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  • SQL - Multiple join conditions using OR?

    - by Brandi
    I have a query that is using multiple joins. The goal is to say "Out of table A, give me all the customer numbers in which you can match table A's EmailAddress with either email_to or email_from of table B. Ignore nulls, internal emails, etc.". It seems like it would be better to use an or condition in the join than multiple joins since it is the same table. When I try to use AND/OR it does not give the behaviour I expect... AND finishes in a reasonable time, but yields no results (I know that there are matches, so it must be some flaw in my logic) and OR never finishes (I have to kill it). Here is example code to illustrate the question: --my original query SELECT DISTINCT a.CustomerNo FROM A a WITH (NOLOCK) LEFT JOIN B e WITH (NOLOCK) ON a.EmailAddress = e.email_from RIGHT JOIN B f WITH (NOLOCK) ON a.EmailAddress = f.email_to WHERE a.EmailAddress NOT LIKE '%@mydomain.___' AND a.EmailAddress IS NOT NULL AND (e.email_from IS NOT NULL OR f.email_to IS NOT NULL) Here is what I tried, (I am attempting logical equivalence): SELECT DISTINCT a.CustomerNo FROM A a WITH (NOLOCK) LEFT JOIN B e WITH (NOLOCK) ON a.EmailAddress = e.email_from OR a.EmailAddress = e.email_to WHERE a.EmailAddress NOT LIKE '%@mydomain.___' AND a.EmailAddress IS NOT NULL AND (e.email_from IS NOT NULL OR e.email_to IS NOT NULL) So my question is two-fold: Why does having AND in the above query work in a few seconds and OR goes for minutes and never completes? What am I missing to make a logically equivalent statement that has only one join?

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  • ASP .NET page runs slow in production

    - by Brandi
    I have created an ASP .NET page that works flawlessly and quickly from Visual Studio. It does a very large database read from a database on our network to load a gridview inside of an update panel. It displays progress in an Ajax modalpopupextender. Of course I don't expect it to be instant what with the large db reads, but it takes on the order of seconds, not on the order of minutes. This is all working great until I put it up on the server - it is very, VERY slow when I access it via the internet - takes several minutes to load the database information into the gridview. I'm baffled why it would not perform the exact same as it had from Visual Studio. (It is in release mode and I have taken off the debug flag) I have since been trying things like eliminating unneeded update panels and throwing out the ajax tool. Nothing has made it any faster on production. It is not the database as far as I know, since it has been consistently fast from my computer (from visual studio) and consistently slow from the server. I am wondering, where do I look next? Has anyone else had this problem before? Could this be caused by update panels or Ajax modalpopupextenders in different parts of the application? Why would the live behaviour differ so much from the localhost behaviour? Both the server with the ASP .NET page and the server with the database are servers on our network. I'm using Visual Studio 2008. Thank you in advance for any insight or advice.

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  • Screen information while Windows system is locked (.NET)

    - by Matt
    We have a nightly process that updates applications on a user's pc, and that requires bringing the application down and back up again (not looking to get into changing that process). The problem is that we are building a Windows AppBar on launch which requires a valid screen, and when the system is locked there isn't one in the Screen class. So none of the visual effects are enabled and it shows up real ugly. The only way we currently have around this is to detect a locked screen and just spin and wait until the user unlocks the desktop, then continue launching. Leaving it down isn't an option, as this is a key part of our user's workflow, and they expect it to be up and running if they left it that way the night before. Any ideas?? I can't seem to find the display information anywhere, but it has to be stored off someplace, since the user is still logged in. The contents of the Screen.AllScreens array: ** When Locked: Device Name : DISPLAY Primary : True Bits Per Pixel : 0 Bounds : {X=-1280,Y=0,Width=2560,Height=1024} Working Area : {X=0,Y=0,Width=1280,Height=1024} ** When Unlocked: Device Name : \\.\DISPLAY1 Primary : True Bits Per Pixel : 32 Bounds : {X=0,Y=0,Width=1280,Height=1024} Working Area : {X=0,Y=0,Width=1280,Height=994} Device Name : \\.\DISPLAY2 Primary : False Bits Per Pixel : 32 Bounds : {X=-1280,Y=0,Width=1280,Height=1024} Working Area : {X=-1280,Y=0,Width=1280,Height=964}

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  • How can I use JSONP to download client-side javascript objects?

