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  • Prevent two users from editing the same data

    - by Industrial
    Hi everyone, I have seen a feature in different web applications including Wordpress (not sure?) that warns a user if he/she opens an article/post/page/whatever from the database, while someone else is editing the same data simultaneously. I would like to implement the same feature in my own application and I have given this a bit of thought. Is the following example a good practice on how to do this? It goes a little something like this: 1) User A enters a the editing page for the mysterious article X. The database tableEvents is queried to make sure that no one else is editing the same page for the moment, which no one is by then. A token is then randomly being generated and is inserted into a database table called Events. 1) User B also want's to make updates to the article X. Now since our User A already is editing the article, the Events table is queried and looks like this: | timestamp | owner | Origin | token | ------------------------------------------------------------ | 1273226321 | User A | article-x | uniqueid## | 2) The timestamp is being checked. If it's valid and less than say 100 seconds old, a message appears and the user cannot make any changes to the requested article X: Warning: User A is currently working with this article. In the meantime, editing cannot be done. Please do something else with your life. 3) If User A decides to go on and save his changes, the token is posted along with all other data to update the database, and toggles a query to delete the row with token uniqueid##. If he decides to do something else instead of committing his changes, the article X will still be available for editing in 100 seconds for User B Let me know what you think about this approach! Wish everyone a great weekend!

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  • Mmap and structure

    - by blid..pl
    I'm working some code including communication between processes, using semaphores. I made structure like this: typedef struct container { sem_t resource, mutex; int counter; } container; and use in that way (in main app and the same in subordinate processes) container *memory; shm_unlink("MYSHM"); //just in case fd = shm_open("MYSHM", O_RDWR|O_CREAT|O_EXCL, 0); if(fd == -1) { printf("Error"); exit(EXIT_FAILURE); } memory = mmap(NULL, sizeof(container), PROT_READ|PROT_WRITE, MAP_SHARED, fd, 0); ftruncate(fd, sizeof(container)); Everything is fine when I use one of the sem_ functions, but when I try to do something like memory->counter = 5; It doesn't work. Probably I got something wrong with pointers, but I tried almost everything and nothing seems to work. Maybe there's a better way to share variables, structures etc between processes ? Unfortunately I'm not allowed to use boost or something similiar, the code is for educational purposes and I'm intentend to keep as simple as it's possible.

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  • SQLite dataypes lengths?

    - by XF
    I'm completely new to SQLite (actually 5 minutes ago), but I do know somewhat the Oracle and MySql backends. The question: I'm trying to know the lengths of each of the datatypes supported by SQLite, such as the differences between a bigint and a smallint. I've searched across the SQLite documentation (only talks about affinity, only matters it?), SO threads, google... and found nothing. My guess: I've just slightly revised the SQL92 specifications, which talk about datatypes and its relations but not about its lengths, which is quite obvious I assume. Yet I've come accross the Oracle and MySql datatypes specs, and the specified lengths are mostly identical for integers at least. Should I assume SQLite is using the same lengths? Aside question: Have I missed something about the SQLite docs? Or have I missed something about SQL in general? Asking this because I can't really understand why the SQLite docs don't specify something as basic as the datatypes lengths. It just doesn't make sense to me! Although I'm sure there is a simple command to discover the lengths.. but why not writing them to the docs? Thank you!

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  • How should we setup up complex situations for tests?

    - by ShaneC
    I'm currently working on what I would call integration tests. I want to verify that if a WCF service is called it will do what I expect. Let's take a very simple scenario. Assume we have a contract object that we can put on hold or take off hold. Now writing the put on hold test is quite simple. You create a contract instance and execute the code that puts it on code. The question I have comes when we want to test the taking off hold service call. The problem is that putting a contract on hold can be actually quite complicated leading to various objects all be modified. So usually I would use the Builder pattern and do something like this.. var onHoldContract = new ContractBuilder().PutOnHold().Build(); The problem I have with this is now I have to pretty much replicate a large part of my put on hold service. Now when I change what putting something on hold means I have two places I have to modify. The other option that immediately jumps out at me is to just use the put on hold service as part of my test setup but now I'm coupling my test to the success of another piece of code which is something I don't like to do since it can lead to failures in one spot breaking unrelated tests elsewhere (if put on hold failed for example). Any other options I'm missing out here? or opinions on which method is preferable and why?

