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• Building a ctypes-"based" C library with distutils

  - by Robie Basak

  Following this recommendation, I have written a native C extension library to optimise part of a Python module via ctypes. I chose ctypes over writing a CPython-native library because it was quicker and easier (just a few functions with all tight loops inside). I've now hit a snag. If I want my work to be easily installable using distutils using python setup.py install, then distutils needs to be able to build my shared library and install it (presumably into /usr/lib/myproject). However, this not a Python extension module, and so as far as I can tell, distutils cannot do this. I've found a few references to people other people with this problem: Someone on numpy-discussion with a hack back in 2006. Somebody asking on distutils-sig and not getting an answer. Somebody asking on the main python list and being pointed to the innards of an existing project. I am aware that I can do something native and not use distutils for the shared library, or indeed use my distribution's packaging system. My concern is that this will limit usability as not everyone will be able to install it easily. So my question is: what is the current best way of distributing a shared library with distutils that will be used by ctypes but otherwise is OS-native and not a Python extension module? Feel free to answer with one of the hacks linked to above if you can expand on it and justify why that is the best way. If there is nothing better, at least all the information will be in one place.

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• How do I create a dynamic data transfer object dynamically from ADO.net model

  - by Richard

  I have a pretty simple database with 5 tables, PK's and relationships setup, etc. I also have an ASP.net MVC3 project I'm using to create simple web services to feed JSON/XML to a mobile app using post/get. To access my data I'm using an ADO.net entity model class to handle generation of the entities, etc. Due to issues with serialization/circular references created by the auto-generated relations from ADO.net entity model, I've been forced to create "Data transfer objects" to strip out the relations and data that doesn't need to be transferred. Question 1: is there an easier way to create DTOs using the entity framework itself? IE, specify only the entity properties I want to convert to Jsonresults? I don't wish to use any 3rd party frameworks if I can help it. Question 2: A side question for Entity Framework, say I create an ADO.net entity model in one project within a solution. Because that model relies on the connection to the database specified in project A, can project B somehow use that model with a similar connection? Both projects are in the same solution. Thanks!

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• Improving my first Clojure program

  - by StackedCrooked

  After a few weekends exploring Clojure I came up with this program. It allows you to move a little rectangle in a window. Here's the code: (import java.awt.Color) (import java.awt.Dimension) (import java.awt.event.KeyListener) (import javax.swing.JFrame) (import javax.swing.JPanel) (def x (ref 0)) (def y (ref 0)) (def panel (proxy [JPanel KeyListener] [] (getPreferredSize [] (Dimension. 100 100)) (keyPressed [e] (let [keyCode (.getKeyCode e)] (if (== 37 keyCode) (dosync (alter x dec)) (if (== 38 keyCode) (dosync (alter y dec)) (if (== 39 keyCode) (dosync (alter x inc)) (if (== 40 keyCode) (dosync (alter y inc)) (println keyCode))))))) (keyReleased [e]) (keyTyped [e]))) (doto panel (.setFocusable true) (.addKeyListener panel)) (def frame (JFrame. "Test")) (doto frame (.add panel) (.pack) (.setDefaultCloseOperation JFrame/EXIT_ON_CLOSE) (.setVisible true)) (defn drawRectangle [p] (doto (.getGraphics p) (.setColor (java.awt.Color/WHITE)) (.fillRect 0 0 100 100) (.setColor (java.awt.Color/BLUE)) (.fillRect (* 10 (deref x)) (* 10 (deref y)) 10 10))) (loop [] (drawRectangle panel) (Thread/sleep 10) (recur)) Despite being an experienced C++ programmer I found it very challenging to write even a simple application in a language that uses a radically different style than what I'm used to. On top of that, this code probably sucks. I suspect the globalness of the various values is a bad thing. It's also not clear to me if it's appropriate to use references here for the x and y values. Any hints for improving this code are welcome.

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• Why does Microsoft advise against readonly fields with mutable values?

