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  • Why don't Domain class static methods work from inside a grails "service"?

    - by ?????
    I want a grails service to be able to access Domain static methods, for queries, etc. For example, in a controller, I can call IncomingCall.count() to get the number of records in table "IncomingCall" but if I try to do this from inside a service, I get the error: org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanCreationException: Error creating bean with name 'incomingStatusService': Invocation of init method failed; nested exception is groovy.lang.MissingMethodException: No signature of method: static ms.wdw.tropocontrol.IncomingCall.count() is applicable for argument types: () values: [] How do these methods get injected? There's no magic def statement in a controller that appears to do this. Or is the problem that Hibernate isn't available from my Service class?

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  • abstract class extends abstract class in php?

    - by user151841
    I am working on a simple abstract database class. In my usage of this class, I'll want to have some instance be a singleton. I was thinking of having a abstract class that is not a singleton, and then extend it into another abstract class that is a singleton. Is this possible? Recommended?

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  • Deriving a class from an abstract class (C++)

    - by cemregoksu
    I have an abstract class with a pure virtual function f() and i want to create a class inherited from that class, and also override function f(). I seperated the header file and the cpp file. I declared the function f(int) in the header file and the definition is in the cpp file. However, the compiler says the derived class is still abstract. How can i fix it?

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  • C# vector class - Interpolation design decision

    - by Benjamin
    Currently I'm working on a vector class in C# and now I'm coming to the point, where I've to figure out, how i want to implement the functions for interpolation between two vectors. At first I came up with implementing the functions directly into the vector class... public class Vector3D { public static Vector3D LinearInterpolate(Vector3D vector1, Vector3D vector2, double factor) { ... } public Vector3D LinearInterpolate(Vector3D other, double factor { ... } } (I always offer both: a static method with two vectors as parameters and one non-static, with only one vector as parameter) ...but then I got the idea to use extension methods (defined in a seperate class called "Interpolation" for example), since interpolation isn't really a thing only available for vectors. So this could be another solution: public class Vector3D { ... } public static class Interpolation { public static Vector3D LinearInterpolate(this Vector3D vector, Vector3D other, double factor) { ... } } So here an example how you'd use the different possibilities: { var vec1 = new Vector3D(5, 3, 1); var vec2 = new Vector3D(4, 2, 0); Vector3D vec3; vec3 = vec1.LinearInterpolate(vec2, 0.5); //1 vec3 = Vector3D.LinearInterpolate(vec1, vec2, 0.5); //2 //or with extension-methods vec3 = vec1.LinearInterpolate(vec2, 0.5); //3 (same as 1) vec3 = Interpolation.LinearInterpolation(vec1, vec2, 0.5); //4 } So I really don't know which design is better. Also I don't know if there's an ultimate rule for things like this or if it's just about what someone personally prefers. But I really would like to hear your opinions, what's better (and if possible why ).

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  • How can I use domain masking without having self referral in Google Analytics

    - by Cdore
    I have one old domain that points to a website's server's ip (let's call it www.oldsite.com). I have a new one, www.newsite.com, that is set up to be forwarded to a specific page on the website. Due to the way the host of newsite.com places the website in a frame, in Google Analystics, the newsite.com is listed as a source rather than the source they were at before hand, causing a self referral. A solution is to edit the code of the iframe as I looked up, but there's no way to really edit the host's masking source code of course. Another solution I did previously was have www.newsite.com point to the address that www.oldsite.come pointed to. It solved the analytics problems, but in exchange, the url masking no longer worked. In the address bar, it came up as www.oldsite.com. Is there a way to make me have url masking and be able to forward to agree with google analytics? The server of the website is hosted on a cloud server, if this is anymore information.

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  • Domain Trust Issues When Setting Up TFS 2010 on Windows Server 2008 R2

    - by Chris Reynolds
    I am trying to setup Team Foundation Server 2010 on Windows Server 2008 R2 using a single server configuration. During the "Readiness Checks" phase of the configuration wizard, I am facing an issue that i preventing me from communicating with the domain controller (which is Windows Server 2000). [ System Checks ] TF255435: This computer is a member of an Active Directory domain, but the domain controllers are not accessible. Network problems might be preventing access to the domain. Verify that the network is operational, and then retry the readiness checks. Other options include configuring Team Foundation Server specifying a local account in the custom wizard or joining the computer to a workgroup. http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkID=164053&clcid=0x409 After reading the log file, the main issue I am encountering appears to be: The trust relationship between this workstation and the primary domain failed. (type SystemException) I have read in several other locations that the solution to this issue is to: Leave the domain Restart Join a workgroup Restart Rejoin the domain Unfortunately, I have tried this several times now and the issue persists. Is there anything I can try on the either the client machine or the domain controller that may help solve my issue?

