Search Results

Search found 38773 results on 1551 pages for 'anonymous function'.

Page 15/1551 | < Previous Page | 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22  | Next Page >

• Modifying my website to allow anonymous comments

  - by David

  I write the code for my own website as an educational/fun exercise. Right now part of the website is a blog (like every other site out there :-/) which supports the usual basic blog features, including commenting on posts. But I only have comments enabled for logged-in users; I want to alter the code to allow anonymous comments - that is, I want to allow people to post comments without first creating a user account on my site, although there will still be some sort of authentication involved to prevent spam. Question: what information should I save for anonymous comments? I'm thinking at least display name and email address (for displaying a Gravatar), and probably website URL because I eventually want to accept OpenID as well, but would anything else make sense? Other question: how should I modify the database to store this information? The schema I have for the comment table is currently comment_id smallint(5) // The unique comment ID post_id smallint(5) // The ID of the post the comment was made on user_id smallint(5) // The ID of the user account who made the comment comment_subject varchar(128) comment_date timestamp comment_text text Should I add additional fields for name, email address, etc. to the comment table? (seems like a bad idea) Create a new "anonymous users" table? (and if so, how to keep anonymous user ids from conflicting with regular user ids) Or create fake user accounts for anonymous users in my existing users table? Part of what's making this tricky is that if someone tries to post an anonymous comment using an email address (or OpenID) that's already associated with an account on my site, I'd like to catch that and prompt them to log in.

  Read the article

• How to pass a function in a function?

  - by SoulBeaver

  That's an odd title. I would greatly appreciate it if somebody could clarify what exactly I'm asking because I'm not so sure myself. I'm watching the Stanford videos on Programming Paradigms(that teacher is awesome) and I'm up to video five when he started doing this: void *lSearch( void* key, void* base, int elemSize, int n, int (*cmpFn)(void*, void*)) Naturally, I thought to myself, "Oi, I didn't know you could declare a function and define it later!". So I created my own C++ test version. int foo(int (*bar)(void*, void*)); int bar(void* a, void* b); int main(int argc, char** argv) { int *func = 0; foo(bar); cin.get(); return 0; } int foo(int (*bar)(void*, void*)) { int c(10), d(15); int *a = &c; int *b = &d; bar(a, b); return 0; } int bar(void* a, void* b) { cout << "Why hello there." << endl; return 0; } The question about the code is this: it fails if I declare function int *bar as a parameter of foo, but not int (*bar). Why!? Also, the video confuses me in the fact that his lSearch definition void* lSearch( /*params*/ , int (*cmpFn)(void*, void*)) is calling cmpFn in the definition, but when calling the lSearch function lSearch( /*params*/, intCmp ); also calls the defined function int intCmp(void* elem1, void* elem2); and I don't get how that works. Why, in lSearch, is the function called cmpFn, but defined as intCmp, which is of type int, not int* and still works? And why does the function in lSearch not have to have defined parameters?

  Read the article

• Oracle DBMS_PROFILER only shows Anonymous in the results tables

  - by Greg Reynolds

  I am new to DBMS_PROFILER. All the examples I have seen use a simple top-level procedure to demonstrate the use of the profiler, and from there get all the line numbers etc. I deploy all code in packages, and I am having great difficulty getting my profile session to populate the plsql_profiler_units with useful data. Most of my runs look like this: RUNID RUN_COMMENT UNIT_OWNER UNIT_NAME SECS PERCEN ----- ----------- ----------- -------------- ------- ------ 5 Test <anonymous> <anonymous> .00 2.1 Profiler 5 Test <anonymous> <anonymous> .00 2.1 Profiler 5 Test <anonymous> <anonymous> .00 2.1 Profiler I have just embedded the calls to the dbms_profiler.start_profiler, flush_data and stop_profiler as per all the examples. The main difference is that my code is in a package, and calls in to other package. Do you have to profile every single stored procedure in your call stack? If so that makes this tool a little useless! I have checked http://www.dba-oracle.com/t_plsql_dbms_profiler.htm for hints, among other similar sites.