  - by Weeble

  In the Design Guidelines for Developing Class Libraries, Microsoft say: Do not assign instances of mutable types to read-only fields. The objects created using a mutable type can be modified after they are created. For example, arrays and most collections are mutable types while Int32, Uri, and String are immutable types. For fields that hold a mutable reference type, the read-only modifier prevents the field value from being overwritten but does not protect the mutable type from modification. This simply restates the behaviour of readonly without explaining why it's bad to use readonly. The implication appears to be that many people do not understand what "readonly" does and will wrongly expect readonly fields to be deeply immutable. In effect it advises using "readonly" as code documentation indicating deep immutability - despite the fact that the compiler has no way to enforce this - and disallows its use for its normal function: to ensure that the value of the field doesn't change after the object has been constructed. I feel uneasy with this recommendation to use "readonly" to indicate something other than its normal meaning understood by the compiler. I feel that it encourages people to misunderstand the meaning of "readonly", and furthermore to expect it to mean something that the author of the code might not intend. I feel that it precludes using it in places it could be useful - e.g. to show that some relationship between two mutable objects remains unchanged for the lifetime of one of those objects. The notion of assuming that readers do not understand the meaning of "readonly" also appears to be in contradiction to other advice from Microsoft, such as FxCop's "Do not initialize unnecessarily" rule, which assumes readers of your code to be experts in the language and should know that (for example) bool fields are automatically initialised to false, and stops you from providing the redundancy that shows "yes, this has been consciously set to false; I didn't just forget to initialize it". So, first and foremost, why do Microsoft advise against use of readonly for references to mutable types? I'd also be interested to know: Do you follow this Design Guideline in all your code? What do you expect when you see "readonly" in a piece of code you didn't write?

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• How to keep track of objects for garbage collection

  - by Yman

  May I know what is the proper way to keep track of display objects created and hence allow me to remove it efficiently later, for garbage collection. For example: for(i=0; i<100; i++){ var dobj = new myClass(); //a sprite addChild(dobj); } From what i know, flash's garbage collection will only collect the objects without strong references and event listeners attached to it. Since the var dobj is strongly referenced to the new object created, I will have to "nullify" it too, am I correct? Should I create an array to keep track of all the objects created in the loop such as: var objectList:Array = new Array(); for(i=0; i<100; i++) { var dobj = new myClass(); //a sprite addChild(dobj); objectList.push(dobj); } //remove all children for each (var key in objectList) { removeChild(key as myClass); } Does this allow GC to collect it on sweep?

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• Remove pointer object whose reference is mantained in three different lists

  - by brainydexter

  I am not sure how to approach this problem: 'Player' class mantains a list of Bullet* objects: class Player { protected: std::list< Bullet* > m_pBullet_list; } When the player fires a Bullet, it is added to this list. Also, inside the constructor of bullet, a reference of the same object is updated in CollisionMgr, where CollisionMgr also mantains a list of Bullet*. Bullet::Bullet(GameGL*a_pGameGL, Player*a_pPlayer) : GameObject( a_pGameGL ) { m_pPlayer = a_pPlayer; m_pGameGL->GetCollisionMgr()->AddBullet(this); } class CollisionMgr { void AddBullet(Bullet* a_pBullet); protected: std::list< Bullet*> m_BulletPList; } In CollisionMgr.Update(); based on some conditions, I populate class Cell which again contain a list of Bullet*. Finally, certain conditions qualify a Bullet to be deleted. Now, these conditions are tested upon while iterating through a Cell's list. So, if I have to delete the Bullet object, from all these places, how should I do it so that there are no more dangling references to it? std::list< Bullet*>::iterator bullet_it; for( bullet_it = (a_pCell->m_BulletPList).begin(); bullet_it != (a_pCell->m_BulletPList).end(); bullet_it++) { bool l_Bullet_trash = false; Bullet* bullet1 = *bullet_it; // conditions would set this to true if ( l_Bullet_Trash ) // TrashBullet( bullet1 ); continue; } Also, I was reading about list::remove, and it mentions that it calls the destructor of the object we are trying to delete. Given this info, if I delete from one list, the object does not exist, but the list would still contain a reference to it..How do I handle all these problems ? Can someone please help me here ? Thanks PS: If you want me to post more code or provide explanation, please do let me know.

