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  • validation in datagrid while insert update in asp.net

    - by abhi
    <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="Default7.aspx.cs" Inherits="Default7" % <%@ Register Assembly="Telerik.Web.UI" Namespace="Telerik.Web.UI" TagPrefix="telerik" % Untitled Page   <telerik:GridTemplateColumn Visible="false"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Label ID="lblEmpID" runat="server" Text='<%# bind("pid") %>'> </asp:Label> </ItemTemplate> </telerik:GridTemplateColumn> <telerik:GridBoundColumn UniqueName="Fname" HeaderText="Fname" DataField="Fname" CurrentFilterFunction="NotIsNull" SortExpression="Fname"> </telerik:GridBoundColumn> <telerik:GridBoundColumn UniqueName="Lname" HeaderText="Lname" DataField="Lname" CurrentFilterFunction="NotIsNull" SortExpression="Lname"> </telerik:GridBoundColumn> <telerik:GridBoundColumn UniqueName="Designation" HeaderText="Designation" DataField="Designation" CurrentFilterFunction="NotIsNull" SortExpression="Designation"> </telerik:GridBoundColumn> <telerik:GridEditCommandColumn> </telerik:GridEditCommandColumn> <telerik:GridButtonColumn CommandName="Delete" Text="Delete" UniqueName="column"> </telerik:GridButtonColumn> </Columns> <EditFormSettings> <FormTemplate> <table> <tr> <td>Fname*</td> <td> <asp:HiddenField ID="Fname" runat="server" Visible="false" /> <asp:TextBox ID="txtFname" runat="server" Text='<%#("Fname")%>'> </asp:TextBox> <asp:RequiredFieldValidator ID="EvalFname" ControlToValidate="txtFname" ErrorMessage="Enter Name" runat="server" ValidationGroup="Update"> *</asp:RequiredFieldValidator> </td> </tr> <tr> <td>Lname*</td> <td> <asp:HiddenField ID="HiddenField1" runat="server" Visible="false" /> <asp:TextBox ID="txtLname" runat="server" Text='<%#("Lname")%>'> </asp:TextBox> <asp:RequiredFieldValidator ID="RequiredFieldValidator1" ControlToValidate="txtLname" ErrorMessage="Enter Name" runat="server" ValidationGroup="Update"> *</asp:RequiredFieldValidator> </td> </tr> <tr> <td>Designation* </td> <td> <asp:HiddenField ID="HiddenField2" runat="server" Visible="false" /> <asp:TextBox ID="txtDesignation" runat="server" Text='<%#("Designation")%>'> </asp:TextBox> <asp:RequiredFieldValidator ID="RequiredFieldValidator2" ControlToValidate="txtDesignation" ErrorMessage="Enter Designation" runat="server" ValidationGroup="Update"> *</asp:RequiredFieldValidator> </td> </tr> </table> </FormTemplate> <EditColumn UpdateText="Update record" UniqueName="EditCommandColumn1" CancelText="Cancel edit"> </EditColumn> </EditFormSettings> </MasterTableView> </telerik:RadGrid> </form> this is my code i want to perform validation using the required validators but i think m missing smthin so pls help, here's my code behind using System; using System.Data; using System.Configuration; using System.Collections; using System.Web; using System.Web.Security; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using System.Web.UI.WebControls.WebParts; using System.Web.UI.HtmlControls; using System.Data.SqlClient; using Telerik.Web.UI; public partial class Default7 : System.Web.UI.Page { string strQry; public SqlDataAdapter da; public DataSet ds; public SqlCommand cmd; public DataTable dt; string strCon = "Data Source=MINETDEVDATA; Initial Catalog=ML_SuppliersProd; User Id=sa; Password=@MinetApps7;"; public SqlConnection con; protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { } protected void RadGrid1_NeedDataSource(object source, Telerik.Web.UI.GridNeedDataSourceEventArgs e) { dt = new DataTable(); con = new SqlConnection(strCon); da = new SqlDataAdapter(); try { strQry = "SELECT * FROM table2"; con.Open(); da.SelectCommand = new SqlCommand(strQry,con); da.Fill(dt); RadGrid1.DataSource = dt; } finally { con.Close(); } } protected void RadGrid1_DeleteCommand(object source, Telerik.Web.UI.GridCommandEventArgs e) { con = new SqlConnection(strCon); cmd = new SqlCommand(); GridDataItem item = (GridDataItem)e.Item; string pid = item.OwnerTableView.DataKeyValues[item.ItemIndex]["pid"].ToString(); con.Open(); string delete = "DELETE from table2 where pid='"+pid+"'"; cmd.CommandText = delete; cmd.Connection = con; cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); con.Close(); } protected void RadGrid1_UpdateCommand(object source, GridCommandEventArgs e) { GridEditableItem radgriditem = e.Item as GridEditableItem; string pid = radgriditem.OwnerTableView.DataKeyValues[radgriditem.ItemIndex]["pid"].ToString(); string firstname = (radgriditem["Fname"].Controls[0] as TextBox).Text; string lastname = (radgriditem["Lname"].Controls[0] as TextBox).Text; string designation = (radgriditem["Designation"].Controls[0] as TextBox).Text; con = new SqlConnection(strCon); cmd = new SqlCommand(); try { con.Open(); string update = "UPDATE table2 set Fname='" + firstname + "',Lname='" + lastname + "',Designation='" + designation + "' WHERE pid='" + pid + "'"; cmd.CommandText = update; cmd.Connection = con; cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); con.Close(); } catch (Exception ex) { RadGrid1.Controls.Add(new LiteralControl("Unable to update Reason: " + ex.Message)); e.Canceled = true; } } protected void RadGrid1_InsertCommand(object source, GridCommandEventArgs e) { GridEditFormInsertItem insertitem = (GridEditFormInsertItem)e.Item; string firstname = (insertitem["Fname"].Controls[0] as TextBox).Text; string lastname = (insertitem["Lname"].Controls[0] as TextBox).Text; string designation = (insertitem["Designation"].Controls[0] as TextBox).Text; con = new SqlConnection(strCon); cmd = new SqlCommand(); try { con.Open(); String insertQuery = "INSERT into table1(Fname,Lname,Designation) Values ('" + firstname + "','" + lastname + "','" + designation + "')"; cmd.CommandText = insertQuery; cmd.Connection = con; cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); con.Close(); } catch(Exception ex) { RadGrid1.Controls.Add(new LiteralControl("Unable to insert Reason:" + ex.Message)); e.Canceled = true; } } }

