sagar
    To execute my application in iPhone first of all I have to add provisioning profile in to my iPhone. Good. But I don't understand the reason behind adding a entitlements.plist in iphone application in xCode under resources. What does that entitlements.plist file do actually ? Why that .plist file have only single Boolean in it ? (get-task-allow) Can't we add that Boolean variable to application-info.plist ? I mean, I can't find the reason behind storing a single Boolean variable in separate plist file. Instead application-info.plist already contains many many application settings. Can't we just add this Boolean variable to application-info.plist. Ok, any way. I know - it won't be possible. Because we have to follow - what apple says. But, here main intention behind all these was "what is the basic need of entitlements.plist ?" or "what is the functionality of entitlements.plist ?" "How provisioning profile, entitlements.plist, application-info.plist & iPhone application compile all together & make verification on iPhone & execute it on iPhone ? "

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  • Passing data structures to different threads

    - by Robb
    I have an application that will be spawning multiple threads. However, I feel there might be an issue with threads accessing data that they shouldn't be. I'm relatively new to threading so bare with me. Here is the structure of the threaded application (sorry for the crudeness): MainThread / \ / \ / \ Thread A Thread B / \ / \ / \ / \ / \ / \ Thread A_1 Thread A_2 Thread B_1 Thread B_2 Under each lettered thread (which could be many), there will only be two threads and they are fired of sequentially. The issue i'm having is I'm not entirely sure how to pass in a datastructure into these threads. So, the datastructure is created in MainThread, will be modified in the lettered thread (Thread A, etc) specific to that thread and then a member variable from that datastructure is sent to Letter_Numbered threads. Currently, the lettered thread class has a member variable and when the class is constructed, the datastructure from mainthread is passed in by reference, invoking the copy constructor so the lettered thread has it's own copy to play with. The lettered_numbered thread simply takes in a string variable from the data structure within the lettered thread. My question is, is this accceptable? Is there a much better way to ensure each lettered thread gets its own data structure to play with? Sorry for the somewhat poor explanation, please leave comments and i'll try to clarify.

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  • Objective-C and NSURL: where am I supposed to declare receivedData?

    - by jthomas
    I have a two classes, a controller called "AppController" and a class called "URLDelegate" that encapsulates the sample NSURL code from Apple's URL Loading System Programming Guide. The guide repeatedly mentions declaring the receivedData instance variable "elsewhere." I assume this means outside of the URLDelagate class, because if I declare it in the URLDelegate class, my controller class can't "see" the data that has been downloaded. I know that data is received, because in my connectionDidFinishLoading function, I have NSLog display the results: NSLog(@"Succeeded! Received %d bytes of data",[receivedData length]); receivedText=[[NSString alloc] initWithData:receivedData encoding: NSASCIIStringEncoding]; NSLog(@"receivedText=%@",receivedText); So I'm a bit stumped with the following questions: Where should I declare receivedData? My controller class? A third class? Can I just declare it like any normal NSMutableData variable? How do I give my URLDelegate class "access" to this variable? E.g., if I declare receivedData in my AppController class, wouldn't I have to instantiate AppController within URLDelegate? But how would this possible if it's the AppController class which is instantiating the URLDelegate class in the first place? Especially with regard to the last question, I feel like I must be overlooking something blindingly obvious and fundamental. If anyone could point me in the right direction, I would really appreciate it. Thank you!

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  • Why am I having this InstantiationException in Java when accessing final local variables?