    - by Alex Mcp
    I'm trying to get client-side javascript objects saved as a file locally. I'm not sure if this is possible. The basic architecture is this: Ping an external API to get back a JSON object Work client-side with that object, and eventually have a "download me" link This link sends the data to my server, which processes it and sends it back with a mime type application/json, which (should) prompt the user to download the file locally. Right now here are my pieces: Server Side Code <?php $data = array('zero', 'one', 'two', 'testing the encoding'); $json = json_encode($data); //$json = json_encode($_GET['']); //eventually I'll encode their data, but I'm testing header("Content-type: application/json"); header('Content-Disposition: attachment; filename="backup.json"'); echo $_GET['callback'] . ' (' . $json . ');'; ?> Relevant Client Side Code $("#download").click(function(){ var json = JSON.stringify(collection); //serializes their object $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "http://www.myURL.com/api.php?callback=?", //this is the above script dataType: "jsonp", contentType: 'jsonp', data: json, success: function(data){ console.log( "Data Received: " + data[3] ); } }); return false; }); Right now when I visit the api.php site with Firefox, it prompts a download of download.json and that results in this text file, as expected: (["zero","one","two","testing the encoding"]); And when I click #download to run the AJAX call, it logs in Firebug Data Received: testing the encoding which is almost what I'd expect. I'm receiving the JSON string and serializing it, which is great. I'm missing two things: The Actual Questions What do I need to do to get the same prompt-to-download behavior that I get when I visit the page in a browser (much simpler) How do I access, server-side, the json object being sent to the server to serialize it? I don't know what index it is in the GET array (silly, I know, but I've tried almost everything)

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  • ActiveRecord/sqlite3 column type lost in table view?

    - by duncan
    I have the following ActiveRecord testcase that mimics my problem. I have a People table with one attribute being a date. I create a view over that table adding one column which is just that date plus 20 minutes: #!/usr/bin/env ruby %w|pp rubygems active_record irb active_support date|.each {|lib| require lib} ActiveRecord::Base.establish_connection( :adapter => "sqlite3", :database => "test.db" ) ActiveRecord::Schema.define do create_table :people, :force => true do |t| t.column :name, :string t.column :born_at, :datetime end execute "create view clowns as select p.name, p.born_at, datetime(p.born_at, '+' || '20' || ' minutes') as twenty_after_born_at from people p;" end class Person < ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :name end class Clown < ActiveRecord::Base end Person.create(:name => "John", :born_at => DateTime.now) pp Person.all.first.born_at.class pp Clown.all.first.born_at.class pp Clown.all.first.twenty_after_born_at.class The problem is, the output is Time Time String When I expect the new datetime attribute of the view to be also a Time or DateTime in the ruby world. Any ideas? I also tried: create view clowns as select p.name, p.born_at, CAST(datetime(p.born_at, '+' || '20' || ' minutes') as datetime) as twenty_after_born_at from people p; With the same result.

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  • How are you using C++0x today? [closed]

    - by Roger Pate
    This is a question in two parts, the first is the most important and concerns now: Are you following the design and evolution of C++0x? What blogs, newsgroups, committee papers, and other resources do you follow? Even where you're not using any new features, how have they affected your current choices? What new features are you using now, either in production or otherwise? The second part is a follow-up, concerning the new standard once it is final: Do you expect to use it immediately? What are you doing to prepare for C++0x, other than as listed for the previous questions? Obviously, compiler support must be there, but there's still co-workers, ancillary tools, and other factors to consider. What will most affect your adoption? Edit: The original really was too argumentative; however, I'm still interested in the underlying question, so I've tried to clean it up and hopefully make it acceptable. This seems a much better avenue than duplicating—even though some answers responded to the argumentative tone, they still apply to the extent that they addressed the questions, and all answers are community property to be cleaned up as appropriate, too.

