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  • Sessions not persisting between requests

    - by klonq
    My session objects are only stored within the request scope on google app engine and I can't figure out how to persist objects between requests. The docs are next to useless on this matter and I can't find anyone who's experienced a similar problem. Please help. When I store session objects in the servlet and forward the request to a JSP using: getServletContext().getRequestDispatcher("/example.jsp").forward(request,response); Everything works like it should. But when I store objects to the session and redirect the request using: response.sendRedirect("/example/url"); The session objects are lost to the ether. In fact when I dump session key/value pairs on new requests there is absolutely nothing, session objects only appear within the request scope of servlets which create session objects. It appears to me that the objects are not being written to Memcache or Datastore. In terms of configuring sessions for my application I have set <sessions-enabled>true</sessions-enabled> In appengine-web.xml. Is there anything else I am missing? The single paragraph of documentation on sessions also notes that only objects which implement Serializable can be stored in the session between requests. I have included an example of the code which is not working below. The obvious solution is to not use redirects, and this might be ok for the example given below but some application data does need to be stored in the session between requests so I need to find a solution to this problem. EXAMPLE: The class FlashMessage gives feedback to the user from server-side operations. if (email.send()) { FlashMessage flash = new FlashMessage(FlashMessage.SUCCESS, "Your message has been sent."); session.setAttribute(FlashMessage.SESSION_KEY, flash); // The flash message will not be available in the session object in the next request response.sendRedirect(URL.HOME); } else { FlashMessage flash = new FlashMessage(FlashMessage.ERROR, FlashMessage.INVALID_FORM_DATA); session.setAttribute(FlashMessage.SESSION_KEY, flash); // The flash message is displayed without problem getServletContext().getRequestDispatcher(Templates.CONTACT_FORM).forward(request,response); } FlashMessage.java import java.io.Serializable; public class FlashMessage implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = 8109520737272565760L; // I have tried using different, default and no serialVersionUID public static final String SESSION_KEY = "flashMessage"; public static final String ERROR = "error"; public static final String SUCCESS = "success"; public static final String INVALID_FORM_DATA = "Your request failed to validate."; private String message; private String type; public FlashMessage (String type, String message) { this.type = type; this.message = message; } public String display(){ return "<div id='flash' class='" + type + "'>" + message + "</div>"; } }

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  • casting doubles to integers in order to gain speed

    - by antirez
    Hello all, in Redis (http://code.google.com/p/redis) there are scores associated to elements, in order to take this elements sorted. This scores are doubles, even if many users actually sort by integers (for instance unix times). When the database is saved we need to write this doubles ok disk. This is what is used currently: snprintf((char*)buf+1,sizeof(buf)-1,"%.17g",val); Additionally infinity and not-a-number conditions are checked in order to also represent this in the final database file. Unfortunately converting a double into the string representation is pretty slow. While we have a function in Redis that converts an integer into a string representation in a much faster way. So my idea was to check if a double could be casted into an integer without lost of data, and then using the function to turn the integer into a string if this is true. For this to provide a good speedup of course the test for integer "equivalence" must be fast. So I used a trick that is probably undefined behavior but that worked very well in practice. Something like that: double x = ... some value ... if (x == (double)((long long)x)) use_the_fast_integer_function((long long)x); else use_the_slow_snprintf(x); In my reasoning the double casting above converts the double into a long, and then back into an integer. If the range fits, and there is no decimal part, the number will survive the conversion and will be exactly the same as the initial number. As I wanted to make sure this will not break things in some system, I joined #c on freenode and I got a lot of insults ;) So I'm now trying here. Is there a standard way to do what I'm trying to do without going outside ANSI C? Otherwise, is the above code supposed to work in all the Posix systems that currently Redis targets? That is, archs where Linux / Mac OS X / *BSD / Solaris are running nowaday? What I can add in order to make the code saner is an explicit check for the range of the double before trying the cast at all. Thank you for any help.

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  • How to combine a list of choices to determine which select statement

    - by Larry
    I have a mysql db and am using php 5.2 What I am trying to do is offer a list of options for a person to select (only 1). The chosen option will cause a select, update, or delete statement to be ran. The results of the statement do not need to be shown, although, showing the old and then the new would be nice (no problems with that part tho'.). Pseudo-Code: Assign $choice = 0 Check the value of $choice // This way, if it = 100, we do a break Select a Choice:<br> 1. Adjust Status Value (+60) // $choice = 1<br> 2. Show all Ships <br> // $choice = 2 3. Show Ships in Port <br> // $choice = 3 ... 0. $choice="100" // if the value =100, quit this part Use either case (switch) or if/else statements to run the users choice1 If the choice is 1, then run the "Select" statement with the variable of $sql1 -- "SELECT .... If the choice is 2, then run the "Select" statement with the variable of $sql2 --- SELECT * FROM Ships If the choice is 3, then run the "Select" statement with the variable of $sql3 <br> .... If the choice is 0, then we are done. I figured the (3) statements would be assigned in php as: $sql1="...". $sql2="SELECT * FROM Ships" $sql3="SELECT * FROM Ships WHERE nPort="1" My idea was to use the switch statement, but got lost on it. :( I would like the options to be available over and over again, until a variable ($choice) is selected. In which case, this particular page is done and goes back to the "Main Menu"? The coding and display, if I use it, I can do. Just not sure how to write the way to select which one I want. It is possible that I would run all of the queries, and other times, only one, so that is why I would like the choice. An area I get confused in is the proper forms to use such as -- ' ' " " and ...?? Not sure the # of options I will end up with, but it will be more than 5 but less than 20 / page. So if I get the system down for 2-3 choices, I can replicate it for as many as I may need. And, as always, if a better way exists, I am willing to try it. Thanks again... Larry