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  • Windows Clients: Windows or Linux Domain Controller?

    - by Ramon Marco Navarro
    I'm planning to set up a domain controller for our small computer laboratory. I'm a little confused as to what operating system to use for our domain controller. What's in the lab: The lab has 25 units running a mix of Windows 7 and Windows XP. The domain controller will only have 2GB of RAM running a C2D E7200. (Is this enough?) What we want: The Domain Controller will also be running a git server. The Domain Controller will also be used as a general development machine (mostly Java, PHP). A way to centralize the updates for the windows clients, so that they won't have to download the same patches from the remote site. The machines would just query them from the local domain controller and get the updates from there. Our head recommended that I virtualize a Windows Server 2008 system under a Linux host and use the former as a domain controller and the latter for development or the other way around. A comparison of the advantages and disadvantages of using a Linux distribution or Windows Server 2008 in this situation would also be appreciated. As you may have noticed by now, I'm kinda new to setting up a domain so I hope you guys will be able to help me. Thank you.

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  • Custom Domain for Google App Engine and Google Apps

    - by Kevin
    I have set up and configured Google App Engine and Google Apps to use my custom domain with a cname 'www'. I have configured my DNS (via fasthosts.co.uk) with the cname and pointed it to ghs.google.com. I can access the website using the google app engine domain at capel-y-crwys.appspot.com but I can't access it via my custom domain www.capelycrwys.org.uk. I have allowed several days for propagation of the DNS etc. The really strange this is I can access the app via my custom domain when I use the web browser on my Android mobile phone. I can't access the app via my custom domain from my home internet connection, my work internet connection or a friends internet connection. I tried a few online web proxies and I can access the app via the custom domain. I posted this question on the google forums code.google.com/appengine/forum/?place=topic%2Fgoogle-appengine%2FfUP-G_0FKE4%2Fdiscussion and a commentor has said he could access the app via the custom domain. So why can't I access it direct via my home internet connection etc? I've tried loads of google searching and even found a similar sounding post here on serverfault serverfault.com/questions/208461/custom-domain-name-server-not-found-google-app-engine-and-google-apps but it doesn't have an answer that helps me.

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  • Problem with redirecting *.domain.com & domain.com to www.domain.com for HTTPS

    - by Mat E.
    We have a site I'll call acme.com. Most of the time you see http://www.acme.com and sometimes we redirect you to https://www.acme.com. We want to redirect anyone going to http://acme.com or http://*.acme.com to http://www.acme.com, and the same for https. (It's mainly to avoid the alert you get if you go to https://acme.com instead of https://www.acme.com) Our vhost file is at the end of the post. It works nicely except for one strange behavior: http://acme.com - successfully redirects to http://www.acme.com http://www.acme.com - successfully does not redirect http://foo.acme.com - successfully redirects to http://www.acme.com https://acme.com - successfully redirects to https://www.acme.com https://www.acme.com - successfully does not direct https://foo.acme.com - ERROR - redirects to http://www.acme.com It's this last result I can't fathom. I've tried a lot of trial and error solutions from Google & Stack Overflow but nothing seems to change it. Even if we swap the order of the configurations (so that 443 is before 80) it still redirects https://foo.acme.com to http://www.acme.com We are running Apache/2.2.12 on Ubuntu. Here's the configuration file: <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName www.acme.com ServerAlias acme.com *.acme.com ServerSignature On DocumentRoot /var/www/acme.com/public RailsEnv 'production' PassengerHighPerformance on <Directory /var/www/acme.com/public> AllowOverride all Options -MultiViews </Directory> SSLEngine Off CustomLog /var/log/apache2/acme.log combined ErrorLog /var/log/apache2/acme-error.log # Possible values include: debug, info, notice, warn, error, crit, alert, emerg. LogLevel warn RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTPS} off RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^[^\./]+\.[^\./]+$ RewriteRule ^/(.*)$ http://www.%{HTTP_HOST}/$1 [R=301,L] </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost *:443> ServerName www.acme.com ServerAlias acme.com *.acome.com DocumentRoot /var/www/acme.com/public RailsEnv 'production' PassengerHighPerformance on <Directory /var/www/acme.com/public> AllowOverride all Options -MultiViews </Directory> SSLCertificateFile /etc/ssl/certs/www.acme.com.crt SSLCertificateKeyFile /etc/ssl/private/acme.com.private.key SSLCACertificateFile /etc/ssl/certs/EV_intermediate.crt SSLEngine On CustomLog /var/log/apache2/ssl-acme.log "%t %h %{SSL_PROTOCOL}x %{SSL_CIPHER}x \"%r\" %b" ErrorLog /var/log/apache2/ssl-acme-error.log # Possible values include: debug, info, notice, warn, error, crit, alert, emerg. LogLevel warn RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTPS} on RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^[^\./]+\.[^\./]+$ RewriteRule ^/(.*)$ https://www.%{HTTP_HOST}/$1 [R=301,L] </VirtualHost>