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  • Upgrading MySQL Connector/Net

    - by Todd Grover
    I am trying to publish a website with our hosting provider. I am getting error due to the fact that they only allow a medium trust and the MySQL Connector/Net that I am using requires reflection to work. Unfortunately, reflection is not allowed in a medium trust. After some research I found out that the newest version of the MySQL Connector/Net may solve this problem. Connector/Net 6.6 includes enhancements to partial trust support to allow hosting services to deploy applications without installing the Connector/Net library in the GAC. I am thinking that will solve my problem. So, I unistalled MySQL Connector/Net 6.4.4 and I installed MySQL Connector/Net 6.6.4. When I run the application in Visual Studio 2010 I get the error: ProviderIncompatibleException was unhandled by user code The message is An error occurred while getting provider information from the database. This can be caused by Entity Framework using an incorrect connection string. Check the inner exceptions for details and ensure that the connection string is correct. InnerException is The provider did not return a ProviderManifestToken string. Everything works fine when I have Connector/Net 6.4.4 installed. I can access the database and perform Read/Write/Delete action against it. I have a reference to the following in the project: MySql.Data MySql.Data.Entity MySql.Web My connection string in Web.config <connectionStrings> <add name="AESSmartEntities" connectionString="server=ec2-xxx-xx-xxx-xx.compute-1.amazonaws.com; user=root; database=nunya; port=3306; password=xxxxxxx;" providerName="MySql.Data.MySqlClient" /> </connectionStrings> What might I be doing wrong? Do I need any additional setting(s) to work with version 6.6.4 that wasn't required in the older version 6.4.4?