    - by Oscar Reyes
    I was playing with some code to make a "closure like" construct ( not working btw ) Everything looked fine but when I tried to access a final local variable in the code, the exception InstantiationException is thrown. If I remove the access to the local variable either by removing it altogether or by making it class attribute instead, no exception happens. The doc says: InstantiationException Thrown when an application tries to create an instance of a class using the newInstance method in class Class, but the specified class object cannot be instantiated. The instantiation can fail for a variety of reasons including but not limited to: - the class object represents an abstract class, an interface, an array class, a primitive type, or void - the class has no nullary constructor What other reason could have caused this problem? Here's the code. comment/uncomment the class attribute / local variable to see the effect (lines:5 and 10 ). import javax.swing.*; import java.awt.event.*; import java.awt.*; class InstantiationExceptionDemo { //static JTextField field = new JTextField();// works if uncommented public static void main( String [] args ) { JFrame frame = new JFrame(); JButton button = new JButton("Click"); final JTextField field = new JTextField();// fails if uncommented button.addActionListener( new _(){{ System.out.println("click " + field.getText()); }}); frame.add( field ); frame.add( button, BorderLayout.SOUTH ); frame.pack();frame.setVisible( true ); } } class _ implements ActionListener { public void actionPerformed( ActionEvent e ){ try { this.getClass().newInstance(); } catch( InstantiationException ie ){ throw new RuntimeException( ie ); } catch( IllegalAccessException ie ){ throw new RuntimeException( ie ); } } } Is this a bug in Java? edit Oh, I forgot, the stacktrace ( when thrown ) is: Caused by: java.lang.InstantiationException: InstantiationExceptionDemo$1 at java.lang.Class.newInstance0(Class.java:340) at java.lang.Class.newInstance(Class.java:308) at _.actionPerformed(InstantiationExceptionDemo.java:25)

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  • Python virtualenv questions

    - by orokusaki
    I'm using VirtualEnv on Windows XP. I'm wondering if I have my brain wrapped around it correctly. I ran virtualenv ENV and it created C:\WINDOWS\system32\ENV. I then changed my PATH variable to include C:\WINDOWS\system32\ENV\Scripts instead of C:\Python27\Scripts. Then, I checked out Django into C:\WINDOWS\system32\ENV\Lib\site-packages\django-trunk, updated my PYTHON_PATH variable to point the new Django directory, and continued to easy_install other things (which of course go into my new C:\WINDOWS\system32\ENV\Lib\site-packages directory). I understand why I should use VirtualEnv so I can run multiple versions of Django, and other libraries on the same machine, but does this mean that to switch between environments I have to basically change my PATH and PYTHON_PATH variable? So, I go from developing one Django project which uses Django 1.2 in an environment called ENV and then change my PATH and such so that I can use an environment called ENV2 which has the dev version of Django? Is that basically it, or is there some better way to automatically do all this (I could update my path in Python code, but that would require me to write machine-specific code in my application)? Also, how does this process compare to using VirtualEnv on Linux (I'm quite the beginner at Linux).

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  • Switching languajes on a website with PHP

    - by jnkrois
    Hello everybody, I'm just looking for some advice. I'm creating a website that offers (at least) 2 languages. The way I'm setting it up is by using XML files for the language, PHP to retrieve the values in the XML nodes. Say you have any XML file, being loaded as follows: <?php $lang = "en"; $xmlFile = simplexml_load_file("$lang/main.xml"); ?> Once the file contents are available, I just output each node into an HTML tag like so: <li><?php echo $xmlFile->navigation->home; ?></li> which in turn is equal to : <li><a href="#">Home</a></li> as a nav bar link. Now, the way in which I'm switching languages is by changing the value of the "$lang" variable, through a "$_POST", like so: if(isset($_POST['es'])){ $lang = "es"; }elseif(isset($_POST['en'])){ $lang = "en"; } The value of the "$lang" variable is reset and the new file is loaded, loading as well all the new nodes from the new XML file, hence changing the language. I'm just wondering if there is another way to reset the "$lang" variable using something else, other than "$_POST" or "$_GET". I don't want to use query string either. I know I could use JavaScript or jQuery to achieve this, but I'd like to make the site not too dependable on JavaScript. I'd appreciate any ideas or advice. Thanks

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  • Are programming languages and methods inefficient? (assembler and C knowledge needed)

