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• Can't change pivot table's Access data source - bug in Excel 2000 SP3?

  - by Ron West

  I have a set of Excel 2000 SP3 worksheets that have Pivot Tables that get data from an Access 2000 SP3 database created by a contractor who left our company. Unfortunately, he did all his work on his private area on the company (Novell) network and now that he has left us, the drive spec has been deleted and is invalid. We were able to get the database files restored to our network area by our IT Service Desk people, but we now have to re-link everything to point to our group area instead of the now-nonexistent private area. If I follow the advice given elsewhere on this site (open wizard, click 'Back' to get to 'Step 2 of 3', click 'Get Data...' I get a message that the old filespec is an invalid path and I need to check that the path name is invalid and that I am connected to the server on which the file resides. I then click on OK and get a Login dialog with a 'Database...' button on the right. I click this and get a 'Select Database' dialog which allows me to choose the appropriate database in its correct new location. I then click OK, which takes me back to the 'Login' screen. I can confirm that it has accepted my new location by clicking on 'Database...' as before and the NEW location is still shown. So far so good - but if I then click on OK I get two unhelpful messages - first I get one saying that Excel 'Could not use '|'; file already in use.' - although no other files are in use. Clicking on OK takes me back to the 'Login' dialog. Clicking OK again gives me the same message as before telling me that the OLD filespec is invalid (as if I hadn't changed anything) - but clicking on the 'Database...' button shows that the correct (NEW) database location is still selected. Can anyone tell me a way of using VBA to change the link information without having to spend hours fighting the PivotTable Wizard - preferably similar to this way you update an Access Tabledef:- db.TableDefs(strLinkName).Connect = strNewLink db.TableDefs(strLinkName).RefreshLink Thanks!

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• Reading,Writing, Editing BLOBS through DataTables and DataRows

  - by Soham

  Consider this piece of code: DataSet ds = new DataSet(); SQLiteDataAdapter Da = new SQLiteDataAdapter(Command); Da.Fill(ds); DataTable dt = ds.Tables[0]; bool PositionExists; if (dt.Rows.Count > 0) { PositionExists = true; } else { PositionExists = false; } if (PositionExists) { //dt.Rows[0].Field<>("Date") } Here the "Date" field is a BLOB. My question is, a. Will reading through the DataAdapter create any problems later on, when I am working with BLOBS? More, specifically, will it read the BLOB properly? b. This was the read part.Now when I am writing the BLOB to the DB,its a queue actually. I.e I am trying to store a queue in MySQLite using a BLOB. Will Conn.ExecuteNonQuery() serve my purpose? c. When I am reading the BLOB back from the DB, can I edit it as the original datatype, it used to be in C# environment i.e { Queue - BLOB - ? } {C# -MySQL - C# } So in this context, Date field was a queue, I wrote it back as a BLOB, when reading it back, can I access it(and edit) as a queue? Thank You. Soham

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• update variable based upon results from .NET backgroundworker

  - by Bruce

  I've got a C# program that talks to an instrument (spectrum analyzer) over a network. I need to be able to change a large number of parameters in the instrument and read them back into my program. I want to use backgroundworker to do the actual talking to the instrument so that UI performance doesn't suffer. The way this works is - 1) send command to the instrument with new parameter value, 2) read parameter back from the instrument so I can see what actually happened (for example, I try to set the center frequency above the max that the instrument will handle and it tells me what it will actually handle), and 3) update a program variable with the actual value received from the instrument. Because there are quite a few parameters to be updated I'd like to use a generic routine. The part I can't seem to get my brain around is updating the variable in my code with what comes back from the instrument via backgroundworker. If I used a separate RunWorkerCompleted event for each parameter I could hardwire the update directly to the variable. I'd like to come up with a way of using a single routine that's capable of updating any of the variables. All I can come up with is passing a reference number (different for each parameter) and using a switch statement in the RunWorkerCompleted handler to direct the result. There has to be a better way.