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• Can I version dotfiles within a project without merging their history into the main line?

  - by istrasci

  I'm sure this title is fairly obscure. I'm wondering if there is some way in git to tell it that you want a certain file to use different versions of a file when moving between branches, but to overall be .gitignored from the repository. Here's my scenario: I've got a Flash Builder project (for a Flex app) that I control with git. Flex apps in Flash Builder projects create three files: .actionScriptProperties, .flexProperties, and .project. These files contain lots of local file system references (source folders, output folders, etc.), so naturally we .gitignore them from our repo. Today, I wanted to use a new library in my project, so I made a separate git branch called lib, removed the old version of the library and put in the new one. Unfortunately, this Flex library information gets stored in one of those three dot files (not sure which offhand). So when I had to switch back to the first branch (master) earlier, I was getting compile errors because master was now linked to the new library (which basically negated why I made lib in the first place). So I'm wondering if there's any way for me to continue to .gitignore these files (so my other developers don't get them), but tell git that I want it to use some kind of local "branch version" so I can locally use different versions of the files for different branches.

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• Targetting x86 vs AnyCPU when building for 64 bit window OSes

  - by Mr Roys

  I have an existing C# application written for .NET 2.0 and targetting AnyCPU at the moment. It currently references some third party .NET DLLs which I don't have the source for (and I'm not sure if they were built for x86, x64 or AnyCPU). If I want to run my application specifically on a 64 bit Windows OS, which platform should I target in order for my app to run without errors? My understanding at the moment is to target: x86: If at least one third party .NET dll is built for x86 or use p/Invoke to interface with Win32 DLLs. Application will run in 32 bit mode on both 32 bit and 64 bit OSes. x64: If all third party .NET dlls are already built for x64 or AnyCPU. Application will only run in 64 bit OSes. AnyCPU: If all third party .NET dlls are already built for AnyCPU. Application will run in 32 bit mode on 32 bit OSes and 64 bit on 64 bit OSes. Also, am I right to believe that while targetting AnyCPU will generate no errors when building a application referencing third party x86 .NET DLLs, the application will throw a runtime exception when it tries to load these DLLs when it runs on a 64 bit OS. Hence, as long as one of my third party DLLs is doing p/Invoke or are x86, I can only target x86 for this application?

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• How best to associate code with events in jQuery?

  - by Ned Batchelder

  Suppose I have a <select> element on my HTML page, and I want to run some Javascript when the selection is changed. I'm using jQuery. I have two ways to associate the code with the element. Method 1: jQuery .change() <select id='the_select'> <option value='opt1'>One</option> <option value='opt2'>Two</option> </select> <script> $('#the_select').change(function() { alert('Changed!'); }); </script> Method 2: onChange attribute <select id='the_select' onchange='selectChanged();'> <option value='opt1'>One</option> <option value='opt2'>Two</option> </select> <script> function selectChanged() { alert('Changed!'); } </script> I understand the different modularity here: for example, method 1 keeps code references out of the HTML, but method 2 doesn't need to mention HTML ids in the code. What I don't understand is: are there operational differences between these two that would make me prefer one over the other? For example, are there edge-case browsers where one of these works and the other doesn't? Is the integration with jQuery better for either? Does the late-binding of the code to the event make a difference in the behavior of the page? Which do you pick and why?

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• Unit test project doesn't recognize the classes it was generated from

  - by DougLeary

  I have a fairly simple file-system website consisting of one aspx page and several classes in separate .cs files. Everything is on my own HD. The web app itself builds and runs fine. Out of curiosity I decided to try out Visual Studio's nifty, easy-to-use unit test feature. So I opened each class file and clicked Create Unit Tests. VS generated a test project containing a set of test classes and some other files. Easy! But when I try to build or run the test project it throws a series of build errors, one for every class: The type or namespace name 'class-name' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?). Somebody asked if my test project has a reference to the original project. Well no, because the original project is a file-system website. It has no bin folder and no DLL, so there's nothing to reference as far as I can tell. I would think that since VS generated these unit tests it would generate whatever references it needs, but apparently not. Is generating unit tests for file-system web apps an undocumented no-no, or is there a magic trick to getting it to work?