  Read the article

• C when to allocate and free memory - before function call, after function call...etc

  - by Keith P

  I am working with my first straight C project, and it has been a while since I worked on C++ for that matter. So the whole memory management is a bit fuzzy. I have a function that I created that will validate some input. In the simple sample below, it just ignores spaces: int validate_input(const char *input_line, char* out_value){ int ret_val = 0; /*false*/ int length = strlen(input_line); cout << "length = " << length << "\n"; out_value =(char*) malloc(sizeof(char) * length + 1); if (0 != length){ int number_found = 0; for (int x = 0; x < length; x++){ if (input_line[x] != ' '){ /*ignore space*/ /*get the character*/ out_value[number_found] = input_line[x]; number_found++; /*increment counter*/ } } out_value[number_found + 1] = '\0'; ret_val = 1; } return ret_val; } Instead of allocating memory inside the function for out_value, should I do it before I call the function and always expect the caller to allocate memory before passing into the function? As a rule of thumb, should any memory allocated inside of a function be always freed before the function returns?

  Read the article

• calling java script function then C# function after clicking ASP.NET button

  - by Eyla

  I have this serious: I have ASP.NET page, This page contents Update panel with ASP.NET control. I have Java script function to do validation so when I click the button I will use onclientclick to call the java function to do the validation and after this one done should call then event click button function from code behind. I tried vew methods but they did not work for me. here is sample of my code that after I click the button onclientclick will call the java script function for validation and if the validation is OK should call onclick event. .................... java script function ........................ <script type="text/javascript" > function add(){ if (tag == trye) { document.getElementById('<%=btnInfor.ClientID%>').click(); alert("DataAdded") } else { alert("Requiered Field Missing.") return false; } } </script> ..................... ASP.NET button ................... <asp:Button ID="btnInfor" runat="server" Text="Add Information" Style="position: absolute; top: 1659px; left: 433px;" onclientclick="JavaScript: return myAdd()" /> .................... code behind in C# ...................... protected void btnInfor_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { \\mycode }

  Read the article

• jQuery broken function after added new function

  - by Kyle Sevenoaks

  What's wrong here? The alert function was working until I added this new function to it. Is there anything I am doing wrong? It just simply doesn't fire the alert anymore. <input value="1" type="checkbox" name="salgsvilkar" id="checkbox2" style="float:left;" /> {literal} <script src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery-latest.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { //checkbox $("#scrollwrap").click(function(){ $("#scrollwrap").toggleClass('highlight'); });? }); $(function(){ //button $("#fullfor_btn").click(function(e){ if(!$("#checkbox2").is(':checked') == false) { alert("Please accept the terms of sale."); e.preventDefault(); } }); }); </script> {/literal} <button type="submit" class="submit" name="{$method}" id="fullfor_btn" title="Fullfør bestillingen nå" value="">&nbsp;</button>

  Read the article

• Using pointers in PHP.

  - by Babiker

  I ask this question because i learned that in programming and designing, you must have a good reason for decisions. I am php learner and i am at a crossroad here, i am using simple incrementation to try to get what im askin across. I am certainly not here to start a debate about the pros/cons of pointers but when it comes to php, which is the better programming practice: function increment(&$param) { $param++; } Or function increment($param){ return $param++; } $param = increment($param);

  Read the article

• Possible to create an implicit cast for an anonymous type to a dictionary?

  - by Ralph

  I wrote a method like this: using AttrDict = System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary<string, object>; using IAttrDict = System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable<System.Collections.Generic.KeyValuePair<string, object>>; static string HtmlTag(string tagName, string content = null, IAttrDict attrs = null) { var sb = new StringBuilder("<"); sb.Append(tagName); if(attrs != null) foreach (var attr in attrs) sb.AppendFormat(" {0}=\"{1}\"", attr.Key, attr.Value.ToString().EscapeQuotes()); if (content != null) sb.AppendFormat(">{0}</{1}>", content, tagName); else sb.Append(" />"); return sb.ToString(); } Which you can call like HtmlTag("div", "hello world", new AttrDict{{"class","green"}}); Not too bad. But what if I wanted to allow users to pass an anonymous type in place of the dict? Like HtmlTag("div", "hello world", new {@class="green"}); Even better! I could write the overload easily, but the problem is I'm going to have about 50 functions like this, I don't want to overload each one of them. I was hoping I could just write an implicit cast to do the work for me... public class AttrDict : Dictionary<string, object> { public static implicit operator AttrDict(object obj) { // conversion from anonymous type to AttrDict here } } But C# simply won't allow it: user-defined conversions to or from a base class are not allowed So what can I do?