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  • Latex multicols. Can I group content so it won't split over cols and/or suggest colbreaks?

    - by valadil
    Hi. I'm trying to learn LaTeX. I've been googling this one for a couple days, but I don't speak enough LaTeX to be able to search for it effectively and what documentation I have found is either too simple or goes way over my head (http://www.uoregon.edu/~dspivak/files/multicol.pdf) I have a document using the multicol package. (I'm actually using multicols* so that the first col fills before the second begins instead of trying to balance them, but I don't think that's relevant here.) The columns output nicely, but I want to be able to indicate that some content won't be broken up into different columns. For instance, aaaaaaaa bbbbbbb aaaaaaaa bbbbbbb aaaaaaaa ccccccc bbbbbbbb ccccccc That poor attempt at ascii art columns is what's happening. I'd like to indicate that the b block is a whole unit that shouldn't be broken up into different columns. Since it doesn't fit under the a block, the entirety of the b block should be moved to the second column. Should b be wrapped in something? Is there a block/float/section/box/minipage/paragraph structure I can use? Something specific to multicol? Alternatively is there a way that I can suggest a columnbreak? I'm thinking of something like \- that suggests a hyphenated line break if its convenient, but this would go between blocks. Thanks!

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  • Expanding DIV slides behind DIV beneath it...

    - by Paddy
    I'm not sure that I'm going to get an answer here, as I'd need to post a lot of CSS and html to get a working recreation, however... I have structure something like this: <fieldset> <legend>Test A</legend> <h3>Test A</h3> <p> Something here. </p> <div style="display:hidden;">I'm dynamically displayed</div> </fieldset> <fieldset> <legend>Test B</legend> <h3>Test B</h3> <p> Something B here. </p> </fieldset> I have code that toggles the display of my hidden div using jQuery and .show(). This works fine in IE8, firefox and Safari, but when I stick IE8 into compatibility mode, then the first fieldset (Test A) will expand, but the expansion happens behind the second fieldset, which doesn't move (i.e. it slides down behind it). I have quite a bit of CSS in use here, and I'm going to have to go back and unpick the whold lot, which isn't a fun idea. If anybody has any idea of one of the IE7 rendering issues that might be affecting this, then I'd very much appreciate it. (note that there is more to the content in these fieldsets than shown, including floated divs). Quick note - if I stick IE7 into quirks mode, it works (but wrecks the rest of my layout) - in standards mode, I get the above behaviour.

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  • Instantiating and starting a Scala Actor in a Map

    - by Bruce Ferguson
    I'm experimenting with a map of actors, and would like to know how to instantiate them and start them in one fell swoop... import scala.actors.Actor import scala.actors.Actor._ import scala.collection.mutable._ abstract class Message case class Update extends Message object Test { val groupings = "group1" :: "group2" :: "group3":: Nil val myActorMap = new HashMap[String,MyActor] def main(args : Array[String]) { groupings.foreach(group => myActorMap += (group -> new MyActor)) myActorMap("group2").start myActorMap("group2") ! Update } } class MyActor extends Actor { def act() { loop { react { case Update => println("Received Update") case _ => println("Ignoring event") } } } } The line: myActorMap("group2").start will grab the second instance, and let me start it, but I would like to be able to do something more like: groupings.foreach(group => myActorMap += (group -> (new MyActor).start)) but no matter how I wrap the new Actor, the compiler complains with something along the lines of: type mismatch; found : scala.actors.Actor required: com.myCompany.test.MyActor or various other complaints. I know it must be something simple to do with anonymous classes, but I can't see it right now. Any suggestions? Thanks in advance!!

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  • How to eliminate tearing from animation?