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• Hibernate: Querying objects by attributes of inherited classes

  - by MichaelD

  Hi all, I ran into a problem with Hibernate concerning queries on classes which use inheritance. Basically I've the following class hierarchy: @Entity @Table( name = "recording" ) class Recording { ClassA attributeSet; ... } @Entity @Inheritance( strategy = InheritanceType.JOINED ) @Table( name = "classA" ) public class ClassA { String Id; ... } @Entity @Table( name = "ClassB1" ) @PrimaryKeyJoinColumn( name = "Id" ) public class ClassB1 extends ClassA { private Double P1300; private Double P2000; } @Entity @Table( name = "ClassB2" ) @PrimaryKeyJoinColumn( name = "Id" ) public class ClassB2 extends ClassA { private Double P1300; private Double P3000; } The hierarchy is already given like this and I cannot change it easily. As you can see ClassB1 and ClassB2 inherit from ClassA. Both classes contain a set of attributes which sometimes even have the same names (but I can't move them to ClassA since there are possible more sub-classes which do not use them). The Recording class references one instance of one of this classes. Now my question: What I want to do is selecting all Recording objects in my database which refer to an instance of either ClassB1 or ClassB2 with e.g. the field P1300 == 15.5 (so this could be ClassB1 or ClassB2 instances since the P1300 attribute is declared in both classes). What I tried is something like this: Criteria criteria = session.createCriteria(Recording.class); criteria.add( Restrictions.eq( "attributeSet.P1300", new Double(15.5) ) ); criteria.list(); But since P1300 is not an attribute of ClassA hibernate throws an exception telling me: could not resolve property: P1300 of: ClassA How can I tell hibernate that it should search in all subclasses to find the attribute I want to filter? Thanks MichaelD

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• What's the best way to resolve this scope problem?

  - by Peter Stewart

  I'm writing a program in python that uses genetic techniques to optimize expressions. Constructing and evaluating the expression tree is the time consumer as it can happen billions of times per run. So I thought I'd learn enough c++ to write it and then incorporate it in python using cython or ctypes. I've done some searching on stackoverflow and learned a lot. This code compiles, but leaves the pointers dangling. I tried 'this_node = new Node(...' . It didn't seem to work. And I'm not at all sure how I'd delete all the references as there would be hundreds. I'd like to use variables that stay in scope, but maybe that's not the c++ way. What is the c++ way? class Node { public: char *cargo; int depth; Node *left; Node *right; } Node make_tree(int depth) { depth--; if(depth <= 0) { Node tthis_node("value",depth,NULL,NULL); return tthis_node; } else { Node this_node("operator" depth, &make_tree(depth), &make_tree(depth)); return this_node; } };

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• How do I debug into an ILMerged assembly?

  - by Rory Becker

  Summary I want to alter the build process of a 2-assembly solution, such that a call to ILMerge is invoked, and the build results in a single assembly. Further I would like to be able to debug into the resultant assembly. Preparation - A simple example New Solution - ClassLibrary1 Create a static function 'GetMessage' in Class1 which returns the string "Hello world" Create new console app which references the ClassLibrary. Output GetMessage from main() via the console. You now have a 2 assembly app which outputs "Hello World" to the console. So what next..? I would like to alter the Console app build process, to include a post build step which uses ILMerge, to merge the ClassLibrary assembly into the Console assembly After this step I should be able to: Run the Console app directly with no ClassLibrary1.dll present Run the Console app via F5 (or F11) in VS and be able to debug into each of the 2 projects. Limited Success I read this blogpost and managed to achieve the merge I was after with a post-build command of... "$(ProjectDir)ILMerge.bat" "$(TargetDir)" $(ProjectName) ...and an ILMerge.bat file which read... CD %1 Copy %2.exe temp.exe ILMerge.exe /out:%2.exe temp.exe ClassLibrary1.dll Del temp.exe Del ClassLibrary1.* This works fairly well, and does in fact produce an exe which runs outside the VS environment as required. However it does not appear to produce symbols (.pdb file) which VS is able to use in order to debug into the code. I think this is the last piece of the puzzle. Does anyone know how I can make this work? FWIW I am running VS2010 on an x64 Win7 x64 machine.