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  • emacs -- keybind questions

    - by user565739
    I have successfully used Ctrl+Shift+Up ' Ctrl+Shift+down ' Ctrl+Shift+left' Ctrl+Shift+Right to different commands. But when I tried to use Ctrl+s to the command save-buffer and Ctrl+Shift+s, which is equivalent to Ctrl+S, to another command, it has some problem. save-buffer works fine, but when I type Ctrl+Shift+s, it excute the command save-buffer. I used Ctrl+q to find the control sequences of Ctrl+s and Ctrl+Shift+S, I get the same result, which is ^S. I expect that I will get ^s for Ctrl+s, but it doesn't. Anyone knows the reason? Another queston is: I use Ctrl+c for the command killing-ring-save. In this case, all commands (which are of large number) begin with Ctrl+c don't work now. Is there a way to replace the prefix Ctrl+c by another customized prefix? I may pose my question in the wrong direction. I use ctrl+c as killing-ring-save. It works fine in emacs (no mode). But if I open a .c file (C-mode), then when I type Ctrl+c, it waits me to type another key. I think in this case, ctrl+c is regarded as a prefix. In this case, I need the following modifications: Using a custom defined prefix, say Ctrl+a, as Ctrl+c ; Remove the prefix Ctrl+c ; Using Ctrl+c as killing-ring-save. I add the following to my ~/.emacs : (defun my-c-initialization-hook () (define-key c-mode-base-map (kbd "C-a") mode-specific-map) (define-key c-mode-base-map (kbd "C-c") 'kill-ring-save)) (add-hook 'c-initialization-hook 'my-c-initialization-hook) But this doesn't work. Ctrl+c is still regarded as a prefix, so I can't use it as kill-ring-save. Furthermore, if I type Ctrl+a Ctrl+c, it said it's not defined. (I thought it will have the same result as I type Ctrl+c Ctrl+c)

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  • R - removing rows and replacing values using conditions from multiple columns

    - by lecodesportif
    I want to filter out all values of var3 < 5 while keeping at least one occurrence of each value of var1. > foo <- data.frame(var1= c(1, 1, 2, 3, 3, 4, 4, 5), var2=c(9, 5, 13, 9, 12, 11, 13, 9), var3=c(6, 8, 3, 6, 4, 7, 2, 9)) > foo var1 var2 var3 1 1 9 6 2 1 5 8 3 2 13 3 4 3 9 6 5 3 12 4 6 4 11 7 7 4 13 2 8 5 9 9 subset(foo, (foo$var3>=5)) would remove row 3, 5 and 7 and I would have lost var1==2. I want to remove the row if there is another value of var1 that fulfills the condition foo$var3 = 5. See row 5. I want to keep the row, assiging NA to var2 and var3 if all occurrences of a value var1 do not fulfill the condition foo$var3 = 5. This is the result I expect: var1 var2 var3 1 1 9 6 2 1 5 8 3 2 NA NA 4 3 9 6 6 4 11 7 8 5 9 9 This is the closest I got: > foo$var3[ foo$var3 < 5 ] = NA > foo$var2[ is.na(foo$var3) ] = NA > foo var1 var2 var3 1 1 9 6 2 1 5 8 3 2 NA NA 4 3 9 6 5 3 NA NA 6 4 11 7 7 4 NA NA 8 5 9 9 So I guess I just need to know how to conditionally remove the row.

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  • Is there really such a thing as a char or short in modern programming?

