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• Using FluentNHibernate + SQLite with .Net4?

  - by stiank81

  I have a WPF application running with .Net3.5 using FluentNHibernate, and all works fine. When I upgraded to VS2010 I ran into some odd problems, but after changing to use x64 variant of SQLite it worked fine again. Now I want to change to use .Net4, but this has turned into a more painful experience then I expected.. When calling FluentConfiguration.BuildConfiguration I get an exception thrown: FluentConfigurationException unhandled An invalid or incomplete configuration was used while creating a SessionFactory. Check PotentialReasons collection, and InnerException for more detail The inner exception gives us more information: Message = "Could not create the driver from NHibernate.Driver.SQLite20Driver, NHibernate, Version=2.1.2.4000, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=aa95f207798dfdb4." It has an InnerException again: Exception has been thrown by the target of an invocation. Which again has an InnerException: The IDbCommand and IDbConnection implementation in the assembly System.Data.SQLite could not be found. Ensure that the assembly System.Data.SQLite is located in the application directory or in the Global Assembly Cache. If the assembly is in the GAC, use element in the application configuration file to specify the full name of the assembly. Now - to me it sounds like it doesn't find System.Data.SQLite.dll, but I can't understand this. Everywhere this is referenced I have "Copy Local", and I have verified that it is in every build folder for projects using SQLite. I have also copied it manually to every Debug folder of the solution - without luck. Notes: This exact same code worked just fine before I upgraded to .Net4. I did see some x64 x86 mismatch problems earlier, but I have switched to use x86 as the target platform and for all referenced dlls. I have verified that all files in the Debug-folder are x86. I have tried the precompiled Fluent dlls, I have tried compiling myself, and I have compiled my own version of Fluent using .Net4. I see that there are also others that have seen this problem, but I haven't really seen any solution yet. After @devio's answer I tried adding a reference to the SQLite dll. This didn't change anything, but I hope I made it right though.. This is what I added to the root node of the app.config file: <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <qualifyAssembly partialName="System.Data.SQLite" fullName="System.Data.SQLite, Version=1.0.60.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=db937bc2d44ff139" /> </assemblyBinding> </runtime> Anyone out there using Fluent with .Net4 and SQLite successfully? Help! I'm lost...

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• iPhone UIImage upload to web service

  - by user347635

  Hi all, I worked on this for several hours today and I'm pretty close to a solution but clearly need some help from someone who's pulled this off. I'm trying to post an image to a web service from the iPhone. I'll post the code first then explain everything I've tried: NSData *imageData = UIImageJPEGRepresentation(barCodePic, .9); NSString *soapMsg = [NSString stringWithFormat: @"<?xml version=\"1.0\" encoding=\"utf-8\"?><soap:Envelope xmlns:xsi=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance\" xmlns:xsd=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema\" xmlns:soap=\"http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/\"><soap:Body><WriteImage xmlns=\"http://myserver/imagewebservice/\"><ImgIn>%@</ImgIn></WriteImage></soap:Body></soap:Envelope>", [NSData dataWithData:imageData] ]; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:@"http://myserver/imagewebservice/service1.asmx"]; NSMutableURLRequest *req = [NSMutableURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; NSString *msgLength = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", [soapMsg length]]; [req addValue:@"text/xml; charset=utf-8" forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Type"]; [req addValue:@"http://myserver/imagewebservice/WriteImage" forHTTPHeaderField:@"SOAPAction"]; [req addValue:msgLength forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Length"]; [req setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; [req setHTTPBody: [soapMsg dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; conn = [[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:req delegate:self]; if (conn) { webData = [[NSMutableData data] retain]; } First thing, this code works fine for anything but an image. The web service is running on my local network and I can change the source code at will and if I change the "ImgIn" parameter to a string and pass a string in, everything works fine, I get a return value no problem. So there are no connectivity issues at all, I'm able to call and get data from this web service on this server no problems. But I need to upload an image to this web service via the ImgIn parameter, so the above code is my best shot so far. I also have didReceiveResponse, didReceiveData, didFailWithError, etc all being handled. The above code fires off didRecieveResponse every time. However didReceiveData is never fired and it's like the web service itself never even runs. When I debug the web service itself, it runs and debugs fine when I use a string parameter, but with the image parameter, it never even debugs when I call it. It's almost like the ImgIn parameter is too long (it's huge when I output it to the screen) and the web service just chokes on it. I've read about having to encode to Base64 when using this method, but I can't find any good links on how that's done. If that's what I'm doing wrong, can you PLEASE provide code as to how to do this, not just "you need to use Base64", I'd really appreciate it as I can find almost nothing on how to implement this with an example. Other than that, I'm kind of lost, it seems like I'm doing everything else right. Please help! Thanks

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• Multi-part question about multi-threading, locks and multi-core processors (multi ^ 3)

  - by MusiGenesis

  I have a program with two methods. The first method takes two arrays as parameters, and performs an operation in which values from one array are conditionally written into the other, like so: void Blend(int[] dest, int[] src, int offset) { for (int i = 0; i < src.Length; i++) { int rdr = dest[i + offset]; dest[i + offset] = src[i] > rdr? src[i] : rdr; } } The second method creates two separate sets of int arrays and iterates through them such that each array of one set is Blended with each array from the other set, like so: void CrossBlend() { int[][] set1 = new int[150][75000]; // we'll pretend this actually compiles int[][] set2 = new int[25][10000]; // we'll pretend this actually compiles for (int i1 = 0; i1 < set1.Length; i1++) { for (int i2 = 0; i2 < set2.Length; i2++) { Blend(set1[i1], set2[i2], 0); // or any offset, doesn't matter } } } First question: Since this apporoach is an obvious candidate for parallelization, is it intrinsically thread-safe? It seems like no, since I can conceive a scenario (unlikely, I think) where one thread's changes are lost because a different threads ~simultaneous operation. If no, would this: void Blend(int[] dest, int[] src, int offset) { lock (dest) { for (int i = 0; i < src.Length; i++) { int rdr = dest[i + offset]; dest[i + offset] = src[i] > rdr? src[i] : rdr; } } } be an effective fix? Second question: If so, what would be the likely performance cost of using locks like this? I assume that with something like this, if a thread attempts to lock a destination array that is currently locked by another thread, the first thread would block until the lock was released instead of continuing to process something. Also, how much time does it actually take to acquire a lock? Nanosecond scale, or worse than that? Would this be a major issue in something like this? Third question: How would I best approach this problem in a multi-threaded way that would take advantage of multi-core processors (and this is based on the potentially wrong assumption that a multi-threaded solution would not speed up this operation on a single core processor)? I'm guessing that I would want to have one thread running per core, but I don't know if that's true.

