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• Regex for url formatting (www.domain.tld to anchors)

  - by Kristaps

  Hi. I'm currently developing a little browser-based Twitter widget. Currently, I'm stuck with getting the URLs to work. I'm kinda newbie, when it comes to regex (I know, how to get parts of a string, but this one – tough one). So, I need a regex that would search/replace www.domain.tld -> <a href="http://www.domain.tld">http://www.domain.tld</a> With/without http://, preferably. Any advice is welcome. Thanks.

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• Windows Azure SDK - ASPProviders example

  - by David

  Hi, since the new SDK 1.1 is missing the tutorial for "ASPProviders", i am currently asking myself how i would implement a "azure session state provider" ( this is the path in the "old" SDK: C:\Program Files\Windows Azure SDK\v1.0\Samples\AspProviders ) Related threads: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1023108/how-does-microsoft-azure-handle-session-state http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/windowsazure/thread/2d1340ed-0ad0-456a-b069-aa6b85672102/ Has anyone an idea or even the old example project and could post some snippets of the config here?

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• How to get JSON back from HTTP POST Request (to another domain)

  - by roman m

  I'm trying to use the API on a website, here's the part of the manual: Authenticated Sessions (taken from here) To create an authenticated session, you need to request an authToken from the '/auth' API resource. URL: http://stage.amee.com/auth (this is not my domain) Method: POST Request format: application/x-www-form-urlencoded Response format: application/xml, application/json Response code: 200 OK Response body: Details of the authenticated user, including API version. Extra data: "authToken" cookie and header, containing the authentication token that should be used for subsequent calls. Parameters: username / password Example Request POST /auth HTTP/1.1 Accept: application/xml Content-Type: application/x-www-form-urlencoded username=my_username&password=my_password Response HTTP/1.1 200 OK Set-Cookie: authToken=1KVARbypAjxLGViZ0Cg+UskZEHmqVkhx/Pm...; authToken: 1KVARbypAjxLGViZ0Cg+UskZEHmqVkhx/PmEvzkPGp...== Content-Type: application/xml; charset=UTF-8 QUESTION: How do I get that to work? I tried jQuery, but it seems to have problem with XSS. Actual code snippet would be greatly appreciated. p.s. All I was looking for was WebClient class in C#

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• Is there a way in Linux to update the user/group properties without having to login again?

  - by Gubatron

  After I edit /etc/group and I add a user to groups it didn't belong to, the user will not be able to use it's newly acquired privileges unless it starts a new session. Is there a command to refresh user/group properties in an ongoing session?

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• Setting up a SQL server outside the domain

  - by Ben

  Hi, im very new to this. I've set up an account "SQLBOX" thats on the a network, but not connected to the domain. I have installed an instance of SQL Server 2008 and am trying to connect to it from another machine on the network but am getting "Cannot connect to "SQLBOX"". From the "SQLBOX" i can connect to sqlservers on the domain, but not vice-versa. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Sorry if the description isn't great. EDIT I can ping the box from a machine on the domain

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• AJAX, Subdomains and the 200 OK response.

  - by b. e. hollenbeck

  A non-hypothetical but abstracted situation: I have a domain www.foo.com, from which I'm making an AJAX POST to beta.foo.com. Examining the XHR object, I see a response header of 200 OK, but no response text - I even get a response 12B long, which is the exact response (a 12-character string) that I'm expecting - but the response text is blank. If this is a cross-domain issue, why am I getting 200 OK, and better yet - why am I seeing the PHP functions fire on the beta.foo.com side - yet getting no response?

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• Map a domain to an MVC area

  - by Simon_Weaver

  Anybody got any experience in mapping a domain to an MVC area? Here's our situation: Old system (still active but will soon redirect to new store): www.example.com - our main site where we send traffic store.example.com - our store site which is a completely separate site that is indexed in google New system: www.example.com - same site as before www.example.com/store - new store site - built in an ASP.NET MVC area Because store is a separate domain google gives it a separate entry in the search results. I'd like to keep this benefit in future but wondering whether or not there is a good way to map a domain (store.example.com) to the MVC area or if its just going to be more trouble than its worth. PS. I'm not trying to keep existing indexing - its a completely separate store so thats not possible. I just want to redirect to the corresponding page in the new store. I'm just trying not to lose the benefit of two domains for SEO purposes.

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• What's the topmost iframe in the same domain?