    - by Dean P
    Howdy all, I've been learning to program for a Mac over the past few months (I have experience in other languages). Obviously that has meant learning the Objective C language and thus the plainer C it is predicated on. So I have stumbles on this quote, which refers to the C/C++ language in general, not just the Mac platform. With C and C++ prefer use of int over char and short. The main reason behind this is that C and C++ perform arithmetic operations and parameter passing at integer level, If you have an integer value that can fit in a byte, you should still consider using an int to hold the number. If you use a char, the compiler will first convert the values into integer, perform the operations and then convert back the result to char. So my question, is this the case in the Mac Desktop and IPhone OS environments? I understand when talking about theses environments we're actually talking about 3-4 different architectures (PPC, i386, Arm and the A4 Arm variant) so there may not be a single answer. Nevertheless does the general principle hold that in modern 32 bit / 64 bit systems using 1-2 byte variables that don't align with the machine's natural 4 byte words doesn't provide much of the efficiency we may expect. For instance, a plain old C-Array of 100,000 chars is smaller than the same 100,000 ints by a factor of four, but if during an enumeration, reading out each index involves a cast/boxing/unboxing of sorts, will we see overall lower 'performance' despite the saved memory overhead?

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  • How should we setup up complex situations for tests?

    - by ShaneC
    I'm currently working on what I would call integration tests. I want to verify that if a WCF service is called it will do what I expect. Let's take a very simple scenario. Assume we have a contract object that we can put on hold or take off hold. Now writing the put on hold test is quite simple. You create a contract instance and execute the code that puts it on code. The question I have comes when we want to test the taking off hold service call. The problem is that putting a contract on hold can be actually quite complicated leading to various objects all be modified. So usually I would use the Builder pattern and do something like this.. var onHoldContract = new ContractBuilder().PutOnHold().Build(); The problem I have with this is now I have to pretty much replicate a large part of my put on hold service. Now when I change what putting something on hold means I have two places I have to modify. The other option that immediately jumps out at me is to just use the put on hold service as part of my test setup but now I'm coupling my test to the success of another piece of code which is something I don't like to do since it can lead to failures in one spot breaking unrelated tests elsewhere (if put on hold failed for example). Any other options I'm missing out here? or opinions on which method is preferable and why?

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  • process semaphores linux - wait

    - by coubeatczech
    Hi, I try to code a simple program that starts and waits on the system semaphore until it gets terminated by signal. union semun { int val; struct semid_ds *buf; unsigned short int *array; struct seminfo *__buf; }; int main(){ int semaphores = semget(IPC_PRIVATE,1,IPC_CREAT | 0666); union semun arg; arg.val = 0; semctl(semaphores,0,SETVAL,arg); struct sembuf operations[1]; operations[0].sem_num = 0; operations[0].sem_op = -1; operations[0].sem_flg = 0; semop(semaphores,operations,1); fprintf(stderr,"Why?\n"); return 0; } I expect, that everytime this program gets executed, nothing actually happens and it waits on the semaphore, but everytime it goes through the semaphore and writes Why?. Why?

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  • Configuring an offscreen framebuffer fails the completeness test

    - by randallmeadows
    I'm trying to create an offscreen framebuffer into which I can do some OpenGL drawing, and then pull the bits out manually. I'm following the instructions here, but in step 4, status is 0 instead of GL_FRAMEBUFFER_COMPLETE_OES. If I insert a call go glGetError() after every gl call, it returns 0 (GL_NO_ERROR) every time. But, the values of variables do not change during the call. E.g., GLuint framebuffer; glGenFramebuffersOES(1, &framebuffer); glBindFramebufferOES(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_OES, framebuffer); the value of framebuffer does not get altered at all (even when I change it to some arbitrary value and re-execute). It's almost like the gl calls are not actually being made. I'm linking against OpenGLES framework, and get no compile, link, or run-time errors (or warnings). I'm at a loss as to what to do to fix this. I've tried continuing on with my drawing, but do not see the results I expect, but at this point I can't tell whether it's because of the above error, or the conversion to a UIImage.