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• Visual Studio Express 2012 debug mode doesn't work

  - by user2350086

  I have a project in Visual Studio that I have been working on for a while, and I have used the debugger extensively. Recently I changed some settings and I have lost the ability to stop the program and step through code. I can't figure out what I had changed that might have affected this. If I put a breakpoint in my code and try to have the program stop there, it doesn't. The break point shows up white with a red outline. If I hover the mouse over it, it says "The breakpoint will not currently be hit. No executable code of the debugger's target code type is associated with this line. Possible causes include: conditional compilation, compiler optimizations, or the target architecture of this line is not supported by the current debugger code type." I know for a fact that the program executes the code where the breakpoint is because I put the breakpoint in the beginning of the InitializeComponent method. The program displays the window fine, but does not stop at the breakpoint. Yes, I am running in debug mode. It seems as though there is a disconnect between the compiled code and the source code displayed. Does anyone know what that would be, or know which compiler settings I should check to re-enable debugging? Here are the compiler options: /GS /analyze- /W3 /Zc:wchar_t /I"D:\dev\libcurl-7.19.3-win32-ssl-msvc\include" /Zi /Od /sdl /Fd"Debug\vc110.pdb" /fp:precise /D "WIN32" /D "_DEBUG" /D "_UNICODE" /D "UNICODE" /errorReport:prompt /WX- /Zc:forScope /Oy- /clr /FU"C:\Program Files (x86)\Reference Assemblies\Microsoft\Framework.NETFramework\v4.5\mscorlib.dll" /FU"C:\Program Files (x86)\Reference Assemblies\Microsoft\Framework.NETFramework\v4.5\System.Data.dll" /FU"C:\Program Files (x86)\Reference Assemblies\Microsoft\Framework.NETFramework\v4.5\System.dll" /FU"C:\Program Files (x86)\Reference Assemblies\Microsoft\Framework.NETFramework\v4.5\System.Drawing.dll" /FU"C:\Program Files (x86)\Reference Assemblies\Microsoft\Framework.NETFramework\v4.5\System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization.dll" /FU"C:\Program Files (x86)\Reference Assemblies\Microsoft\Framework.NETFramework\v4.5\System.Windows.Forms.dll" /FU"C:\Program Files (x86)\Reference Assemblies\Microsoft\Framework.NETFramework\v4.5\System.Xml.dll" /MDd /Fa"Debug\" /EHa /nologo /Fo"Debug\" /Fp"Debug\Prog.pch" The linker options are: /OUT:"D:\dev\Prog\Debug\Prog.exe" /MANIFEST /NXCOMPAT /PDB:"D:\dev\Prog\Debug\Prog.pdb" /DYNAMICBASE "curllib.lib" "winmm.lib" "kernel32.lib" "user32.lib" "gdi32.lib" "winspool.lib" "comdlg32.lib" "advapi32.lib" "shell32.lib" "ole32.lib" "oleaut32.lib" "uuid.lib" "odbc32.lib" "odbccp32.lib" /FIXED:NO /DEBUG /MACHINE:X86 /ENTRY:"Main" /INCREMENTAL /PGD:"D:\dev\Prog\Debug\Prog.pgd" /SUBSYSTEM:WINDOWS /MANIFESTUAC:"level='asInvoker' uiAccess='false'" /ManifestFile:"Debug\Prog.exe.intermediate.manifest" /ERRORREPORT:PROMPT /NOLOGO /LIBPATH:"D:\dev\libcurl-7.19.3-win32-ssl-msvc\lib\Debug" /ASSEMBLYDEBUG /TLBID:1

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• Securing a license key with RSA key.

  - by Jesse Knott

  Hello, it's late, I'm tired, and probably being quite dense.... I have written an application that I need to secure so it will only run on machines that I generate a key for. What I am doing for now is getting the BIOS serial number and generating a hash from that, I then am encrypting it using a XML RSA private key. I then sign the XML to ensure that it is not tampered with. I am trying to package the public key to decrypt and verify the signature with, but every time I try to execute the code as a different user than the one that generated the signature I get a failure on the signature. Most of my code is modified from sample code I have found since I am not as familiar with RSA encryption as I would like to be. Below is the code I was using and the code I thought I needed to use to get this working right... Any feedback would be greatly appreciated as I am quite lost at this point the original code I was working with was this, this code works fine as long as the user launching the program is the same one that signed the document originally... CspParameters cspParams = new CspParameters(); cspParams.KeyContainerName = "XML_DSIG_RSA_KEY"; cspParams.Flags = CspProviderFlags.UseMachineKeyStore; // Create a new RSA signing key and save it in the container. RSACryptoServiceProvider rsaKey = new RSACryptoServiceProvider(cspParams) { PersistKeyInCsp = true, }; This code is what I believe I should be doing but it's failing to verify the signature no matter what I do, regardless if it's the same user or a different one... RSACryptoServiceProvider rsaKey = new RSACryptoServiceProvider(); //Load the private key from xml file XmlDocument xmlPrivateKey = new XmlDocument(); xmlPrivateKey.Load("KeyPriv.xml"); rsaKey.FromXmlString(xmlPrivateKey.InnerXml); I believe this to have something to do with the key container name (Being a real dumbass here please excuse me) I am quite certain that this is the line that is both causing it to work in the first case and preventing it from working in the second case.... cspParams.KeyContainerName = "XML_DSIG_RSA_KEY"; Is there a way for me to sign/encrypt the XML with a private key when the application license is generated and then drop the public key in the app directory and use that to verify/decrypt the code? I can drop the encryption part if I can get the signature part working right. I was using it as a backup to obfuscate the origin of the license code I am keying from. Does any of this make sense? Am I a total dunce? Thanks for any help anyone can give me in this..

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• Splitting a test to a set of smaller tests

  - by mkorpela

  I want to be able to split a big test to smaller tests so that when the smaller tests pass they imply that the big test would also pass (so there is no reason to run the original big test). I want to do this because smaller tests usually take less time, less effort and are less fragile. I would like to know if there are test design patterns or verification tools that can help me to achieve this test splitting in a robust way. I fear that the connection between the smaller tests and the original test is lost when someone changes something in the set of smaller tests. Another fear is that the set of smaller tests doesn't really cover the big test. An example of what I am aiming at: //Class under test class A { public void setB(B b){ this.b = b; } public Output process(Input i){ return b.process(doMyProcessing(i)); } private InputFromA doMyProcessing(Input i){ .. } .. } //Another class under test class B { public Output process(InputFromA i){ .. } .. } //The Big Test @Test public void theBigTest(){ A systemUnderTest = createSystemUnderTest(); // <-- expect that this is expensive Input i = createInput(); Output o = systemUnderTest.process(i); // <-- .. or expect that this is expensive assertEquals(o, expectedOutput()); } //The splitted tests @PartlyDefines("theBigTest") // <-- so something like this should come from the tool.. @Test public void smallerTest1(){ // this method is a bit too long but its just an example.. Input i = createInput(); InputFromA x = expectedInputFromA(); // this should be the same in both tests and it should be ensured somehow Output expected = expectedOutput(); // this should be the same in both tests and it should be ensured somehow B b = mock(B.class); when(b.process(x)).thenReturn(expected); A classUnderTest = createInstanceOfClassA(); classUnderTest.setB(b); Output o = classUnderTest.process(i); assertEquals(o, expected); verify(b).process(x); verifyNoMoreInteractions(b); } @PartlyDefines("theBigTest") // <-- so something like this should come from the tool.. @Test public void smallerTest2(){ InputFromA x = expectedInputFromA(); // this should be the same in both tests and it should be ensured somehow Output expected = expectedOutput(); // this should be the same in both tests and it should be ensured somehow B classUnderTest = createInstanceOfClassB(); Output o = classUnderTest.process(x); assertEquals(o, expected); }

