Search Results

Search found 25302 results on 1013 pages for 'role based'.

Page 151/1013 | < Previous Page | 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158  | Next Page >

  • C++ Filling an 1D array to represent a n-dimensional object based on a straight line segment

    - by Ben
    I'm struggling to find a good way to put this question but here goes. I'm making a system that uses a 1D array implemented as double * parts_ = new double[some_variable];. I want to use this to hold co-ordinates for a particle system that can run in various dimensions. What I want to be able to do is write a generic fill algorithm for filling this in n-dimensions with a common increment in all direction to a variable size. Examples will serve best I think. Consider the case where the number of particles stored by the array is 4 In 1D this produces 4 elements in the array because each particle only has one co-ordinate. 1D: {0, 25, 50, 75}; In 2D this produces 8 elements in the array because each particle has two co-ordinates.. 2D: {0, 0, 0, 25, 25, 0, 25, 25} In 3D this produces 12 elements in the array because each particle now has three co-ordinates {0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 25, 0, 0, 50, ... } These examples are still not quite accurate, but they hopefully will suffice. The way I would do this normally for two dimensions: int i = 0; for(int x = 0; x < parts_size_ / dims_ / dims_ * 25; x += 25) { for(int y = 0; y < parts_size_ / dims_ / dims_ * 25; y += 25) { parts_[i] = x; parts_[i+1] = y; i+=2; // Indentation hates me today .< How can I implement this for n-dimensions where 25 can be any number? The straight line part is because it seems to me logical that a line is a somewhat regular shape in 1D, as is a square in 2D, and a cube in 3D. It seems to me that it would follow that there would be similar shapes in this family that could be implemented for 4D and higher dimensions via a similar fill pattern. This is the shape I wish to set my array to represent.

    Read the article

  • What is a good solution to link different tables in Hibernate based on some field value?

    - by serg555
    I have article table and several user tables a_user, b_user, ... with exactly the same structure (but different data). I can't change anything in *_user tables except their table name prefix but can change everything else (user tables contain only user information, there is nothing about article or user_type in them). I need to link article to a user (many-to-one), but user table name is defined by user_type field. For example Article table record: ... user_id="5" user_type="a" means that it is linked to a user with id=5 from a_user table (id 5 is not unique in users scope, each user table can have its id 5). Any suggestions how to handle this situation? How can I map this relation in Hibernate (xml mapping, no annotations) so it will automatically pick up correct user for an article during select/update? How should I map user tables (one or multiple classes?)? I would need to run some queries like this: from Article a where a.userType=:type and a.user.name=:name Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Setting a cookie based on the name of the link that is clicked.

    - by Ozaki
    TLDR When clicking on a link I want to assign a cookie with a name of instrument and a value of the text on the link clicked. Using Jquery.1.4.2.min.js, Jquery.cookie.1.0.js I am trying to create a cookie when a link is clicked (will always link to "page.html"). name of instrument value of the TEXT So far I am trying to use: Link1: <a href="page.html">link1</a> Link2: <a href="page.html">link2</a> Script: $('a[href=page.html]').click(function() { var name = 'instrument'; var value = $(this).text(); $.cookie(name, value, { expires: 365 }); }); When I click the link it just loads the link and no cookie is set. Debugging with firebug, firecookie, firequery. No cookie for instrument or anything along the lines is found. Onload I'll hit the "<a href="page.html">projects</a>" but not the "$.cookie(name, value, { expires: 365 });" at all.

    Read the article

  • Using PHP5s SOAP Client to send data to an ASP/.NET based SOAP server.