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  • Windows batch - loop over folder string and parse out last folder name

    - by Tim Peel
    Hi, I need to grab the folder name of a currently executing batch file. I have been trying to loop over the current directory using the following syntax (which is wrong at present): set mydir = %~p0 for /F "delims=\" %i IN (%mydir%) DO @echo %i Couple of issues in that I cannot seem to pass the 'mydir' variable value in as the search string. It only seems to work if I pass in commands; I have the syntax wrong and cannot work out why. My thinking was to loop over the folder string with a '\' delimiter but this is causing problems too. If I set a variable on each loop then the last value set will be the current folder name. For example, given the following path: C:\Folder1\Folder2\Folder3\Archive.bat I would expect to parse out the value 'Folder3'. I need to parse that value out as its name will be part of another folder I am going to create further down in the batch file. Many thanks if anyone can help. I may be barking up the wrong tree completely so any other approaches would be greatly received also. Tim

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  • C++ operator new, object versions, and the allocation sizes

    - by mizubasho
    Hi. I have a question about different versions of an object, their sizes, and allocation. The platform is Solaris 8 (and higher). Let's say we have programs A, B, and C that all link to a shared library D. Some class is defined in the library D, let's call it 'classD', and assume the size is 100 bytes. Now, we want to add a few members to classD for the next version of program A, without affecting existing binaries B or C. The new size will be, say, 120 bytes. We want program A to use the new definition of classD (120 bytes), while programs B and C continue to use the old definition of classD (100 bytes). A, B, and C all use the operator "new" to create instances of D. The question is, when does the operator "new" know the amount of memory to allocate? Compile time or run time? One thing I am afraid of is, programs B and C expect classD to be and alloate 100 bytes whereas the new shared library D requires 120 bytes for classD, and this inconsistency may cause memory corruption in programs B and C if I link them with the new library D. In other words, the area for extra 20 bytes that the new classD require may be allocated to some other variables by program B and C. Is this assumption correct? Thanks for your help.

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  • Postgre database ignoring created index ?!

    - by drasto
    I have an Postgre database and a table called my_table. There are 4 columns in that table (id, column1, column2, column3). The id column is primary key, there are no other constrains or indexes on columns. The table has about 200000 rows. I want to print out all rows which has value of column column2 equal(case insensitive) to 'value12'. I use this: SELECT * FROM my_table WHERE column2 = lower('value12') here is the execution plan for this statement(result of set enable_seqscan=on; EXPLAIN SELECT * FROM my_table WHERE column2 = lower('value12')): Seq Scan on my_table (cost=0.00..4676.00 rows=10000 width=55) Filter: ((column2)::text = 'value12'::text) I consider this to be to slow so I create an index on column column2 for better prerformance of searches: CREATE INDEX my_index ON my_table (lower(column2)) Now I ran the same select: SELECT * FROM my_table WHERE column2 = lower('value12') and I expect it to be much faster because it can use index. However it is not faster, it is as slow as before. So I check the execution plan and it is the same as before(see above). So it still uses sequential scen and it ignores the index! Where is the problem ?

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  • How to call functions inside a C dll which take pointers as arguments from C#

    - by AndrejaKo
    Hi people, this is my first post here! I'm trying to make a windows forms program using C# which will use a precompiled C library. It will access a smart card and provide output from it. For the library, I have a .dll, .lib and .h and no source. In the .h file there are several structs defined. Most interesting functions of the .dll expect pointers to allocated structs as arguments. I've been calling functions inside the .dll like this: For example function EID_API int WINAPI EidStartup(int nApiVersion); would be called like this [DllImport("CelikApi.dll")]//the name of the .dll public static extern int EidStartup(int nApiVersion); Now my problem is that I can't find equivalent of C's pointers which point to dynamically allocated structures in memory in C#, so I don't know what to pass as argument to functions which take C pointers. I don't have much experience in C#, but to me its use looked as the easiest way of making the program I need. I tried with C++, but Visual Studio 2010 doesn't have IntelliSense for C++/CLR. If you can point me to something better, feel free to do so.