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• Most efficient way to update attribute of one instance

  - by Begbie00

  Hi all - I'm creating an arbitrary number of instances (using for loops and ranges). At some event in the future, I need to change an attribute for only one of the instances. What's the best way to do this? Right now, I'm doing the following: 1) Manage the instances in a list. 2) Iterate through the list to find a key value. 3) Once I find the right object within the list (i.e. key value = value I'm looking for), change whatever attribute I need to change. for Instance within ListofInstances: if Instance.KeyValue == SearchValue: Instance.AttributeToChange = 10 This feels really inefficient: I'm basically iterating over the entire list of instances, even through I only need to change an attribute in one of them. Should I be storing the Instance references in a structure more suitable for random access (e.g. dictionary with KeyValue as the dictionary key?) Is a dictionary any more efficient in this case? Should I be using something else? Thanks, Mike

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• Same jQuery code returns two different results – Submit Button Text

  - by Lijo

  I have two jQuery codes - http://jsfiddle.net/Lijo/CXGX7/7/ and http://jsfiddle.net/Lijo/CXGX7/8/ . The first code returns undefined whereas the second code returns text of button. QUESTIONS What is the reason for this difference in result? Why is the first code not returning expected text of button? Note: I verified that both are using same version of jQuery (by an alert of jQuery) alert($.fn.jquery); CODE <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head><title> </title> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.aspnetcdn.com/ajax/jquery/jquery-1.8.1.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> alert($('.myButton').attr("value")); </script> </head> <body> <form method="post" action="Test.aspx" id="form1"> <div class="aspNetHidden"> <input type="hidden" name="__VIEWSTATE" id="__VIEWSTATE" value="/wEPDwULLTE0MDM4MzYxMjNkZMycQvsYQ+GPFsQHoQ8j/8vEo2vQbqkhfgPc60kxXaQO" /> </div> <div class="aspNetHidden"> <input type="hidden" name="__EVENTVALIDATION" id="__EVENTVALIDATION" value="/wEWAwKqxqqrCgLi/JazDQKM54rGBqgaroRQTXJkD1LyUlVxAmLRCNfTGVe73swQBMemBtvN" /> </div> <div> <input name="txtEmpName" type="text" id="txtEmpName" /> <input type="submit" name="Button1" value="Submit" id="Button1" class="myButton" /> </div> </form> </body> </html> REFERENCES Retrieve Button value with jQuery How to determine and print jQuery version?

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• help with mysql triggers (checking values before insert)

  - by user332817

  hi I'm quite new to mysql and I'm trying to figure out how to use triggers. what I'm trying to do: I have 2 tables, max and sub_max, when I insert a new row to sub_max I want to check if the SUM of the values with the same foreign_key as the new row are less than the value in the max table. I think this sounds confusing so here are my tables: CREATE TABLE max( number INT , MaxAmount integer NOT NULL) CREATE TABLE sub_max( sub_number INT , sub_MaxAmount integer NOT NULL, number INT, FOREIGN KEY ( number ) REFERENCES max( number )) and here is my code for the trigger, I know the syntax is off but this is the best I could do from looking up tutorials. CREATE TRIGGER maxallowed after insert on submax FOR EACH ROW BEGIN DECLARE submax integer; DECLARE maxmax integer; submax = select sum(sub_MaxAmount) from sub_max where sub_number = new.sub_number; submax = submax + new. sub_MaxAmount; maxmax = select MaxAmount from max where number = new.number ; if max>maxmax rollback? END I wanted to know if I'm doing this remotely correctly. Thanks in advance.