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• Losing 'post' requests sent to Pylons paster server

  - by Philip McDermott

  I'm sending post requests to a Pylons server (served by paster serve), and if I send them with any frequency many don't arrive at the server. One at a time is ok, but if I fire off a few (or more) within seconds, only a small number get dealt with. If I send with no post data, or with get, it works fine, but putting just one character of data in the post fields causes massive losses. For example, sending 200, 2 will come back. Sending 100 more slowly, 10 will come back. I'm making the requests form inside a Qt application. Tis will work ok (no data): QString postFields = "" QNetworkRequest request(QUrl("http://server.com/endpoint")); QNetworkReply *reply = networkAccessManager-post(request, postFields.toAscii()); And this will result in only a fraction of the requests being dealt with: QString postFields = "" QNetworkRequest request(QUrl("http://server.com/endpoint")); QNetworkReply *reply = networkAccessManager-post(request, postFields.toAscii()); I've played around with turning on use_threadpool, and other options (threadpool_workers, threadpool_max_requests = 300), of which some combinations can alter the results slightly (best case 10 responses in 200). If I send similar requests to other (non paster) servers, the replies come back ok, so I'm almost certain its'a paster serve config issue. Any help or advice greatly appreciated. Thanks Philip

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• Image animation over CGContextDrawPDFPage

  - by BittenApple

  I'm modifying the QuartzDemo sample app from Apple. In QuartzViewController.m I have modifications (by DyingCactus) which replac the back button and add a method to handle the back button press as follows: -(void)viewDidLoad { // Add the QuartzView [scrollView addSubview:self.quartzView]; //add custom back button if this is the PDF view... if ([self.quartzView isKindOfClass:[QuartzPDFView class]]) { self.navigationItem.leftBarButtonItem = [[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithTitle:@"QuartzDemo" style:UIBarButtonItemStyleBordered target:self action:@selector(myBackButtonHandler:)]; } } - (void)myBackButtonHandler:(id)sender { [self.quartzView setFrame:CGRectMake(150, -200, 100, 200)]; [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDelegate:self]; [UIView setAnimationDidStopSelector:@selector(animationDidStop:finished:context:)]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:1.0]; [self.quartzView setFrame:CGRectMake(150, 0, 100, 200)]; [UIView commitAnimations]; } - (void)animationDidStop:(NSString *)animationID finished:(NSNumber *)finished context:(void *)context { [self.navigationController popViewControllerAnimated:YES]; } I have a PNG image in resources folder called "bookmark.png" and would like to have that image animate as in animation in the example above. The image can be loaded in an UImageview or something and lets say that I have one called bookmark. How do I call that instead of self.quartzview in this part of code: [self.quartzView setFrame:CGRectMake(150, -200, 100, 200)]; [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDelegate:self]; [UIView setAnimationDidStopSelector:@selector(animationDidStop:finished:context:)]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:1.0]; [self.quartzView setFrame:CGRectMake(150, 0, 100, 200)]; [UIView commitAnimations];

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• Passing viewmodel to actionresult creates new viewmodel

  - by Jonas Bohez

  I am using a viewmodel, which i then when to send to an actionresult to use (the modified viewmodel) But in the controller, i lose the list and objects in my viewmodel. This is my view: @using PigeonFancier.Models @model PigeonFancier.Models.InschrijvingModel @using (Html.BeginForm("UpdateInschrijvingen","Melker",Model)) { <div> <fieldset> <table> @foreach (var item in Model.inschrijvingLijst) { <tr> <td>@Html.DisplayFor(model => item.Duif.Naam)</td> <td> @Html.CheckBoxFor(model => item.isGeselecteerd)</td> </tr> } </table> <input type="submit" value="Wijzigen"/> </fieldset> </div> } This is my controller, which does nothing at the moment until i can get the full viewmodel back from the view. public ActionResult UpdateInschrijvingen(InschrijvingModel inschrijvingsModel) { // inschrijvingsModel is not null, but it creates a new model before it comes here with //Use the model for some updates return RedirectToAction("Inschrijven", new { vluchtId = inschrijvingsModel.vlucht.VluchtId }); } This is the model with the List and some other objects who become null because it creates a new model when it comes back from the view to the actionresult public class InschrijvingModel { public Vlucht vlucht; public Duivenmelker duivenmelker; public List<CheckBoxModel> inschrijvingLijst { get; set; } public InschrijvingModel() { // Without this i get, No parameterless constructor defined exception. // So it uses this when it comes back from the view to make a new model } public InschrijvingModel(Duivenmelker m, Vlucht vl) { inschrijvingLijst = new List<CheckBoxModel>(); vlucht = vl; duivenmelker = m; foreach (var i in m.Duiven) { inschrijvingLijst.Add(new CheckBoxModel(){Duif = i, isGeselecteerd = i.IsIngeschrevenOpVlucht(vl)}); } } What is going wrong and how should i fix this problem please? Thanks

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• How can UISearchDisplayController autorelease cause crash in a different view controller?