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  • SQL Server 2008 login problem with ASP.NET application: Failed to open the explicitly specified data

    - by eulerfx
    I am running SQL Server 2008 Express Edition on Windows Server 2008 with an ASP.NET application which must access the server. The ASP.NET application is associated with an application pool that runs on the NetworkService account. This account in turn has a Login and User record on SQL Server in the required database. When I attempt to run the ASP.NET website I get a blank page and when viewed in the error log, I seem to be getting this information event record: Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE'. Reason: Failed to open the explicitly specified database. [CLIENT: myLocalMachine] The connection string has Trusted_Connection=True; and the required database specified. When I explicitly specify the user name and password I get another login error stating the password is incorrect, even though the same un/pw combination works through SQL Server Management studio. The NETWORK SERVICE account seems to have all the required privileges for the database. Also, I made a test ASP.NET website project which does a simple select from a table in that database, and using the same config file I am not getting the error and it seems to work. Is it something to do with trust levels then, because the original ASP.NET web app references various DLLs including open source libraries. Also, the application does not seem to be able to write to the event log itself, throwing a security exception, even though everything in the config files, including machine.config states the app is in full trust.

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  • Asp.net 4.0 Handler Mappings Missing in IIS7

    - by Marc
    I have two Windows 2008 R2 Servers running an asp.net 4.0 app. The server that is having problems actually loads asp.net pages just fine, but if there are any ajax calls they don't work. I noticed there are no .net 4.0 specific Handler Mappings in IIS for this server like the other server has. It's literally missing all .net 4.0 mappings (.axd, .soap, .cshtm, .ashx and even .aspx). I've tried running "aspnet_regiis -ir" but that didn't help. Should I reinstall the .net 4.0 framework? Manually add all these missing mappings? Is there something else going on? What I don't want to do is add a ton of handlers to a web.config, they aren't needed on the server that works so it shouldn't be needed on the broken one.

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  • IIS 7 + ASP.NET 4

    - by user26712
    Hello, I have an ASP.NET application that I am trying to convert to an ASP.NET 4 application. The application is fairly simple. I have created a new web application in IIS 7.5 pointing to the directory that the ASP.NET application exists in. When I attempt to execute the application, but entering http://localhost%3A%5Bport%5D into my browser, I receive the following error: Error Summary HTTP Error 500.21 - Internal Server Error Handler "PageHandlerFactory-Integrated" has a bad module "ManagedPipelineHandler" in its module list Most likely causes: * Managed handler is used; however, ASP.NET is not installed or is not installed completely. * There is a typographical error in the configuration for the handler module list.

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  • Allow Single IP to access ASP.NET Web Service (ASMX) using Firewall

    - by Suresh Agrawal
    I have one asp.net web service (asmx) in separate project that is hosted on windows server having other asp.net web applications running on it. How can I restrict asp.net web service to be accessed by single IP address? I want that my web service must be accessed by one IP configured by me. If requests comes from any other IP, it must not reach to my web service and discarded by windows firewall itself. I know that this is something to do with windows firewall. I did it for SQL Server previously, but I don't know how to configure single asp.net web service project to do so.

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  • IIS/ASP.NET performance incident - Perfmon Current Annonymous Users going through roof but Requests/sec low