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• Fluent NHibernate - Delete a related object when no explicit relationship exists in the model

  - by John Price

  I've got an application that keeps track of (for the sake of an example) what drinks are available at a given restaurant. My domain model looks like: class Restaurant { public IEnumerable<RestaurantDrink> GetRestaurantDrinks() { ... } //other various properties } class RestaurantDrink { public Restaurant Restaurant { get; set; } public Drink { get; set; } public string DrinkVariety { get; set; } //"fountain drink", "bottled", etc. //other various properties } class Drink { public string Name { get; set; } public string Manufacturer { get; set; } //other various properties } My db schema is (I hope) about what you'd expect; "RestaurantDrinks" is essentially a mapping table between Restaurants and Drinks with some extra properties (like "DrinkVariety" tacked on). Using Fluent NHibernate to set up mappings, I've set up a "HasMany" relationship from Restaurants to RestaurantDrinks that causes the latter to be deleted when its parent Restaurant is deleted. My question is, given that "Drink" does not have any property on it that explicitly references RestaurantDrinks (the relationship only exists in the underlying database), can I set up a mapping that will cause RestaurantDrinks to be deleted if their associated Drink is deleted?

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• Need Associated ID Added to a While Loop (php)

  - by user319361

  Been trying to get my head around while loops for the last few days but the code seems very inefficient for what Im trying to achieve. I'm assuming I'm overcomplicating this though nothing I've tried seems to work. Each topic in my forum can have related topic IDs stored in a seperate table. A post ID is also stored in this table, as that specific post references why they are considered related. DB Table contains only: topic_id, related_id, post_id // Get related IDs and post IDs for current topic being viewed $result = $db->query('SELECT related_id, post_id FROM related_topics WHERE topic_id='.$id.''); // If related topics found, put both of the IDs into arrays if ($db->num_rows($result)) { while($cur_related = mysql_fetch_array($result)){ $reltopicarray[] = $cur_related['related_id']; $relpost[] = $cur_related['post_id']; } // If the first array isnt empty, get some additional info about each related ID from another table if(!empty($reltopicarray)) { $pieces = $reltopicarray; $glued = "\"".implode('", "', $pieces)."\""; $fetchtopics = $db->query('SELECT id, subject, author, image, etc FROM topics WHERE id IN('.$glued.')'); } // Print each related topic while($related = mysql_fetch_array($fetchtopics)){ ?> <a href="view.php?id=<?php echo $related['id']; ?>"><?php echo $related['subject']; ?></a> by <?php echo $related['author']; ?> // Id like to show the Post ID below (from the array in the first while loop) // The below link doesnt work as Im outside the while loop by this point. <br /><a href="view.php?post_id=<?php echo $cur_related['post_id']; ?>">View Relationship</a> <?php } ?> The above currently works, however I'm trying to also display the post_id link below each related topic link, as shown above. Would be greatful if someone can lend a hand. Thanks :)

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• Hibernate: Walk millions of rows and don't leak memory

  - by Autocracy

  The below code functions, but Hibernate never lets go of its grip of any object. Calling session.clear() causes exceptions regarding fetching a joined class, and calling session.evict(currentObject) before retrieving the next object also fails to free the memory. Eventually I exhaust my heap space. Checking my heap dumps, StatefulPersistenceContext is the garbage collector's root for all references pointing to my objects. public class CriteriaReportSource implements JRDataSource { private ScrollableResults sr; private Object currentObject; private Criteria c; private static final int scrollSize = 10; private int offset = 1; public CriteriaReportSource(Criteria c) { this.c = c; advanceScroll(); } private void advanceScroll() { // ((Session) Main.em.getDelegate()).clear(); this.sr = c.setFirstResult(offset) .setMaxResults(scrollSize) .scroll(ScrollMode.FORWARD_ONLY); offset += scrollSize; } public boolean next() { if (sr.next()) { currentObject = sr.get(0); if (sr.isLast()) { advanceScroll(); } return true; } return false; } public Object getFieldValue(JRField jrf) throws JRException { Object retVal = null; if(currentObject == null) { return null; } try { retVal = PropertyUtils.getProperty(currentObject, jrf.getName()); } catch (Exception ex) { Logger.getLogger(CriteriaReportSource.class.getName()).log(Level.SEVERE, null, ex); } return retVal; } }