    - by MusiGenesis
    I'm running an animation in a WinForms app at 18.66666... frames per second (it's synced with music at 140 BPM, which is why the frame rate is weird). Each cel of the animation is pre-calculated, and the animation is driven by a high-resolution multimedia timer. The animation itself is smooth, but I am seeing a significant amount of "tearing", or artifacts that result from cels being caught partway through a screen refresh. When I take the set of cels rendered by my program and write them out to an AVI file, and then play the AVI file in Windows Media Player, I do not see any tearing at all. I assume that WMP plays the file smoothly because it uses DirectX (or something else) and is able to synchronize the rendering with the screen's refresh activity. It's not changing the frame rate, as the animation stays in sync with the audio. Is this why WMP is able to render the animation without tearing, or am I missing something? Is there any way I can use DirectX (or something else) in order to enable my program to be aware of where the current scan line is, and if so, is there any way I can use that information to eliminate tearing without actually using DirectX for displaying the cels? Or do I have to fully use DirectX for rendering in order to deal with this problem? Update: forgot a detail. My app renders each cell onto a PictureBox using Graphics.DrawImage. Is this significantly slower than using BitBlt, such that I might eliminate at least some of the tearing by using BitBlt?

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  • RegisterStartupScript doesn't appear to be working on page postback within update panel

    - by Jen
    OK - so am working on a system that uses a custom datepicker control (I know there are other ones out there.. but for consistency would like to understand why my current issue is happening and fix it). So its a custom user control with a textbox and on Page_PreRender does this: protected void Page_PreRender(object sender, EventArgs e) { string clientScript = @" $(function(){ $('#" + this.Date1.ClientID + @"').datepicker({dateFormat: 'dd/mm/yy', constrainInput: true}); });"; Page.ClientScript.RegisterStartupScript(this.GetType(), this.ClientID, clientScript, true); //Type t = this.GetType(); //if (!Page.ClientScript.IsStartupScriptRegistered(t, this.ClientID)) //{ // Page.ClientScript.RegisterStartupScript(t, this.ClientID, clientScript, true); //} } Ignore commented out stuff - that was me trying something different - didn't help. My issue is that this all works fine when I load the page. But if I select something from a dropdownlist causing a page postback - when I click into my date fields they stop working. As in I should be able to click into the textbox and a nice calendar control appears. But after postback there is no nice calendar control appearing! It's currently all wrapped (in the hosting page) inside an update panel. So I comment out the update panel stuff and the dates are working after page postback. So it appears to be something related to that update panel. Any suggestions please? Thanks!!

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  • How can I make keyword order more relevant in my search?

    - by Atomiton
    In my database, I have a keywords field that stores a comma-delimited list of keywords. For example, a Shrek doll might have the following keywords: ogre, green, plush, hero, boys' toys A "Beanie Baby" doll ( that happens to be an ogre ) might have: beanie baby, kids toys, beanbag toys, soft, infant, ogre (That's a completely contrived example.) What I'd like to do is if the consumer searches for "ogre" I'd like the "Shrek" doll to come up higher in the search results. My content administrator feels that if the keyword is earlier in the list, it should get a higher ranking. ( This makes sense to me and it makes it easy for me to let them control the search result relevance ). Here's a simplified query: SELECT p.ProductID AS ContentID , p.ProductName AS Title , p.ProductCode AS Subtitle , 100 AS Rank , p.ProductKeywords AS Keywords FROM Products AS p WHERE FREETEXT( p.ProductKeywords, @SearchPredicate ) I'm thinking something along the lines of replacing the RANK with: , 200 - INDEXOF(@SearchTerm) AS Rank This "should" rank the keyword results by their relevance I know INDEXOF isn't a SQL command... but it's something LIKE that I would like to accomplish. Am I approaching this the right way? Is it possible to do something like this? Does this make sense?