  - by Tofrizer

  Hi, I have two view controllers A and B. From A, I navigate to view controller B as follows: // in View Controller A // navigateToB method -(void) navigateToB { BViewController *bViewController = [[BViewController alloc] initWithNibName: @"BView" bundle:nil]; bViewController.bProperty1 = SOME_STRING_CONSTANT; bViewController.title = @"A TITLE OF A VC's CHOOSING"; [self.navigationController pushViewController: bViewController animated:YES]; [bViewController release]; //<----- releasing 0x406c1e0 } In BViewController, the property bPropery1 is defined with copy as below (note, B also contains UITableView and other properties): @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *bProperty1; Everything appeared to work fine when navigating back and forth between A and B. That is until I added a UISearchDisplayController to the table view contained in BViewController. Now when I navigate out of B, back to A, the app crashes. Stack trace shows what looks the search display controller being autoreleased at time of crash: #0 0x009663a7 in ___forwarding___ #1 0x009426c2 in __forwarding_prep_0___ #2 0x018c8539 in -[UISearchDisplayController _destroyManagedTableView] #3 0x018c8ea4 in -[UISearchDisplayController dealloc] #4 0x00285ce5 in NSPopAutoreleasePool NSZombies shows: -[BViewController respondsToSelector:]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x406c1e0 And malloc history on this points to the bViewController already released in A's navigateToB method above: Call [2] [arg=132]: thread_a065e720 |start ... <snip> ..._sendActionsForEvents:withEvent:] | -[UIControl sendAction:to:forEvent:] | - [UIApplication sendAction:to:from:forEvent:] | -[**AViewController navigateToB**] | +[NSObject alloc] | +[NSObject allocWithZone:] | _internal_class_createInstance | _internal_class_createInstanceFromZone | calloc | malloc_zone_calloc Can someone please give me any ideas on what is happening here? In navigateToB method, once the bViewController is released (after pushViewController), that's should be it for bViewController. Nothing else even knows about it as it is local to the navigateToB method block and it has been released. When navigating from B back to A, nothing is invoked in viewDidLoad, viewWillAppear etc that will re-enter navigateToB. It looks like somehow search display controller has a reference to something in my AViewController and so as it is autoreleased it is taking this "something" down with it but I cannot understand how this is possible, especially as I'm using copy to pass data between A and B. I'm going potty over this. I'm sure this is my mistake somewhere and so I turn to you, Stack Overflow legends for any words of wisdom or advice on how to resolve this. Many Thanks.

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• text-overflow:ellipsis in Firefox 4?

  - by Spudley

  The text-overflow:ellipsis; CSS property must be one of the few things that Microsoft has done right for the web. All the other browsers now support it... except Firefox. The Firefox developers have been arguing over it since 2005 but despite the obvious demand for it, they can't seem to actually bring themselves to implement it (even an experimental -moz- implementation would be sufficient). A few years ago, someone worked out a way to hack Firefox 3 to make it support an ellipsis. The hack uses the -moz-binding feature to implement it using XUL. Quite a number of sites are now using this hack. The bad news? Firefox 4 is removing the -moz-binding feature, which means this hack won't work any more. So as soon as Firefox 4 is released (later this month, I hear), we're going to be back to the problem of having it not being able to support this feature. So my question is: Is there any other way around this? (I'm trying to avoid falling back to a Javascript solution if at all possible) [EDIT] Lots of up-votes, so I'm obviously not the only one who wants to know, but I've got one answer so far which basically says 'use javascript'. I'm still hoping for a solution that will either not need JS at all, or at worst only use it as a fall-back where the CSS feature doesn't work. So I'm going to post a bounty on the question, on the off chance that someone, somewhere has found an answer.

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• UIView Controller mysteriously getting deallocated

  - by Dan Ray

  I have a UINavigation scheme with a "welcome" page, a middle page, and a detail page. In the middle page, there's a segmented controller that can swap the main body of that page between a table, a calendar, and a MKMapView, each implemented with their own view controller classes. Today I implemented the MapView and its annotations and all of that. It's nice. And a detail disclosure on each callout takes you to the detail page just the same way as if you'd gotten there via the table. Lovely. I also have a right-button-bar button that pushes in a "search" view. From there you can search the data I'm navigating. When it's done filtering the data (an array of objects I'm keeping in a data singleton), it makes the table reload its data, and calls my annotation-clearer-and-builder methods on the map view, and then pops itself out, so the "middle" page (including whatever view was in the guts of it) is back on the screen. Problem is, if I go back and forth between the map and the search a couple times, any mention of the table view causes us to crash with: *** -[CALayer retain]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x710b810. (I obviously have NSZombies turned on.) I put an NSLog in the dealloc method of my table view controller. That thing's never getting called. I don't know if we're ditching it behind the scenes for memory purposes, or if I'm leaking it and can't get my hands back on it, or what. I'm sort of at a loss about where to look. Any hints?