    - by user325143
    I am trying to write a snippet of PHP to connect to a third party's API via SOAP to enter some data into their database. The API requires me to pass several mandatory fields for every call (username, password, companyid, entitytype) in addition to the mandatory data fields. It also requires me to call the "ValidateEntity" funciton before calling the "CreateEntity" function. Documentation can be found here: http://wiki.agemni.com/Getting_Started/APIs/Database_API I have never worked with SOAP before, so I am very new to this. Here is what I have so far: error_reporting(E_ALL); ini_set('display_errors', '1'); $client = new SoapClient("http://agemni.com/AgemniWebservices/service1.asmx?WSDL", array('trace'=> true)); $options = array( 'username' => "myuser", 'password' => "mypassword", 'companyid' => myID, 'entitytype' => 2 ); $params = array( 'fname' => "John", 'lname' => "Doe", 'phone' => "859-333-3333", 'zip' => "40332", 'area id' => "12345", 'lead id' => "28222", 'contactdate' => "4/10/2010" ); $validate = $client->__soapCall("ValidateEntity", array($params), array($options)); $client->__soapCall("CreateEntity", array($params), array($options)); echo "<pre>"; var_dump($client-> __getLastRequestHeaders()); var_dump($client-> __getLastRequest()); var_dump($client-> __getLastResponseHeaders()); var_dump($client-> __getLastResponse()); var_dump($result); echo "</pre>"; Upon executing this code, I get the following error: Fatal error: Uncaught SoapFault exception: [Client] SOAP-ERROR: Encoding: object hasn't 'objecttype' property in /www/tmp/index-soap.php:24 Stack trace: #0 /www/tmp/index-soap.php(24): SoapClient->__soapCall('ValidateEntity', Array) #1 {main} thrown in /www/stealth/tmp/index-soap.php on line 24 I guess my question is.. am I even going about doing this the right way? I know this is a very broad question, but I appreciate any advice you can give me about making this work. Please let me know if you require more detail. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Assign TableView column binding to a specific core-data object in to-many related entity based on se

    - by snown27
    How would I assign a column of a TableView to be a specific entry in a Core Data entity that is linked to the NSArrayController via a to-many relationship? For example Entity: MovieEntity Attributes: title(NSString), releaseDate(NSDate) Relationship: posters<-->> PosterEntity Entity:PosterEntity Attributes: imageLocation(NSURL), default(BOOL) Relationships: movie<<--> MovieEntity So I have a three column table that I want to display the Poster, Title, and Release Date attributes in, but as one movie could potentially have several different style's of posters how do I get the poster column to only show the one that's marked default? Since the rest of the table is defined in Interface Builder I would prefer to keep it that way for the sake of keeping the code as clean as possible, but if this can only be done programmatically then I'm all ears. I just wanted to give preference in case there's more than one way to skin a cat, so to speak.

    Read the article

  • transforming flat php array into multidimensional one based on key value?

    - by PopRocks4344
    I have a flat array that I'm trying to make multidimensional. Basically, I want to find the items that have parents and create a subarray for that parent id. Right now (and this is simplified), it looks like this: Array ( [0] => stdClass Object ( [id] => 1 [parent] => 0 [name ] => Parent1 ) [1] => stdClass Object ( [id] => 7 [parent] => 1 [name] => Child1 ) [2] => stdClass Object ( [id] => 9 [parent] => 1 [name] => Child2 ) [3] => stdClass Object ( [id] => 2 [parent] => 0 [name ] => Parent2 ) [4] => stdClass Object ( [id] => 88 [parent] => 2 [name] => Childof2 ) ) I'm trying to make this: Array ( [0] => stdClass Object ( [id] => 1 [parent] => 0 [name ] => Parent1 [children] => stdClass Object ( [1] => stdClass Object ( [id] => 7 [parent] => 1 [name] => Child1 ) [2] => stdClass Object ( [id] => 9 [parent] => 1 [name] => Child2 ) ) ) [1] => stdClass Object ( [id] => 2 [parent] => 0 [name ] => Parent2 [children] => stdClass Object ( [0] => stdClass Object ( [id] => 88 [parent] => 2 [name] => Childof2 ) ) ) )

    Read the article

  • Using KnockoutJS 2.2.0 & jQuery 1.8.2 remove all bindings from all children of #someDiv