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  • UpdatePanel Full Postback

    - by Korivo
    Greetings, here is the scenario. I have and .aspx page with and updatepanel like this <asp:UpdatePanel id="uPanelMain" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <uc:Calendar id="ucCalendar" runat="server" Visible="true" /> <uc:Scoring id="ucScoring" runat="server" Visible="false" /> </ContentTemplate> The control ucCalendar is loaded first and it contains a grid like this <asp:DataGrid CssClass="grid" ID="gridGames" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="False" HeaderStyle-CssClass="gridHeader" ItemStyle-CssClass="gridScoringRow" GridLines="None" ItemStyle-BackColor="#EEEEEE" AlternatingItemStyle-BackColor="#F5F5F5" OnEditCommand="doScoreGame" OnDeleteCommand="doEditGame" OnCancelCommand="printLineup" OnItemDataBound="gridDataBound"> <Columns> <asp:TemplateColumn > <ItemTemplate> <asp:CheckBox ID="chkDelete" runat="server" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateColumn> <asp:BoundColumn DataField="idGame" Visible="false" /> <asp:BoundColumn DataField="isClose" Visible="false" /> <asp:TemplateColumn HeaderText="Status"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Image ID="imgStatus" runat="server" ImageUrl="~/img/icoX.png" alt="icoStatus" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateColumn> <asp:TemplateColumn> <ItemTemplate> <asp:LinkButton ID="linkScore" runat="server" CommandName="Edit" Text="Score" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateColumn> </Columns> </asp:DataGrid> So when i click the "linkButton", the codebehind of the userControl calls a public method in the .aspx as this: From the userControl protected void doScoreGame(object sender, DataGridCommandEventArgs e) { ((GM)this.Page).showScoring(null, null); } From the .aspx page public void showScoring(object sender, EventArgs e) { removeLastLoadedControl(); ucScoring.Visible = true; } So, here comes the problem: There are two postbacks taking place when I change the visible attribute of the ucScoring control. The first postback is fine, it's handled by the updatePanel. The second postback is a full postback, and i really don't understand why it is happening. I'm really lost here, please help! Thanks Mat

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  • Log4j: Issues about the FallbackErrorHandler

    - by rdogpink
    I am working on a client-server-application and wanted to implement a flexible Loggingframework, so I chose log4j, which doesn´t really evolve anymore, but it is still handy framework. Because the Logging happens along the network, i wanted a solution for the case, that the network drive isn´t available, so the Logger has to change its destination file(s). Now I wanted to use the FallbackErrorHandler (configured with a XML-File) from the Log4j-library and the implementation worked: When my network drive isn´t available, it switches to a local Logfile, so no logging should be lost. But I headded two problems since yesterday and couldn´t figure or find out, how to solve it. No return to initial Logging Configuration: When the network drive is on again and the Logger could write to the old destinations, log4j still logs at the local drive and I can´t figure out, how to notify the original (primary) Logger to start again. I also tried to attach a second Appender to the ErrorHandler, which should mirror the failed primary Logger, that it tries to write on the network destination and when the network is on again, it logs in both files, on the local and on the network drive. But unfortunately it didn´t work out, I only got a failure message that the ErrorHandler-content doesn´t fit. log4j:WARN The content of element type "errorHandler" must match "(param*,root-ref?,logger-ref*,appender-ref?)". This is the responsible code. <appender name="TraceAppender" class="org.apache.log4j.DailyRollingFileAppender"> <!-- The second appender-ref "TestAppender" leads to the error. --> <errorHandler class="org.apache.log4j.varia.FallbackErrorHandler"> <logger-ref ref="com.idoh"/> <appender-ref ref="TraceFallbackAppender"/> <appender-ref ref="TestAppender"/> </errorHandler> <param name="datePattern" value=".yyyy-MM-dd" /> <param name="file" value="logs/Trace.txt" /> <layout class="org.apache.log4j.PatternLayout"> <param name="ConversionPattern" value="%-6r %d{HH:mm:ss,SSS} [%t] %-5p - %m%n"/> </layout> </appender> So, how could I trigger log4j to reset to initial configuration or hold a second appender parallel to the "Local-Logger". My Application should work by itself and shouldn´t have to be restarted often. First Error message is swallowed: I recognized, that the first message, which leads to the switching between the primary logger and the FallbackErrorHandler (for example a logging-request to a readonly-File), is swallowed, so neither the primary logger logs it (because it can´t) nor the backup-Logger knows what it missed. So anybody else ran in this problem and could solve it? Or has any suggestions?