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• Working with images (CGImage), exif data, and file icons

  - by Nick

  What I am trying to do (under 10.6).... I have an image (jpeg) that includes an icon in the image file (that is you see an icon based on the image in the file, as opposed to a generic jpeg icon in file open dialogs in a program). I wish to edit the exif metadata, save it back to the image in a new file. Ideally I would like to save this back to an exact copy of the file (i.e. preserving any custom embedded icons created etc.), however, in my hands the icon is lost. My code (some bits removed for ease of reading): // set up source ref I THINK THE PROBLEM IS HERE - NOT GRABBING THE INITIAL DATA CGImageSourceRef source = CGImageSourceCreateWithURL( (CFURLRef) URL,NULL); // snag metadata NSDictionary *metadata = (NSDictionary *) CGImageSourceCopyPropertiesAtIndex(source,0,NULL); // make metadata mutable NSMutableDictionary *metadataAsMutable = [[metadata mutableCopy] autorelease]; // grab exif NSMutableDictionary *EXIFDictionary = [[[metadata objectForKey:(NSString *)kCGImagePropertyExifDictionary] mutableCopy] autorelease]; << edit exif >> // add back edited exif [metadataAsMutable setObject:EXIFDictionary forKey:(NSString *)kCGImagePropertyExifDictionary]; // get source type CFStringRef UTI = CGImageSourceGetType(source); // set up write data NSMutableData *data = [NSMutableData data]; CGImageDestinationRef destination = CGImageDestinationCreateWithData((CFMutableDataRef)data,UTI,1,NULL); //add the image plus modified metadata PROBLEM HERE? NOT ADDING THE ICON CGImageDestinationAddImageFromSource(destination,source,0, (CFDictionaryRef) metadataAsMutable); // write to data BOOL success = NO; success = CGImageDestinationFinalize(destination); // save data to disk [data writeToURL:saveURL atomically:YES]; //cleanup CFRelease(destination); CFRelease(source); I don't know if this is really a question of image handling, file handing, post-save processing (I could use sip), or me just being think (I suspect the last). Nick

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• Where does Tomcat append / to directory paths?

  - by Anonymouse

  Suppose my Tomcat webapps directory looks like this: webapps/ webapps/fooapp/ webapps/fooapp/WEB-INF/ webapps/fooapp/WEB-INF/web.xml webapps/fooapp/bardir/ When I make a GET request for /fooapp/bardir, Tomcat sees that webapps/fooapp/bardir is a directory and sends back a 302 to /fooapp/bardir/ (with a slash at the end). Here is my question: Where in the Tomcat source code does this take place? (I'm looking at 6.0.x but a correct answer for any version would be a great starting point.) The only reference material I can find on this subject is in the Catalina Functional Specifications which states, regarding the Default Servlet: On each HTTP GET request processed by this servlet, the following processing shall be performed: [...] If the requested resource is a directory: If the request path does not end with "/", redirect to a corresponding path with "/" appended so that relative references in welcome files are resolved correctly. However, this functionality does not appear to be in org.apache.catalina.servlets.DefaultServlet; or at least, it's not there exclusively: if I replace the default servlet in web.xml with a servlet whose servlet-class does not exist, directory paths still come back 302 to add the slash, while every other request comes back with an error as expected.

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• Worklight client-side API to overrideBackButton doesn't work

  - by user2503429

  I want to make something happen when back button is pressed so I put this code in Myhtml.js file : function wlCommonInit(){ /* * Application is started in offline mode as defined by a connectOnStartup property in initOptions.js file. * In order to begin communicating with Worklight Server you need to either: * * 1. Change connectOnStartup property in initOptions.js to true. * This will make Worklight framework automatically attempt to connect to Worklight Server as a part of application start-up. * Keep in mind - this may increase application start-up time. * * 2. Use WL.Client.connect() API once connectivity to a Worklight Server is required. * This API needs to be called only once, before any other WL.Client methods that communicate with the Worklight Server. * Don't forget to specify and implement onSuccess and onFailure callback functions for WL.Client.connect(), e.g: * * WL.Client.connect({ * onSuccess: onConnectSuccess, * onFailure: onConnectFailure * }); * */ // Common initialization code goes here } WL.App.overrideBackButton(backFunc); function backFunc(){ alert('You will back to previous page'); } but after build and deploy the app and I running it, nothing happened after I pressed back button, anybody have the solution ?