  Read the article

• What's keeping this timer in scope? The anonymous method?

  - by Andy

  Ok, So I have a method which fires when someone clicks on our Icon in a silverlight application, seen below: private void Logo_MouseLeftButtonUp(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { e.Handled = true; ShowInfo(true); DispatcherTimer autoCloseTimer = new DispatcherTimer(); autoCloseTimer.Interval = new TimeSpan(0, 0, 10); autoCloseTimer.Tick +=new EventHandler((timerSender,args) => { autoCloseTimer.Stop(); ShowInfo(false); }); autoCloseTimer.Start(); } Whats meant to happen is that the method ShowInfo() opens up a box with the company info in and the dispatch timer auto closes it after said timespan. And this all works... But what I'm not sure about is because the dispatch timer is a local var, after the Logo_MouseLeftButtonUp method finishes, what is there to keep the dispatch timer referenced and not availible for GC collection before the anonymous method is fired? Is it the reference to the ShowInfo() method in the anonymous method? Just feels like some thing I should understand deeper as I can imagine with using events etc it can be very easy to create a leak with something like this. Hope this all makes sense! Andy.

  Read the article

• jQuery Validate() special function

  - by kevin

  I'm using the jQuery validate() plugin for some forms and it goes great. The only thing is that I have an input field that requires a special validation process. Here is how it goes: The jQuery validate plugin is called in the domready for all the required fields. Here is an example for an input: <li> <label for="nome">Nome completo*</label> <input name="nome" type="text" id="nome" class="required"/> </li> And here is how I call my special function: <li> <span id="sprytextfield1"> <label for="cpf">CPF* (xxxxxxxxxxx)</label> <input name="cpf" type="text" id="cpf" maxlength="15" class="required" /> <span class="textfieldInvalidFormatMsg">CPF Inv&aacute;lido.</span> </span> </li> And at the bottom of the file I call the Spry function: <script type="text/javascript"> <!-- var sprytextfield1 = new Spry.Widget.ValidationTextField("sprytextfield1","cpf"); //--> </script> Of course I call the Spry CSS and JavaScript files in the head section as well as my special-validate.js. When I just use the jQuery validate() plugin and click on the send button, the page goes automatically back to the first mistaken input field and shows the error type (not a number, not a valid email etc.). But with this new function, this "going-back-to-the-first-mistake" feature doesn't work, of course, because the validate() function sees it all good. I already added a rule for another form (about pictures upload) and it goes like this: $("#commentForm").validate({ rules: { foto34: { required: true, accept: "jpg|png|gif" } } }); Now my question is, how can I add the special validation function as a rule of the whole validation process? Here is the page to understand it better: link text and the special field is the first one: CPF. I hope I was clear explaining my problem.

  Read the article

• Jqeury Validate() special function

  - by kevin

  Hi there, i'm using the Jquery validate() plugin for some forms and it goes great. The only thing is that i have an input field that requires a special validation process. Here is how it goes: The Jquery validate plugin is called in the domready for all the required fields. Here is an exemple for an input: <li> <label for="nome">Nome completo*</label> <input name="nome" type="text" id="nome" class="required"/> </li> And here is how i call my special function: <li> <span id="sprytextfield1"> <label for="cpf">CPF* (xxxxxxxxxxx)</label> <input name="cpf" type="text" id="cpf" maxlength="15" class="required" /> <span class="textfieldInvalidFormatMsg">CPF Inv&aacute;lido.</span> </span> </li> And at the bottom of the file i call the Spry function: <script type="text/javascript"> <!-- var sprytextfield1 = new Spry.Widget.ValidationTextField("sprytextfield1","cpf"); //--> </script> Of course i call the Spry css and js files in the head section as well as my special-validate.js. When i just use the Jquery validate() plugin and click on the send button, the page goes automatically back to the first mistaken input field and shows the error type (not a number, not a valid email etc.). But with this new function, this "going-back-to-the-first-mistake" feature doesnt work, of course, because the validate() function sees it all good. I already added a rule for another form (about pictures upload) and it goes like this: $("#commentForm").validate({ rules: { foto34: { required: true, accept: "jpg|png|gif" } } }); Now my question is, how can i add the special validation function as a rule of the whole validation process ? Here is the page to understand it better: link text and the special field is the first one: CPF. Hope i was clear explaining my problem. Thanks in advance. kevin