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  • Old operational master still thinks it is the "one"

    - by Doug
    Hi there, I have a domain with 3 AD servers for now i'll just call them: AD01 (Win 2008 GC, Operations master) AD02 (Win 2008 GC) AD03 (Win 2003 GC) A couple of months there was some hardware issues with AD01 so the operations master, PDC and Infrastructure Master was moved to AD02. All machines where on while this was happening. AD01 (Win 2008 GC) AD02 (Win 2008 GC, Operations master) AD03 (Win 2003 GC) AD01 was then shutdown for a month. Upon starting this machine up with replaced hardware (NIC and RAID card) i now have a weird problem. AD01 Thinks it is operations master still in AD on the local box AD02 & AD03 Thinks AD02 is operations master in AD on both boxes When running DCDIAG on AD01 i get a number of issues (listed below) When running "dcdiag /test:advertising" on AD01: Doing primary tests Testing server: Default-First-Site-Name\AD01 Starting test: Advertising Warning: DsGetDcName returned information for \\ad02.domain.local, when we were trying to reach AD01. SERVER IS NOT RESPONDING or IS NOT CONSIDERED SUITABLE. ......................... AD01 failed test Advertising Running partition tests on : ForestDnsZones Running partition tests on : DomainDnsZones Running partition tests on : Schema Running partition tests on : Configuration Running partition tests on : domain Running enterprise tests on : domain.local When running "dcdiag" on AD01 i get the following errors (excerpt of the Final output): Testing server: Default-First-Site-Name\AD01 Starting test: Advertising Warning: DsGetDcName returned information for \\ad02.domain.local, when we were trying to reach AD01. SERVER IS NOT RESPONDING or IS NOT CONSIDERED SUITABLE. ......................... AD01 failed test Advertising Starting test: FrsEvent There are warning or error events within the last 24 hours after the SYSVOL has been shared. Failing SYSVOL replication problems may cause Group Policy problems. Starting test: NCSecDesc Error NT AUTHORITY\ENTERPRISE DOMAIN CONTROLLERS doesn't have Replicating Directory Changes In Filtered Set access rights for the naming context: DC=ForestDnsZones,DC=domain,DC=local Error NT AUTHORITY\ENTERPRISE DOMAIN CONTROLLERS doesn't have Replicating Directory Changes In Filtered Set access rights for the naming context: DC=DomainDnsZones,DC=domain,DC=local Starting test: Replications [Replications Check,Replications Check] Inbound replication is disabled. To correct, run "repadmin /options AD01 -DISABLE_INBOUND_REPL" [Replications Check,AD01] Outbound replication is disabled. To correct, run "repadmin /options AD01 -DISABLE_OUTBOUND_REPL" So the problem appeasr to be that when i moved the operations master, AD01 never got the memo, and now that it's started up, all the other AD servers don't think its the boss anymore when it trys to replicate etc. So i really need to manually update AD01 so that it knows who the operations master, instrastructure and PDC is - but i'm not having any luck I've been googling for nearly a day and all solutions lead to "the cake is a lie" Your ninja skills will be greatly appreciated

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  • Cannot create class diagram for simple dll class in Visual Studio 2010

    - by xenn_33
    Hi, It seems that there is a really annoying issue in Class Diagram designer in VS (my version is 2010 Ultimate, but the issue is also observed in VS 2008). When I'm trying to create a class diagram for particular simple class from DLL I'm getting the following error: "Some of the selected type(s) cannot be added to the class diagram. Check the code for errors and ensure that all required assemblies ... blah-blah-blah" My code doesn't contain any error. I have multiple class and interface definitions in one separate .cs file, but these classes are really simple - even no calls to unmanaged/interop. Any solution for this?

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  • adhoc struct/class in C#?