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• Grouped UITableView Footer Sometimes Hidden On Quick Scroll

  - by jdandrea

  OK, this one is a puzzler. There is one similar post but it's not similar enough to count, so I'm posting this one. :) I've got a grouped UITableView with a header and footer. The footer includes two UIButton views, side-by-side. Nothing major. Now … there is a toggle button in a UIToolbar at the bottom for more/less info in this table view. So I build my index paths to delete/insert with fade row animation, all the usual ingredients, sandwiched between beginUpdates and endUpdates calls on the UITableView … and this works fine! In also happens that my footer can sometimes be pushed off past the bottom of the display. Here's where it gets weird. If I drag my finger up the display, scrolling the view upward, I should see that footer eventually, right? Well … most of the time I do. BUT, if I flick my finger up, for a faster scroll, the footer is missing. Even if you try to tap in that area - no response. However, if I scroll back down again, just to hide that footer (or rather hide the area where the footer would normally be), and then scroll back up, it's there once again! This only happens when inserting rows. If I delete rows, the footer stays put … unless of course it was already hidden and I didn't perform the aforementioned incantation to get it back. :) I am trying to trace through this, but to no avail. I suppose tracing through scroll operations is a bit of a crazy proposition! Perhaps some creative logging … suggestions, anyone? Or is this a known issue in 3.1 where row insert/deletes are concerned? (I don't recall seeing it until 3.1.)

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• Query eror handling in CodeIgniter

  - by Sajith S Narayanan

  Hi All, I am trying to execute an MySql query using the CI Active methods. If the query is malformed, then CI invokes internal server error 500 and quits without processing the next steps.. I need to roll back all the other queries processed before that error statement, and the roll back is also not happening.. can you help pls. The code snippets is as below: function dbInsertInformationToDB($data_array) { $returnID = ""; $uniqueDataArray = array(); // I prepare a array of values here $uniqueTableList = filter_unique_tables($data_array[2]); $this->db->trans_begin(); // inserting is done here // when there is a query error in $this->db->insert().. it is not rolling back the previous query executed foreach($uniqueTableList as $table_name) { $uniqueDataArray = filterDataArray($data_array,$table_name,2); $this->db->insert($table_name,$uniqueDataArray); if ($this->db->_error_message()) { $error = "I am caught!!"; } $returnID = $this->db->affected_rows(); } if ($this->db->trans_status() === FALSE) { $this->db->trans_rollback(); } else { $this->db->trans_commit(); } return "ERROR"; }

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• LINQ Query please help C#.Net.

  - by Paul Matthews

  I'm very new to LINQ and struggling to find the answers. I have a simple SQL query. Select ID, COUNT(ID) as Selections, OptionName, SUM(Units) as Units FROM tbl_Results GROUP BY ID, OptionName. The results I got were: '1' '4' 'Approved' '40' '2' '1' 'Rejected' '19' '3' '2' 'Not Decided' '12' Due to having to encrypt all my data in the database I'm unable to do sums. Therefore I have now brought back the data and decrypt it in the application layer. Results would be: '1' 'Approved' '10' '3' 'Not Deceided' '6' '2' 'Rejected' '19' '1' 'Approved' '15' '1' 'Approved' '5' '3' 'Not Deceided' '6' '1' 'Approved' '10' using a simple class I have called back the above results, and put them in a list class. public class results { public int ID {get;set;} public string OptionName {get;set;} public int Unit {get;set;} } I almost have the LINQ query to bring back the results like the SQL query at the top var q = from r in Results group p.Unit by p.ID int g select new {ID = g.Key, Selections = g.Count(), Units = g.Sum()}; How do I ensure my LINQ query also give me the Option Name? Also if I created a class called Statistics to hold my results how would I modify the LINQ query to give me list result set? public class results { public int ID {get;set;} public int NumberOfSelections { get; set; } public string OptionName {get;set;} public int UnitTotal {get;set;} }

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• A queue in C using structs and dynamic memory allocation (linked list)