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  • Looking for a very simple file-based CMS

    - by nfm
    I'm building a site for a friend for free, and am trying to work out a good way for her to be able to easily make updates. I haven't used any CMSs before. I was browsing the web today looking at some, and they all seem way too complicated for what I'm after. Basically, all I want is a really simple CMS that pulls together HTML snippets in particular subdirectories, and wraps them in header/footer HTML and inserts them into a template page in the appropriate section. I'm imagining a site layout something like this: / /index.php /blog_template.php /news_template.php /blog/ /blog/header.php /blog/footer.php /blog/my-first-blog.html /blog/blogs-rule.html /blog/... Say index.php contains div#blog. PHP would wrap each /blog/*.html file in /blog/header.php and blog/footer.php, and insert them into the div#blog as div#blog([0-9]*). I haven't been able to find anything this basic, and am one step away from throwing something together myself, but I'm a bit short on time at the moment and figured I'd post here first. Has anyone come across something like this? I don't want any DB, extensions, user accounts, installation, config, updates... just a simple file based solution. Thanks :) Forgot to mention - needs to be FOSS and run on Linux!

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  • Hibernate Query for a List of Objects that matches a List of Objects' ids

    - by sal
    Given a classes Foo, Bar which have hibernate mappings to tables Foo, A, B and C public class Foo { Integer aid; Integer bid; Integer cid; ...; } public class Bar { A a; B b; C c; ...; } I build a List fooList of an arbitrary size and I would like to use hibernate to fetch List where the resulting list will look something like this: Bar[1] = [X1,Y2,ZA,...] Bar[2] = [X1,Y2,ZB,...] Bar[3] = [X1,Y2,ZC,...] Bar[4] = [X1,Y3,ZD,...] Bar[5] = [X2,Y4,ZE,...] Bar[6] = [X2,Y4,ZF,...] Bar[7] = [X2,Y5,ZG,...] Bar[8] = ... Where each Xi, Yi and Zi represents a unique object. I know I can iterate fooList and fetch each List and call barList.addAll(...) to build the result list with something like this: List<bar> barList.addAll(s.createQuery("from Bar bar where bar.aid = :aid and ... ") .setEntity("aid", foo.getAid()) .setEntity("bid", foo.getBid()) .setEntity("cid", foo.getCid()) .list(); ); Is there any easier way, ideally one that makes better use of hibernate and make a minimal number of database calls? Am I missing something? Is hibernate not the right tool for this?

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  • handling pointer to member functions within hierachy in C++

    - by anatoli
    Hi, I'm trying to code the following situation: I have a base class providing a framework for handling events. I'm trying to use an array of pointer-to-member-functions for that. It goes as following: class EH { // EventHandler virtual void something(); // just to make sure we get RTTI public: typedef void (EH::*func_t)(); protected: func_t funcs_d[10]; protected: void register_handler(int event_num, func_t f) { funcs_d[event_num] = f; } public: void handle_event(int event_num) { (this->*(funcs_d[event_num]))(); } }; Then the users are supposed to derive other classes from this one and provide handlers: class DEH : public EH { public: typedef void (DEH::*func_t)(); void handle_event_5(); DEH() { func_t f5 = &DEH::handle_event_5; register_handler(5, f5); // doesn't compile ........ } }; This code wouldn't compile, since DEH::func_t cannot be converted to EH::func_t. It makes perfect sense to me. In my case the conversion is safe since the object under this is really DEH. So I'd like to have something like that: void EH::DEH_handle_event_5_wrapper() { DEH *p = dynamic_cast<DEH *>(this); assert(p != NULL); p->handle_event_5(); } and then instead of func_t f5 = &DEH::handle_event_5; register_handler(5, f5); // doesn't compile in DEH::DEH() put register_handler(5, &EH::DEH_handle_event_5_wrapper); So, finally the question (took me long enough...): Is there a way to create those wrappers (like EH::DEH_handle_event_5_wrapper) automatically? Or to do something similar? What other solutions to this situation are out there? Thanks.

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  • architecture and tools for a remote control application?

    - by slothbear
    I'm working on the design of a remote control application. From my iPhone or a web browser, I'll send a few commands. Soon my home computer will perform the commands and send back results. I know there are remote desktop apps, but I want something programmable, something simpler, and something that I wrote. My current direction is to use Amazon Simple Queue Service (SQS) as the message bus. The iPhone places some messages in a queue. My local Java/JRuby program notices the messages on the queue, performs the work and sends back status via a different queue. This will be a very low-volume application. At $1.00 for a million requests (plus a handful of data transfer charges), Amazon SQS looks a lot more affordable than having my own server of any type. And super reliable, that's important for me too. Are there better/standard toolkits or architectures for this kind of remote control? Cost is not a big issue, but I prefer the tons I learn by doing it myself. I'm moderately concerned about security, but doubt it will be a problem. The list of commands recognized will be very short, and only recognized in specific contexts. No "erase hard drive" stuff. update: I'll probably distribute these programs to some other people who want the same function, but who don't have Amazon SQS accounts. For now, they'll use anonymous access to my queues, with random 80-character queue names.