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• Offline backup synchronization

  - by Pavan Kumar

  There is a Central Server running Windows Server 2003 and SQL Server 2005 and there are 7 client machines situated in various places and has XP Pro & SQL Server 2005 installed in all of them. They are not interconnected so they are physically seperate. One person goes to each of these centers maybe twice a month and takes the backup (Full database consisting of mdf and ldf files) with a pen drive and brings it to the Central server which contains the central database holding same schema as all the other client databases. I need to synchronize each backup database (belonging to different centers) one by one to update the existing data or inserting new data in the central database . The solution i got was Replication. The pendrive is brought to central server consisting of 7 instances of the databases and then the databases is attached to the central server one by one to the same SQL Server where the central database exists. Then my idea was to replicate the backup database one by one i.e using single subscription (Central Database) and multiple publication ( i.e 7 instances of databases in my case) toplogy by performing replication locally (i.e in the same machine). So i tried to develop a UI in C# .Net to programatically run the Transactional Replication with push subscription using RMO Programming (which is incomplete as of now because there is no point in developing when you already know it is not the solution). Transactional Replication can either be set to initialize with a snapshot or without a snapshot. If i go for the first option i.e with a snapshot , the data whatever is present in Central Database is overwritten by the new data . So the data present initially in the central database is lost. If i try to initialize without snapshot , no data (the data already has the updated and new data) will be sent from the backup database to server. The replication will work in a scenario where any incremental changes is done only after you set the replication . So the initial data whatever was present in the backup database when setting up the replication will not be replicated when running the snapshot agent for the first time to synchronize. Only changes in the backup database thereafter will be reflected to the central database .(Remember I am not going to insert new data or make any changes to the backup database after i attach it to the Central Server. ) So this solution is not feasible. I want a solution for synchronizing from one client database to central database present in the same machine using C#.NET. If you can provide me small example maybe with two databases(with same schema) DB1(Client) to DB2(Server) consisting of one or two tables it will be very helpful. The synchronization is not bidirectional.I want to only update existing data or insert new data from DB1 to DB2 (DB2 may contain some data initially). Thanks and Regards Pavan

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• Use native HBitmap in C# while preserving alpha channel/transparency. Please check this code, it works on my computer...

  - by David

  Let's say I get a HBITMAP object/handle from a native Windows function. I can convert it to a managed bitmap using Bitmap.FromHbitmap(nativeHBitmap), but if the native image has transparency information (alpha channel), it is lost by this conversion. There are a few questions on Stack Overflow regarding this issue. Using information from the first answer of this question (How to draw ARGB bitmap using GDI+?), I wrote a piece of code that I've tried and it works. It basically gets the native HBitmap width, height and the pointer to the location of the pixel data using GetObject and the BITMAP structure, and then calls the managed Bitmap constructor: Bitmap managedBitmap = new Bitmap(bitmapStruct.bmWidth, bitmapStruct.bmHeight, bitmapStruct.bmWidth * 4, PixelFormat.Format32bppArgb, bitmapStruct.bmBits); As I understand (please correct me if I'm wrong), this does not copy the actual pixel data from the native HBitmap to the managed bitmap, it simply points the managed bitmap to the pixel data from the native HBitmap. And I don't draw the bitmap here on another Graphics (DC) or on another bitmap, to avoid unnecessary memory copying, especially for large bitmaps. I can simply assign this bitmap to a PictureBox control or the the Form BackgroundImage property. And it works, the bitmap is displayed correctly, using transparency. When I no longer use the bitmap, I make sure the BackgroundImage property is no longer pointing to the bitmap, and I dispose both the managed bitmap and the native HBitmap. The Question: Can you tell me if this reasoning and code seems correct. I hope I will not get some unexpected behaviors or errors. And I hope I'm freeing all the memory and objects correctly. private void Example() { IntPtr nativeHBitmap = IntPtr.Zero; /* Get the native HBitmap object from a Windows function here */ // Create the BITMAP structure and get info from our nativeHBitmap NativeMethods.BITMAP bitmapStruct = new NativeMethods.BITMAP(); NativeMethods.GetObjectBitmap(nativeHBitmap, Marshal.SizeOf(bitmapStruct), ref bitmapStruct); // Create the managed bitmap using the pointer to the pixel data of the native HBitmap Bitmap managedBitmap = new Bitmap( bitmapStruct.bmWidth, bitmapStruct.bmHeight, bitmapStruct.bmWidth * 4, PixelFormat.Format32bppArgb, bitmapStruct.bmBits); // Show the bitmap this.BackgroundImage = managedBitmap; /* Run the program, use the image */ MessageBox.Show("running..."); // When the image is no longer needed, dispose both the managed Bitmap object and the native HBitmap this.BackgroundImage = null; managedBitmap.Dispose(); NativeMethods.DeleteObject(nativeHBitmap); } internal static class NativeMethods { [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential)] public struct BITMAP { public int bmType; public int bmWidth; public int bmHeight; public int bmWidthBytes; public ushort bmPlanes; public ushort bmBitsPixel; public IntPtr bmBits; } [DllImport("gdi32", CharSet = CharSet.Auto, EntryPoint = "GetObject")] public static extern int GetObjectBitmap(IntPtr hObject, int nCount, ref BITMAP lpObject); [DllImport("gdi32.dll")] internal static extern bool DeleteObject(IntPtr hObject); }

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• Which mobile operating system should I code for?

  - by samgoody

  It seems as though mobile computing has fully arrived. I would like to rewrite two of our programs for mobile devices, but am a bit lost as to which platform to target. Complicating this decision: I would need to learn the relevant languages and IDEs - my coding to date has been almost all web based (PHP, JS, Actionscript, etc. Some ASPX). Most users seem to be religious about their mobile decision, so oral conversations leave me more confused then enlightened. I do not yet own a smartphone - will have to buy one once I know which platform to be aiming for. Both of my programs are more for business users, (one is only useful for C.P.A.s). I am a single developer, and cannot develop for more than one platform at a time. Getting it right is important. Based on what I've found on the web, I would've expected RIM to be a shoo-in, and the general order to be as follows: RIM Blackberry - More of them than any other brand. Despite naysayers, they've had double the sales (or perhaps 5X the sales) of any other smartphone, and have continued to grow. And, they have business users. Android - According to Schmidt, they have outsold everyone else except RIM (though I can't find where I read that now), and they are just getting started. According to Comscore, they are already at 8% of the market and expected to hit Shcmidt's claims within six months. Nokia - The largest worldwide. If they would just make up between Maemo or Symbian, I would be far less confused. iPhone - Much more competition by other apps, fewer sales to be had, and a overlord that can delay or cancel my app at any time. Is Cocoa hard to learn? Windows Mobile - Word is that version 7 will not be backwards compatible and losing market share. Palm WebOS - Perhaps this should go first, as it is the only one that offers tools to make my life easy as a web application developer. No competition in marketplace. But not very many users either. However, a search on StackOverflow shows a hugely disproportionate number of iPhone questions versus Blackberry. Likewise, there are clearly more apps on iPhone, so it must be getting developer love. What is the one platform I should develop for? Please back up your answer with the logic.