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  • C++0x rvalue references and temporaries

    - by Doug
    (I asked a variation of this question on comp.std.c++ but didn't get an answer.) Why does the call to f(arg) in this code call the const ref overload of f? void f(const std::string &); //less efficient void f(std::string &&); //more efficient void g(const char * arg) { f(arg); } My intuition says that the f(string &&) overload should be chosen, because arg needs to be converted to a temporary no matter what, and the temporary matches the rvalue reference better than the lvalue reference. This is not what happens in GCC and MSVC. In at least G++ and MSVC, any lvalue does not bind to an rvalue reference argument, even if there is an intermediate temporary created. Indeed, if the const ref overload isn't present, the compilers diagnose an error. However, writing f(arg + 0) or f(std::string(arg)) does choose the rvalue reference overload as you would expect. From my reading of the C++0x standard, it seems like the implicit conversion of a const char * to a string should be considered when considering if f(string &&) is viable, just as when passing a const lvalue ref arguments. Section 13.3 (overload resolution) doesn't differentiate between rvalue refs and const references in too many places. Also, it seems that the rule that prevents lvalues from binding to rvalue references (13.3.3.1.4/3) shouldn't apply if there's an intermediate temporary - after all, it's perfectly safe to move from the temporary. Is this: Me misreading/misunderstand the standard, where the implemented behavior is the intended behavior, and there's some good reason why my example should behave the way it does? A mistake that the compiler vendors have somehow all made? Or a mistake based on common implementation strategies? Or a mistake in e.g. GCC (where this lvalue/rvalue reference binding rule was first implemented), that was copied by other vendors? A defect in the standard, or an unintended consequence, or something that should be clarified?

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  • grabbing layer contents in a class

    - by Mike
    I have a custom UIImageView class that creates thumbnails (UIImageView) and each thumbnail has a label. The label is created by another class. The label class creates a UIImageView and a UITextView on top of it. This is the init object class' init method: - (id)initWithFrame:(CGRect)frame { if ([super initWithFrame:frame] == nil) { return nil; } CGRect myFrame = CGRectMake(0, 0, 100, 100); myLabel = [[myLabelClass alloc] initWithFrame: myFrame]; //myLabelClass is a UIImageView based class [myLabel setCenter:CGPointMake(50, 50)]; [self addSubview: myLabel]; return self; } So, I have this MAIN VIEW CONTROLLER | |___ UIImageView WITH LABEL | |____ label background (UIView) |____ UITEXTVIEW (text) Now I want to write the contents of all these 3 components to a quartz context. I need to write using drawInRect, because I need to write the full object to a precise location. I expected object.layer.contents to be the image equivalent to these 3 "layers" flattened, in other words, the object's image, the label background and the label text, as it would if I created these 3 objects in Photoshop and flatten the composition. I also expect object.myLabel.layer.contents to contains the rendered contents of the UITextView over the label background. The problem is that when I use UIImage *myImage = [UIImage imageWithCGImage:objecto.myLabel.layer.contents]; [myImage drawInRect:CGRectMake(0, 0, 100, 100)]; I get nothing. How can I obtain a "flattened" image resultant to the full object (including its subviews)? thanks

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  • std::list : get next element

    - by sheepsimulator
    I'm trying to build a string using data elements stored in a std::list, where I want commas placed only between the elements (ie, if elements are {A,B,C,D} in list, result string should be "A,B,C,D". This code does not work: typedef std::list< shared_ptr<EventDataItem> > DataItemList; // ... std::string Compose(DataItemList& dilList) { std::stringstream ssDataSegment; for(iterItems = dilList.begin(); iterItems = dilList.end(); iterItems++) { // Lookahead in list to see if next element is end if((iterItems + 1) == dilList.end()) { ssDataSegment << (*iterItems)->ToString(); } else { ssDataSegment << (*iterItems)->ToString() << ","; } } return ssDataSegment.str(); } How do I get at "the-next-item" in a std::list using an iterator? I would expect that it's a linked-list, why can't I get at the next item?