  Read the article

• Passing an array of an array of char to a function

  - by L.A. Rabida

  In my program, I may need to load a large file, but not always. So I have defined: char** largefilecontents; string fileName="large.txt"; When I need to load the file, the program calles this function: bool isitok=LoadLargeFile(fileName,largefilecontents); And the function is: bool LoadLargeFile(string &filename, char ** &lines) { if (lines) delete [] lines; ifstream largeFile; #ifdef LINUX largeFile.open(filename.c_str()); #endif #ifdef WINDOWS largeFile.open(filename.c_str(),ios::binary); #endif if (!largeFile.is_open()) return false; lines=new char *[10000]; if (!lines) return false; largeFile.clear(); largeFile.seekg(ios::beg); for (int i=0; i>-1; i++) { string line=""; getline(largeFile,line); if (largeFile.tellg()==-1) break; //when end of file is reached, tellg returns -1 lines[i]=new char[line.length()]; lines[i]=const_cast<char*>(line.c_str()); cout << lines[i] << endl; //debug output } return true; } When I view the debug output of this function, "cout << lines[i] << endl;", it is fine. But when I then check this in the main program like this, it is all messed up: for (i=0; i<10000; i++) cout << largefilecontents[i] << endl; So within the function LoadLargeFile(), the results are fine, but without LoadLargeFile(), the results are all messed up. My guess is that the char ** &lines part of the function isn't right, but I do not know what this should be. Could someone help me? Thank you in advance!

  Read the article

• PHP class function.

  - by Jordan Pagaduan

  What is wrong with this code? <?php class users { var $user_id, $f_name, $l_name, $db_host, $db_user, $db_name, $db_table; function user_input() { $this->$db_host = 'localhost'; $this->$db_user = 'root'; $this->$db_name = 'input_oop'; $this->$db_table = 'users'; } function userInput($f_name, $l_name) { $dbc = mysql_connect($this->db_host , $this->db_user, "") or die ("Cannot connect to database : " .mysql_error()); mysql_select_db($this->db_name) or die (mysql_error()); $query = "insert into $this->db_table values (NULL, \"$f_name\", \"$l_name\")"; $result = mysql_query($query); if(!$result) die (mysql_error()); $this->userID = mysql_insert_id(); mysql_close($dbc); $this->first_name = $f_name; $this->last_name = $l_name; } function userUpdate($new_f_name, $new_l_name) { $dbc = mysql_connect($this->db_host, $this->db_user, "") or die (mysql_error()); mysql_select_db($this->db_name) or die (mysql_error()); $query = "UPDATE $this->db_table set = \"$new_f_name\" , \"$new_l_name\" WHERE user_id = \"$this->user_id\""; $result = mysql_query($query); $this->f_name = $new_f_name; $this->l_name = $new_l_name; $this->user_id = $user_id; mysql_close($dbc); } function userDelete() { $dbc = mysql_connect($this->db_host, $this->db_user, "") or die (mysql_error()); mysql_select_db($this->db_name) or die (mysql_error()); $query = "DELETE FROM $this->db_table WHERE $user_id = \"$this->user_id\""; mysql_close($dbc); } } ?> The error is: Warning: mysql_connect() [function.mysql-connect]: Access denied for user 'ODBC'@'localhost' (using password: NO) in C:\xampp\htdocs\jordan_pagaduan\class.php on line 21 Cannot connect to database : Access denied for user 'ODBC'@'localhost' (using password: NO) The code cannot define this "$this->db_host" as "localhost".

