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  • MACRO Question: Returning pointer to a certain value

    - by Andrei Ciobanu
    Is it possible to write a MACRO that has a type and a value as its input parameters (MACRO(type,value)), and returns a valid pointer to a location that holds the submitted value. This macro should perform like the following function, but in a more generic manner: int *val_to_ptr(int val){ int *r = NULL; r = nm_malloc(sizeof(*r)); *r = val; return r; } Where nm_malloc() is a failsafe malloc. The Macro usage should be compatible with this usage: printf("%d",*MACRO(int,5)); Is it possible to achieve that ?

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  • MySQL Limiting a query to one consistent value

    - by Lucas Matos
    My current query returns a table like: +------------+ value1 | .... value1 | .... value2 | .... value3 | .... +------------+ I want: +------------+ value1 | .... value1 | .... +------------+ I want to only receive all rows with the first value. Normally I would do a WHERE clause if I knew that value, and I cannot use a LIMIT because each value has a different number of rows. Right now My query looks like "SELECT u.*, n.something, w.* FROM ... AS u, ... AS n, ... AS w WHERE u.id = n.id AND w.val = n.val AND u.desc LIKE '%GET REQUEST VARIABLE%';" This works great, except I get way too many rows and using PHP to do this ruins code portability and is superfluous. Thanks for reading

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  • jQuery pagination go to page on input value change

    - by JV10
    I'm creating some pagination for my website, and want to use an input-element to navigate between pages. Like the following example: The input would require the "return" key to be hit for the script to trigger. If the value entered is not within range and alert would trigger. e.g. If there was 32 pages, "Please enter a value between 1 and 32" Can this be done using jQuery or javascript, by detecting the value change within the range of pages and redirecting to that page? I'm trying to create the same device on Getty Images: http://www.gettyimages.com.au/Search/Search.aspx?contractUrl=2&language=en-US&family=creative&p=ball&assetType=image&clarification=ball%3A60847

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  • Domino 9 / Dojo 1.8 - Date Time Picker without default value

    - by Julian Buss
    I want a Date Time Picker control WITHOUT a default value. Doesn't seem to be possible anymore :-( To reproduce, create a blank XPage and place a Date Time Picker control. Open the XPage in the browser and you will see that it defaults to today. I didn't found any way to set the default to an empty value. I tried setting all properties/data/default to 0, null, empty string and so on - no luck. I tried the data-dojo-probs attribute with value:'', this sets the default to 1970-1-1, but not to blank. Any ideas?

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  • Objective-C: Cannot Change Value of Instance Variable Inside a Function

    - by user262325
    Hello everyone, I cannot change the value of an instance variable inside a function. I have defined a class: // info.h #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> @interface NSMyObject : NSObject { NSInteger i; } -(void) setI:(NSInteger)v; @end #import "info.h" @implementation NSMyObject -(void) setI:(NSInteger)v ; { i=v; } - (void)dealloc { [super dealloc]; } @end I call a function 'myFunction' with parameter temObj which is a NSMyObject instance. myFunction(temObj);//temObj is NSMyObject In the function, I can change the value of the instance variable of parameter obj. -(void)myFunction:(NSMyObject*) obj; { [obj setI:0]; } ... expecting this to change the content of temObj. But when I check the results of operation on obj in function myFunction the value of temObj.i has not changed. Welcome any comment Thanks

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  • Conditional jump or move depends on uninitialised value - freeing a linked list

    - by user720491
    I want to free a linked list in C. All is working fine, but Valgrind is telling me Conditional jump or move depends on uninitialised value(s) at 0x401400: mtf_destroy Here's the code: list_elt *head; void mtf_init() { list_elt *current; head = malloc(sizeof(list_elt)); current = head; for (int i = 0; i < LIST_SIZE-1; i++) { current->value = (BYTE) i; current->next = malloc(sizeof(list_elt)); current = current->next; } current->value = LIST_SIZE-1; } void mtf_destroy(list_elt *elt) { if (elt->next != NULL) mtf_destroy(elt->next); free(elt); } How can I solve this? Thanks!

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  • NHibernate not dropping foreign key constraints.