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  • Android onActivityResult is always 0

    - by Dean
    This has been killing me for two days now. I have a main Activity A which calls a second Activity B. Activity B simply presents the user with a listview. When I press an item on the list view I want a couple of strings to be passed back to the main Activity A and Activiy B will finish. The problem is I always get a resultcode of 0 and the data bundle is null. I really don't understand why this is happening. Here is my code. Start Activity B for result; Test.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View v) { Intent i = new Intent(recipeActivity.this, BrowseLoadRecipes.class); startActivityForResult(i, RECIPE_CHOOSER); } }); This starts the second Activity fine. Activity B populates a listview and when I click an item I'm trying to send some data back to the calling Activity A. Any text at the moment, so I used the following in Activity B; lv.setOnItemClickListener(new OnItemClickListener() { @Override public void onItemClick(AdapterView<?> a, View v, int position, long id) { Bundle bundle = new Bundle(); bundle.putString("TEXT", "Please work... pleeeeaasee"); Intent mIntent = new Intent(); mIntent.putExtras(bundle); setResult(RESULT_OK, mIntent); finish(); } }); In the calling activity I have the following listening for the return as follows; protected void onActivityResult(int requestCode, int resultCode, Intent data) { switch(requestCode) { //TODO case RECIPE_CHOOSER: Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), "In recipe return", Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), "resultCode is " + String.valueOf(resultCode), Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); if (resultCode == RESULT_OK) { Bundle b = getIntent().getExtras(); Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), "Returned " + b.getString("TEXT"), Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } if (resultCode == RESULT_CANCELED) { } break; } } } I can see that the request code is correctly returned, but the resultcode is always a 0 and the data is always a null. I've ran through the debug and the setResult is doing its job and the bundle does indeed have the data I'm passing, but it's lost at some point along the way. Is there something in the manifest I'm missing or something. It's killed my progress on this project so far. Any help would truly be appreciated. Thanks, Dean

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  • JQuery Validation - Wrap offending field in a div.

    - by Samuurai
    Hi, It's my first time using StackOverFlow and first time trying to set up jQuery Validation. It's displaying <label> tags with the error messages as default behaviour, however the way my CSS is set up I need a div to wrap around the offending element and a message display in <p> tags. Without errors, my html looks like this: <div class="grid-26 append-2"> <p class="noMarginBottom"> <label>First Name</label> <div class="jNiceInputWrapper"> <div class="jNiceInputInner"> <input type="text" class="text jNiceInput" name="name"/> </div> </div> </p> <span class="clear"/> </div> And with Errors, it needs to look like this - Note the div with class "error" and the <p> tag. <div class="grid-26 append-2"> <div class="error"> <p>Please write your real name</p> <p class="noMarginBottom"> <label>First Name</label> <div class="jNiceInputWrapper"> <div class="jNiceInputInner"> <input type="text" class="text jNiceInput" name="name"/> </div> </div> </p> <span class="clear"/> </div> </div> My Validation code is very basic. $(document).ready(function(){ $("#contact_form").validate({ rules:{ name: { required: true } } }); }); This is my first venture into jQuery and form validation, so I'll be the first to say "I'm lost!" any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Where do you put your unit test?

    - by soulmerge
    I have found several conventions to housekeeping unit tests in a project and I'm not sure which approach would be suitable for our next PHP project. I am trying to find the best convention to encourage easy development and accessibility of the tests when reviewing the source code. I would be very interested in your experience/opinion regarding each: One folder for productive code, another for unit tests: This separates unit tests from the logic files of the project. This separation of concerns is as much a nuisance as it is an advantage: Someone looking into the source code of the project will - so I suppose - either browse the implementation or the unit tests (or more commonly: the implementation only). The advantage of unit tests being another viewpoint to your classes is lost - those two viewpoints are just too far apart IMO. Annotated test methods: Any modern unit testing framework I know allows developers to create dedicated test methods, annotating them (@test) and embedding them in the project code. The big drawback I see here is that the project files get cluttered. Even if these methods are separated using a comment header (like UNIT TESTS below this line) it just bloats the class unnecessarily. Test files within the same folders as the implementation files: Our file naming convention dictates that PHP files containing classes (one class per file) should end with .class.php. I could imagine that putting unit tests regarding a class file into another one ending on .test.php would render the tests much more present to other developers without tainting the class. Although it bloats the project folders, instead of the implementation files, this is my favorite so far, but I have my doubts: I would think others have come up with this already, and discarded this option for some reason (i.e. I have not seen a java project with the files Foo.java and FooTest.java within the same folder.) Maybe it's because java developers make heavier use of IDEs that allow them easier access to the tests, whereas in PHP no big editors have emerged (like eclipse for java) - many devs I know use vim/emacs or similar editors with little support for PHP development per se. What is your experience with any of these unit test placements? Do you have another convention I haven't listed here? Or am I just overrating unit test accessibility to reviewers?

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  • Are there compelling reasons not to use Groovy?