  Read the article

• How to call SQL Function with multiple parameters from C# web page

  - by Marshall

  I have an MS SQL function that is called with the following syntax: SELECT Field1, COUNT(*) AS RecordCount FROM GetDecileTable('WHERE ClientID = 7 AND LocationName = ''Default'' ', 10) The first parameter passes a specific WHERE clause that is used by the function for one of the internal queries. When I call this function in the front-end C# page, I need to send parameter values for the individual fields inside of the WHERE clause (in this example, both the ClientID & LocationName fields) The current C# code looks like this: String SQLText = "SELECT Field1, COUNT(*) AS RecordCount FROM GetDecileTable('WHERE ClientID = @ClientID AND LocationName = @LocationName ',10)"; SqlCommand Cmd = new SqlCommand(SQLText, SqlConnection); Cmd.Parameters.Add("@ClientID", SqlDbType.Int).Value = 7; // Insert real ClientID Cmd.Parameters.Add("@LocationName", SqlDbType.NVarChar(20)).Value = "Default"; // Real code uses Location Name from user input SqlDataReader reader = Cmd.ExecuteReader(); When I do this, I get the following code from SQL profiler: exec sp_executesql N'SELECT Field1, COUNT(*) as RecordCount FROM GetDecileTable (''WHERE ClientID = @ClientID AND LocationName = @LocationName '',10)', N'@ClientID int,@LocationID nvarchar(20)', @ClientID=7,@LocationName=N'Default' When this executes, SQL throws an error that it cannot parse past the first mention of @ClientID stating that the Scalar Variable @ClientID must be defined. If I modify the code to declare the variables first (see below), then I receive an error at the second mention of @ClientID that the variable already exists. exec sp_executesql N'DECLARE @ClientID int; DECLARE @LocationName nvarchar(20); SELECT Field1, COUNT(*) as RecordCount FROM GetDecileTable (''WHERE ClientID = @ClientID AND LocationName = @LocationName '',10)', N'@ClientID int,@LocationName nvarchar(20)', @ClientID=7,@LocationName=N'Default' I know that this method of adding parameters and calling SQL code from C# works well when I am selecting data from tables, but I am not sure how to embed parameters inside of the ' quote marks for the embedded WHERE clause being passed to the function. Any ideas?

  Read the article

• javascript function won't stop looping - It's on a netsuite website

  - by Lauren

  I need to change the shipping carrier drop-down and shipping method radio button once via a javascript function, not forever. However, when I use this function, which executes when on the Review and Submit page when the order is < $5, it goes into an endless loop: function setFreeSampShipping(){ var options = document.forms['checkout'].shippingcarrierselect.getElementsByTagName('option'); for (i=0;i<options.length;i++){ if (options[i].value == 'nonups'){ document.forms['checkout'].shippingcarrierselect.value='nonups'; document.forms['checkout'].shippingcarrierselect.onchange(); document.location.href='/app/site/backend/setshipmeth.nl?c=659197&n=1&sc=4&sShipMeth=2035'; } } } It gets called from within this part of the function setSampPolicyElems() which you can see I've commented out to stop the loop: if (carTotl < 5 && hasSampp == 1) { /* if (document.forms['checkout'].shippingcarrierselect.value =='ups'){ setFreeSampShipping(); } */ document.getElementById('sampAdd').style.display="none"; document.getElementById("custbody_ava_webshiptype").value = "7";//no charge free freight if (document.getElementById("applycoupon")) { document.location.href='/app/site/backend/setpromocode.nl?c=659197&n=1&sc=4&kReferralCode=SAMPLE' } document.write("<div id='msg'><strong>Sample & Shipping:</strong></span> No Charge. (Your sample order is < $5.)</div>"); } To see the issue, go to the order review and submit page here: https://checkout.netsuite.com/s.nl?c=659197&sc=4&n=1 (or go to http://www.avaline.com, hit "checkout", and login) You can log in with these credentials: Email:[email protected] Pass:test03