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  • Is it possible to render PDF (fPDF) via a javascript?

    - by J. LaRosee
    So, I'm passing some values via jQuery to the server, which generates PDF garble. It goes something like this: $.post('/admin/printBatch', data, // Some vars and such function(data){ if(data) { var batch = window.open('','Batch Print','width=600,height=600,location=_newtab'); var html = data; // Perhaps some header info here?! batch.document.open(); batch.document.write(html); batch.document.close(); $( this ).dialog( "close" ); // jQuery UI } else { alert("Something went wrong, dawg."); } return false; }); The output file looks roughly like so: $pdf->AddPage(null, null, 'A PDF Page'); //.... $pdf->Output('', 'I'); // 'I' sends the file inline to the browser (http://fpdf.org/en/doc/output.htm) What gets rendered to the browser window: %PDF-1.3 3 0 obj <> endobj 4 0 obj <> stream ... I'm missing something major, I just know it... thoughts? Thanks, guys.

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  • Counting entries in a list of dictionaries: for loop vs. list comprehension with map(itemgetter)

    - by Dennis Williamson
    In a Python program I'm writing I've compared using a for loop and increment variables versus list comprehension with map(itemgetter) and len() when counting entries in dictionaries which are in a list. It takes the same time using a each method. Am I doing something wrong or is there a better approach? Here is a greatly simplified and shortened data structure: list = [ {'key1': True, 'dontcare': False, 'ignoreme': False, 'key2': True, 'filenotfound': 'biscuits and gravy'}, {'key1': False, 'dontcare': False, 'ignoreme': False, 'key2': True, 'filenotfound': 'peaches and cream'}, {'key1': True, 'dontcare': False, 'ignoreme': False, 'key2': False, 'filenotfound': 'Abbott and Costello'}, {'key1': False, 'dontcare': False, 'ignoreme': True, 'key2': False, 'filenotfound': 'over and under'}, {'key1': True, 'dontcare': True, 'ignoreme': False, 'key2': True, 'filenotfound': 'Scotch and... well... neat, thanks'} ] Here is the for loop version: #!/usr/bin/env python # Python 2.6 # count the entries where key1 is True # keep a separate count for the subset that also have key2 True key1 = key2 = 0 for dictionary in list: if dictionary["key1"]: key1 += 1 if dictionary["key2"]: key2 += 1 print "Counts: key1: " + str(key1) + ", subset key2: " + str(key2) Output for the data above: Counts: key1: 3, subset key2: 2 Here is the other, perhaps more Pythonic, version: #!/usr/bin/env python # Python 2.6 # count the entries where key1 is True # keep a separate count for the subset that also have key2 True from operator import itemgetter KEY1 = 0 KEY2 = 1 getentries = itemgetter("key1", "key2") entries = map(getentries, list) key1 = len([x for x in entries if x[KEY1]]) key2 = len([x for x in entries if x[KEY1] and x[KEY2]]) print "Counts: key1: " + str(key1) + ", subset key2: " + str(key2) Output for the data above (same as before): Counts: key1: 3, subset key2: 2 I'm a tiny bit surprised these take the same amount of time. I wonder if there's something faster. I'm sure I'm overlooking something simple. One alternative I've considered is loading the data into a database and doing SQL queries, but the data doesn't need to persist and I'd have to profile the overhead of the data transfer, etc., and a database may not always be available. I have no control over the original form of the data. The code above is not going for style points.