    - by Leonard H Martin
    I'm developing a LoB application in Java after a long absence from the platform (having spent the last 8 years or so entrenched in Fortran, C, a smidgin of C++ and latterly .Net). Java, the language, is not much changed from how I remember it. I like it's strengths and I can work around its weaknesses - the platform has grown and deciding upon the myriad of different frameworks which appear to do much the same thing as one another is a different story; but that can wait for another day - all-in-all I'm comfortable with Java. However, over the last couple of weeks I've become enamoured with Groovy, and purely from a selfish point of view: but not just because it makes development against the JVM a more succinct and entertaining (and, well, "groovy") proposition than Java (the language). What strikes me most about Groovy is its inherent maintainability. We all (I hope!) strive to write well documented, easy to understand code. However, sometimes the languages we use themselves defeat us. An example: in 2001 I wrote a library in C to translate EDIFACT EDI messages into ANSI X12 messages. This is not a particularly complicated process, if slightly involved, and I thought at the time I had documented the code properly - and I probably had - but some six years later when I revisited the project (and after becoming acclimatised to C#) I found myself lost in so much C boilerplate (mallocs, pointers, etc. etc.) that it took three days of thoughtful analysis before I finally understood what I'd been doing six years previously. This evening I've written about 2000 lines of Java (it is the day of rest, after all!). I've documented as best as I know how, but, but, of those 2000 lines of Java a significant proportion is Java boiler plate. This is where I see Groovy and other dynamic languages winning through - maintainability and later comprehension. Groovy lets you concentrate on your intent without getting bogged down on the platform specific implementation; it's almost, but not quite, self documenting. I see this as being a huge boon to me when I revisit my current project (which I'll port to Groovy asap) in several years time and to my successors who will inherit it and carry on the good work. So, are there any reasons not to use Groovy?

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  • CRUD Question with Codeigniter

    - by Brad
    I have a database with blog entries in it. The desired output I am trying to acheive is 3 entrys displayed using the css3 multi paragraph and then another 3(or more) formatted with the codeigniter Character_limiter. So I need 3 displays formatted one way and 3+ formatted another way on the same page. So far this is what I have, but i do not know how to format the sql to achieve what I want. I can call all posts in descending order like I want, but dont know how to separate the code to achieve my output Controller: $this->db->order_by('id', 'DESC'); $this->db->limit('2'); $query = $this->db->get('posts'); if($query->result()) $data = array(); { $data['blog'] = $query->result(); } $data['title'] = 'LemonRose'; $data['content'] = 'home/home_content'; $this->load->view('template1', $data); View: <?php if (isset($blog)): foreach ($blog as $row): ?> <span class="title"><?php echo $row->title; ?> </span> <?php echo $row->date; ?> <div class="split"><?php echo $row->post =$this->typography->auto_typography($row->post); ?></div> <?php echo 'Post #',$row->id; ?> <p> Trackback URL: <? echo base_url()."trackbacks/track/$row->id";?></p> <hr /> <?php endforeach; endif; ?> The split class is multiple columns. I tried 2 different querys but dont know how to separate all the post displays. Also one query always overides the second and produces all split or all character limited paragraphs. Im lost here lol. Thanks

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  • Difference between Cloud and Virtualization

    - by Akash Kava
    Ops: This does not belong to ServerFault because it focuses on Programing Architecture. I have following questions regarding differences between Cloud and Virtualization.. How Cloud is different then Virtualization? Currently I tried to find out pricing of Rackspace, Amazone and all similar cloud providers, I found that our current 6 dedicated servers came cheaper then their pricing. So how one can claim cloud is cheaper? Is it cheaper only in comparison of normal hosting? We re organized our infrastructure in virtual environment to reduce or configuration overhead at time of failure, we did not have to rewrite any peice of code that is already written for earlier setup. So moving to virtualization does not require any re programming. But cloud is absoltely different and it will require entire reprogramming right? Is it really worth to recode when our current IT costs are 3-4 times lower then cloud hosting including raid backups and all sort of clustering for high availability? New programming architecture means new overheads of training staff, new methods of testing and new deployment schemes, does it justify over "on demand resource usage" words of cloud? We are having current development architecture with simple Server side ASP.NET WebServices with no local context and on client side Flex/Silverlight which offers pretty good REST architecture and its highly scalable. How does cloud differs from REST model of deployment? On storage, SQL Server or MySQL offers pretty good replication and high availibility then what is advantage in cloud? Data guarantee, one of our vendor hosting some other customer's app on cloud (one of most used), lost Entire Hard Disk (the virtual) and entire module in first 6 months. Second provider said its your duty to take backup, fine I agree, but no provider gives SLA for data guarantee, they give 99% uptime. However in most business apps, uptime is less important then data integrity. In our 10 years of dedicated hosting experience we had only one hard disk crash. This makes me little skeptical to go for cloud and loosing control over data. And I feel its just a big marketing buzz to sell virtulization in different form. Size of data, currently all providers charge very heavy for large data, if you are hosting only below 100GB cloud can be good alternative, but I think virtual servers and dedicated servers above 100GB to few TBs are still cheaper. Why would want to pay so high on cloud when there is no data guarentee as well as it doesnt say anything about redundancy. (I wish SO had something for spell check for Internet Explorer, sorry for wrong spellings in my post)

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  • Unit testing class in a web service in .net