  Read the article

• C function const multidimensional-array argument strange warning

  - by rogi

  Ehllo, I'm getting some strange warning about this code: typedef double mat4[4][4]; void mprod4(mat4 r, const mat4 a, const mat4 b) { /* yes, function is empty */ } int main() { mat4 mr, ma, mb; mprod4(mr, ma, mb); } gcc output as follows: $ gcc -o test test.c test.c: In function 'main': test.c:13: warning: passing argument 2 of 'mprod4' from incompatible pointer type test.c:4: note: expected 'const double (*)[4]' but argument is of type 'double (*)[4]' test.c:13: warning: passing argument 3 of 'mprod4' from incompatible pointer type test.c:4: note: expected 'const double ()[4]' but argument is of type 'double ()[4]' defining the function as: void mprod4(mat4 r, mat4 a, mat4 b) { } OR defining matrices at main as: mat4 mr; const mat4 ma; const mat4 mb; OR calling teh function in main as: mprod4(mr, (const double(*)[4])ma, (const double(*)[4])mb); OR even defining mat4 as: typedef double mat4[16]; make teh warning go away. Wat is happening here? Am I doing something invalid? gcc version is 4.4.3 if relevant. Thanks for your attention.

  Read the article

• Trouble Shoot JavaScript Function in IE

  - by CreativeNotice

  So this function works fine in geko and webkit browsers, but not IE7. I've busted my brain trying to spot the issue. Anything stick out for you? Basic premise is you pass in a data object (in this case a response from jQuery's $.getJSON) we check for a response code, set the notification's class, append a layer and show it to the user. Then reverse the process after a time limit. function userNotice(data){ // change class based on error code returned var myClass = ''; if(data.code == 200){ myClass='success'; } else if(data.code == 400){ myClass='error'; } else{ myClass='notice'; } // create message html, add to DOM, FadeIn var myNotice = '<div id="notice" class="ajaxMsg '+myClass+'">'+data.msg+'</div>'; $("body").append(myNotice); $("#notice").fadeIn('fast'); // fadeout and remove from DOM after delay var t = setTimeout(function(){ $("#notice").fadeOut('slow',function(){ $(this).remove(); }); },5000); }

  Read the article

• bash: function + source + declare = boom

  - by Chen Levy

  Here is a problem: In my bash scripts I want to source several file with some checks, so I have: if [ -r foo ] ; then source foo else logger -t $0 -p crit "unable to source foo" exit 1 fi if [ -r bar ] ; then source bar else logger -t $0 -p crit "unable to source bar" exit 1 fi # ... etc ... Naively I tried to create a function that do: function save_source() { if [ -r $1 ] ; then source $1 else logger -t $0 -p crit "unable to source $1" exit 1 fi } safe_source foo safe_source bar # ... etc ... But there is a snag there. If one of the files foo, bar, etc. have a global such as -- declare GLOBAL_VAR=42 -- it will effectively become: function save_source() { # ... declare GLOBAL_VAR=42 # ... } thus a global variable becomes local. The question: An alias in bash seems too weak for this, so must I unroll the above function, and repeat myself, or is there a more elegant approach? ... and yes, I agree that Python, Perl, Ruby would make my file easier, but when working with legacy system, one doesn't always have the privilege of choosing the best tool.

  Read the article

• Update table variable with function

  - by Joris

  I got a table variable @RQ, I want it updated using a table-valued function. Now, I think I do the update wrong, because my function works... The function: ALTER FUNCTION [dbo].[usf_GetRecursiveFoobar] ( @para int, @para datetime, @para varchar(30) ) RETURNS @ReQ TABLE ( Onekey int, Studnr nvarchar(10), Stud int, Description nvarchar(32), ECTSGot decimal(5,2), SBUGot decimal(5,0), ECTSmax decimal(5,2), SBUmax decimal(5,0), IsFree bit, IsGot int, DateGot nvarchar(10), lvl int, path varchar(max) ) AS BEGIN; WITH RQ AS ( --RECURSIVE QUERY ) INSERT @ReQ SELECT RQ.Onekey, RQ.Studnr, RQ.Stud, RQ.Description, RQ.ECTSGot, RQ.SBUGot, RQ.ECTSmax, RQ.SBUmax, RQ.IsFree, RQ.IsGot, RQ.DatumGot, RQ.lvl, RQ.path FROM RQ RETURN END Now, when I run a simple query: DECLARE @ReQ TABLE ( OnderwijsEenheid_key int, StudentnummerHSA nvarchar(10), Student_key int, Omschrijving nvarchar(32), ECTSbehaald decimal(5,2), SBUbehaald decimal(5,0), ECTSmax decimal(5,2), SBUmax decimal(5,0), IsVrijstelling bit, IsBehaald int, DatumBehaald nvarchar(10), lvl int, path varchar(max) ) INSERT INTO @ReQ SELECT * FROM usf_GetRecursiveFoobar(@para1, @para2, @para3) I got error: Msg 8152, Level 16, State 13, Line 20 String or binary data would be truncated. The statement has been terminated. Why? What to do about it?