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  • SQLAlchemy Expression Language problem

    - by Torkel
    I'm trying to convert this to something sqlalchemy expression language compatible, I don't know if it's possible out of box and are hoping someone more experienced can help me along. The backend is PostgreSQL and if I can't make it as an expression I'll create a string instead. SELECT DISTINCT date_trunc('month', x.x) as date, COALESCE(b.res1, 0) AS res1, COALESCE(b.res2, 0) AS res2 FROM generate_series( date_trunc('year', now() - interval '1 years'), date_trunc('year', now() + interval '1 years'), interval '1 months' ) AS x LEFT OUTER JOIN( SELECT date_trunc('month', access_datetime) AS when, count(NULLIF(resource_id != 1, TRUE)) AS res1, count(NULLIF(resource_id != 2, TRUE)) AS res2 FROM tracking_entries GROUP BY date_trunc('month', access_datetime) ) AS b ON (date_trunc('month', x.x) = b.when) First of all I got a class TrackingEntry mapped to tracking_entries, the select statement within the outer joined can be converted to something like (pseudocode):: from sqlalchemy.sql import func, select from datetime import datetime, timedelta stmt = select([ func.date_trunc('month', TrackingEntry.resource_id).label('when'), func.count(func.nullif(TrackingEntry.resource_id != 1, True)).label('res1'), func.count(func.nullif(TrackingEntry.resource_id != 2, True)).label('res2') ], group_by=[func.date_trunc('month', TrackingEntry.access_datetime), ]) Considering the outer select statement I have no idea how to build it, my guess is something like: outer = select([ func.distinct(func.date_trunc('month', ?)).label('date'), func.coalesce(?.res1, 0).label('res1'), func.coalesce(?.res2, 0).label('res2') ], from_obj=[ func.generate_series( datetime.now(), datetime.now() + timedelta(days=365), timedelta(days=1) ).label(x) ]) Then I suppose I have to link those statements together without using foreign keys: outer.outerjoin(stmt???).??(func.date_trunc('month', ?.?), ?.when) Anyone got any suggestions or even better a solution?

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  • Request-local storage in ASP.NET (accessible to the code from IHttpModule implementation)

    - by IgorK
    I need to have some object hanging around between two events I'm interested in: PreRequestHandlerExecute (where I create an instance of my object and want to save it) and PostRequestHandlerExecute (where I want to get to the object). After the second event the object is not needed for my purposes and should be discarded either by storage or my explicit action. So the ideal context where my object should be stored is per request (with guaranteed no sharing issues when different threads are serving requests... or processes/servers :) ) Take into account that actual implementation I can do is being made from a HttpModule and is supposed to be a pluggable solution for already written web apps (so the option to provide some state using static/instance variables in Global.asax doesn't look good - I will have to modify Global.asax on every web application). Cache seems to be too broad for this use. I tried to see whether httpContext.Application (of type HttpApplicationState) is good for me or not, but cannot get whether it is exactly per HttpApplication instance or not (AFAIK you can have several instances of HttpApplications used on different threads and therefore serving several requests simultaneously - then using storage shared between threads will not work correctly; otherwise I would use it because one HttpApplication instance serves exactly one request at a time). Something could be done with storing state on the HttpModule instances if I know for sure that it's exactly bound 1-to-1 with every HttpApplication instance running (but again I need a proof that HttpApplication instance is 1-to-1 with my HttpModule's instance). Any valuable and reputable links on these topics are much appreciated... Would be great to find something particularly well-suited for per request situation (because otherwise I may end up with something ulgy... probably either some 'broader' scoped storage and some hacks to have different keys in the storage for different requests, OR using a thread-local thing and in this way commit to the theory that IIS/ASP.NET will not ever serve first event from one thread and the second event from the other thread and so on)

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  • SQL Server INSERT, Scope_Identity() and physical writing to disc