  - by Martin Pugh

  I am tasked with making a queue data structure in C, as a linked list. Our lecturer gave us a large amount of code to implement a stack, but we have to adapt it to create a queue. The code our lecturer gave us ends up not compiling and segfaulting at the exact same point as the code I wrote for the queue. I'm very new to structs, malloc and C in general, so there could be something painfully obvious I've overlooked. Here is the code I am using: #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> struct node{ int data; //contains the actual data struct node *prev; //pointer to previous node (Closer to front) struct node *next; //pointer to next node (Closer to back) }; typedef struct node *Nodepointer; struct queue{ Nodepointer front; Nodepointer back; }; typedef struct queue *Queuepointer; main(){ Queuepointer myqueue; //create a queue called myqueue init(myqueue); //initialise the queue Nodepointer new = (Nodepointer)malloc(sizeof(struct node)); myqueue->front = new; } int init(Queuepointer q){ q = (Queuepointer)malloc(sizeof(struct queue)); q->front = NULL; q->back = NULL; } The idea is that the queue struct 'contains' the first and last nodes in a queue, and when a node is created, myqueue is updated. However, I cannot even get to that part (pop and push are written but omitted for brevity). The code is segfaulting at the line myqueue->front = new; with the following gdb output: Program received signal SIGSEGV, Segmentation fault. 0x08048401 in main () at queue.c:27 27 myqueue->front = new; Any idea what I'm doing wrong?

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• Splitting MS Access Database - Front End Part Location

  - by kristof

  One of the best practices as specified by Microsoft for Access Development is splitting Access application into 2 parts; Front End that hold all the object except tables and the Back End that holds the tables. The msdn page links there to the article Splitting Microsoft Access Databases to Improve Performance and Simplify Maintainability that describes the process in details. It is recommended that in multi user environment the Back End is stored on the server/shared folder while the Front End is distributed to each user. That implies that each time there are any changes made to the front end they need to be deployed to every user machine. My question is: Assuming that the users themselves do not have rights to modify the Front End part of the application what would be the drawbacks/dangers of leaving this on the server as well next to the Back End copy? I can see the performance issues here, but are there any dangers here like possible corruptions etc? Thank you EDIT Just to clarify, the scenario specified in question assumes one Front End stored on the server and shared by users. I understand that the recommendation is to have FE deployed to each user machine, but my question is more about what are the dangers if that is not done. E.g. when you are given an existing solution that uses the approach of both FE and BE on the server. Assuming the the performance is acceptable and the customer is reluctant to change the approach would you still push the change? And why exactly? For example the danger of possible data corruption would definitely be the strong enough argument, but is that the case? It is a part of follow up of my previous question From SQL Server to MS Access 2007

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• environment change in rake task

  - by Mellon

  I am developing Rails v2.3 app with MySQL database and mysql2 gem. I faced a weird situation which is about changing the environment in rake task. (all my setting and configurations for environment and database are correct, no problem for that.) Here is my simple story : I have a rake task like following: namespace :db do task :do_something => :environment do #1. run under 'development' environment my_helper.run_under_development_env #2. change to 'custom' environment RAILS_ENV='custom' Rake::Task['db:create'] Rake::Task['db:migrate'] #3. change back to 'development' environment RAILS_ENV='development' #4. But it still run in 'customer' environment, why? my_helper.run_under_development_env end end The rake task is quite simple, what it does is: 1. Firstly, run a method from my_helper under "development" environment 2. Then, change to "custom" environment and run db:create and db:migrate until now, everything is fine, the environment did change to "custom" 3. Then, change it back again to "development" environment 4. run helper method again under "development" environment But, though I have changed the environment back to "development" in step 3, the last method still run in "custom" environment, why? and how to get rid of it? --- P.S. --- I have also checked a post with the similar situation here, and tried to use the solution there like (in step 2): ActiveRecord::Base.establish_connection('custom') Rake::Task['db:create'] Rake::Task['db:migrate'] to change the database connection instead of changing environment but, the db:create and db:migrate will still run under "development" database, though the linked post said it should run for "custom" database... weird

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• Asp.net web forms, Asp Identity - how to store claims from Facebook, Twitter, etc