    - by Kendrick
    I'm new to NHibernate, so this is probably my mistake, but when I use: schema.Create(true, true); I get: SchemaExport [(null)]- There is already an object named 'XXX' in the database. System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: There is already an object named 'XXX' in the database. I grabbed the SQL code nHibernate was using, ran it directly from MSSMS, and recieved similar errors. Looking into it, the generated code is not properly dropping the foreign key constraints. The drop looks like this: if exists (select 1 from sysobjects where id = OBJECT_ID(N'dbo[FK22212EAFBFE4C58]') AND parent_obj = OBJECT_ID('YYY')) alter table dbo.YYY drop constraint FK22212EAFBFE4C58 Doing a "select OBJECT_ID(N'dbo[FK22212EAFBFE4C58]')" I get null. If I take out the "dbo" (i.e. "select OBJECT_ID(N'[FK22212EAFBFE4C58]')") then the ID is returned. So, my question is, why is nHibernate adding the dbo, and why does that prevent the object from being returned (since the table owning the constraint is dbo.XXX) One of my mapping files: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <hibernate-mapping namespace="CanineApp.Model" assembly="CanineApp.Model" xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2"> <class name="MedicalLog" table="MedicalLog" schema="dbo"> <id name="MedicalLogID" type="Int64"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="InvoiceAmount" type="Decimal" not-null="true" /> ... <many-to-one name="Canine" class="Canine" column="CanineID" not-null="true" fetch="join" /> <many-to-one name="TreatmentCategory" class="TreatmentCategory" column="TreatmentCategoryID" not-null="true" access="field.camelcase-underscore" /> </class> </hibernate-mapping>

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  • Multiple Foreign keys to a single table and single key pointing to more than one table

    - by user1216775
    I need some suggestions from the database design experts here. I have around six foreign keys into a single table (defect) which all point to primary key in user table. It is like: defect (.....,assigned_to,created_by,updated_by,closed_by...) If I want to get information about the defect I can make six joins. Do we have any better way to do it? Another one is I have a states table which can store one of the user-defined set of values. I have defect table and task table and I want both of these tables to share the common state table (New, In Progress etc.). So I created: task (.....,state_id,type_id,.....) defect(.....,state_id,type_id,...) state(state_id,state_name,...) importance(imp_id,imp_name,...) There are many such common attributes along with state like importance(normal, urgent etc), priority etc. And for all of them I want to use same table. I am keeping one flag in each of the tables to differentiate task and defect. What is the best solution in such a case? If somebody is using this application in health domain, they would like to assign different types, states, importances for their defect or tasks. Moreover when a user selects any project I want to display all the types,states etc under configuration parameters section.

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  • iPhone settings not honoured

    - by winsmith
    My iPhone app has the following problem: Freshly installed, when I read out my "Play Sound" preference with the following code: defaults = [NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults]; NSLog(@"Play Sounds? %d", [defaults boolForKey:@"play_sounds_preference"]); The setting always reads out as false, even though the default setting is set to true. Any ideas? Here is my Root.plist: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <!DOCTYPE plist PUBLIC "-//Apple//DTD PLIST 1.0//EN" "http://www.apple.com/DTDs/PropertyList-1.0.dtd"> <plist version="1.0"> <dict> <key>StringsTable</key> <string>Root</string> <key>PreferenceSpecifiers</key> <array> <dict> <key>Type</key> <string>PSGroupSpecifier</string> <key>Title</key> <string>General Settings</string> </dict> <dict> <key>Type</key> <string>PSToggleSwitchSpecifier</string> <key>Title</key> <string>Sounds</string> <key>Key</key> <string>play_sounds_preference</string> <key>DefaultValue</key> <true/> </dict> </array> </dict> </plist> When the user opens the Settings.app and navigates to my app's name, THEN the setting reads out as true, even if the user doesn't change anything.

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  • Display the y value of a uiImageView during an animation

    - by user1422132
    I have the following code: NSString *yValue; yValue=[[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:@"%1.2f" , imageView.center.y]; CGRect labelFrame = CGRectMake( 10, 100, 200, 50 ); UILabel* label5 = [[UILabel alloc] initWithFrame: labelFrame]; [label5 setBackgroundColor:[UIColor blackColor]]; [label5 setText: yValue]; [label5 setTextColor: [UIColor orangeColor]]; [self.view addSubview: label5]; This correctly shows the y value of the UIimageView but the problem is that it only shows the ending y value. When a person flicks the UIImageView I animate it using: [UIView animateWithDuration:2 delay:0 options:UIViewAnimationOptionCurveEaseOut animations:^{ recognizer.view.center = finalPoint; } What I want is the label5 to display the y value of the imageView during the animation not just after. Is it possible to do this?

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  • Extracting the most duplicate value from an array in JavaScript (with jQuery)

    - by TK
    I have several array to deal with. I need to extract the most duplicate value from each array. From [3, 7, 7, 7], I need to find the value 7. Each array size is 4. For now, I don't have to think about when the most duplicate values are more than one such as [3, 7, 7, 7]. All the values are a number. I looked around the web. I found several ways to make an array to become uniq(). But I haven't found a way to get the duplicate value. I am using jQuery, but raw JavaScript is fine for this task.