    - by TheBlueSky
    Hello everyone, I have a stored procedure that does, among other stuff, some inserts in different table inside a loop. See the example below for clearer understanding: INSERT INTO T1 VALUES ('something') SET @MyID = Scope_Identity() ... some stuff go here INSERT INTO T2 VALUES (@MyID, 'something else') ... The rest of the procedure These two tables (T1 and T2) have an IDENTITY(1, 1) column in each one of them, let's call them ID1 and ID2; however, after running the procedure in our production database (very busy database) and having more than 6250 records in each table, I have noticed one incident where ID1 does not match ID2! Although normally for each record inserted in T1, there is record inserted in T2 and the identity column in both is incremented consistently. The "wrong" records were something like that: ID1 Col1 ---- --------- 4709 data-4709 4710 data-4710 ID2 ID1 Col1 ---- ---- --------- 4709 4710 data-4709 4710 4709 data-4710 Note the "inverted", ID1 in the second table. Knowing not that much about SQL Server underneath operations, I have put the following "theory", maybe someone can correct me on this. What I think is that because the loop is faster than physically writing to the table, and/or maybe some other thing delayed the writing process, the records were buffered. When it comes the time to write them, they were wrote in no particular order. Is that even possible if no, how to explain the above mentioned scenario? If yes, then I have another question to rise. What if the first insert (from the code above) got delayed? Doesn't that mean I won't get the correct IDENTITY to insert into the second table? If the answer of this is also yes, what can I do to insure the insertion in the two tables will happen in sequence with the correct IDENTITY? I appreciate any comment and information that help me understand this. Thanks in advance.

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  • How can I update a record using a correlated subquery?

    - by froadie
    I have a function that accepts one parameter and returns a table/resultset. I want to set a field in a table to the first result of that recordset, passing in one of the table's other fields as the parameter. If that's too complicated in words, the query looks something like this: UPDATE myTable SET myField = (SELECT TOP 1 myFunctionField FROM fn_doSomething(myOtherField) WHERE someCondition = 'something') WHERE someOtherCondition = 'somethingElse' In this example, myField and myOtherField are fields in myTable, and myFunctionField is a field return by fn_doSomething. This seems logical to me, but I'm getting the following strange error: 'myOtherField' is not a recognized OPTIMIZER LOCK HINTS option. Any idea what I'm doing wrong, and how I can accomplish this? *UPDATE: * Based on Anil Soman's answer, I realized that the function is expecting a string parameter and the field being passed is an integer. I'm not sure if this should be a problem as an explicit call to the function using an integer value works - e.g. fn_doSomething(12345) seems to automatically cast the number to an string. However, I tried to do an explicit cast: UPDATE myTable SET myField = (SELECT TOP 1 myFunctionField FROM fn_doSomething(CAST(myOtherField AS varchar(1000))) WHERE someCondition = 'something') WHERE someOtherCondition = 'somethingElse' Now I'm getting the following error: Line 5: Incorrect syntax near '('.

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  • convert htmlelement to string for comparison javascript

    - by Jamex
    Hi, I am using a function that obtains a target element id at onclick. Example, if I click on the text element that has the id of 'help'. var click = (e && e.target) || (event && event.srcElement); The var click would contain the ref to the id of "help". I want to compare the var click to the string 'help' using the if statement below. if (click == 'about') {do something} The comparison does not work because the var click is not a string. When I use the alert(click) to debug, it shows click as "object HTMLElement". How would you compare whether the id 'help' is obtained from var click? I could write out something like if (click == document.getElementById('help')) {do something} but that would make a long statement. also if the var click is document.getElementById('help'), how would you make a new var "show" as document.getElementById('showhelp') basically, I want to use the same function to generate dynamic responses to each element that was clicked on, and not having to create a separate function for each element.

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  • Jquery Accordion : set action to a specific element inside header

    - by J.Tay
    by default, if we have something like this as a Header in jQuery Accordion : <h3> <div class="1">TEXT</div> <div class="2">ICON</div> <div class="3">BUTTON</div> </h3> by clicking anywhere on this , accordion works and toggle the next element and ... the question is , how can we set an option and select a specific element ( like: 'div' with class '1' ) to click on it to and toggle the accordion. i mean i don't want the whole Header remain click able. i just want to click on a icon or div o something inside the header and toggle open/close the accordion. thank you Update 1 : HTML : <div id="testAcc"> <h3> <div class="one">Text</div> <div class="two">Icon</div> <div class="three">Button</div> </h3> <div class="accBody"> text text text text text text text text text text </div> <h3> <div class="one">Text</div> <div class="two">Icon</div> <div class="three">Button</div> </h3> <div class="accBody"> text text text text text text text text text text </div> </div> JS : $('#testAcc').accordion({ autoHeight: false, header: 'h3', collapsible: 'ture', }); this codes working fine. but i want to use something like ( header: 'h3.one' ) means i want to set a specific class and element inside the header , then if user click ONLY on that element, the accordion will open or close ...