    - by Laurence
    Setup: ASP.NET 4.0 website on IIS 6.0 on Win 2003 64 bit, 8xCPUs, 16GB memory, separate SQL 2005 DB server. Had a serious slowdown today with any otherwise fairly well performing ASP.NET site. For a period of a couple of hours all page requests were taking a very long time to be served - e.g. 30-60s compared to usual 2s. The w3wp.exe's CPU and memory usage on the webserver was not much higher than normal. The application pool was not in the middle of recycling (and it hadn't recycled for several hours). Bottlenecks in the database were ruled out - no blocks occurring and query results were being returned quickly. I couldn't make any sense of it and set up the following Perfmon counters: Current Anonymous Users (for site in question) Get requests/sec (ditto) Requests/sec for the ASP.NET application running the site Get requests/sec was averaging 100-150. Requests/sec for ASP.NET was averaging 5-10. However Current Anonymous Users was around 200. And then as I was watching, the Current Anonymous Users began to climb steeply going up to about 500 within a few minutes. All this time Get requests/sec & Requests/sec for ASP.NET was if anything going down. I did a whole load of things (in a panic!) to try to get the site working, like shutting it down, recycling the app pool, and adding another worker process to the pool. I also extended the expiration time for content (in IIS under HTTP Headers) in an attempt to lower the number of requests for static files (there are a lot of images on the site). The site is now back to normal, and the counters are fairly steady and reading (added Current Connections counter): Current Anonymous Users : average 30 Get requests/sec : average 100 Requests/sec for ASP.NET : 5 Current Connections : average 300 I have also observed an inverse relationship between Get requests/sec & Current Anonymous Users. Usually both are fairly steady but there will be short periods when Get requests/sec will go down dramatically and Current Anonymous Users will go up in a perfect mirror image. Then they will flip back to their usual levels. So, my questions are: Thinking of the original performance issue - if w3wp.exe CPU, memory usage were normal and there was no DB bottleneck, what could explain page requests taking 20 times longer to be served than usual? What other counters should I be looking at if this happens again? What explains the inverse relationship between Get requests/sec & Current Anonymous Users? What could explain Current Anonymous Users going from 200 to 500 within a few minutes? Many thanks for any insight into this.

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  • SQL Server 2008 login problem with ASP.NET application: Failed to open the explicitly specified database

    - by eulerfx
    I am running SQL Server 2008 Express Edition on Windows Server 2008 with an ASP.NET application which must access the server. The ASP.NET application is associated with an application pool that runs on the NetworkService account. This account in turn has a Login and User record on SQL Server in the required database. When I attempt to run the ASP.NET website I get a blank page and when viewed in the error log, I seem to be getting this information event record: Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE'. Reason: Failed to open the explicitly specified database. [CLIENT: myLocalMachine] The connection string has Trusted_Connection=True; and the required database specified. When I explicitly specify the user name and password I get another login error stating the password is incorrect, even though the same un/pw combination works through SQL Server Management studio. The NETWORK SERVICE account seems to have all the required privileges for the database. Also, I made a test ASP.NET website project which does a simple select from a table in that database, and using the same config file I am not getting the error and it seems to work. Is it something to do with trust levels then, because the original ASP.NET web app references various DLLs including open source libraries. Also, the application does not seem to be able to write to the event log itself, throwing a security exception, even though everything in the config files, including machine.config states the app is in full trust.

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  • Windows 7 / IIS 7 / Classic ASP not working

    - by Lucenut
    I have some old classic asp scripts. They used to work on my 2003/IIS 6 server. But on my Vista/IIS 7 and now Windows 7 Ultimate/IIS 7 server the asp pages don't work. I did what they said here: Deploying a Classic ASP Server (IIS 7) (Microsoft TechNet). I enabled those 3 features in IIS 7 but that just went from getting 404 to 500 error.

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  • IIS7 MVC deploy - 404 not found on actions that accept "id" parameter.