  Read the article

• if/else statement in a function: using onclick as a switch

  - by Aurora Schmidt

  I have looked for solutions to this on google for what seems like an eternity, but I can't seem to formulate my search correctly, or nobody has posted the code I'm looking for earlier. I am currently trying to make a function that will modify one or several margins of a div element. I want to use an if/else statement within the function, so that the onclick event will switch between the two conditions. This is what I have been working on so far; function facebookToggle() { if($('#facebooktab').style.margin-left == "-250px";) { document.getElementById("facebooktab").style.marginLeft="0px"; } else { document.getElementById("facebooktab").style.marginLeft="-250px"; } } I have tried twisting it around a little, like switching between "marginLeft" and "margin-left", to see if I was just using the wrong terms.. I'm starting to wonder if it might not be possible to combine jQuery and regular javascript? I don't know.. It's all just guesses on my part at this point. Anyway, I have a div, which is now positioned (fixed) so almost all of it is hidden outside the borders of the browser. I want the margin to change onclick so that it will be fully shown on the page. And when it is shown, I want to be able to hide it again by clicking it. I might be approaching this in the wrong way, but I really hope someone can help me out, or even tell me another way to get the same results. Thank you for any help you can give me. You can see it in action at: http://www.torucon.no/test/ (EDIT: By the way, I am a complete javascript novice, I have no experience with javascript prior to this experiment. Please don't be too harsh, as I am aware I probably made some really stupid mistakes in this short code.) EDITED CODE: function facebookToggle() { if($('#facebooktab').css('margin-left', '-250px') { $('#facebooktab').css('margin-left', '0px'); } else { $('#facebooktab').css('margin-left', '-250px'); } }

  Read the article

• How to call a function from another class file

  - by Guy Parker

  I am very familiar with writing VB based applications but am new to Xcode (and Objective C). I have gone through numerous tutorials on the web and understand the basics and how to interact with Interface Builder etc. However, I am really struggling with some basic concepts of the C language and would be grateful for any help you can offer. Heres my problem… I have a simple iphone app which has a view controller (FirstViewController) and a subview (SecondViewController) with associated header and class files. In the FirstViewController.m have a function defined @implementation FirstViewController (void) writeToServer:(const uint8_t ) buf { [oStream write:buf maxLength:strlen((char)buf)]; } It doesn't really matter what the function is. I want to use this function in my SecondViewController, so in SecondViewController.m I import FirstViewController.h import "SecondViewController.h" import "FirstViewController.h" @implementation SecondViewController -(IBAction) SetButton: (id) sender { NSString *s = [@"Fill:" stringByAppendingString: FillLevelValue.text]; NSString *strToSend = [s stringByAppendingString: @":"]; const uint8_t *str = (uint8_t *) [strToSend cStringUsingEncoding:NSASCIIStringEncoding]; FillLevelValue.text = strToSend; [FirstViewController writeToServer:str]; } This last line is where my problem is. XCode tells me that FirstViewController may not respond to writeToServer. And when I try to run the application it crashes when this function is called. I guess I don't fully understand how to share functions and more importantly, the relationship between classes. In an ideal world I would create a global class to place my functions in and call them as required. Any advice gratefully received.

  Read the article

• Creating a function in Postgresql that does not return composite values

  - by celenius

  I'm learning how to write functions in Postgresql. I've defined a function called _tmp_myfunction() which takes in an id and returns a table (I also define a table object type called _tmp_mytable) -- create object type to be returned CREATE TYPE _tmp_mytable AS ( id integer, cost double precision ); -- create function which returns query CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION _tmp_myfunction( id integer ) RETURNS SETOF _tmp_mytable AS $$ BEGIN RETURN QUERY SELECT id, cost FROM sales WHERE id = sales.id; END; $$ LANGUAGE plpgsql; This works fine when I use one id and call it using the following approach: SELECT * FROM _tmp_myfunction(402); What I would like to be able to do is to call it, but to use a column of values instead of just one value. However, if I use the following approach I end up with all values of the table in one column, separated by commas: -- call function using all values in a column SELECT _tmp_myfunction(t.id) FROM transactions as t; I understand that I can get the same result if I use SELECT _tmp_myfunction(402); instead of SELECT * FROM _tmp_myfunction(402); but I don't know how to construct my query in such a way that I can separate out the results.