  - by user2959352

  This request is based upon the new Visual Studio 2013 integration of Asp.net Identity stuff. I have seen some of the posts regarding this question for MVC, but for the life of me cannot get it to work for standard Web Forms. What I'm trying to do is populate the AspNetUserClaims table from the claims that I get back from Facebook (or other service). I actually can see the values coming back in the OnAuthenticated below, but cannot for the life of me figure out how to add these claims to the context of the currently logged in user? There are literally hundreds of MVC examples surrounding this, but alas no Web Forms examples. This should be completely straightforward, but for some reason I cannot match up the context of the currently logged in user to the claims and credentials coming back from Facebook. Currently after the OnAuthenticated fires, it obviously returns me to the page (RegisterExternalLogin.aspx) as the built-in example provides. However, the claims are gone, the context of the login to Facebook is gone, and I can't do anything else at this point. So the ultimate question is, HOW does one populate the claims FROM Facebook into the AspNetUserClaims table based upon the context of the currently logged in user WITHOUT using MVC? var fboptions = new FacebookAuthenticationOptions(); fboptions.AppId = "xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx"; fboptions.AppSecret = "yyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyy"; fboptions.Scope.Add("email"); fboptions.Scope.Add("friends_about_me"); fboptions.Scope.Add("friends_photos"); fboptions.Provider = new FacebookAuthenticationProvider() { OnAuthenticated = (context) => { foreach (var v in context.User) { context.Identity.AddClaim(new System.Security.Claims.Claim(v.Key, v.Value.ToString())); } context.Identity.AddClaim(new System.Security.Claims.Claim("FacebookAccessToken", context.AccessToken)); return Task.FromResult(0); }, }; app.UseFacebookAuthentication(fboptions);

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• Authenticated user cannot log in, "The user does not exist or is not unique."

  - by Aquinas

  This is a weird one. I have a WSS3 site, no MOSS, with a custom membership and role provider that authenticates against CRM. All the users have also been added to the site user list so once logged in they have correct display names. On dev and stage everything works fine, but on UAT the users can't get past the login screen. The login screen is working, in that if you type an incorrect password for a user it comes back with the right message, meaning the custom provider is working fine. If you fill the login form in correctly you are immediately redirected straight back to the login screen, with the IIS logs showing that the login screen sent the authenticated user to the site and then was sent back. Setting the site to allow anonymous access shows that the user is not logged in on the site side after authenticating correctly. The ULS logs show: The user does not exist or is not unique. Found 1 trusted forests nzct.local. Found 0 trusted domains Adding logging code to the site I have verified that the membership provider is correctly set, and can find the user when asked. Also, when accessing the site user list, I can find the SP user with the right name. It just refuses to set the current user to be the authenticated user. Weird.

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• Find all cycles in graph, redux

  - by Shadow

  Hi, I know there are a quite some answers existing on this question. However, I found none of them really bringing it to the point. Some argue that a cycle is (almost) the same as a strongly connected components (s. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/546655/finding-all-cycles-in-graph/549402#549402) , so one could use algorithms designed for that goal. Some argue that finding a cycle can be done via DFS and checking for back-edges (s. boost graph documentation on file dependencies). I now would like to have some suggestions on whether all cycles in a graph can be detected via DFS and checking for back-edges? My opinion is that it indeed could work that way as DFS-VISIT (s. pseudocode of DFS) freshly enters each node that was not yet visited. In that sense, each vertex exhibits a potential start of a cycle. Additionally, as DFS visits each edge once, each edge leading to the starting point of a cycle is also covered. Thus, by using DFS and back-edge checking it should indeed be possible to detect all cycles in a graph. Note that, if cycles with different numbers of participant nodes exist (e.g. triangles, rectangles etc.), additional work has to be done to discriminate the acutal "shape" of each cycle.

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• Access ADP - For/Against?

  - by webworm

  I have been tasked with taking an Access 97 application and moving the back-end data to SQL Server while moving the front end to Access 2003 (using Access Data Projects). In the process of this migration the back-end data structures will be changed significantly to support new functionality. If I had my wish we would not be using Access as the front end. I think our application would be much better served by WinForms, WPF, or a web application. We have the time needed to properly plan a business logic layer and implement an excellent solution but powers above me want to stay with Access because that is what they are familiar with. What I could use help with is pros/cons of continuing down this path of Access development. What are some legitimate arguments for and against using Access 2003? Here is what I have come up with so far. Pro Access: Already own Access 2003 licenses Easy GUI development Reports look nice Against Access Having to use VBA (Visual Basic for Applications) ADO vs DAO. Didn't Microsoft change things from Access 2002 to Access 2003? Not tied to Access runtime Choice in front end (WPF, WinForms, even ASP.NET) Maintainability True separation of logic from UI not possible Does Microsoft still support Access ADP? Perhaps there are other issues I am not aware off both for and against Access for application development. I am trying to keep an open mind while at the same time trying to maintain my sanity. I have been using C# since .NET was released and the thought of going back to VBA for six months makes my head hurt. Especially when I feel I could offer so much more if allowed to develop with modern languages and tools?