    - by acidzombie24
    Currently i am using reflection with sql. I find if i want to make a specialize query it is easiest to get the results by creating a new class inheriting from another and adding the 2 members/columns for my specialized query. Then due to reflections in the lib in my c# code i can write foreach(var v in list) { v.AnyMember and v.MyExtraMember) Now instead of having the class scattered around or modifying my main DB.cs file can i define a class inside a function? I know i can create an anonymous object by writing new {name=val, name2=...}; but i need a to pass this class in a generic function func(query, args);

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  • how to fix: www.domain.com redirected to domain.com

    - by cohen
    Hi this website livingalignment.com is very slow to load. The domain and hosting is all with go daddy. In pingdom I found that it is redirecting from www.livingalignment.com to livingalignment.com and it takes about 2 seconds to do so. you can see that here taking about 10 seconds when I entered www.livingalignment.com: http://tools.pingdom.com/fpt/#!/kNZeCxO8r/www.livingalignment.com If I test it and put in livingalignment.com then it takes about 4 seconds: http://tools.pingdom.com/fpt/#!/csgePmsNx/livingalignment.com What should I do to fix this? thanks.

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  • How can I associate my main domain to a RSS?

    - by Renan
    This is an institutional site which uses Tumblr to keep the visitors updated. The Tumblr is linked via frames in the subdirectory /blog/ of the domain to track stats. My question is: How can I allow my visitors to retrieve the Tumblr updates by simply inputing www.domain.com in their feed reader instead of domain.tumblr.com? OR How can I allow my visitors to retrieve the Tumblr updates by simply inputing www.domain.com/blog in their feed reader instead of domain.tumblr.com? PS. For some reason the main domain is still associated with the old blogspot address.

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  • In SEO & SEM terms, use of a international domain vs a local domain

    - by Paddy
    In terms of SEO & SEM if I have a .com and a .co.uk. Would it be better to use the .com and park the .co.uk, If I am selling the product locally (in the uk) and later moving out into the international market? Will I struggle more to compete locally with regards to local searches and Google Adwords, if I make the .com as the primary domain? Does the parking of the .co.uk or the .com effect the relevance of a web domains search locally and internationally?

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  • .htaccess redirect to subfolder in different domain, maintaining old domain in the URL

    - by Naoise Golden
    Redirect has been widely discussed and most problems solved, so I am sorry for opening yet another post about this, but none of the codes I am trying work. I have a WordPress site hosted in http://mydomain.com/clientsdomain.com/wordpress I would like to temporarily redirect http://clientsdomain.com/ to the abovementioned URL, maintaining the clientsdomain.com domain in the URL. So for example http://clientsdomain.com/some/page would be pointing to http://mydomain.com/clientsdomain.com/wordpress/some/page Is this even possible with .htaccess? Maybe som configuration or plugin option with WordPress?

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  • Aliasing resellers domain to primary domain

    - by Ashkan Mobayen Khiabani
    I have designed a website that accepts re-sellers and actually the concept of this website is having local re-sellers for each province (or should we say branches). I have designed this website in a way that anybody who has a domain, can point to our website (a record or cname). well most of the website content are the same, the only difference is that re-sellers website doesn't have some items on the main menu and may have some small descriptions of their own branch in some pages. I read that Google may ban websites with duplicate content (or which are significantly similar). I want to know will this be a problem for me? If yes, what else can I do? we have had considered asking our reseller to use iframe that loads our website but wanted that each reseller can have its own SEO and try harder but what I read about this duplicate thing worries me.

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  • How an offline main domain can influence traffic on an active sub domain

    - by danie7L T
    The website(s) design is for a company active in 3 different areas. As an example lets use the following structure: www.example.com [sub1.example.com] [sub2.example.com] [sub3.example.com] sub2.example.com and sub3.example.com are ready to go live but www.example.com really isn't and send a 503 http error code. I would like to know if this situation will affect the traffic and ranking of the subdomains ready to go live? Is it preferable to wait and go live with the main domain? Or there is nothing to "fear" and one doesn't affect the other? Thank you

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  • Reference inherited class's <T>ype in a derived class

    - by DRapp
    I don't know if its possible or not, but here's what I need. I'm toying around with something and want to know if its possible since you can't create your own data type based on a sealed type such as int, Int32, Int64, etc. I want to create a top-level class that is defined of a given type with some common stuff. Then, derive this into two subclasses, but in this case, each class is based on either and int or Int64 type. From THAT instance, create an instance of either one and know its yped basis for parameter referenc / return settings. So when I need to create an instance of the "ThisClass", I don't have to know its type basis of either int or Int64, yet IT will know the type and be able to allow methods/functions to be called with the typed... This way, If I want to change my ThisClass definition from SubLevel1 to SubLevel2, I don't have to dance around all different data type definitions. Hope this makes sense.. public class TopLevel<T> { ... } pubic class SubLevel1 : TopLevel<int> { ... } public class SubLevel2 : TopLevel<Int64> { ... } public class ThisClass : SubLevel1 { ... public <based on the Int data type from SubLevel1> SomeFunc() { return <the Int value computed>; } }