    - by Dan Bailiff
    After some digging here, I took the advice in this thread: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/371961/how-to-unit-test-c-web-service-with-visual-studio-2008 I've created a separate class and my web service class is just a wrapper for that one. The problem is that when I try to create a unit test project in VS2008, it insists on creating a unit test that acts like I'm testing the web service calls instead of the class I specified. I can't get to the class I'm trying to test. I have a web service "subscription_api.asmx". The code behind is "subscription_api.cs" which contains the web method wrapper calls to the real code at "subscription.cs". I would expect to be able to do the following: [TestMethod()] public void GetSystemStatusTest() { subscription sub = new subscription(); XmlNode node = sub.GetSystemStatusTest(); Assert.IsNotNull(node); } But instead I get this mess which is autogenerated from VS'08: /// <summary> ///A test for GetSystemStatus ///</summary> // TODO: Ensure that the UrlToTest attribute specifies a URL to an ASP.NET page (for example, // http://.../Default.aspx). This is necessary for the unit test to be executed on the web server, // whether you are testing a page, web service, or a WCF service. [TestMethod()] [HostType("ASP.NET")] [AspNetDevelopmentServerHost("C:\\CVSROOT\\rnr\\pro\\product\\wms\\ss\\subscription_api", "/subscription_api")] [UrlToTest("http://localhost/subscription_api")] public void GetSystemStatusTest() { subscription_Accessor target = new subscription_Accessor(); // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value XmlNode expected = null; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value XmlNode actual; actual = target.GetSystemStatus(); Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); Assert.Inconclusive("Verify the correctness of this test method."); } Additionally, there is a "subscription_api.accessor" in the Test References folder. When I try this: [TestMethod()] public void GetSystemStatusTest2() { subscription_Accessor sub = new subscription_Accessor(); XmlNode node = sub.GetSystemStatus(); Assert.IsNotNull(node); } I get an error: Test method subscription_api.Test.subscriptionTest.GetSystemStatusTest2 threw exception: System.TypeInitializationException: The type initializer for 'subscription_Accessor' threw an exception. ---> System.ArgumentNullException: Value cannot be null. I'm really new to unit testing and feel lost. How can I create a unit test just for my subscription class in "subscription.cs" without testing the web service? Am I limited to testing within the same project (I hope not)? Do I have to put the target class in its own project outside of the web service project?

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  • How do I create a safe local development environment?

    - by docgnome
    I'm currently doing web development with another developer on a centralized development server. In the past this has worked alright, as we have two separate projects we are working on and rarely conflict. Now, however, we are adding a third (possible) developer into the mix. This is clearly going to create problems with other developers changes affecting my work and vice versa. To solve this problem, I'm thinking the best solution would be to create a virtual machine to distribute between the developers for local use. The problem I have is when it comes to the database. Given that we all develop on laptops, simply keeping a local copy of the live data is plain stupid. I've considered sanitizing the data, but I can't really figure out how to replace the real data, with data that would be representative of what people actually enter with out repeating the same information over and over again, e.g. everyone's address becomes 123 Testing Lane, Test Town, WA, 99999 or something. Is this really something to be concerned about? Are there tools to help with this sort of thing? I'm using MySQL. Ideally, if I sanitized the db it should be done from a script that I can run regularly. If I do this I'd also need a way to reduce the size of the db itself. (I figure I could select all the records created after x and whack them and all the records in corresponding tables out so that isn't really a big deal.) The second solution I've thought of is to encrypt the hard drive of the vm, but I'm unsure of how practical this is in terms of speed and also in the event of a lost/stolen laptop. If I do this, should the vm hard drive file itself be encrypted or should it be encrypted in the vm? (I'm assuming the latter as it would be portable and doesn't require the devs to have any sort of encryption capability on their OS of choice.) The third is to create a copy of the database for each developer on our development server that they are then responsible to keep the schema in sync with the canonical db by means of migration scripts or what have you. This solution seems to be the simplest but doesn't really scale as more developers are added. How do you deal with this problem?

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  • Two collections and a for loop. (Urgent help needed) Checking an object variable against an inputted

    - by Elliott
    Hi there, I'm relatively new to java, I'm certain the error is trivial. But can't for the life of me spot it. I have an end of term exam on monday and currently trying to get to grips with past papers! Anyway heregoes, in another method (ALGO_1) I search over elements of and check the value H_NAME equals a value entered in the main. When I attempt to run the code I get a null pointer exception, also upon trying to print (with System.out.println etc) the H_NAME value after each for loop in the snippet I also get a null statement returned to me. I am fairly certain that the collection is simply not storing the data gathered up by the Scanner. But then again when I check the collection size with size() it is about the right size. Either way I'm pretty lost and would appreciate the help. Main questions I guess to ask are: from the readBackground method is the data.add in the wrong place? is the snippet simply structured wrongly? oh and another point when I use System.out.println to check the Background object values name, starttime, increment etc they print out fine. Thanks in advance.(PS im guessing the formatting is terrible, apologies.) snippet of code: for(Hydro hd: hydros){ System.out.println(hd.H_NAME); for(Background back : backgs){ System.out.println(back.H_NAME); if(back.H_NAME.equals(hydroName)){ //get error here public static Collection<Background> readBackground(String url) throws IOException { URL u = new URL(url); InputStream is = u.openStream(); InputStreamReader isr = new InputStreamReader(is); BufferedReader b = new BufferedReader(isr); String line =""; Vector<Background> data = new Vector<Background>(); while((line = b.readLine())!= null){ Scanner s = new Scanner(line); String name = s.next(); double starttime = Double.parseDouble(s.next()); double increment = Double.parseDouble(s.next()); double sum = 0; double p = 0; double nterms = 0; while((s.hasNextDouble())){ p = Double.parseDouble(s.next()); nterms++; sum += p; } double pbmean = sum/nterms; Background SAMP = new Background(name, starttime, increment, pbmean); data.add(SAMP); } return data; } Edit/Delete Message