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  • In a class with no virtual methods or superclass, is it safe to assume (address of first member vari

    - by Jeremy Friesner
    Hi all, I made a private API that assumes that the address of the first member-object in the class will be the same as the class's this-pointer... that way the member-object can trivially derive a pointer to the object that it is a member of, without having to store a pointer explicitly. Given that I am willing to make sure that the container class won't inherit from any superclass, won't have any virtual methods, and that the member-object that does this trick will be the first member object declared, will that assumption hold valid for any C++ compiler, or do I need to use the offsetof() operator (or similar) to guarantee correctness? To put it another way, the code below does what I expect under g++, but will it work everywhere? class MyContainer { public: MyContainer() {} ~MyContainer() {} // non-virtual dtor private: class MyContained { public: MyContained() {} ~MyContained() {} // Given that the only place Contained objects are declared is m_contained // (below), will this work as expected on any C++ compiler? MyContainer * GetPointerToMyContainer() { return reinterpret_cast<MyContainer *>(this); } }; MyContained m_contained; // MUST BE FIRST MEMBER ITEM DECLARED IN MyContainer int m_foo; // other member items may be declared after m_contained float m_bar; };

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  • ASP.NET ListView, custom DataSources, and editing items

    - by Andrew Shepherd
    The MSDN walkthroughs provide a number of examples where you can drag a DataSource from the toolbox, run through some simple configuration steps, then drag a ListView onto the screen, point it at the DataSource, and hey - you've got full table editing. Now I'm trying to write my own DataSource class (a class that implements System.Web.UI.IDataSource) and my own DataSourceView class. I now assign an instance of this custom DataSource class to the ListView.DataSource propery. The display of all the items is working well. However, updating, inserting and deleting just is not working. I'm overriding every function I can in my DataSourceView class, and they just aren't being called. This is such a huge topic, I'll focus this question on one simple example: When you press the "Edit" button (the button inside the ItemTemplate with a CommandName of "Edit", you expect the ItemTemplate to be replaced by an EditItemTemplate. This did not happen. The only way I could get it to happen was to handle the onitemediting event. protected void _listViewPublicHolidays_ItemEditing(object sender, ListViewEditEventArgs e) { _listViewPublicHolidays.EditIndex = e.NewEditIndex; _listViewPublicHolidays.DataBind(); } This is hardly a problem, but how come I had to do it at all? In the MSDN walkthroughs where I attach a ListView to a LinqDataSource, this code doesn't have to be written. Can someone who's been here before hazard a guess as to what would be different or missing in my custom datasource?

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  • Named previously unnamed branch

    - by Jab
    It seems naming a previously unnamed branch doesn't really work out. It creates a nasty multiple heads problem that I can't find a solution for. Here is the workflow... UserA starts working on feature that they expect to be small, so they just start working(off the default branch). The change turns out to be a large project and will need multiple contributors. So UserA issues... hg branch "Feature1" and continues working, committing locally s needed. UserA then pulls down the changes from the central repo so he can push. At this point, why does hg heads return 3 heads? It shows 2 for default and 1 for Feature1. The first head for default is the latest change by another user on the branch(irrelevant). The second default head is the commit prior to the hg branch "Feature1" commit. The central repository has rules enforced so that only 1 head per branch is allowed, so forcing a push isn't an option. The repo doesn't want multiple heads on the default branch. UserA should be able to push these changes so that other users can see the Feature1 branch and help out. I can't seem to find a way to "correct" this. I don't think I can re-write the branch of the initial commits for the feature, before it was a named branch. I know the initial changes before the named branch are technically on the default branch, but does that mean they will be heads until that Feature1 branch is merged?