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  • jquery: set variable based on one class from an element that has more than one class

    - by John
    Hi I'm trying to make a table who's columns and rows highlight on hover (I realise there are jquery plugins out there that will do this, but I'm trying to learn, so thought I'd have a stab at doing it for myself.) Here's what I've got so far: $('th:not(.features), td:not(.features)').hover(highlight); function highlight(){ $('th.highlightCol, td.highlightCol').removeClass('highlightCol'); var col = $(this).attr('class'); $('.' + col).addClass('highlightCol'); }; $('tr').hover(highlightRowOn, highlightRowOff); function highlightRowOn(){ $(this).children('td:not(.highlightCol)').addClass('highlightRow'); }; function highlightRowOff(){ $(this).children('td:not(.highlightCol)').removeClass('highlightRow'); }; This works fine apart from one problem: Each 'td' has a class specific to it's column (package1, package2, package3, package4). It is this that gets passed to the variable (col) to add the class 'highlightCol' to a column when one of its 'td's are hovered on. However, If you move the cursor to a new column along a highlighted row, the 'td' you land on has two classes (highlightedRow and package* ). These both get passed to the variable and as a result the new column does not receive the correct class to highlight. Is there a way for me to target just the 'package* ' class and pass that to the variable while ignoring the 'highlightedRow' class? I hope that's not too jumbled for someone to make sense of and many thanks for any help offered.

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  • Accessing a Class Member from a First-Class Function

    - by dbyrne
    I have a case class which takes a list of functions: case class A(q:Double, r:Double, s:Double, l:List[(Double)=>Double]) I have over 20 functions defined. Some of these functions have their own parameters, and some of them also use the q, r, and s values from the case class. Two examples are: def f1(w:Double) = (d:Double) => math.sin(d) * w def f2(w:Double, q:Double) = (d:Double) => d * q * w The problem is that I then need to reference q, r, and s twice when instantiating the case class: A(0.5, 1.0, 2.0, List(f1(3.0), f2(4.0, 0.5))) //0.5 is referenced twice I would like to be able to instantiate the class like this: A(0.5, 1.0, 2.0, List(f1(3.0), f2(4.0))) //f2 already knows about q! What is the best technique to accomplish this? Can I define my functions in a trait that the case class extends? EDIT: The real world application has 7 members, not 3. Only a small number of the functions need access to the members. Most of the functions don't care about them.

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  • DBIx::Class base result class

    - by Rob
    Hi there, I am trying to create a model for Catalyst by using DBIx::Class::Schema::Loader. I want the result classes to have a base class I can add methods to. So MyTable.pm inherits from Base.pm which inherits from DBIx::Class::core (default). Somehow I cannot figure out how to do this. my create script is below, can anyone tell me what I am doing wrong? The script creates my model ok, but all resultset classes just directly inherit from DBIx::Class::core without my Base class in between. #!/usr/bin/perl use DBIx::Class::Schema::Loader qw/ make_schema_at /; #specifically for the entities many-2-many relation $ENV{DBIC_OVERWRITE_HELPER_METHODS_OK} = 1; make_schema_at( 'MyApp::Schema', { dump_directory => '/tmp', debug => 1, overwrite_modifications => 1, components => ['EncodedColumn'], #encoded password column use_namespaces => 1, default_resultset_class => 'Base' }, [ 'DBI:mysql:database=mydb;host=localhost;port=3306','rob', '******' ], );

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  • Instantiating a class within a class

    - by Ink-Jet
    Hello. I'm trying to instantiate a class within a class, so that the outer class contains the inner class. This is my code: #include <iostream> #include <string> class Inner { private: std::string message; public: Inner(std::string m); void print() const; }; Inner::Inner(std::string m) { message = m; } void Inner::print() const { std::cout << message << std::endl; std::cout << message << std::endl; } class Outer { private: std::string message; Inner in; public: Outer(std::string m); void print() const; }; Outer::Outer(std::string m) { message = m; } void Outer::print() const { std::cout << message << std::endl; } int main() { Outer out("Hello world."); out.print(); return 0; } "Inner in", is my attempt at containing the inner within the outer, however, when I compile, i get an error that there is no matching function for call to Inner::Inner(). What have I done wrong? Thanks.

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