    - by majkinetor
    Hello. Once deployed parts of my web-application stop working. Index-es on each controller do work, and one form posting via Ajax, Login works too. Other then that yields 404. I understand that nothing particular should be done in integrated mode. I don't know how to proceed with troubleshooting. Some info: App is using default app pool set to integrated mode. WebApp is done in net framework 3.5. I use default routing model. Along web.config in root there is web.config in /View folder referencing HttpNotFoundHandler. OS is Windows Server 2008. Admins issued aspnet_regiis.exe -i IIS 7 Any help is appreciated. Thx. EDIT: I determined that only actions that accept ID parameter don't work. On the contrary, when I add dummy id method in Home controller of default MVC app it works. My Views/Web.config <?xml version="1.0"?> <configuration> <system.web> <httpHandlers> <add path="*" verb="*" type="System.Web.HttpNotFoundHandler"/> </httpHandlers> <!-- Enabling request validation in view pages would cause validation to occur after the input has already been processed by the controller. By default MVC performs request validation before a controller processes the input. To change this behavior apply the ValidateInputAttribute to a controller or action. --> <pages validateRequest="false" pageParserFilterType="System.Web.Mvc.ViewTypeParserFilter, System.Web.Mvc, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" pageBaseType="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage, System.Web.Mvc, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" userControlBaseType="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl, System.Web.Mvc, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"> <controls> <add assembly="System.Web.Mvc, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" namespace="System.Web.Mvc" tagPrefix="mvc" /> </controls> </pages> </system.web> <system.webServer> <validation validateIntegratedModeConfiguration="false"/> <handlers> <remove name="BlockViewHandler"/> <add name="BlockViewHandler" path="*" verb="*" preCondition="integratedMode" type="System.Web.HttpNotFoundHandler"/> </handlers> </system.webServer> </configuration>

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  • "Bad binary signature" in ASP.NET MVC application

    - by David M
    We are getting the error above on some pages of an ASP.NET MVC application when it is deployed to a 64 bit Windows 2008 server box. It works fine on our development machines, though these are 32 bit XP. Just wondered if anyone had encountered this before, and has any suggestions? Details as follows: Bad binary signature. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80131192) Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException: Bad binary signature. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80131192) All projects are set to compile for Any CPU, and are compiled in Release mode. The ASP.NET site is precompiled, and the precompiled build is on a 64 bit Windows 2008 TeamCity build agent. Thanks in advance. EDIT We're still plagued by this. I have looked at all the binaries in the website's bin directory using corflags.exe. None has the 32BIT flag set, and all have a CorFlags value of 9 except for Antlr3.Runtime.dll which has a value of 1. The problem only affects certain pages, and it seems to be those which use FluentValidation (including FluentValidation.Mvc and FluentValidation.xValIntegration assemblies). None of these shows anything out of the ordinary when inspected with corflags.exe, and there are no odd looking dependencies revealed by ildasm. When built locally (32 bit Windows XP) the site deploys and runs fine. When built on the build agents (64 bit Windows 2008 Server) the site displays these errors. The site runs in Integrated Pipeline mode, and is not set to 32 bit. The stack trace is: [COMException (0x80131192): Bad binary signature. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80131192)] ASP.views_user_newinternal_aspx.__RenderContent2(HtmlTextWriter __w, Control parameterContainer) in e:\TeamCity\buildAgent\work\605ee6b4a5d1dd36\...Admin.Mvc\Views\User\NewInternal.aspx:53 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildrenInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ICollection children) +115 ASP.views_shared_site_master.__Render__control1(HtmlTextWriter __w, Control parameterContainer) in e:\TeamCity\buildAgent\work\605ee6b4a5d1dd36\...Admin.Mvc\Views\Shared\Site.Master:26 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildrenInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ICollection children) +115 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildrenInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ICollection children) +240 System.Web.UI.Page.Render(HtmlTextWriter writer) +38 System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage.Render(HtmlTextWriter writer) +94 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +4240

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  • Advice on displaying and allowing editing of data using ASP.NET MVC?