  - by Jakob Stoeck

  How can I get the topmost iframe which is in the same domain, i.e. iframe level 1 example.org iframe level 2 example.org iframe level 2 example.org iframe level 3 example.org <-- would give me iframe level 1 iframe level 1 other-example.org iframe level 2 example.org iframe level 2 example.org iframe level 3 example.org <-- would give me iframe level 2 iframe level 1 other-example.org iframe level 2 example.org iframe level 2 example.org <-- would give me iframe level 2 (this) I need it because I have a website which should work in an iframe of another domain and stand-alone. In this website there are scripts which depend on window.top which shouldn't be top but the topmost iframe in the same domain.

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• translating specifications into query predicates

  - by Jeroen

  I'm trying to find a nice and elegant way to query database content based on DDD "specifications". In domain driven design, a specification is used to check if some object, also known as the candidate, is compliant to a (domain specific) requirement. For example, the specification 'IsTaskDone' goes like: class IsTaskDone extends Specification<Task> { boolean isSatisfiedBy(Task candidate) { return candidate.isDone(); } } The above specification can be used for many purposes, e.g. it can be used to validate if a task has been completed, or to filter all completed tasks from a collection. However, I want to re-use this, nice, domain related specification to query on the database. Of course, the easiest solution would be to retrieve all entities of our desired type from the database, and filter that list in-memory by looping and removing non-matching entities. But clearly that would not be optimal for performance, especially when the entity count in our db increases. Proposal So my idea is to create a 'ConversionManager' that translates my specification into a persistence technique specific criteria, think of the JPA predicate class. The services looks as follows: public interface JpaSpecificationConversionManager { <T> Predicate getPredicateFor(Specification<T> specification, Root<T> root, CriteriaQuery<?> cq, CriteriaBuilder cb); JpaSpecificationConversionManager registerConverter(JpaSpecificationConverter<?, ?> converter); } By using our manager, the users can register their own conversion logic, isolating the domain related specification from persistence specific logic. To minimize the configuration of our manager, I want to use annotations on my converter classes, allowing the manager to automatically register those converters. JPA repository implementations could then use my manager, via dependency injection, to offer a find by specification method. Providing a find by specification should drastically reduce the number of methods on our repository interface. In theory, this all sounds decent, but I feel like I'm missing something critical. What do you guys think of my proposal, does it comply to the DDD way of thinking? Or is there already a framework that does something identical to what I just described?

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• How do I update with a newly-created detached entity using NHibernate?

  - by Daniel T.

  Explanation: Let's say I have an object graph that's nested several levels deep and each entity has a bi-directional relationship with each other. A -> B -> C -> D -> E Or in other words, A has a collection of B and B has a reference back to A, and B has a collection of C and C has a reference back to B, etc... Now let's say I want to edit some data for an instance ofC. In Winforms, I would use something like this: var instanceOfC; using (var session = SessionFactory.OpenSession()) { // get the instance of C with Id = 3 instanceOfC = session.Linq<C>().Where(x => x.Id == 3); } SendToUIAndLetUserUpdateData(instanceOfC); using (var session = SessionFactory.OpenSession()) { // re-attach the detached entity and update it session.Update(instanceOfC); } In plain English, we grab a persistent instance out of the database, detach it, give it to the UI layer for editing, then re-attach it and save it back to the database. Problem: This works fine for Winform applications because we're using the same entity all throughout, the only difference being that it goes from persistent to detached to persistent again. The problem occurs when I'm using a web service and a browser, sending over JSON data. In this case, the data that comes back is no longer a detached entity, but rather a transient one that just happens to have the same ID as the persistent one. If I use this entity to update, it will wipe out the relationship to B and D unless I sent the entire object graph over to the UI and got it back in one piece. Question: My question is, how do I serialize detached entities over the web, receive them back, and save them, while preserving any relationships that I didn't explicitly change? I know about ISession.SaveOrUpdateCopy and ISession.Merge() (they seem to do the same thing?), but this will still wipe out the relationships if I don't explicitly set them. I could copy the fields from the transient entity to the persistent entity one by one, but this doesn't work too well when it comes to relationships and I'd have to handle version comparisons manually.

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• Can NHibernate Criteria Pull From Cache

  - by Aaron Smith

  I'm loading a lot of data into the database with NHibernate. As I'm inserting, I want to check for duplicates. I call saveorupdate in each loop without flushing the session. Is there a way to query this session for duplicates without flushing?

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• ZendSession giving fatal error when trying to include...

  - by Ronedog

  I'm getting an error when trying to include Session.php for the ZendFramework. Here's how I include it: $ZEND_LIBRARY_PATH = "path_to_zend_library_folder"; set_include_path( get_include_path() . PATH_SEPARATOR . $ZEND_LIBRARY_PATH); include_once '../classes/zend/library/zend/Session.php'; $account_info = new Zend_Session_Namespace('account'); The file gets included ok, but I get this error: Cannot redeclare class Zend_Session How can I get this to work?