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  • The new operator in C# isn't overriding base class member

    - by Dominic Zukiewicz
    I am confused as to why the new operator isn't working as I expected it to. Note: All classes below are defined in the same namespace, and in the same file. This class allows you to prefix any content written to the console with some provided text. public class ConsoleWriter { private string prefix; public ConsoleWriter(string prefix) { this.prefix = prefix; } public void Write(string text) { Console.WriteLine(String.Concat(prefix,text)); } } Here is a base class: public class BaseClass { protected static ConsoleWriter consoleWriter = new ConsoleWriter(""); public static void Write(string text) { consoleWriter.Write(text); } } Here is an implemented class: public class NewClass : BaseClass { protected new static ConsoleWriter consoleWriter = new ConsoleWriter("> "); } Now here's the code to execute this: class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { BaseClass.Write("Hello World!"); NewClass.Write("Hello World!"); Console.Read(); } } So I would expect the output to be Hello World! > Hello World! But the output is Hello World Hello World I do not understand why this is happening. Here is my thought process as to what is happening: The CLR calls the BaseClass.Write() method The CLR initialises the BaseClass.consoleWriter member. The method is called and executed with the BaseClass.consoleWriter variable Then The CLR calls the NewClass.Write() The CLR initialises the NewClass.consoleWriter object. The CLR sees that the implementation lies in BaseClass, but the method is inherited through The CLR executes the method locally (in NewClass) using the NewClass.consoleWriter variable I thought this is how the inheritance structure works? Please can someone help me understand why this is not working?

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  • LinQ XML mapping to a generic type

    - by Manuel Navarro
    I´m trying to use an external XML file to map the output from a stored procedure into an instance of a class. The problem is that my class is of a generic type: public class MyValue<T> { public T Value { get; set; } } Searching through a lot of blogs an articles I've managed to get this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <Database Name="" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/linqtosql/mapping/2007"> <Table Name="MyValue" Member="MyNamespace.MyValue`1" > <Type Name="MyNamespace.MyValue`1"> <Column Name="Category" Member="Value" DbType="VarChar(100)" /> </Type> </Table> <Function Method="GetResourceCategories" Name="myprefix_GetResourceCategories" > <ElementType Name="MyNamespace.MyValue`1"/> </Function> </Database> The MyNamespace.MyValue`1 trick works fine, and the class is recognized. I expect four rows from the stored procedure, and I'm getting four MyValue<string> instances, but the big problem is that the property Value for the all four instances is null. The property is not getting mapped and I don't really get why. Maybe worth noting that the property Value is generic, and that when the mapping is done using attributes it works perfect. Anyone have a clue? BTW the method GetResourceCategories: public ISingleResult<MyValue<string>> GetResourceCategories() { IExecuteResult result = this.ExecuteMethodCall( this, (MethodInfo)MethodInfo.GetCurrentMethod()); return (ISingleResult<MyValue<string>>)result.ReturnValue; }

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  • I seek a PDF paginator

    - by Cameron Laird
    More precisely, I need software that will allow me to consume existing PDF instances, decorate them with page numbers, or page-number-like writing, then write them back to the filesystem. I'll happily pay for an application, or program it myself. I almost certainly require the software run under Linux (Ubuntu, more specifically). iText comes close. iText certainly can read existing PDF instances. While iText is, for this purpose, only a library, and requires me to program a tiny amount to specify where on the page the numbers should appear, I'm happy to do that. I hesitate with iText only because the latest iText license is a headache at certain government agencies (in practice, I'd probably request and pay for a special license), and because, over the last few years, I've observed cases where iText doesn't appear to keep up with the standard, that is, it has more troubles than I expect reading PDFs observed "in the wild". Similarly, every other possibility I know has at least one difficulty: ReportLab would likely require a disproportionate licensing fee for the small value it provides in this situation, and so on. This application requires no particular sophistication with Unicode, fonts, ... I recognize there are plenty of executables and libraries that do some or all of what I require. I welcome any tips on software that is reliable, generally current with PDF practice, flexible/programmable/configurable/..., and "automatable". In the absence of any new insight, I'll likely go with a specific open-source library I don't want to mention now for which I've already contracted enhancements, or perhaps revisit iText.

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