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  • CultureManager issue

    - by Serge
    I have a bug I don't understand. While the following works fine: Resources.Classes.AFieldFormula.DirectFieldFormula this one throws an exception: new ResourceManager(typeof(Resources.Classes.AFieldFormula)).GetString("DirectFieldFormula"); Could not find any resources appropriate for the specified culture or the neutral culture. Make sure \"Resources.Classes.AFieldFormula.resources\" was correctly embedded or linked into assembly \"MygLogWeb\" at compile time, or that all the satellite assemblies required are loadable and fully signed. How comes? Resource designer.cs file: //------------------------------------------------------------------------------ // <auto-generated> // This code was generated by a tool. // Runtime Version:4.0.30319.18408 // // Changes to this file may cause incorrect behavior and will be lost if // the code is regenerated. // </auto-generated> //------------------------------------------------------------------------------ namespace Resources.Classes { using System; /// <summary> /// A strongly-typed resource class, for looking up localized strings, etc. /// </summary> // This class was auto-generated by the StronglyTypedResourceBuilder // class via a tool like ResGen or Visual Studio. // To add or remove a member, edit your .ResX file then rerun ResGen // with the /str option, or rebuild your VS project. [global::System.CodeDom.Compiler.GeneratedCodeAttribute("System.Resources.Tools.StronglyTypedResourceBuilder", "4.0.0.0")] [global::System.Diagnostics.DebuggerNonUserCodeAttribute()] [global::System.Runtime.CompilerServices.CompilerGeneratedAttribute()] public class AFieldFormula { private static global::System.Resources.ResourceManager resourceMan; private static global::System.Globalization.CultureInfo resourceCulture; [global::System.Diagnostics.CodeAnalysis.SuppressMessageAttribute("Microsoft.Performance", "CA1811:AvoidUncalledPrivateCode")] internal AFieldFormula() { } /// <summary> /// Returns the cached ResourceManager instance used by this class. /// </summary> [global::System.ComponentModel.EditorBrowsableAttribute(global::System.ComponentModel.EditorBrowsableState.Advanced)] public static global::System.Resources.ResourceManager ResourceManager { get { if (object.ReferenceEquals(resourceMan, null)) { global::System.Resources.ResourceManager temp = new global::System.Resources.ResourceManager("MygLogWeb.Classes.AFieldFormula", typeof(AFieldFormula).Assembly); resourceMan = temp; } return resourceMan; } } /// <summary> /// Overrides the current thread's CurrentUICulture property for all /// resource lookups using this strongly typed resource class. /// </summary> [global::System.ComponentModel.EditorBrowsableAttribute(global::System.ComponentModel.EditorBrowsableState.Advanced)] public static global::System.Globalization.CultureInfo Culture { get { return resourceCulture; } set { resourceCulture = value; } } /// <summary> /// Looks up a localized string similar to Direct field. /// </summary> public static string DirectFieldFormula { get { return ResourceManager.GetString("DirectFieldFormula", resourceCulture); } } } }

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  • Why are these two sql statements deadlocking? (Deadlock graph + details included).

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, I've got the following deadlock graph that describes two sql statements that are deadlocking each other. I'm just not sure how to analyse this and then fix up my sql code to prevent this from happening. Main deadlock graph Click here for a bigger image. Left side, details Click here for a bigger image. Right side, details Click here for a bigger image. What is the code doing? I'm reading in a number of files (eg. lets say 3, for this example). Each file contains different data BUT the same type of data. I then insert data into LogEntries table and then (if required) I insert or delete something from the ConnectedClients table. Here's my sql code. using (TransactionScope transactionScope = new TransactionScope()) { _logEntryRepository.InsertOrUpdate(logEntry); // Now, if this log entry was a NewConnection or an LostConnection, then we need to make sure we update the ConnectedClients. if (logEntry.EventType == EventType.NewConnection) { _connectedClientRepository.Insert(new ConnectedClient { LogEntryId = logEntry.LogEntryId }); } // A (PB) BanKick does _NOT_ register a lost connection .. so we need to make sure we handle those scenario's as a LostConnection. if (logEntry.EventType == EventType.LostConnection || logEntry.EventType == EventType.BanKick) { _connectedClientRepository.Delete(logEntry.ClientName, logEntry.ClientIpAndPort); } _unitOfWork.Commit(); transactionScope.Complete(); } Now each file has it's own UnitOfWork instance (which means it has it's own database connection, transaction and repository context). So i'm assuming this means there's 3 different connections to the db all happening at the same time. Finally, this is using Entity Framework as the repository, but please don't let that stop you from having a think about this problem. Using a profiling tool, the Isolation Level is Serializable. I've also tried ReadCommited and ReadUncommited, but they both error :- ReadCommited: same as above. Deadlock. ReadUncommited: different error. EF exception that says it expected some result back, but got nothing. I'm guessing this is the LogEntryId Identity (scope_identity) value that is expected but not retrieve because of the dirty read. Please help! PS. It's Sql Server 2008, btw.