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• $.ajax ColdFusion cfc JSON Hello World

  - by cf_PhillipSenn

  I've simplified this example as much as I can. I have a remote function: <cfcomponent output="false"> <cffunction name="Read" access="remote" output="false"> <cfset var local = {}> <cfquery name="local.qry" datasource="myDatasource"> SELECT PersonID,FirstName,LastName FROM Person </cfquery> <cfreturn local.qry> </cffunction> </cfcomponent> And using the jQuery $.ajax method, I would like to make an unordered list of everyone. <!DOCTYPE HTML> <html> <head> <script src="http://www.google.com/jsapi"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> google.load("jquery", "1"); </script> <script type="text/javascript"> jQuery(function($){ $.ajax({ url: "Remote/Person.cfc?method=Read&ReturnFormat=json", success: function(data){ var str = '<ul>'; // This is where I need help: for (var I=0; I<data.length; I++) { str += '<li>' + I + data[I][1]+ '</li>' } str += '</ul>'; $('body').html(str); }, error: function(ErrorMsg){ console.log("Error"); } }); }); </script> </head> <body> </body> </html> The part where I'm lost is where I'm looping over the data. I prefer to the use jQuery $.ajax method because I understand that $.get and $.post don't have error trapping. I don't know how to handle JSON returned from the cfc.

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• C#: BackgroundWorker cloning resources?

  - by Dav

  The problem I've been struggling with this partiular problem for two days now and just run out of ideas. A little... background: we have a WinForms app that needs to access a database, construct a list of related in-memory objects from that data, and then display on a DataGridView. Important point is that we first populate an app-wide cache (List), and then create a mirror of the cache local to the form on which the DGV lives (using List constructor param). Because fetching the data takes a good few seconds (DB sits on a LAN server) to load, we decided to use a BackgroundWorker, and only refresh the DGV once the data is loaded. However, it seems that doing the loading via a BGW results in some memory leak... or an error on my part. When loaded using a blocking method call, the app consumes about 30MB of RAM; with a BGW this jumps to 80MB! While it may not seem as much anyway, our clients are not too happy about it. Relevant code Form private void MyForm_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { MyRepository.Instance.FinishedEvent += RefreshCache; } private void RefreshCache(object sender, EventArgs e) { dgvProducts.DataSource = new List<MyDataObj>(MyRepository.Products); } Repository private static List<MyDataObj> Products { get; set; } public event EventHandler ProductsLoaded; public void GetProductsSync() { List<MyDataObj> p; using (MyL2SDb db = new MyL2SDb(MyConfig.ConnectionString)) { p = db.PRODUCTS .Select(p => new MyDataObj {Id = p.ID, Description = p.DESCR}) .ToList(); } Products = p; // tell the form to refresh UI if (ProductsLoaded != null) ProductsLoaded(this, null); } public void GetProductsAsync() { using (BackgroundWorker myWorker = new BackgroundWorker()) { myWorker.DoWork += delegate { List<MyDataObj> p; using (MyL2SDb db = new MyL2SDb(MyConfig.ConnectionString)) { p = db.PRODUCTS .Select(p => new MyDataObj {Id = p.ID, Description = p.DESCR}) .ToList(); } Products = p; }; // tell the form to refresh UI when finished myWorker.RunWorkerCompleted += GetProductsCompleted; myWorker.RunWorkerAsync(); } } private void GetProductsCompleted(object sender, RunWorkerCompletedEventArgs e) { if (ProductsLoaded != null) ProductsLoaded(this, null); } End! GetProductsSync or GetProductsAsync are called on the main thread, not shown above. Could it be that the GarbageCollector just gets lost with two threads? Or is it the task manager that shows incorrect values? Will be greateful for any responses, suggestions, criticism.

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• Speed Problem with Wireless Connectivity on Cisco 877w

  - by Carl Crawley

  Having a bit of a weird one with my local LAN setup. I recently installed a Cisco 877W router on my DSL2+ connection and all is working really well.. Upgraded the IOS to 12.4 and my wired clients are streaming connectivity superfast at 1.3mb/s. However, there seems to be an issue with my wireless clients - I can't seem to stream any data across the local wireless connection (LAN) and using the Internet, whilst responsive enough isn't really comparable with the wired connection speed. For example, all devices are connected to an 8 Port Gb switch on FE0 from the Router with a NAS disk and on my wired clients, I can transfer/stream etc absolutely fine - however, transferring a local 700Mb file on my local LAN estimates 7-8 hours to transfer :( The Wireless config is as follows : interface Dot11Radio0 description WIRELESS INTERFACE no ip address ! encryption mode ciphers tkip ! ssid [MySSID] ! speed basic-1.0 basic-2.0 basic-5.5 6.0 9.0 basic-11.0 channel 2462 station-role root rts threshold 2312 world-mode dot11d country GB indoor bridge-group 1 bridge-group 1 subscriber-loop-control bridge-group 1 spanning-disabled bridge-group 1 block-unknown-source no bridge-group 1 source-learning no bridge-group 1 unicast-flooding All devices are connected to the Gb Switch which is connected to FE0 with the following: Hardware is Fast Ethernet, address is 0021.a03e.6519 (bia 0021.a03e.6519) Description: Uplink to Switch MTU 1500 bytes, BW 100000 Kbit/sec, DLY 100 usec, reliability 255/255, txload 1/255, rxload 1/255 Encapsulation ARPA, loopback not set Keepalive set (10 sec) Full-duplex, 100Mb/s ARP type: ARPA, ARP Timeout 04:00:00 Last input never, output never, output hang never Last clearing of "show interface" counters never Input queue: 0/75/0/0 (size/max/drops/flushes); Total output drops: 0 Queueing strategy: fifo Output queue: 0/40 (size/max) 5 minute input rate 14000 bits/sec, 19 packets/sec 5 minute output rate 167000 bits/sec, 23 packets/sec 177365 packets input, 52089562 bytes, 0 no buffer Received 919 broadcasts, 0 runts, 0 giants, 0 throttles 260 input errors, 260 CRC, 0 frame, 0 overrun, 0 ignored 0 input packets with dribble condition detected 156673 packets output, 106218222 bytes, 0 underruns 0 output errors, 0 collisions, 2 interface resets 0 babbles, 0 late collision, 0 deferred 0 lost carrier, 0 no carrier 0 output buffer failures, 0 output buffers swapped out Not sure why I'm having problems on the wireless and I've reached the end of my Cisco knowledge... Thanks for any pointers! Carl

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• Calculate # of Rowspans and Colspans based on keys in a Multi-Array