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• Determining when stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString has finished

  - by alku83

  I have a UIWebView which loads up an HTML page. This page has two buttons on it, say Exit and Submit. I don't want users to be able to click the Exit button, so once the page has finished loading (ie. webViewDidFinishLoad is called), I use stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString to remove one of these buttons, by manipulating the HTML. I also disable user interaction on the UIWebView on webViewDidStartLoad, and enable it again on webViewDidFinishLoad. The problem I am finding is that stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString takes a second or two to complete, and it seems to be done in it's own thread. So what is happening is that webViewDidFinishLoad is called, user interaction is enabled on the UIWebView, and if the user is quick, they can click the Exit button before stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString has finished. As stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString seems to be on it's own thread with no way to know when it's finished (it doesnt call webViewDidFinishLoad), the only way to completely prevent users from tapping the Exit button that I can see is to only enable user interaction on the UIWebView after some delay, which is unreliable (how can I really know how long to delay for?). Am I correct in that stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString is done on it's on thread, and I have no way of being able to tell when it's finished? Any other suggestions for how to get around this problem? EDIT: In short, what I want to know is if it is possible to disable a UIWebView while stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString is executing, and re-enable the UIWebView when the javascript is finished. EDIT 2: There's an article here which seems to imply you can somehow poll the JS engine to see when it's finished, but I can't find any other references saying the same thing: http://drnicwilliams.com/2008/11/10/to-webkit-or-not-to-webkit-within-your-iphone-app/ EDIT 3 Based on the answer from Brad Smith, it seems that I actually need to know when the UIWebView has finished loading itself after the javascript has executed. It's looking more and more like I just need to put a delay of sorts in there.

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• Passing an Ajax variable to a Codeigniter function

  - by Matt

  Hello, I think this is a simple one. I have a Codeigniter function which takes the inputs from a form and inserts them into a database. I want to Ajaxify the process. At the moment the first line of the function gets the id field from the form - I need to change this to get the id field from the Ajax post (which references a hidden field in the form containing the necessary value) instead. How do I do this please? My Codeigniter Controller function function add() { $product = $this->products_model->get($this->input->post('id')); $insert = array( 'id' => $this->input->post('id'), 'qty' => 1, 'price' => $product->price, 'size' => $product->size, 'name' => $product->name ); $this->cart->insert($insert); redirect('home'); } And the jQuery Ajax function $("#form").submit(function(){ var dataString = $("input#id") //alert (dataString);return false; $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "/home/add", data: dataString, success: function() { } }); return false; }); As always, many thanks in advance.

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• Can the Subversion client (svn) derefence symbolic links as if they were files?

  - by Ryan B. Lynch

  I have a directory on a Linux system that mostly contains symlinks to files on a different filesystem. I'd like to add the directory to a Subversion repository, dereferencing the symlinks in the process (treating them as the files they point to, rather than links). Generally, I'd like to be able to handle any working-copy operations with this behavior, but the 'svn add' command is where it starts, I think. The SVN client utility doesn't appear to have any options related to symlink dereferencing in the working copy. I didn't find any references to this in the manual (http://svnbook.red-bean.com/en/1.5/index.html), either. I found a poster on the SVN users mailing list who asked the same question but never received an answer, here: http://markmail.org/message/ngchfnzlmm43yj7h (That poster ended up using hard links instead of symlinks. That technique is not an option, in my case, because the real underlying files reside on a separate filesystem.) I'm using Subversion v1.6.1 on Fedora 11. For what it's worth, I know that there are alternative tools/techniques that could help approximate this behavior, but which I have to discard for various reasons. I've already considered [and dust-binned] these possibilities: - a "union" mount, merging all of the the directories containing the real files, with the SVN working-copy directory as the "top" layer in the union; - copying/moving the real files to the same filesystem as the SVN working-copy, and using hardlinks instead of symlinks; - non-SVN version control systems. These were all neat ideas, and I'm sure they are good solutions to other problems, but they won't work given the constraints of this environment and situation.