    - by Nukeface
    I'm wanting to delete All bindings (ko.cleanNode) from all child elements of a certain div. Must be a noobie question but I can't figure out how to use jQuery to loop through all childre, grand-children, great-grand-children, etc. whilst having KnockoutJS remove the bindings of all the DOM elements. I do NOT want to remove the elements from the DOM. This is a single page application, therefore the elements are pre-loaded as embedded resources and don't get resend to a client if they were to visit the page again. If a client revisits that part of the application I'll have a function rebind the necessary elements, which currently works fine. Current setup: <html> <head> //loading all resources </head> <body> //load first element using some obscure setup <div id="firsPage" data-role="page"> <div data-role="header">@Global.header</div> <div data-role="fieldcontain"> <label for="firstInput" /> <input id="firstInput some other stuff /> </div> <div data-role="datebox <!-- some settings --> > //creates table using jQuery mobile (lots of (great-)(grand-)children) </div> <div data-role="fieldcontain"> <div id="secondInput"> <div class="checklist"> <ul> <li /> <li /> </ul> </div> </div> </div> </div> //Here the whole thing starts again <div id="secondPage" data-role="page"> <!-- repeat above innerHTML in your mind ;) --> </div> //And here again! and again... </body> The problem I'm having is that bindings of the children don't seem to get "cleaned up" when i use ko.cleanNode($('#firstPage')[0]); Or when I get the Element into a variable and then format it to ko.cleanNode($element). Is there a way to do this? Been staring at it for a good few hours now, so probably overlooking a way too obvious way of doing it... Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Creating a join based on data from other tables...

    - by Workshop Alex
    I'm dealing with a database structure that can be defined as "illogical". It has about 100 different schema's with all different table structures per schema. Only one common factor is a "Version" table in each schema containing about 4 fields. (Thus, there are about 100 Version tables in the database.) There's also another table (view, actually) containing a list of all the schema's in the database that have a version table. I need a stored procedure that walks through all the schema's and selects all data from the Version table, adding the schema name as a fifth field to the result. Basically, this stored procedure is to return a list of all version records per schema. My idea: first walk through the schema list to create one new SQL statements that will JOIN all the schema.version tables into one SQL statement. Then I return the result of that query. How to do this? Or does anyone have a better suggestion? (No, redesigning the structure is NOT an option.)

    Read the article

  • How to delete rows based on comparison from Data Flow Task in an SSIS?

    - by vikasde
    I have a DataFlow task with two OLE DB Source objects. This is the SQL I want to achieve using SSIS: Insert into server2.db.dbo.[table2] (...) Select col1, col2, col3 ... from Server1.db.dbo.[table1] where [table1.col1] not in (Select col5 from server2.db.dbo.[table2] Where ...) I am pretty new to SSIS and not sure how to achieve this. I thought I could do this using the Data Flow task and populating the first source with the data from server1.db.dbo.table1 and the second source with server2.db.dbo.[table2] and then do the conditional check before inserting it into server2.db.dbo.[table2]. I am not sure how to do the conditional check though. Any help is appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Resizing of AS-based Flash app from FireFox vs. IE...

    - by bferster
    I have put in some controls to allow users to resize my Flash app via Javascript: document.getElementById("flashApp").height*=1.25; document.getElementById("flashApp").width*=1.25; This works great in IE/Safari, but is ignored in Firefox. I know it's talking the the flash app and gets and sets the height/width vars ok, but the same code run in FireFox ignores the scaling. (It's not the DOC spec issue) Any thoughts? Bill

    Read the article

  • Javascript match part of url, if statement based on result.

    - by nick
    Here is an example of the url i'm trying to match: http://store.mywebsite.com/folder-1/folder-2/item3423434.aspx What im trying to match is http: //store.mywebsite.com/folder-1 except that "folder-1" will always be a different value. I can't figure out how to write an if statement for this: Example (pseudo-code) if(url contains http://store.mywebsite.com/folder-1) do this else if (url contains http://store.mywebsite.com/folder-2) do something else etc

    Read the article

  • In SQL How do I copy values from one table to another based on another field's value?