  Read the article

• Modify onclick function with jQuery

  - by Chris Barr

  I've got a button that has an onclick event in it, which was set on the back end from .NET. Beside it is a checkbox <button class="img_button" onclick="if(buttonLoader(this)){WebForm_DoPostBackWithOptions(new WebForm_PostBackOptions('uxBtnRelease', '', true, '', 'somepage.aspx?oupid=5&fp=true', false, true))} return false;" type="button">Release</button> <input type="checkbox" checked="checked" id="myCheckbox"> When the checkbox is clicked, needs to change the value of the query string in the URL inside the onclick function of the button. So far I have this, and the idea is right, but I keep getting errors when it's run: "Uncaught SyntaxError: Unexpected token ILLEGAL" var defaultReleaseOnClick=null; $("#myCheckbox").click(function(){ var $releaseBtn = $(".img_button"); if(defaultReleaseOnClick==null) defaultReleaseOnClick=$releaseBtn.attr("onclick"); var newOnClickString = defaultReleaseOnClick.toString().replace(/&fp=[a-z]+'/i,"&fp="+this.checked); $releaseBtn.removeAttr("onclick").click(eval(newOnClickString)); }); I know it seems kinda hacky to convert the function to a string, do a replacement, and then try to convert it back to a function, but I don't know any other way to do it. Any ideas? I've set up a demo here: http://jsbin.com/asiwu4/edit

  Read the article

• How to catch unintentional function interpositioning with GCC?

  - by SiegeX

  Reading through my book Expert C Programming, I came across the chapter on function interpositioning and how it can lead to some serious hard to find bugs if done unintentionally. The example given in the book is the following: my_source.c mktemp() { ... } main() { mktemp(); getwd(); } libc mktemp(){ ... } getwd(){ ...; mktemp(); ... } According to the book, what happens in main() is that mktemp() (a standard C library function) is interposed by the implementation in my_source.c. Although having main() call my implementation of mktemp() is intended behavior, having getwd() (another C library function) also call my implementation of mktemp() is not. Apparently, this example was a real life bug that existed in SunOS 4.0.3's version of lpr. The book goes on to explain the fix was to add the keyword static to the definition of mktemp() in my_source.c; although changing the name altogether should have fixed this problem as well. This chapter leaves me with some unresolved questions that I hope you guys could answer: Should our software group adopt the practice of putting the keyword static in front of all functions that we don't want to be exposed? Does GCC have a way to warn about function interposition? We certainly don't ever intend on this happening and I'd like to know about it if it does. Can interposition happen with functions introduced by static libraries? Thanks for the help.

  Read the article

• Templates, Function Pointers and C++0x

  - by user328543

  One of my personal experiments to understand some of the C++0x features: I'm trying to pass a function pointer to a template function to execute. Eventually the execution is supposed to happen in a different thread. But with all the different types of functions, I can't get the templates to work. #include `<functional`> int foo(void) {return 2;} class bar { public: int operator() (void) {return 4;}; int something(int a) {return a;}; }; template <class C> int func(C&& c) { //typedef typename std::result_of< C() >::type result_type; typedef typename std::conditional< std::is_pointer< C >::value, std::result_of< C() >::type, std::conditional< std::is_object< C >::value, std::result_of< typename C::operator() >::type, void> >::type result_type; result_type result = c(); return result; } int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { // call with a function pointer func(foo); // call with a member function bar b; func(b); // call with a bind expression func(std::bind(&bar::something, b, 42)); // call with a lambda expression func( [](void)->int {return 12;} ); return 0; } The result_of template alone doesn't seem to be able to find the operator() in class bar and the clunky conditional I created doesn't compile. Any ideas? Will I have additional problems with const functions?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22  | Next Page >