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• Ruby: Why is Array.sort slow for large objects?

  - by David Waller

  A colleague needed to sort an array of ActiveRecord objects in a Rails app. He tried the obvious Array.sort! but it seemed surprisingly slow, taking 32s for an array of 3700 objects. So just in case it was these big fat objects slowing things down, he reimplemented the sort by sorting an array of small objects, then reordering the original array of ActiveRecord objects to match - as shown in the code below. Tada! The sort now takes 700ms. That really surprised me. Does Ruby's sort method end up copying objects about the place rather than just references? He's using Ruby 1.8.6/7. def self.sort_events(events) event_sorters = Array.new(events.length) {|i| EventSorter.new(i, events[i])} event_sorters.sort! event_sorters.collect {|es| events[es.index]} end private # Class used by sort_events class EventSorter attr_reader :sqn attr_reader :time attr_reader :index def initialize(index, event) @index = index @sqn = event.sqn @time = event.time end def <=>(b) @time != b.time ? @time <=> b.time : @sqn <=> b.sqn end end

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• [hibernate - jpa] @OneToOne annotoation problem (i think...)

  - by blow

  Hi all, im new in hibernate and JPA and i have some problems with annotations. My target is to create this table in db (PERSON_TABLE with personal-details) ID ADDRESS NAME SURNAME MUNICIPALITY_ID First of all, i have a MUNICIPALITY table in db containing all municipality of my country. I mapped this table in this ENTITY: @Entity public class Municipality implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy=GenerationType.IDENTITY) private Long id; private String country; private String province; private String name; @Column(name="cod_catasto") private String codCatastale; private String cap; public Municipality() { } ... Then i make an EMBEDDABLE class Address containing fields that realize a simple address... @Embeddable public class Address implements Serializable { @OneToOne(cascade=CascadeType.ALL) @JoinColumn(name="id_municipality") private Municipality municipality; @Column(length=45) private String address; public Address() { } ... Finally i embedded this class into Person ENTITY @Entity public class Person implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy=GenerationType.IDENTITY) private Long id; private String name; private String surname; @Embedded private Address address; public Person() { } ... All works good when i have to save a new Person record, in fact hibernate creates a PERSON_TABLE as i want, but if i try to retrieve a Person record i have an exception. HQL is simply "from Person" The excpetion is (Entities is the package containing all classes above-mentioned): org.hibernate.AnnotationException: @OneToOne or @ManyToOne on Entities.Person.address.municipality references an unknown entity: Entities.Municipality Is the @OneToOne annotation the problem? Thanks.

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• Ruby TypeErrors involving `expected Data`

  - by Kenny Peng

  I've ran into situations where I have gotten these expected Data errors before, but they have always pointed to ActiveRecord not playing well with other libraries in the past. This piece of code: def load(kv_block, debug=false) # Converts a string block to a Hash using split kv_map = StringUtils.kv_array_to_hash(kv_block) # Loop through each key, value kv_map.each do |mem,val| # Format the member from camel case to underscore member = mem.camel_to_underscore() # If the object includes a method to set the key (i.e. the key # is a member of self), invoke the method, setting the value of # the member) if self.methods.include?(member.to_set_method_name()) then # Exception thrown here self.send(member.to_set_method_name(), val) # Else, check for the same case, this time for an instance variable elsif self.instance_variable_defined?(member.to_instance_var_name()) self.instance_variable_set(member.to_instance_var_name(), val) # Else, complain that the object doesn't understand the key with # respect to its class definition. else raise ArgumentError, "I don't know what to do with #{member}. #{self.class} does not have a member or function called #{member}" end end end produces the error wrong argument type #<Class:0x11a02088> (expected Data) (TypeError) in the each loop on the first if test. I've inspected a post-mortem debugging instance using rdebug, and running that line manually, it works without a hitch. Has anyone seen this error before and what's been your solution to it? I used to think it was ActiveRecord and other gems stomping on each other's definitions, but I removed any references to ActiveRecord and this still occurs.

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