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• cleaning up expired sessions with a custom SessionStateStoreProvider

  - by CountCet

  I'm implementing my own SessionStateStoreProvider with a schemaless database. It's a little hard to tell from the documentation but it seems as though I will have to have a separate process for cleaning up expired sessions since the database will not have a way to notify the session state store that a session has expired. Am I wrong about this? I haven't seen an alternative example for overriding the SetItemExpireCallback method.

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• HQL updates and domain objects

  - by CaptainAwesomePants

  I have what may be a pretty elementary Hibernate question. Do HQL (and/or Criteria) update queries cause updates to live domain objects? And do they automatically flush now-invalid domain objects from the first-level cache? Example: Player playerReference1 = session.get(Player.class,1); session.createQuery("update players set gold = 100").executeUpdate(); //Question #1 -- does playerReference1.getGold() now return 100? Player playerReference2 = session.get(Player.class,1); //Question #2 -- does playerReference2.getGold() return 100, or is it the same exact object? Should I make a practice of evicting all objects that are affected by an HQL update if there's a chance some code will need it later?

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• ASP.NET MVC Url Masking/Rewriting

  - by Dan Appleyard

  Let us say I have a url of subdomain.domain.com. Is there a way in ASP.NET MVC to have a url of say otherdomain.com/gotothesubdomain that takes you to subdomain.domain.com? I know that a simple redirect could do it, but I want the url to stay as otherdomain.com/gotothesubdomain. Any advice would be greatly appreciated and thanks!

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• Access sql server without directly permission in domain from ASP.NET

  - by Yongwei Xing

  Hi all Here is the situation. All the machines and users are in the same domain.We are in a domain enviroment. There are some sql server 2005/2008 storing data. There is a ASP.NET site in the domain using the Window Authentication. Now, we need read the data from the sql server and display them using SqlDataSource and GridView. But most of users do not have the direct permission to access the database. Is there any solution to get the data from database and display them on the site without granting users permission? Best Regards,

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• Entity Framework 4 with Existing Domain Model

  - by ace

  Hi, Im currently looking at migrating from fluent nHibernate to ADO.Net Entity Framework 4. I have a project containing the domain model (pocos) which I was using for nHibernate mappings. Ive read in blogs that it is possible to use my existing domain model with EF4 but ive seen no examples of it. Ive seen examples of T4 code generation with EF4 but havent come accross an example which shows how to use existing domain model objects with EF4. Im a newby with EF4 and would like to see some samples on how to get this done. Thanks Aiyaz

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• RewriteRule - Doesn't work on live site - subfolder to new domain

  - by eb_Dev

  I have the following rule on my local dev site and it works fine: RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^localhost$ RewriteRule ^subdomains/example.com(.*) http://www.example.com$1 [R=301,L] However when I change it to: RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www.domain.com$ RewriteRule ^subdomains/example.com(.*) http://www.example.com$1 [R=301,L] and upload it to my live site it doesn't work, if i change the rule to: RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www.domain.com$ RewriteRule ^subdomains/(.*) http://www.example.com$1 [R=301,L] the rule functions as expected and directs an url beginning with www.domain.com/subdomains/ to www.example.com/. Does anyone know what is going on here? Thanks for you help.

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• Using htaccess redirect all files to another domain but exclude the root domain.

  - by Shawn

  Recently, I want to restructure and redesign my website, my old website located at www.example.com, there are lots of blog posts under this domain, like: www.example.com/post1 www.example.com/post2 www.example.com/post3 ... I can redirect all those posts to another sub domain points in another folder (not sub folder), (if I put all those posts in a sub folder, it will recursive the subfolder name) , anyway, it works for me by using the code below: RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://pre.example.com/$1 [L,R=301] But there is one things I want to do is not redirect the main domain, only all the posts. RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/blog/ # the new blog # I tried below #RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/$ #RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^www.example.com$ RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://pre.example.com/$1 [L,R=301] Is it possible I can do that? Thx.

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• Redirect to https login page

  - by user50622

  I have a site that has a mix of http and https pages. Under the root of the site, one folder has all the http pages and another has all the https pages. Login is over https and sends the user to the other pages. When a session expires the forms authentication redirects to the Login page but the browser uses http and the user gets a 403 error. Is there any way to override the session timeout to send it to https?