  - by sologhost

  Ok, I have these 2 types of layouts, basically, it can be any layout really. I have decided to use tables for this, since using div tags cause undesirable results in some possible layout types. Here are 2 pics that describe the returned results of row and column: This would return the $layout array like so: $layout[0][0] $layout[0][1] $layout[1][1] In this layout type: $layout[1][0] is NOT SET, or doesn't exist. Row 1, Column 0 doesn't exist in here. So how can we use this to help us determine the rowspans...? Ok, this layout type would now return the following: $layout[0][0] $layout[0][1] $layout[1][0] $layout[2][0] $layout[2][1] $layout[3][1] Again, there are some that are NOT SET in here: $layout[1][1] $layout[3][0] Ok, I have an array called $layout that does a foreach on the row and column, but it doesn't grab the rows and columns that are NOT SET. So I created a for loop (with the correct counts of how many rows there are and how many columns there are). Here's what I got so far: // $not_set = array(); for($x = 0; $x < $cols; $x++) { $f = 0; for($p = 0; $p < $rows; $p++) { // $f = count($layout[$p]); if(!isset($layout[$p][$x])) { $f++; // It could be a rowspan or a Colspan... // We need to figure out which 1 it is! /* $not_set[] = array( 'row' => $p, 'column' => $x, ); */ } // if ($rows - count($layout[$p])) } } Ok, the $layout array has 2 keys. The first 1 is [ row ] and the 2nd key is [ column ]. Now looping through them all and determining whether it's NOT SET, tells me that either a rowspan or a colspan needs to be put into something somewhere. I'm completely lost here. Basically, I would like to have an array returned here, something like this: $spans['row'][ row # ][ column # ] = Number of rowspans for that <td> element. $spans['column'][ row # ][ column # ] = Number of colspans for that <td> element. It's either going to need a colspan or a rowspan, it will definitely never need both for the same element. Am I going about this whole thing the wrong way? Any help at all would be greatly appreciated!! I've been driving myself crazy with this for days! Pllleaase...

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• Auto update the content in ASP.NET

  - by Zerotoinfinite

  I have to design a website where user can update their status, just like facebook and twitter and other social networking sites. Now my requirement is to refresh the feed with new user updates. Ex: when the new status comes facebook automatically add that on the top of the feed. on the other hand twitter shows the number of updates which is ready to be load. both ways are acceptable to me Now, I have to decide what is the best way to achieve this functionality. I am open to use ASP.NET. So I am confused that regular repeater control with timer and auto refresh or any other way? (I am wondering that if I set repeater for auto update and meanwhile if user is performing some action on any status it will lost). or do I need to change my framework from ASP.NET to ASP.NET MVC (I am little afraid with MVC as I have very less knowledge regarding it and I know it has a learning curve to master ajax/Jquery things) Any suggestion how I can I achieve it in a better and feasible way? EDIT1 I am not looking for a code but I want advice to achieve this. Supporting URL's would be appreciated. EDIT2 I am open to JQuery which can regularly check the database and fill the section. But my concern is this that if user is updating any comment and want to load/feed is automatically generated. his textbox text shouldn't be disappear (just like facebook, twitter or Linkedin) EDIT3 I have seen that on Stack overflow when any other user has modified the question/answer, I got notification like this question/answer is modified. and when I clicked on that notification only that section got reloaded. I am curious to know how to achieve this functionality. So that when user is commenting on a status/post and if meanwhile someone has updated the content then it would show the other user comment. Edit4 Could someone please recommend me an example of ASP.NET MVC 3+ which can do similar kind of activity (i.e. one input box and once user insert an text it will add the item in the list (with JQuery).

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• Return pre-UPDATE column values in PostgreSQL without using triggers, functions or other "magic"

  - by Python Larry

  I have a related question, but this is another part of MY puzzle. I would like to get the OLD VALUE of a Column from a Row that was UPDATEd... WITHOUT using Triggers (nor Stored Procedures, nor any other extra, non-SQL/-query entities). The query I have is like this: UPDATE my_table SET processing_by = our_id_info -- unique to this instance WHERE trans_nbr IN ( SELECT trans_nbr FROM my_table GROUP BY trans_nbr HAVING COUNT(trans_nbr) > 1 LIMIT our_limit_to_have_single_process_grab ) RETURNING row_id If I could do "FOR UPDATE ON my_table" at the end of the subquery, that'd be devine (and fix my other question/problem). But, that won't work: can't have this AND a "GROUP BY" (which is necessary for figuring out the COUNT of trans_nbr's). Then I could just take those trans_nbr's and do a query first to get the (soon-to-be-) former processing_by values. I've tried doing like: UPDATE my_table SET processing_by = our_id_info -- unique to this instance FROM my_table old_my_table JOIN ( SELECT trans_nbr FROM my_table GROUP BY trans_nbr HAVING COUNT(trans_nbr) > 1 LIMIT our_limit_to_have_single_process_grab ) sub_my_table ON old_my_table.trans_nbr = sub_my_table.trans_nbr WHERE my_table.trans_nbr = sub_my_table.trans_nbr AND my_table.processing_by = old_my_table.processing_by RETURNING my_table.row_id, my_table.processing_by, old_my_table.processing_by But that can't work; "old_my_table" is not viewable outside of the join; the RETURNING clause is blind to it. I've long since lost count of all the attempts I've made; I have been researching this for literally hours. If I could just find a bullet-proof way to lock the rows in my subquery - and ONLY those rows, and WHEN the subquery happens - all the concurrency issues I'm trying to avoid disappear... UPDATE: [WIPES EGG OFF FACE] Okay, so I had a typo in the non-generic code of the above that I wrote "doesn't work"; it does... thanks to Erwin Brandstetter, below, who stated it would, I re-did it (after a night's sleep, refreshed eyes, and a banana for bfast). Since it took me so long/hard to find this sort of solution, perhaps my embarrassment is worth it? At least this is on SO for posterity now... : What I now have (that works) is like this: UPDATE my_table SET processing_by = our_id_info -- unique to this instance FROM my_table AS old_my_table WHERE trans_nbr IN ( SELECT trans_nbr FROM my_table GROUP BY trans_nbr HAVING COUNT(*) > 1 LIMIT our_limit_to_have_single_process_grab ) AND my_table.row_id = old_my_table.row_id RETURNING my_table.row_id, my_table.processing_by, old_my_table.processing_by AS old_processing_by The COUNT(*) is per a suggestion from Flimzy in a comment on my other (linked above) question. (I was more specific than necessary. [In this instance.])