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  • Proper way of naming your Java Google App Engine Project

    - by Saif Bechan
    I am starting out with Google's App Engine in Java. I have seen the tutorial video but I do not understand the naming of the project package. It is going to be a guestbook, that's why the name is guestbook, I understand that part. But after that I see package name. 1)Is that something you import into the project, or is is something you create. I have seen this a lot in projects, something like com.xxx.xxx. 2)How do you name this type of thing or is this an import. I have looked at another tutorial there they take the naming to a whole new level. The name of both the project and the package is de.vogella.gae.java.todo. 3)What does this mean in java terms. 4)Maybe one of you can help me with this specific project I want to start. I want to create a Google App project that for now only serves static files. I will leave the project empty and just put all my static files in the war directory of the project. I want the domain name to be mydomainstatic

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  • "Android Create" call fails in windows 7 - missing JDK

    - by reuscam
    I'm having a problem getting my android dev environment setup in Windows 7. I follow the instructions here, as well as several environment sublinks. I am using Eclipse with the Android plugin. I have installed the Java JDK several times, in various locations (jdk-6u20-windows-i586.exe) - but I am obviously missing something. Every time I run "android create avd --target 2 --name my_avd" I get an error: C:\Users\andrew>android create avd --target 2 --name my_avd WARNING: Java not found in your path. Checking it it's installed in C:\Program Files\Java instead. ERROR: No suitable Java found. In order to properly use the Android Developer Tools, you need a suitable version of Java installed on your system. We recommend that you install the JDK version of JavaSE, available here: http://java.sun.com/javase/downloads/ You can find the complete Android SDK requirements here: http://developer.android.com/sdk/requirements.html This error message is the reason for me installing the JDK several times over. First I tried installing to a location on my e: drive. I then moved it to the default loc (program files (x86)\java\jdk.6.something. I also tried forcing it to go into the program files\ path, but it still automatically installs into the (x86) path. I have added the install path to my path environment variable every single time, yet I still continue to get this error. My suspicion is that windows 7 and the android tools are not playing together well in terms of finding the JDK, but who knows, it may be something entirely different. If you have seen this error before, I would appreciate a hint.

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  • How exactly do MbUnit's [Parallelizable] and DegreeOfParallelism work?

    - by BenA
    I thought I understood how MbUnit's parallel test execution worked, but the behaviour I'm seeing differs sufficiently much from my expectation that I suspect I'm missing something! I have a set of UI tests that I wish to run concurrently. All of the tests are in the same assembly, split across three different namespaces. All of the tests are completely independent of one another, so I'd like all of them to be eligible for parallel execution. To that end, I put the following in the AssemblyInfo.cs: [assembly: DegreeOfParallelism(8)] [assembly: Parallelizable(TestScope.All)] My understanding was that this combination of assembly attributes should cause all of the tests to be considered [Parallelizable], and that the test runner should use 8 threads during execution. My individual tests are marked with the [Test] attribute, and nothing else. None of them are data-driven. However, what I actually see is at most 5-6 threads being used, meaning that my test runs are taking longer than they should be. Am I missing something? Do I need to do anything else to ensure that all of my 8 threads are being used by the runner? N.B. The behaviour is the same irrespective of which runner I use. The GUI, command line and TD.Net runners all behave the same as described above, again leading me to think I've missed something. EDIT: As pointed out in the comments, I'm running v3.1 of MbUnit (update 2 build 397). The documentation suggests that the assembly level [parallelizable] attribute is available, but it does also seem to reference v3.2 of the framework despite that not yet being available. EDIT 2: To further clarify, the structure of my assembly is as follows: assembly - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute)

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