    - by b-gen-jack-o-neill
    Hi, for a long time, I am thinking and studying output of C language compiler in assembler form, as well as CPU architecture. I know this may be silly to you, but it seems to me that something is very ineffective. Please, don´t be angry if I am wrong, and there is some reason I do not see for all these principles. I will be very glad if you tell me why is it designed this way. I actually truly believe I am wrong, I know the genius minds of people which get PCs together knew a reason to do so. What exactly, do you ask? I´ll tell you right away, I use C as a example: 1: Stack local scope memory allocation: So, typical local memory allocation uses stack. Just copy esp to ebp and than allocate all the memory via ebp. OK, I would understand this if you explicitly need allocate RAM by default stack values, but if I do understand it correctly, modern OS use paging as a translation layer between application and physical RAM, when address you desire is further translated before reaching actual RAM byte. So why don´t just say 0x00000000 is int a,0x00000004 is int b and so? And access them just by mov 0x00000000,#10? Because you wont actually access memory blocks 0x00000000 and 0x00000004 but those your OS set the paging tables to. Actually, since memory allocation by ebp and esp use indirect addressing, "my" way would be even faster. 2: Variable allocation duplicity: When you run application, Loader load its code into RAM. When you create variable, or string, compiler generates code that pushes these values on the top o stack when created in main. So there is actual instruction for do so, and that actual number in memory. So, there are 2 entries of the same value in RAM. One in form of instruction, second in form of actual bytes in the RAM. But why? Why not to just when declaring variable count at which memory block it would be, than when used, just insert this memory location?

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  • Python: Access dictionary value inside of tuple and sort quickly by dict value

    - by Aquat33nfan
    I know that wasn't clear. Here's what I'm doing specifically. I have my list of dictionaries here: dict = [{int=0, value=A}, {int=1, value=B}, ... n] and I want to take them in combinations, so I used itertools and it gave me a tuple (Well, okay it gave me a memory object that I then used enumerate on so I could loop over it and enumerate gave ma tuple): for (index, tuple) in enumerate(combinations(dict, 2)): and this is where I have my problem. I want to identify which of the two items in the combination has the bigger 'int' value and which has the smaller value and assign them to variables (I'm actually using more than 2 in the combination so I can't just say if tuple[0]['int'] tuple[1]['int'] and do the assignment because I'd have to list this out a bunch of times and that's hard to manage). I was going to assign each 'int' value to a variable, sort it in a list, index the 'int' value in the list by 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 ... etc., then go back and access the dictionary I wanted by the int value and then assign the dictionary to a variable so I knew which was bigger. But I have a big list and lists and variable assignments are resource intensive and this is taking a long time (I had only a little bit of that written and it was taking forever to run). So I was hoping someone knew a fast way to do this. I actually could list out every possible combination of assignmnets using the if/thens but it's just like 5 pages of if/thens and assignments and is hard to read and manage when I want to change it. You've probably gathered this, but I"m new at programming. thx

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  • Getting value from pointer

    - by Eric
    Hi, I'm having problem getting the value from a pointer. I have the following code in C++: void* Nodo::readArray(VarHash& var, string varName, int posicion, float& d) { //some code before... void* res; float num = bit.getFloatFromArray(arregloTemp); //THIS FUNCTION RETURN A FLOAT AND IT'S OK cout << "NUMBER " << num << endl; d = num; res = &num; return res } int main() { float d = 0.0; void* res = n.readArray(v, "c", 0, d); //THE VALUES OF THE ARRAY ARE: {65.5, 66.5}; float* car3 = (float*)res; cout << "RESULT_READARRAY " << *car3 << endl; cout << "FLOAT REFERENCE: " << d << endl; } The result of running this code is the following: NUMBER 65.5 RESULT_READARRAY -1.2001 //INCORRECT IT SHOULD BE LIKE NUMBER FLOAT REFERENCE: 65.5 //CORRECT NUMBER 66.5 RESULT_READARRAY -1.2001 //INCORRECT IT SHOULD BE LIKE NUMBER FLOAT REFERENCE: 66.5 //CORRECT For some reason, when I get the value of the pointer returned by the function called readArray is incorrect. I'm passing a float variable(d) as a reference in the same function just to verify that the value is ok, and as you can see, THE FLOAT REFERENCE matches the NUMBER. If I declare the variable num(read array) as a static float, the first RESULT_READARRAY will be 65.5, that is correct, however, the next value will be the same instead of 66.5. Let me show you the result of running the code using static float variable: NUMBER 65.5 RESULT_READARRAY 65.5 //PERFECT FLOAT REFERENCE: 65.5 //¨PERFECT NUMBER 65.5 //THIS IS INCORRECT, IT SHOULD BE 66.5 RESULT_READARRAY 65.5 FLOAT REFERENCE: 65.5 Do you know how can I get the correct value returned by the function called readArray()?