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• Team matchups for Dota Bot

  - by Dan

  I have a ghost++ bot that hosts games of Dota (a warcraft 3 map that is played 5 players versus 5 players) and I'm trying to come up with good formulas to balance the players going into a match based on their records (I have game history for several thousand games). I'm familear with some of the concepts required to match up players, like confidence based on sample size of the number of games they played, and also perameter approximation and degrees of freedom and thus throwing out any variables that don't contribute enough to the r^2. My bot collects quite a few variables for each player from each game: The Important ones: Win/Lose/Game did not finish # of Player Kills # of Player Deaths # of Kills player assisted The not so important ones: # of enemy creep kills # of creep sneak attacks # of neutral creep kills # of Tower kills # of Rax kills # of courier kills Quick explination: The kills/deaths don't determine who wins, but the gold gained and lost from this usually is enough to tilt the game. Tower/Rax kills are what the goal of the game is (once a team looses all their towers/rax their thrown can be attacked if that is destroyed they lose), but I don't really count these as important because it is pretty random who gets the credit for the tower kill, and chances are if you destroy a tower it is only because some other player is doing well and distracting the otherteam elsewhere on the map. I'm getting a bit confused when trying to deal with the fact that 5 players are on a team, so ultimately each individual isn't that responsible for the team winner or losing. Take a player that is really good at killing and has 40 kills and only 10 deaths, but in their 5 games they've only won 1. Should I give him extra credit for such a high kill score despite losing? (When losing it is hard to keep a positive kill/death ratio) Or should I dock him for losing assuming that despite the nice kill/death ratio he probably plays in a really greedy way only looking out for himself and not helping the team? Ultimately I don't think I have to guess at questions like this because I have so much data... but I don't really know how to look at the data to answer questions like this. Can anyone help me come up with formulas to help team balance and predict the outcome? Thanks, Dan

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• WinRT ControlTemplate ItemsPanel

  - by user1427149

  I'm new to WinRT and am trying to create a standard gridview which has a group heading with a number of tiles beneath it. That bit is easy. I'm trying to modify it so that beneath the grid of tiles I can also add a footer using the containers style: <GridView x:Name="itemGridView" AutomationProperties.AutomationId="ItemGridView" AutomationProperties.Name="Grouped Items" Margin="116,0,40,46" ItemsSource="{Binding Source={StaticResource groupedItemsViewSource}}" ItemTemplate="{StaticResource Project200x200ItemTemplate}" SelectionMode="None" IsItemClickEnabled="True" ItemClick="ItemView_ItemClick"> <GridView.ItemsPanel> <ItemsPanelTemplate> <VirtualizingStackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"/> </ItemsPanelTemplate> </GridView.ItemsPanel> <GridView.GroupStyle> <GroupStyle> <GroupStyle.HeaderTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Grid Margin="1,0,0,6"> <Button AutomationProperties.Name="Group Title" Content="{Binding Name}" Click="Header_Click" Style="{StaticResource TextButtonStyle}" FontWeight="{Binding IsSelected, ConverterParameter=FontWeight, Converter={StaticResource BooleanToFontWeightConverter}}" /> </Grid> </DataTemplate> </GroupStyle.HeaderTemplate> <GroupStyle.Panel> <ItemsPanelTemplate> <VariableSizedWrapGrid Background="Red" Orientation="Vertical" Margin="0,0,40,0" /> </ItemsPanelTemplate> </GroupStyle.Panel> <GroupStyle.ContainerStyle> <Style TargetType="GroupItem"> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate> <StackPanel> <ContentPresenter/> <ItemsPresenter/> <TextBlock Text="*** End of group ***"/> </StackPanel> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> </GroupStyle.ContainerStyle> </GroupStyle> </GridView.GroupStyle> </GridView> This almost works but after adding the container style, the grid of tiles no longer shows... the group header and 'End of group' textblock is showing, but I've lost the tile grid. Can anyone spot what I'm doing wrong...?

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• Java: Reading a pdf file from URL into Byte array/ByteBuffer in an applet.

  - by Pol

  I'm trying to figure out why this particular snippet of code isn't working for me. I've got an applet which is supposed to read a .pdf and display it with a pdf-renderer library, but for some reason when I read in the .pdf files which sit on my server, they end up as being corrupt. I've tested it by writing the files back out again. I've tried viewing the applet in both IE and Firefox and the corrupt files occur. Funny thing is, when I trying viewing the applet in Safari (for Windows), the file is actually fine! I understand the JVM might be different, but I am still lost. I've compiled in Java 1.5. JVMs are 1.6. The snippet which reads the file is below. public static ByteBuffer getAsByteArray(URL url) throws IOException { ByteArrayOutputStream tmpOut = new ByteArrayOutputStream(); URLConnection connection = url.openConnection(); int contentLength = connection.getContentLength(); InputStream in = url.openStream(); byte[] buf = new byte[512]; int len; while (true) { len = in.read(buf); if (len == -1) { break; } tmpOut.write(buf, 0, len); } tmpOut.close(); ByteBuffer bb = ByteBuffer.wrap(tmpOut.toByteArray(), 0, tmpOut.size()); //Lines below used to test if file is corrupt //FileOutputStream fos = new FileOutputStream("C:\\abc.pdf"); //fos.write(tmpOut.toByteArray()); return bb; } I must be missing something, and I've been banging my head trying to figure it out. Any help is greatly appreciated. Thanks. Edit: To further clarify my situation, the difference in the file before I read then with the snippet and after, is that the ones I output after reading are significantly smaller than they originally are. When opening them, they are not recognized as .pdf files. There are no exceptions being thrown that I ignore, and I have tried flushing to no avail. This snippet works in Safari, meaning the files are read in it's entirety, with no difference in size, and can be opened with any .pdf reader. In IE and Firefox, the files always end up being corrupted, consistently the same smaller size. I monitored the len variable (when reading a 59kb file), hoping to see how many bytes get read in at each loop. In IE and Firefox, at 18kb, the in.read(buf) returns a -1 as if the file has ended. Safari does not do this. I'll keep at it, and I appreciate all the suggestions so far.

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• ASP.NET Dynamically filtering data

  - by Jasper

  For a project I'm working on, we're looking for a way to dynamically add filters to a page which then control the dataoutput in, for instance, a grid. We want to add the filters dynamically because we want the customer to be able to change which properties can be filtered and what filtertype (textbox, dropdown, colourpicker, etc.) should be used. The filter should work as follows: - The customer links a filter to a certain property and specifies the filtertype (for this example: dropdown). - A user control which contains all the filter loads all filters specified - The filters load all values of the specified property as options. The first time the page loads; this would be the values of all items. - Now the user selects a value from one of the filters; the page reloads - Only items which have the specified filter value are retrieved, the user may specify one or more filters at the same time. - Once a user drills down by filtering, only filtervalues of the retrieved items should be used in the other filters. I have the following problems: - When I create the filters runtime, events are lost because the controls get recreated each postback. - I could place the filters in PreInit which should solve this, but then determining which controls should be loaded becomes a problem since loading all environment vars isn't finished yet - I don't know a good way of returning all the filter values to a central point from which I can make a good query. - The query has to be dynamic. I'm using linq which I want to make dynamic so I don't have to select everything everytime. How to make a dynamic select query based on a string stored in the database? - I have to select items based on the filtervalues and then adjust the rest of the filters to the already made selection. That kind of messes up the whole regular databinding sequence. Any help in one of the above would be great! PS: One thing I thought about was passing along filter values in the postback which would have to be recognizable. That way the server could use them for selection and then create the filters and autoselect the previously selected filtervalues. I'm not quite sure how to acheive this though...