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  • Output custom messages based on row value

    - by decimal
    I've made a simple guestbook mysql/php page. An entry is displayed if the approve column has a value of 1. For the adminstrator, I want to display either "message approved" or "not approved". Here's my code: while ($row = mysql_fetch_array ($r)) { print "<p>Guest:" .$row['name']. "</p> <p>Date:" .$row['date']. "</p> <p>Comment:". $row['comment']. "</p>"; if ($row['approve'] = '1') { print '<p>YES, the message has been approved</p>'; } else { print '<p>NO, it hasn\'t been approved</p>'; } Whatever value the if statement checks approve is equal to, all approve values are output as that value.

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  • get value of a property o => o.Property1 , defined in lambda

    - by Omu
    I need to get the value of a property defined in a lambda public static MvcHtmlString MyHelper<T, TProperty>( this HtmlHelper<T> html, Expression<Func<T, TProperty>> prop) { var value = \\ get the value of Prop1 (not the name "Prop1") ... } the intended usage is something like: public class FooViewModel { public string Prop1 { get;set; } } <%@ Page ViewPage<FooViewModel> %> <%=Html.MyHelper(o => o.Prop1) %>

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  • how to get the value of checksum in php header

    - by sumit
    I have a header in php which contains a link like <?php header("Location: "."https://abc.com/ppp/purchase.do?version=3.0&". "merchant_id=<23255>&merchant_site_id<21312>&total_amount=<69.99>&". "currency=<USD>&item_name_1=<incidentsupporttier1>&item_amount_1=<1>&". "time_stamp=<2010-06-14.14:34:33>&**checksum=<calculated_checksum>**"); ?> when i run this page the value of checksum is calculated and the link is opened now how checksum is calculated? calculated_checksum=md5(abc); md5 is an algorithm which calculates the value of checksum based on certain values inside the bracket. now i want to know how can i pass the value of checksum in the header url

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  • change value of input element!

    - by Lina
    is it able to "override/overwrite" an input element fixed value using javascript and/or jquery? i.e. if i have an input element like this: <div id="myDiv"> <input type="text" name="inputs" value="someValue" /> </div> is it possible to make a jquery object of that element and then change its value to something else then rewrite the jquery object to the dom?? i'm trying but obviously i haven't got good results! i've been trying something like this: $('input').val("someOtherDynamicValue"); var x = $('input'); $("#myDiv").html(x);

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  • get drop down value using dojo

    - by vetri
    I have struts code like <html:select property="ce"> <html:option value = "5">5</html:option> <html:option value = "10">10</html:option> <html:option value = "15">15</html:option> </html:select> <div id="dis"> <div> if a option is selected,dojo should get the valu and multiply by 10 and display that in the div?how to do that.

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  • What is the point of having a key_t if what will be the key to access shared memory is the return value of shmget()?

    - by devoured elysium
    When using shared memory, why should we care about creating a key key_t ftok(const char *path, int id); in the following bit of code? key_t key; int shmid; key = ftok("/home/beej/somefile3", 'R'); shmid = shmget(key, 1024, 0644 | IPC_CREAT); From what I've come to understand, what is needed to access a given shared memory is the shmid, not the key. Or am I wrong? If what we need is the shmid, what is the point in not just creating a random key every time? Edit @link text one can read: What about this key nonsense? How do we create one? Well, since the type key_t is actually just a long, you can use any number you want. But what if you hard-code the number and some other unrelated program hardcodes the same number but wants another queue? The solution is to use the ftok() function which generates a key from two arguments. Reading this, it gives me the impression that what one needs to attach to a shared-memory block is the key. But this isn't true, is it? Thanks

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  • SDL (And Others) Virtual Key Input

    - by David C
    Today I set up the input in my application for all the different keys. This works fine except for virtual keys, for example, caret or ampersand. Keys that normally need shift to be got at. Using SDL these virtual keys don't work. As in they do not register an event. if (event.type == SDL_KEYDOWN) { switch (event.key.keysym.sym) { case SDLK_CARET: Keys[KeyCodes::Caret] = KeyState::Down; break; case SDLK_UP: Keys[KeyCodes::Up] = KeyState::Down; break; default: break; } I am absolutely sure my system works with physical keys like Up. The program queries a keystate like so: if (Keys[KeyCode] == KeyState::Down) { lua_pushboolean(L, true); } else { lua_pushboolean(L, false); } KeyCode is passed in as an argument. So why are virtual keys, or keys that need shift to get at not working using SDL's KeyDown event type? Is more code needed to get to them? Or am I being stupid?

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  • License key pattern detection?

    - by Ricket
    This is not a real situation; please ignore legal issues that you might think apply, because they don't. Let's say I have a set of 200 known valid license keys for a hypothetical piece of software's licensing algorithm, and a license key consists of 5 sets of 5 alphanumeric case-insensitive (all uppercase) characters. Example: HXDY6-R3DD7-Y8FRT-UNPVT-JSKON Is it possible (or likely) to extrapolate other possible keys for the system? What if the set was known to be consecutive; how do the methods change for this situation, and what kind of advantage does this give? I have heard of "keygens" before, but I believe they are probably made by decompiling the licensing software rather than examining known valid keys. In this case, I am only given the set of keys and I must determine the algorithm. I'm also told it is an industry standard algorithm, so it's probably not something basic, though the chance is always there I suppose. If you think this doesn't belong in Stack Overflow, please at least suggest an alternate place for me to look or ask the question. I honestly don't know where to begin with a problem like this. I don't even know the terminology for this kind of problem.