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• Flex 3 - Issues with textArea "editable" property

  - by BS_C3

  Hello Community! I'm having issues with the property "editable" of textArea control. I have a component: OrderView.mxml and it's associated data class OrderViewData.as. Orderview.mxml is inside a viewStack to enable navigation from a component to another. In this particular case, OrderView.mxml is called by another component: SearchResult.mxml. I can thus navigate from SearchResult.mxml to OrderView.mxml, and back to SearchResult.mxml... OrderView.mxml has textArea and textInput control, that have to be editable or nonEditable depending on the property var isEditable:Boolean from OrderViewData.as. When the application is launched, isEditable = true. So, all textInput and textArea controls are editable the first time the user gets to OrderView.mxml. When the user clicks on the button order from OrderView.mxml, isEditable = false. When the user goes back to SearchResult.mxml, isEditable = true (again) -- Until here, everything works fine. The thing is: when the user goes back to OrderView.mxml for the second time (and beyond), even if the property isEditable = true, textArea controls are still non editable... But the textInput controls are editable! Here is some code for your comprehension: OrderView.mxml <mx:Canvas xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" backgroundColor="#F3EDEC"> <mx:TextArea id="contentTA" text="{OrderViewData.instance.contentTA}" enabled="{OrderViewData.instance.isEnabled}" width="100%" height="51" maxChars="18" styleName="ORTextInput" focusIn="if(OrderViewData.instance.isEditable) contentTA.setSelection(0, contentTA.length)"/> <mx:TextInput id="contentTI" text="{OrderViewData.instance.contentTI}" width="40" height="18" maxChars="4" styleName="ORTextInput" change="contentTI_change()" focusIn="if(OrderViewData.instance.isEditable) contentTI.setSelection(0, contentTI.length)" editable="{OrderViewData.instance.isEditable}"/> </mx:Canvas> Am I missing something? Thanks for any help you can provide. Regards. BS_C3

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• Method return type

  - by sarah xia

  Hi, In my company, a system is designed to have 3 layers. Layer1 is responsible for business logic handling. Layer3 is calling back end systems. Layer2 sits between the two layers so that layer1 doesn't need to know about the back end systems. To replay information from layer3, layer2 needs to define interface to layer1. For example, layer1 wants to check if a PIN from user is correct. It calls layer2 checkPin() method and then layer2 calls the relevant back end system. The checkPin() results could be: correctPin, inCorrectPin and internalError. At the moment, we defined the return type 'int'. So if layer2 returns 0, it means correctPin; if 1 is returned, it means inCorrectPin; if 9 is returned it means internalError. It works. However I feel a bit uneasy about this approach. Are there better ways to do it? For example define an enum CheckPinResult{CORRECT_PIN,INCORRECT_PIN,INTERNAL_ERROR}, and return CheckPinResult type? Thanks, Sarah

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• Adding SDK-specific frameworks to Xcode

  - by Haentz

  Hi, Xcode 3.2 kind of broke the build process of my iPhone app. I need to add a new framework to my project (MediaPlayer.framework). So I go into my Target settings and try to add it to the "Linked Libraris" by hitting the [+] button. In the list the MediaPlayer.framework is missing, as well as other frameworks, such as UIKit, CoreGraphic and others. Some frameworks are still there. I can add the frameworks by adding the SDK-specific ones (going into /Developer/Platforms/iPhoneOs.platform/...yadayadayada../frameworkd/) but then of course I can only compile for the iPhone platform and not for the simulator any more. So basically I wonder how I can get Xcode back to chose the appropriate framework, depending on platform and SDK version for me? Thanks and kind regards, Hans Schneider Edit: Things I tried: Setting the Base SDK to 3.0 (was still 2.2.1), reinstalling 3.0 iPhone and Simulator SDK from the "packages" directory of the Xcode 3.2 DMG. Didn't help. The frameworks still wont show up in the list... Edit 2: Ok, I now have the frameworks back in the list, I was previously in my AdHoc configuration. In Debug I have the frameworks back. But it still wont compile for the Simualtor (lots of Symbols(s) not found errors). Looks like the linker doesn't choose the correct libraries and always uses the iPhoneOs3.0 path for the frameworks.

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