    - by Joshua1729
    Okay I have two tables VOUCHERT with the following fields ACTIVATIONCODE SERIALNUMBER VOUCHERDATADBID UNAVAILABLEAT UNAVAILABLEOPERATORDBID AVAILABLEAT AVAILABLEOPERATORDBID ACTIVATIONCODENEW EXT1 EXT2 EXT3 DENOMINATION -- I added this column into the table. and the second table is VOUCHERDATAT with the following fields VOUCHERDATADBID BATCHID VALUE CURRENCY VOUCHERGROUP EXPIRYDATE AGENT EXT1 EXT2 EXT3 What I want to do is copy the corresponding VALUE from VOUCHERDATAT and put it into DENOMINATION of VOUCHERT. The linking between the two is VOUCHERDATADBID. How do I go about it? It is not a 1:1 mapping. What I mean is there may be 1000 SERIALNUMBERS with a same VOUCHERDATADBID. And that VOUCHERDATADBID has only entry in VOUCHERDATAT, hence one value. Therefore, all serial numbers belonging to a certain VOUCHERDATADBID will have the same value. Will JOINS work? What type of JOIN should I use? Or is UPDATE table the way to go? Thanks for the help !!

    Read the article

  • How do I stop a jquery animation based on CSS values?

    - by kevn
    So, I have two divs: #div1 and #div2. I want '#div2' to disappear when '#div1' has the CSS value: top = 0px. Here is the CSS: #div1 { top: 0px; } #div2 { display: block; } if ( $('#div1').css('top') == '0px' ) { $("#div2").hide(); } else { $("div2").fadeIn(); } $("div2").click(function(){ $("#div1").animate({top:"+=315px"}, "slow"); }); The problem I am running into is that I'm changing that CSS value (for #div1) via Javascript and for this reason, my js doesn't acknowledge the change and doesn't make the div disappear (I think). Is there any way to make #div2 disappear when #div1's CSS property top = 0 and reappear whenever it is changed? Or is there a better way to implement this?

    Read the article

  • How to access device settings on a S60 symbian based mobile phone?

    - by TheRHCP
    Hello everyone, I recently bought a Sony Ericsson mobile phone which embeds Symbian S60 and I would like to add a missing feature myself. In fact I cannot actually disable Internet connection in an easy way when roaming, which cost me a lot of money last time I moved away ... So I would like to develop a little application that would just replace the actual Internet configuration with a fake configuration to avoid auto-connections. So what I would like to know is how can I access programmatically to my phone settings? I believe that this is possible but I do not really have a clue where to start. I know that Sony Ericsson provides a SDK to run Java applications on its customised JVM but Symbian is also providing a SDK to develop applications for S60 devices in many languages. The real questions is which SDK will provide an API able to access phone settings. This is not well documented so I am asking this question with the hope that someone here already had experience with development for Sony Ericsson/Symbian devices. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Change the image height and width based on the scale?

    - by user281947
    I want to resize the image height and width after setting its scale, below is what i am doing : <Image x:Name="img" Source="sii.PNG" > <Image.RenderTransform> <ScaleTransform x:Name="scale" /> </Image.RenderTransform> </Image> below is the cs code : void Slider_ValueChanged(object sender, RoutedPropertyChangedEventArgs<double> e) { scale.ScaleX = scale.ScaleY =e.NewValue; //here i have to change the height and width of an image }

    Read the article

  • Persisting object changes from child form to parent form based on button press.

    - by Shyran
    I have created a form that is used for both adding and editing a custom object. Which mode the form takes is provided by an enum value passed from the calling code. I also pass in an object of the custom type. All of my controls at data bound to the specific properties of the custom object. When the form is in Add mode, this works great as when the controls are updated with data, the underlying object is as well. However, in Edit mode, I keep two variables of the custom object supplied by the calling code, the original, and a temporary one made through deep copying. The controls are then bound to the temporary copy, this makes it easy to discard the changes if the user clicks the Cancel button. What I want to know is how to persist those changes back to the original object if the user clicks the OK button, since there is now a disconnect because of the deep copying. I am trying to avoid implementing a internal property on the Add/Edit form if I can. Below is an example of my code: public AddEditCustomerDialog(Customer customer, DialogMode mode) { InitializeComponent(); InitializeCustomer(customer, mode); } private void InitializeCustomer(Customer customer, DialogMode mode) { this.customer = customer; if (mode == DialogMode.Edit) { this.Text = "Edit Customer"; this.tempCustomer = ObjectCopyHelper.DeepCopy(this.customer); this.customerListBindingSource.DataSource = this.tempCustomer; this.phoneListBindingSource.DataSource = this.tempCustomer.PhoneList; } else { this.customerListBindingSource.DataSource = this.customer; this.phoneListBindingSource.DataSource = this.customer.PhoneList; } }

    Read the article

  • possible to use jquery to skip to a certain part of a page, based on its div class?