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  • I have to do two seemingly mutually exclusive things on leaving an asp:textbox. Please help me get

    - by aape
    This project has gone from being a simple '99 Ford F-150 to the Homer. I've got controls with a gridview with textboxes for data entry. All the user controls on the pages are in AJAX updatepanels. User types in a database column or budget entity or some other financial thing they want to include in the report. The textboxes in the gridview have autopostback = true set. overly long background info When the user leaves the textbox, during the postback (triggered by onTextChanged) I do some validation back on the server on their entry - regexs, do they have rights to that column, is that column locked, etc. If it fails, I put a error message next to the textbox. If it passes, I wipe out any title or error that used to be next to the code. Focus is getting lost from the postback if they're tabbing out of the box, rather than going to the next textbox in the gridview. So to fix that I need, if their leaving the tb via the tab key, to also figure out what textbox or gridviewrow they're on, if they're not on the last row, and after the validation and labeling, put the focus on the textbox in the next row. I can't figure out how, in ontextchanged, to find what caused me to leave the textbox, so I'm thinking use javascript onkeyup to test the key pressed and then find the next box etc, but the ontextchanged fires first and then the js never does, and also, since the control is all AJAXed, the javascript can't find the textboxes because when you enter the page everything is collapsed (the requirements people loooove to collapse and expand things), and so when it's expanded, all the 'new' textboxes are up in the viewstate stuff in the page source, and not down where javascript can see them. The questions So I'm wondering if I can have an onblur in the javascript that can trigger a postback where I can do my validation and such, and either 1) include the keypressed or pick it out of sender in the event or 2) followup the onblur with onkeyup and somehow figure out what textbox is next on the grid and throw focus there. Or, is there another .NET based approach that could work for this? In terms of tearing the whole thing down and starting from scratch, I couldn't sell that to the bosses, I'm past the point of no return as far as that goes.

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  • trigger animation with timer, as3

    - by VideoDnd
    How do I trigger the animation in sync with my timer?My timer and flip animation work, but they are out of sync with each other. I'm lost with the IF ELSE statements. Each time the value of my textfield changes, my number needs to flip. See example. Example //IF ELSE FUNCTION function theFlip(event:TimerEvent):void { count++; if (count < 9) { oldcount = count - 1; } else { count++; fcount=int(count) count++; oldcount = count - 1; } } //Cont... Complete Codehere's the file //Timer var timer:Timer = new Timer(100); //Integer values var count:int = 0; var fcount:int = 0; var oldcount:int = 0; //Formatting String function formatCount(i:int):String { var fraction:int = i % 100; var whole:int = i / 100; return ("00" + whole).substr(-2, 2) + "." + (fraction < 10 ? "0" + fraction : fraction); } //Start the timer timer.start(); timer.addEventListener(TimerEvent.TIMER, theFlip); //IF ELSE FUNCTION function theFlip(event:TimerEvent):void { count++; if (count < 9) { oldcount = count - 1; } else { count++; fcount=int(count) count++; oldcount = count - 1; } var toText:String = formatCount(fcount); sec4.digit.text = toText.substr(4, 1); flip4.flip.digit.text = toText.substr(4, 1); flip4.gotoAndPlay(2); sec3.digit.text = toText.substr(3, 1); flip3.flip.digit.text = toText.substr(3, 1); flip3.gotoAndPlay(2); sec1.digit.text = toText.substr(1, 1); flip1.flip.digit.text = toText.substr(1, 1); flip1.gotoAndPlay(2); }

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  • Send invitation to any user of google chats (is it possible?)

    - by Gizzo
    Hi I try to realize simple code on perl which should just get/send messages from/to gtalk accounts. I use Net::XMPP::* modules. All works just fine for users, who are my friends (in my "buddy" list). But i can't send message to unknown user. I know, that for this case i must send an invitation first, but Net::XMPP::* don't provide this possibility. There is only one way to invite person - construct my own xml according to "XEP-0155 Stanza Session Negotiation" protocol. But this doesn't work correct. When i send xml to server, it returns error "service-unavailable". I send: <message to='[email protected]'> <sxde xmlns='http://jabber.org/protocol/sxde' xmlns:sxde='http://jabber.org/protocol/sxde#metadata' session='0AEF4278DC4B6577' id='b'> <negotiation> <invitation> <feature var='http://jabber.org/protocol/whiteboard' /> </invitation> </negotiation> </sxde> </message> before my message. ANSWER: <message from='' to='[email protected]/TALKCDDCCE63' type='error'> <sxde id='b' session='0AEF4278DC4B6577' xmlns='http://jabber.org/protocol/sxde' xmlns:sxde='http://jabber.org/protocol/sxde#metadata'> <negotiation> <invitation> <feature var='http://jabber.org/protocol/whiteboard'/> </invitation> </negotiation> </sxde> <nos:x value='disabled' xmlns:nos='google:nosave'/> <arc:record otr='false' xmlns:arc='http://jabber.org/protocol/archive'/> <error code='503' type='cancel'> <service-unavailable xmlns='urn:ietf:params:xml:ns:xmpp-stanzas'/> </error> </message> Maybe i lost smth or should send another info before (or after..) ? Or maybe there are another way to send message without any invitation? Thanks in advance

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  • JSON datetime to SQL Server database via WCF