    - by Remnant
    I am embarking upon my first ASP.NET MVC project and I would like to get some input on possible ways to display database data and general best practice. In short, the body of my webpage will show data from my database in a table like format, with each table row showing similar data. For example: Name Age Position Date Joined Jon Smith 23 Striker 18th Mar 2005 John Doe 38 Defender 3rd Jan 1988 In terms of functionality, primarily I’d like to give the user the ability to edit the data and, after the edit, commit the edit to the database and refresh the view.The reason I want to refresh the view is because the data is date ordered and I will need to re-sort if the user edits a date field. My main question is what architecture / tools would be best suited to this fulfil my requirements at a high level? From the research I have done so far my initial conclusions were: ADO.NET for data retrieval. This is something I have used before and feel comfortable with. I like the look of LINQ to SQL but don’t want to make the learning curve any steeper for my first outing into MVC land just yet. Partial Views to create a template and then iterate through a datatable that I have pulled back from my database model. jQuery to allow the user to edit data in the table, error check edited data entries etc. Also, my intial view was that caching the data would not be a key requirement here. The only field a user will be able to update is the field and, if they do, I will need to commit that data to the database immediately and then refresh the view (as the data is date sorted). Any thoughts on this? Alternatively, I have seen some jQuery plug-ins that emulate a datagrid and provide associated functionality. My first thoughts are that I do not need all the functionality that comes with these plug-ins (e.g. zebra striping, ability to sort by column using sort glyph in column headers etc .) and I don’t really see any benefit to this over and above the solution I have outlined above. Again, is there reason to reconsider this view? Finally, when a user edits a date , I will need to refresh the view. In order to do this I had been reading about Html.RenderAction and this seemed like it may be a better option than using Partial Views as I can incorporate application logic into the action method. Am I right to consider Html.RenderAction or have I misunderstood its usage? Hope this post is clear and not too long. I did consider separate posts for each topic (e.g. Partial View vs. Html.RenderAction, when to use jQury datagrid plug-in) but it feels like these issues are so intertwined that they need to be dealt with in contect of each other. Thanks

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  • How do you 'clone' WebControls in C# .NET ?

    - by Adz
    My basic question is, in .NET, how do I clone WebControls? I would like to build a custom tag, which can produce multiple copies of its children. Ultimately I intend to build a tag similar to in JSP/Struts. But the first hurdle I have is the ability to duplicate/clone the contents of a control. Consider this rather contrived example; <custom:duplicate count="2"> <div> <p>Some html</p> <asp:TextBox id="tb1" runat="server" /> </div> </custom:duplicate> The HTML markup which is output would be something like, <div> <p>Some html</p> <input type="text" id="tb1" /> </div> <div> <p>Some html</p> <input type="text" id="tb1" /> </div> Note: I know i have the id duplicated, I can come up with a solution to that later! So what we would have is my custom control with 3 children (I think) - a literal control, a TextBox control, and another literal control. In this example I have said 'count=2' so what the control should do is output/render its children twice. What I would hope to do is write some "OnInit" code which does something like: List<WebControl> clones; for(int i=1; i<count; i++) { foreach(WebControl c in Controls) { WebControl clone = c.Clone(); clones.Add(clone); } } Controls.AddRange(clones); However, as far as I can tell, WebControls do not implement ICloneable, so its not possible to clone them in this way. Any ideas how I can clone WebControls?

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  • How do i add a string template to views in .net mvc?

    - by Lina
    Hi, I have a newbie question,, how do i add a string template to the views folder in a .net mvc project? i have added a reference to StringTemplate.dll and antlr.runtime.dll but seems that is not enough. i.e. when i right-click on views and choose Add New Item i can't find a file with .st extension in the list that i get... how do i achieve that? Thanks a million in advance

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  • ASP.NET MVC : Good Replacement for User Control?

    - by David Lively
    I found user controls to be incredibly useful when working with ASP.NET webforms. By encapsulating the code required for displaying a control with the markup, creation of reusable components was very straightforward and very, very useful. While MVC provides convenient separation of concerns, this seems to break encapsulation (ie, you can add a control without adding or using its supporting code, leading to runtime errors). Having to modify a controller every time I add a control to a view seems to me to integrate concerns, not separate them. I'd rather break the purist MVC ideology than give up the benefits of reusable, packaged controls. I need to be able to include components similar to webforms user controls throughout a site, but not for the entire site, and not at a level that belongs in a master page. These components should have their own code not just markup (to interact with the business layer), and it would be great if the page controller didn't need to know about the control. Since MVC user controls don't have codebehind, I can't see a good way to do this. Update FINALLY, a good (and, in retrospect, obvious) way to accomplish this. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.Mvc; namespace K.ObjectModel.Controls { public class TestControl : ViewUserControl { protected override void Render(System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriter writer) { writer.Write("Hello World"); base.Render(writer); } } } Create a new class which inherits ViewUserControl Override the .Render() method as shown above. Register the control via its associated ASCX as you would in a webForm: <%@ Register TagName="tn" TagPrefix="k" Src="~/Views/Navigation/LeftBar.ascx"%> Use the corresponding tag in whatever view or master page that you need: <k:tn runat="server"/> Make sure your .ascx inherits your new control: <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="K.ObjectModel.Controls.TestControl" %> Voila, you're up and running. This is tested with ASP.NET MVC 2, VS 2010 and .NET 4.0. Your custom tag references the ascx partial view, which inherits from the TestControl class. The control then overrides the Render() method, which is called to render the view, giving you complete control over the process from tag to output. Why does everyone try to make this so much harder than it has to be?