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  • Apache proxy to Lighttpd: changing $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'] in php

    - by watain
    I have a WordPress blog running on lighttpd-1.4.19, listening on at www00:81. On the same host, apache-2.2.11 listens on port 80, which creates a proxy connection from http://blog.mydomain.org:80 to http://blog.mydomain.org:81. The Apache virtualhost looks as follows: <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName blog.mydomain.org ProxyRequests Off <Proxy *> Order deny,allow Allow from all </Proxy> ProxyPass / http://blog.mydomain.org:81/ ProxyPassReverse / http://blog.mydomain.org:81/ </VirtualHost> Using debug.log-request-handling = "enable" I get the following log entry when I browse http://blog.mydomain.org:80 (notice the Host headers): 2010-05-10 08:47:14: (request.c.294) fd: 6 request-len: 853 GET / HTTP/1.1 Host: blog.mydomain.org:81 [...] 2010-05-10 08:47:15: (request.c.294) fd: 8 request-len: 754 GET /wp-content/uploads/2010/01/image.gif?w=280 HTTP/1.1 Host: www00:81 My problem: as far as I know, the PHP environment variable $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'] is set to that Host header variable. Unfortunately, WordPress uses that variable in their system to create URLs to pictures on the blog. These URLs won't be accessible behind a firewall of course. How can I force the host header to be blog.mydomain.org instead of blog.mydomain.org:81, respectively www00:81? I already added set server.name = "blog.mydomain.org" to my lighttpd.conf, but this didn't work. Any suggestions are appreciated, thank you.

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  • Adjust static value into dynamic (javascript) value possible in Sharepoint allitems.aspx page?

    - by lerac
    <SharePoint:SPDataSource runat="server" IncludeHidden="true" SelectCommand="&lt;View&gt;&lt;Query&gt;&lt;OrderBy&gt;&lt;FieldRef Name=&quot;EventDate&quot;/&gt;&lt;/OrderBy&gt;&lt;Where&gt;&lt;Contains&gt;&lt;FieldRef Name=&quot;lawyer_x0020_1&quot;/&gt;&lt;Value Type=&quot;Note&quot;&gt;F. Sanches&lt;/Value&gt;&lt;/Contains&gt;&lt;/Where&gt;&lt;/Query&gt;&lt;/View&gt;" id="datasource1" DataSourceMode="List" UseInternalName="true"><InsertParameters><asp:Parameter DefaultValue="{ANUMBER}" Name="ListID"></asp:Parameter> This codeline is just one line of the allitems.aspx of a sharepoint list item. It only displays items where lawyer 1 = F. Sanches. Before I start messing around with the .ASPX page I wonder if it possible to change F. Sanches (in the code) into a dynamical variable (from a javascript value or something else that can be used to place the javascript value in there dynamically). If I put any javascript code in the line it will not work. P.S. Ignore ANUMBER part in code. Let say to make it simple I have javascript variable like this (now static but with my other code it is dynamic). It would be an achievement if it would place a static javascript variable. <SCRIPT type=text/javascript>javaVAR = "P. Janssen";</script> If Yes -- how? If No -- Thank you!

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