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• get_or_create generic relations in Django & python debugging in general

  - by rabidpebble

  I ran the code to create the generically related objects from this demo: http://www.djangoproject.com/documentation/models/generic_relations/ Everything is good intially: >>> bacon.tags.create(tag="fatty") <TaggedItem: fatty> >>> tag, newtag = bacon.tags.get_or_create(tag="fatty") >>> tag <TaggedItem: fatty> >>> newtag False But then the use case that I'm interested in for my app: >>> tag, newtag = bacon.tags.get_or_create(tag="wholesome") Traceback (most recent call last): File "<console>", line 1, in <module> File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/models/manager.py", line 123, in get_or_create return self.get_query_set().get_or_create(**kwargs) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/models/query.py", line 343, in get_or_create raise e IntegrityError: app_taggeditem.content_type_id may not be NULL I tried a bunch of random things after looking at other code: >>> tag, newtag = bacon.tags.get_or_create(tag="wholesome", content_type=TaggedItem) ValueError: Cannot assign "<class 'generics.app.models.TaggedItem'>": "TaggedItem.content_type" must be a "ContentType" instance. or: >>> tag, newtag = bacon.tags.get_or_create(tag="wholesome", content_type=TaggedItem.content_type) InterfaceError: Error binding parameter 3 - probably unsupported type. etc. I'm sure somebody can give me the correct syntax, but the real problem here is that I have no idea what is going on. I have developed in strongly typed languages for over ten years (x86 assembly, C++ and C#) but am new to Python. I find it really difficult to follow what is going on in Python when things like this break. In the languages I mentioned previously it's fairly straightforward to figure things like this out -- check the method signature and check your parameters. Looking at the Django documentation for half an hour left me just as lost. Looking at the source for get_or_create(self, **kwargs) didn't help either since there is no method signature and the code appears very generic. A next step would be to debug the method and try to figure out what is happening, but this seems a bit extreme... I seem to be missing some fundamental operating principle here... what is it? How do I resolve issues like this on my own in the future?

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• Problems using FluentNHibernate + SQLite with .NET4?

  - by stiank81

  I have a WPF application running with VS2010 .Net3.5 using Nhibernate with FluentNHibernate + SQLite, and all works fine. Now I want to change to use .Net4, but this has turned into a more painful experience then I expected.. When setting up the connection a FluentConfigurationException is thrown from FluentConfiguration.BuildConfiguration saying: An invalid or incomplete configuration was used while creating a SessionFactory. Check PotentialReasons collection, and InnerException for more details. The inner exception gives us more information: Could not create the driver from NHibernate.Driver.SQLite20Driver, NHibernate, Version=2.1.2.4000, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=aa95f207798dfdb4. It has an InnerException again: Exception has been thrown by the target of an invocation. Which again has an InnerException: The IDbCommand and IDbConnection implementation in the assembly System.Data.SQLite could not be found. Ensure that the assembly System.Data.SQLite is located in the application directory or in the Global Assembly Cache. If the assembly is in the GAC, use element in the application configuration file to specify the full name of the assembly. Now - to me it sounds like it doesn't find System.Data.SQLite.dll, but I can't understand this. Everywhere this is referenced I have "Copy Local", and I have verified that it is in every build folder for projects using SQLite. I have also copied it manually to every Debug folder of the solution - without luck. Notes: This is exactly the same code that worked just fine before I upgraded to .Net4. I did see some x64 x86 mismatch problems earlier, but I have switched to use x86 as the target platform and for all referenced dlls. I have verified that all files in the Debug-folder are x86. I have tried the precompiled Fluent dlls, I have tried compiling myself, and I have compiled my own version of Fluent using .Net4. I see that there are also others that have seen this problem, but I haven't really seen any solution yet. After @devio's answer I tried adding a reference to the SQLite dll. This didn't change anything, but I hope I made it right though.. This is what I added to the root node of the app.config file: <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <qualifyAssembly partialName="System.Data.SQLite" fullName="System.Data.SQLite, Version=1.0.60.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=db937bc2d44ff139" /> </assemblyBinding> </runtime> Anyone out there using Fluent with .Net4 and SQLite successfully? Help! I'm lost...

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• Structuring Win32 GUI code

  - by kraf

  I wish to improve my code and file structure in larger Win32 projects with plenty of windows and controls. Currently, I tend to have one header and one source file for the entire implementation of a window or dialog. This works fine for small projects, but now it has come to the point where these implementations are starting to reach 1000-2000 lines, which is tedious to browse. A typical source file of mine looks like this: static LRESULT CALLBACK on_create(const HWND hwnd, WPARAM wp, LPARAM lp) { setup_menu(hwnd); setup_list(hwnd); setup_context_menu(hwnd); /* clip */ return 0; } static LRESULT CALLBACK on_notify(HWND hwnd, UINT msg, WPARAM wp, LPARAM lp) { const NMHDR* header = (const NMHDR*)lp; /* At this point I feel that the control's event handlers doesn't * necessarily belong in the same source file. Perhaps I could move * each control's creation code and event handlers into a separate * source file? Good practice or cause of confusion? */ switch (header->idFrom) { case IDC_WINDOW_LIST: switch (header->code) { case NM_RCLICK: return on_window_list_right_click(hwnd, wp, lp); /* clip */ } } } static LRESULT CALLBACK wndmain_proc(HWND hwnd, UINT msg, WPARAM wp, LPARAM lp) { switch (msg) { case WM_CREATE: return on_create(hwnd, wp, lp); case WM_CLOSE: return on_close(hwnd, wp, lp); case WM_NOTIFY: return on_notify(hwnd, wp, lp); /* It doesn't matter much how the window proc looks as it just forwards * events to the appropriate handler. */ /* clip */ default: return DefWindowProc(hwnd, msg, wp, lp); } } But now as the window has a lot more controls, and these controls in turn have their own message handlers, and then there's the menu click handlers, and so on... I'm getting lost, and I really need advice on how to structure this mess up in a good and sensible way. I have tried to find good open source examples of structuring Win32 code, but I just get more confused since there are hundreds of files, and within each of these files that seem GUI related, the Win32 GUI code seems so far encapsulated away. And when I finally find a CreateWindowEx statement, the window proc is nowhere to be found. Any advice on how to structure all the code while remaining sane would be greatly appreciated. Thanks! I don't wish to use any libraries or frameworks as I find the Win32 API interesting and valuable for learning. Any insight into how you structure your own GUI code could perhaps serve as inspiration.

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• Problems with contenteditable in Firefox

  - by Jonathan

  Hello, I am working on a Javascript WYSIWYG editor in Firefox. I am using a div with the contenteditable attribute set to true in order to accomplish this (I cannot use a contenteditable iframe for this particular project). This contenteditable div is nested in another div that is not contenteditable. I am encountering the following two problems when using execCommand to apply formatting, including font style and size, as well as bold, italic, and underline: When all text in the div is selected, execCommand simply does not work. execCommand works fine when only part of the text is selected, but does nothing when all of the text is selected. Applying formatting with no text selected yields unexpected results. For example, when calling execCommand('bold') with no text selected and then typing results in bold text being typed until a spacebar is inserted, at which point the bold formatting is lost (until another space is inserted, interestingly enough; then the text becomes bold again). To see what I mean, please try running the following HTML code in Firefox 3: <html> <head><title></title></head> <body> <button onClick="execCommand('bold', false, null);">Bold</button> <div style="width: 300px; border: 1px solid #000000;"> <div contenteditable="true">Some editable text</div> </div> </body> </html> Please try the following: Select the word "Some" only. Click the Bold button. This will make the text bold, as expected. Select the entire phrase "Some editable text" (either manually or using CTRL-A). Click the Bold button. Nothing happens. This demonstrates the first bug shown above. Hit the backspace key to clear the div. Click the Bold button and begin typing. Type a few words with spaces. This will demonstrate the second bug. Any ideas on what could be causing these problems and how to work around them would be greatly appreciated!