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  • is it possible to add a string template to views in a .net mvc project?

    - by Lina
    Hi, I have a newbie question,, how do i add a string template to the views folder in a .net mvc project? i have added a reference to StringTemplate.dll and antlr.runtime.dll but seems that is not enough. i.e. when i right-click on views and choose Add New Item i can't find a file with .st extension in the list that i get... how do i achieve that? Thanks a million in advance

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  • Autocomplete jQuery on User Controller within Repeater .NET

    - by TheDPQ
    I have a Multiview search feature on a Web User Controller that is called within a Repeater, OHMY!! I have some training sessions being listed out on a page, each calling an employeeSearch Web User Controller so people can search for employees to add to the training session. I have the Employee Names and Employee IDs listed out in JS on the page and using the jQuery autocomplete i have them search for the employee and populate a hidden field in the User controller. Once the process is done they have the option of adding yet another employee. So i had Autocompelte 'work' in all the employee search boxes, but one i do the initial search (postback) autocomplete won't work again. Then i updated $().ready(function() to pageLoad() so it works correctly on multiple searches but only in the LAST item of the repeater (jQuery is loaded on the User Controller) FYI: I have the JS string set as EMPLOYEENAME|ID and jQuery displays the Employee Name and if they select it throws the ID in a ASP:HIDDEN FIELD <script type="text/javascript"> format_item = function(item, position, length) { var str = item.toString().split("|", 2); return str[0]; } function pageLoad() { $("#<%=tb_EmployeeName.ClientID %>").autocomplete(EmployeeList, { minChars: 0, width: 500, matchContains: true, autoFill: false, scrollHeight: 300, scroll: true, formatItem: format_item, formatMatch: format_item, formatResult: format_item }); $("#<%=tb_EmployeeName.ClientID %>").result(function(event, data, formatted) { var str = data.toString().split("|", 2); $("#<%=hf_EmployeeID.ClientID %>").val(str[1]); }); }; </script> I can already guess that by repeating pageLoad within the User Controll i override the previous pageLoad. THE QUESTION: Is there a way around this, a way to have all the jQuery appear in a single pageLoad or to somehow have a single jquery call to handle all my search boxes? I can't move the jQuery into the page calling all the controllers because i have no way of referencing the specific *tb_EmployeeName* textbox AND *hf_EmployeeID* hidden field. Thank you so much for any help or insight you can give me into this problem. This is the Multiview that on the User Controller <asp:MultiView ID="mv_EmployeeArea" runat="server" ActiveViewIndex="0"> <asp:View ID="vw_Search" runat="server"> <asp:Panel ID="eSearch" runat="server"> <b>Signup Employee Search</b> (<i>Last Name, First Name</i>)<br /> <asp:TextBox ID="tb_EmployeeName" class="EmployeeSearch" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <asp:HiddenField ID="hf_EmployeeID" runat="server" /> <asp:Button ID="btn_Search" runat="server" Text="Search" /> </asp:Panel> </asp:View> <asp:View ID="vw_Confirm" runat="server"> <b>Signup Confirmation</b> <asp:FormView ID="fv_EmployeeInfo" runat="server"> <ItemTemplate> <%#(Eval("LastName"))%>, <%#(Eval("FirstName"))%><br /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> <asp:Button ID="btn_Confirm" runat="server" Text="Signup this employee" /> &nbsp; <asp:Button ID="btn_Reset3" runat="server" Text="Reset" /> </asp:View> <asp:View ID="vw_ThankYou" runat="server"> <b>Thank You</b><br /> The employee has been signed up and an email confirmation has been sent out.<br /><br /> <asp:Button ID="btn_Reset" runat="server" Text="Reset" /> </asp:View> </asp:MultiView> UPDATE: I never did find an answer but i had to do a demo so i hacked together something that 'works', but feels sort of cheesy. I am still very much needed of a better question or better understanding.