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• Domain object validation vs view model validation

  - by Brendan Vogt

  I am using ASP.NET MVC 3 and I am using FluentValidation to validate my view models. I am just a little concerned that I might not be on the correct track. As far as what I know, model validation should be done on the domain object. Now with MVC you might have multiple view models that are similar that needs validation. What happens if a property from a domain object occurs in more than one view model? Now you are validating the same property twice, and they might not even be in sync. So if I have a User domain object then I would like to do validation on this object. Now what happens if I have UserAViewModel and UserBViewModel, so now it is multiple validations that needs to be done. The scenario above is just an example, so please don't critise on it.

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• Weblogic 10.3 domain unpacking problem

  - by MarkoU

  Hi, I'm trying to unpack a Weblogic 10.3 domain on one of our production servers (SunOS 5.10), but get the following error: $ /opt/bea10/wlserver_10.3/common/bin/unpack.sh -template=/tmp/CM.jar -domain=/opt/bea10/user_projects/CM Error: failed to create the temporary script file Assuming that this is a priviledge problem: where actually the unpack utility tries to create its temporary script files? The unpack script calls a Java class com.bea.plateng.domain.script.Unpacker, so reading the script itself does not reveal the location. I need to ask the sysadmin for the priviledges, so an exact directory location is needed. Of course, the error message is so vague that this might also be some other issue. Any ideas? BR, Marko P.S. Sorry for cross-posting. I tried this question also on Serverfault but got no replies. Perhaps programmers (like myself) do this kind of stuff anyway.

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• Passing JS variable from child Iframe to parent JSP on cross sub domain

  - by Tarun

  I am stuck at 1 location and need some help. I created two subdomains on apache tomcat server like domain1.localhost.com and domain2.localhost.com in server.xml. On domain1 I have a JSP that includes iFrame (hosted on domain2). How can we pass the JS variable from child Iframe to parent JSP and store it in local variable of JSP hosted on domain1.localhost.com? I tried defining document.domain = "localhost" on both JSP but didn't work. Even parent DOM window is also not available in child iFrame (on sub-domain) because of obvious cross domain policies. Any help would be highly appreciated.

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• Getting all pdf files from a domain (for example *.adomain.com)

  - by Zack

  I need to download all pdf files from a certain domain. There are about 6000 pdf on that domain and most of them don't have an html link (either they have removed the link or they never put one in the first place). I know there are about 6000 files because I'm googling: filetype:pdf site:*.adomain.com However, Google lists only the first 1000 results. I believe there are two ways to achieve this: a) Use Google. However, how I can get all 6000 results from Google? Maybe a scraper? (tried scroogle, no luck) b) Skip Google and search directly on domain for pdf files. How do I do that when most them are not linked?

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• When does logic belong in the Business Object/Entity, and when does it belong in a Service?

  - by Casey

  In trying to understand Domain Driven Design I keep returning to a question that I can't seem to definitively answer. How do you determine what logic belongs to a Domain entity, and what logic belongs to a Domain Service? Example: We have an Order class for an online store. This class is an entity and an aggregate root (it contains OrderItems). Public Class Order:IOrder { Private List<IOrderItem> OrderItems Public Order(List<IOrderItem>) { OrderItems = List<IOrderItem> } Public Decimal CalculateTotalItemWeight() //This logic seems to belong in the entity. { Decimal TotalWeight = 0 foreach(IOrderItem OrderItem in OrderItems) { TotalWeight += OrderItem.Weight } return TotalWeight } } I think most people would agree that CalculateTotalItemWeight belongs on the entity. However, at some point we have to ship this order to the customer. To accomplish this we need to do two things: 1) Determine the postage rate necessary to ship this order. 2) Print a shipping label after determining the postage rate. Both of these actions will require dependencies that are outside the Order entity, such as an external webservice to retrieve postage rates. How should we accomplish these two things? I see a few options: 1) Code the logic directly in the domain entity, like CalculateTotalItemWeight. We then call: Order.GetPostageRate Order.PrintLabel 2) Put the logic in a service that accepts IOrder. We then call: PostageService.GetPostageRate(Order) PrintService.PrintLabel(Order) 3) Create a class for each action that operates on an Order, and pass an instance of that class to the Order through Constructor Injection (this is a variation of option 1 but allows reuse of the RateRetriever and LabelPrinter classes): Public Class Order:IOrder { Private List<IOrderItem> OrderItems Private RateRetriever _Retriever Private LabelPrinter _Printer Public Order(List<IOrderItem>, RateRetriever Retriever, LabelPrinter Printer) { OrderItems = List<IOrderItem> _Retriever = Retriever _Printer = Printer } Public Decimal GetPostageRate { _Retriever.GetPostageRate(this) } Public void PrintLabel { _Printer.PrintLabel(this) } } Which one of these methods do you choose for this logic, if any? What is the reasoning behind your choice? Most importantly, is there a set of guidelines that led you to your choice?

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