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• Strange error in SpringMVC Application Startup

  - by Euzel Villanueva

  I'm getting a very strange stack trace when trying to load a SpringMVC application and at a lost to why this is occurring. org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanCreationException: Error creating bean with name 'org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.AnnotationMethodHandlerAdapter#0': Cannot create inner bean '(inner bean)' of type [org.springframework.http.converter.xml.XmlAwareFormHttpMessageConverter] while setting bean property 'messageConverters' with key [4]; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanCreationException: Error creating bean with name '(inner bean)#6': Instantiation of bean failed; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.BeanInstantiationException: Could not instantiate bean class [org.springframework.http.converter.xml.XmlAwareFormHttpMessageConverter]: Constructor threw exception; nested exception is java.lang.OutOfMemoryError: Java heap space at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.BeanDefinitionValueResolver.resolveInnerBean(BeanDefinitionValueResolver.java:281) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.BeanDefinitionValueResolver.resolveValueIfNecessary(BeanDefinitionValueResolver.java:125) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.BeanDefinitionValueResolver.resolveManagedList(BeanDefinitionValueResolver.java:353) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.BeanDefinitionValueResolver.resolveValueIfNecessary(BeanDefinitionValueResolver.java:153) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.applyPropertyValues(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:1325) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.populateBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:1086) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.doCreateBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:517) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.createBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:456) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractBeanFactory$1.getObject(AbstractBeanFactory.java:291) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.DefaultSingletonBeanRegistry.getSingleton(DefaultSingletonBeanRegistry.java:222) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractBeanFactory.doGetBean(AbstractBeanFactory.java:288) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractBeanFactory.getBean(AbstractBeanFactory.java:190) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.DefaultListableBeanFactory.preInstantiateSingletons(DefaultListableBeanFactory.java:580) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractApplicationContext.finishBeanFactoryInitialization(AbstractApplicationContext.java:895) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractApplicationContext.refresh(AbstractApplicationContext.java:425) at org.springframework.web.servlet.FrameworkServlet.createWebApplicationContext(FrameworkServlet.java:442) at org.springframework.web.servlet.FrameworkServlet.createWebApplicationContext(FrameworkServlet.java:458) at org.springframework.web.servlet.FrameworkServlet.initWebApplicationContext(FrameworkServlet.java:339) at org.springframework.web.servlet.FrameworkServlet.initServletBean(FrameworkServlet.java:306) at org.springframework.web.servlet.HttpServletBean.init(HttpServletBean.java:127) at javax.servlet.GenericServlet.init(GenericServlet.java:160) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardWrapper.initServlet(StandardWrapper.java:1133) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardWrapper.loadServlet(StandardWrapper.java:1087) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardWrapper.load(StandardWrapper.java:996) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContext.loadOnStartup(StandardContext.java:4834) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContext$3.call(StandardContext.java:5155) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContext$3.call(StandardContext.java:5150) at java.util.concurrent.FutureTask$Sync.innerRun(FutureTask.java:303) at java.util.concurrent.FutureTask.run(FutureTask.java:138) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor$Worker.runTask(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:886) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor$Worker.run(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:908) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:619) Caused by: org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanCreationException: Error creating bean with name '(inner bean)#6': Instantiation of bean failed; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.BeanInstantiationException: Could not instantiate bean class [org.springframework.http.converter.xml.XmlAwareFormHttpMessageConverter]: Constructor threw exception; nested exception is java.lang.OutOfMemoryError: Java heap space at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.instantiateBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:965) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.createBeanInstance(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:911) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.doCreateBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:485) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.createBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:456) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.BeanDefinitionValueResolver.resolveInnerBean(BeanDefinitionValueResolver.java:270) ... 31 more Caused by: org.springframework.beans.BeanInstantiationException: Could not instantiate bean class [org.springframework.http.converter.xml.XmlAwareFormHttpMessageConverter]: Constructor threw exception; nested exception is java.lang.OutOfMemoryError: Java heap space at org.springframework.beans.BeanUtils.instantiateClass(BeanUtils.java:141) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.SimpleInstantiationStrategy.instantiate(SimpleInstantiationStrategy.java:74) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.instantiateBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:958) ... 35 more

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• Javascript How to automatically change word when click without need to refresh browser.?

  - by Fakhrul Zakry

  im quite lost here and not really expert about javascript. I want to change the content when user click with "Thanks for vote" automatically without need to refresh the page. Here is my html: {% if poll.privacy == "own" and request.user.get_profile.parliment != poll.location %} You do not have permission to vote this. {% else %} {% if has_vote %} {% if poll.rating_option == '1to5' %} <div class="rate"> <div id="poll-rate-{{ poll.pk }}"></div> </div> {% else %} Thanks for your vote. {% endif %} {% else %} {% if poll.rating_option == 'yes_no' %} <a href="javascript:void(0)" class="rate btn btn-xs btn-success mr5 vote-positive" rel="{% url 'vote_vote' poll.pk 1 %}" alt="{{ poll.pk }}">Yes</a> <a href="javascript:void(0)" class="rate btn btn-xs btn-danger vote-negative" rel="{% url 'vote_vote' poll.pk 0 %}" alt="{{ poll.pk }}">No</a> {% elif poll.rating_option == 'like_dislike' %} <a href="javascript:void(0)" class="rate btn btn-xs btn-success mr5 vote-positive" rel="{% url 'vote_vote' poll.pk 1 %}" alt="{{ poll.pk }}">Like</a> <a href="javascript:void(0)" class="rate btn btn-xs btn-danger vote-negative" rel="{% url 'vote_vote' poll.pk 0 %}" alt="{{ poll.pk }}">Dislike</a> {% elif poll.rating_option == '1to5' %} <div class="rate"> <div id="poll-rate-{{ poll.pk }}"></div> </div> {% endif %} {% endif %} {% endif %} and here is my javascript: function bindVoteHandler() { $('a.vote-positive, a.vote-negative').click(function(event) { event.preventDefault(); var link = $(this).attr('rel'); var poll_pk = $(this).attr('alt'); var selected_div = $(this).parent('div'); selected_div.html('<img src="{{ STATIC_URL }}img/loading_small.gif" />'); $.ajax(link).done(function( data ) { var result_div = $('div#vote-result-'+poll_pk); result_div.html(data); result_div.removeClass('vote-result-grey-out'); selected_div.html('<small>Thanks for your vote.</small>'); }); }); }; did anyone know what is the problem why i need to refresh my page after Like/Vote/rate to make it become (Thanks For your vote) ? please someone know help or share link with me. Below is the image: before click Like: after click Like: then when refreshed the word just displayed, it supposed automatically display when click Like. Thank you in advance..

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