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  • Quartz.Net scheduler works locally but not on remote host

    - by Glinkot
    Hi. I have a timed quartz.net job working fine on my dev machine, but once deployed to a remote server it is not triggering. I believe the job is scheduled ok, because if I postback, it tells me the job already exists (I normally check for postback however). The email code definitely works, as the 'button1_click' event sends emails successfully. I understand I have full or medium trust on the remove server. My host says they don't apply restrictions that they know of which would affect it. Any other things I need to do to get it running? using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using Quartz; using Quartz.Impl; using Quartz.Core; using Aspose.Network.Mail; using Aspose.Network; using Aspose.Network.Mime; using System.Text; namespace QuartzTestASP { public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!Page.IsPostBack) { ISchedulerFactory schedFact = new StdSchedulerFactory(); IScheduler sched = schedFact.GetScheduler(); JobDetail jobDetail = new JobDetail("testJob2", null, typeof(testJob)); //Trigger trigger = TriggerUtils.MakeMinutelyTrigger(1, 3); Trigger trigger = TriggerUtils.MakeSecondlyTrigger(10, 5); trigger.StartTimeUtc = DateTime.UtcNow; trigger.Name = "TriggertheTest"; sched.Start(); sched.ScheduleJob(jobDetail, trigger); } } protected void Button1_Click1(object sender, EventArgs e) { myutil.sendEmail(); } } class testJob : IStatefulJob { public testJob() { } public void Execute(JobExecutionContext context) { myutil.sendEmail(); } } public static class myutil { public static void sendEmail() { // tested code lives here and works fine when called from elsewhere } } }

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  • Trouble with object injection in Spring.Net

    - by Abdel Olakara
    Hi all, I have a issue with my Spring.Net configuration where its not injecting an object. I have a CommService to which an object named GeneralEmail is injected to. Here is the configuration: <!-- GeneralMail Object --> <object id="GeneralMailObject" type="CommUtil.Email.GeneralEmail, CommUtil"> <constructor-arg name="host" value="xxxxx.com"/> <constructor-arg name="port" value="25"/> <constructor-arg name="user" value="[email protected]"/> <constructor-arg name="password" value="xxxxx"/> <constructor-arg name="template" value="xxxxx"/> </object> <!-- Communication Service --> <object id="CommServiceObject" type="TApp.Code.Services.CommService, TApp"> <property name="emailService" ref="GeneralMailObject" /> </object> The communication service object is again injected to many other aspx pages & service. In one scenario, I need to call the commnucation service from an static WebMethod. I try doing: CommService cso = new CommService(); But when i try to get the emailService object, its null! why didn't the spring inject the GeneralMail object into my cso object? What am I doing wrong and how do I access the object from spring container. Thanks in advance for the suggestions and solutions. Reagrds, Abdel Olakara

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  • "Failed to find or load the registered .Net Framework Data Provider" with MySQL + ASP.NET

    - by Malachi
    How do we repair this? This question has been sort of addressed many times around the internet, but it's always a workaround. Always copying the MySql.data.dll into your bin directory, or explicitly stating what version you want. What is the "proper" approach to using DbProvderFactory for MySQL with ASP.NET? I'd like to be able to develop locally and not worry what version they have installed on the server. As it stands, if I do copy up my own version I have to make sure it's the one they use. Seems easy to break.

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