    - by Brad
    I want a link that scrolls the page to the start of the <div class="content-body"> The same functionality as a: <a href="#maincontent">Skip</a>, and placing <a name="maincontent"></a> right next to <div class="content-body"> I am seeing if it is possible via jQuery, and want to know if I would run into any problems down the road using that method (besides the user having javascript disabled).

    Read the article

  • Under Windows CE, how can I check which RAM based DLLs are loaded in virtual memory space?

    - by Michal Drozdowicz
    I have a problem with loading a DLL under Windows Mobile 5.0. I'm pretty confident that this is caused by running out of the application virtual memory (the 32 MB slot of the process, as explained in Windows CE .NET Advanced Memory Management). I'm looking for a way to actually make sure that this is the issue and investigate whether my efforts bring expected results. Do you know of a way to check the contents of the virtual memory application slot? Any applications that can help me with this task?

    Read the article

  • How to build this encryption system that allows multiple users/objects.

    - by Patrick
    Hello! I am trying to figure out how to create an optimal solution for my project. I made this simple picture in Photoshop to try to illustrate the problem and how i want it (if possible). Illustrative image Ill also try to explain it based on the picture. First off we have a couple of objects to the left, these objects all get encrypted with their own encryption key (EKey on the picture) and then stored in the database. On the other side we have different users placed into roles (one user can be in a lot of roles) and the roles are associated with different objects. So one person only has access the to the objects that the role provides. So for instance Role A might have access to Object A and B. Role B have access only to Object C and Role C have access to all objects. Nothing strange in that, right? Different roles have different objects that they can access. Now to the problem part. Each user has to login with his/her username/password and then he/she gets access to the objects that his/her roles provide. All the objects are encrypted so she needs to get a decryption key somehow. I don't want to store the encryption key as a text string on the server. It should be, if possible, decrypted using the users password (along with the role) or similar. That way you have to be a user on the server in order to decrypt an object an to work with it. I was thinking about making a public/private key encryption system, but i am kinda stuck on how to give the different users the decryption key to the objects. Since i need to be able to move users to and from roles, add new users, add new roles and create/delete objects. There will be one administrator that then adds some data to allow the users in that role to get the decryption key to decrypt the object. Nothing is static and i am trying to get a picture of how this can be built or if there is a far better solution. The only criteria are: -Encrypted objects. -Decryption key should not be stored as text. -Different users have access to different objects. -Does NOT have to have roles.

    Read the article

  • How to control the state of the buttons to be in present based on an event happened in a Silverlight app?

    - by vladc77
    I am trying to avoid building two buttons when I really need one. In my Silverlight app scenarios, I have few grids with a different content and buttons that control the visibility of these grids. I need to be able to show a different visual for a button when its content grid is visible. I can control states such as MouseOver and Pressed and more with visual state manage. However, I am not sure how to achieve this functionality with. I also can place an image on top of the button and switch the visibility of both but it is not perfect for what I need. I am wondering if there is any way to achieve this behavior. Any ideas are highly appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Is it bad practice to select upstream servers based upon the HTTP method?

    - by PartlyCloudy
    I'm wondering if it is bad practice to have a reverse proxy that selects the upstream server depending on the HTTP method used? The background is that I have an abitrary web server that handles POST requests with some logic behind. The same resources also contain static content, that can be retrieved using GET. After some benchmarking I realized that nginx would handle the static content way faster than my abitrary web server doing this. I checked the option to forward incoming requests internally using nginx, which is feasible. But this would lead to the fact that different servers would serve a distinct resource, only depending on issuing a GET or POST, including different header fields.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158  | Next Page >