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  • jquery script to retrieve select value on click: works in Firefox, does not in Internet Explorer

    - by vatshal
    hi vatshal here; I am using a jquery script in which I am getting the current value of a select box on mouse click; it works on Mozila Firefox but doesn't work in Internet Explorer onclick in IE shows previous value from the select box id <select> <option>value1</option> <option>value2</option> </select> if we are clicking on value2 then jquery gets the value of the first element, but it is working on mozila firefox only; jquery code is given below: <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery-1.4.2.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function(){ $("#multiple").click(function(){ var a=$("#multiple").val(); $("#to").val(a); }); }); </script> Please help me

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  • the way to get a value from a hidden type correctly

    - by kawtousse
    hey, in a html table i construct in each row an edit buttton like the following: retour.append("<input type=\"hidden\" id=\"id_"+nomTab+"_"+compteur+"\" value=\""+object.getIdDailyTimeSheet()+"\" name=\"hd_"+compteur+"\" />"); this is the hidden type then i do the following: retour.append("<button id=edit name=edit type=button onClick= editarow()>"); retour.append("<img src=edit.gif />"); retour.append("</button>"); retour.append("</td>"); here i am using the hidden type to differenciate between my rows with it. Now I am trying to get the parameter called here: value=\""+object.getIdDailyTimeSheet() in my servlet to do an update query based on the IdDailyTimeSheet. I didn't untill know find the way to get this value every time i click the edit button (i do its submit with the javascript). thanks for help.

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  • How to set a value from another class

    - by Ram
    Its said that property should not be "Set" only and it should be "Get" as well. What should i do if I need to set value to a variable from some other class? The will keep changing so I cannot pass it through constructor. Shall I create a function for this as shown below? class A { public void SetValue() { b = new B(); b.SetTest(10); } } class B { int test; public void SetTest(int value) { test = value; } } What are the other alternatives?

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  • trouble with a javascript Cannot read property 'value' of

    - by Stanislas Piotrowski
    I've done a function but I do not understand why, a part of it does not work. Actualy I use the methode using className and Id. Here is the part of the code: var items = new Array(); var itemCount = document.getElementsByClassName("items"); for(var i = 0; i < itemCount.length; i++) { items[i] = document.getElementById("p"+(i+1)).value; } return items; } And in jsfiddle the html part that show that this Id exist. So it should not return to me this errors: Uncaught TypeError: Cannot read property 'value' of null fiddle.jshell.net:402 the concerned line is the following: items[i] = document.getElementById("p"+(i+1)).value; http://jsfiddle.net/Wt4qd/ Kind Regards SP.

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  • More than one unique key for HashMap problem (Java)

    - by Alex Cheng
    This question is a continuation of this thread: In short: To solve my problem, I want to use Map<Set<String>, String>. However, after I sort my data entries in Excel, remove the unnecessary parameters, and the following came out: flow content ==> content content flow content ==> content depth distance flow content ==> content depth within flow content ==> content depth within distance flow content ==> content within flow content ==> content within distance I have more than one unique key for the hashmap if that is the case. How do I go around this... anyone have any idea? I was thinking of maybe Map<Set <String>, List <String>> so that I can do something like: Set <flow content>, List <'content content','content depth distance','content depth within ', ..., 'content within distance'> But because I am parsing the entries line by line I can't figure out the way how to store values of the same repeated keys (flow content) into the same list and add it to the map. Anyone have a rough logic on how can this be done in Java? Thanks in advance.

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  • Java date long value changed after insert, select query

    - by StackExploded
    AFAIK, java Date type is independent from Timezone which means that it represents specific moment of time as long typed value. I found really weird thing here. This is the original value i tried to insert. (http-0.0.0.0-9080-4) 1352955600000 <-- long integer. (http-0.0.0.0-9080-4) Thu Nov 15 00:00:00 EST 2012 <-- User Friendly Format. After i finished inserting into Oracle 11g database, the value has changed! (http-0.0.0.0-9080-4) 1352952000000 (http-0.0.0.0-9080-4) Wed Nov 14 23:00:00 EST 2012 How could this happen?? The more weird thing is it only happens specific environments such as Jboss. I'm currently using below environments. java 1.6 ibatis 2.34 jboss-5.1 (server) tomcat 6.0 (local) oracle 11g Is there anybody who can give me a clue or link to be helpful? it really bugging me!!

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