    - by moikey
    I have noticed a problem over the past couple of days where my dates submitted to an sql server database are wrong. I have a webpage, where users can book facilities. This webpage takes a name, a date, a start time and an end time(BookingID is required for transactions but generated by database), which I format as a JSON string as follows: {"BookingEnd":"\/Date(2012-26-03 09:00:00.000)\/","BookingID":1,"BookingName":"client test 1","BookingStart":"\/Date(2012-26-03 10:00:00.000)\/","RoomID":4} This is then passed to a WCF service, which handles the database insert as follows: [WebInvoke(Method = "POST", RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, UriTemplate = "createbooking")] void CreateBooking(Booking booking); [DataContract] public class Booking { [DataMember] public int BookingID { get; set; } [DataMember] public string BookingName { get; set; } [DataMember] public DateTime BookingStart { get; set; } [DataMember] public DateTime BookingEnd { get; set; } [DataMember] public int RoomID { get; set; } } Booking.svc public void CreateBooking(Booking booking) { BookingEntity bookingEntity = new BookingEntity() { BookingName = booking.BookingName, BookingStart = booking.BookingStart, BookingEnd = booking.BookingEnd, RoomID = booking.RoomID }; BookingsModel model = new BookingsModel(); model.CreateBooking(bookingEntity); } Booking Model: public void CreateBooking(BookingEntity booking) { using (var conn = new SqlConnection("Data Source=cpm;Initial Catalog=BookingDB;Integrated Security=True")) using (var cmd = conn.CreateCommand()) { conn.Open(); cmd.CommandText = @"IF NOT EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM Bookings WHERE BookingStart = @BookingStart AND BookingEnd = @BookingEnd AND RoomID= @RoomID ) INSERT INTO Bookings ( BookingName, BookingStart, BookingEnd, RoomID ) VALUES ( @BookingName, @BookingStart, @BookingEnd, @RoomID )"; cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@BookingName", booking.BookingName); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@BookingStart", booking.BookingStart); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@BookingEnd", booking.BookingEnd); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@RoomID", booking.RoomID); cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); conn.Close(); } } This updates the database but the time ends up "1970-01-01 00:00:02.013" each time I submit the date in the above json format. However, when I do a query in SQL server management studio with the above date format ("YYYY-MM-DD HH:MM:SS.mmm"), it inserts the correct values. Also, if I submit a millisecond datetime to the wcf, the correct date is being inserted. The problem seems to be with the format I am submitting. I am a little lost with this problem. I don't really see why it is doing this. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.

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  • How to store array of NSManagedObjects in an NSManagedObject

    - by David Tay
    I am loading my app with a property list of data from a web site. This property list file contains an NSArray of NSDictionaries which itself contains an NSArray of NSDictionaries. Basically, I'm trying to load a tableView of restaurant menu categories each of which contains menu items. My property list file is fine. I am able to load the file and loop through the nodes structure creating NSEntityDescriptions and am able to save to Core Data. Everything works fine and expectedly except that in my menu category managed object, I have an NSArray of menu items for that category. Later on, when I fetch the categories, the pointers to the menu items in a category is lost and I get all the menu items. Am I suppose to be using predicates or does Core Data keep track of my object graph for me? Can anyone look at how I am loading Core Data and point out the flaw in my logic? I'm pretty good with either SQL and OOP by themselves, but am a little bewildered by ORM. I thought that I should just be able to use aggregation in my managed objects and that the framework would keep track of the pointers for me, but apparently not. NSError *error; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:@"http://foo.com"]; NSArray *categories = [[NSArray alloc] initWithContentsOfURL:url]; NSMutableArray *menuCategories = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; for (int i=0; i<[categories count]; i++){ MenuCategory *menuCategory = [NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"MenuCategory" inManagedObjectContext:[self managedObjectContext]]; NSDictionary *category = [categories objectAtIndex:i]; menuCategory.name = [category objectForKey:@"name"]; NSArray *items = [category objectForKey:@"items"]; NSMutableArray *menuItems = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; for (int j=0; j<[items count]; j++){ MenuItem *menuItem = [NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"MenuItem" inManagedObjectContext:[self managedObjectContext]]; NSDictionary *item = [items objectAtIndex:j]; menuItem.name = [item objectForKey:@"name"]; menuItem.price = [item objectForKey:@"price"]; menuItem.image = [item objectForKey:@"image"]; menuItem.details = [item objectForKey:@"details"]; [menuItems addObject:menuItem]; } [menuCategory setValue:menuItems forKey:@"menuItems"]; [menuCategories addObject:menuCategory]; [menuItems release]; } if (![[self managedObjectContext] save:&error]) { NSLog(@"An error occurred: %@", [error localizedDescription]); }

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  • Cast IEnumerable<Inherited> To IEnumerable<Base>

    - by david2342
    I'm trying to cast an IEnumerable of an inherited type to IEnumerable of base class. Have tried following: var test = resultFromDb.Cast<BookedResource>(); return test.ToList(); But getting error: You cannot convert these types. Linq to Entities only supports conversion primitive EDM-types. The classes involved look like this: public partial class HistoryBookedResource : BookedResource { } public partial class HistoryBookedResource { public int ResourceId { get; set; } public string DateFrom { get; set; } public string TimeFrom { get; set; } public string TimeTo { get; set; } } public partial class BookedResource { public int ResourceId { get; set; } public string DateFrom { get; set; } public string TimeFrom { get; set; } public string TimeTo { get; set; } } [MetadataType(typeof(BookedResourceMetaData))] public partial class BookedResource { } public class BookedResourceMetaData { [Required(ErrorMessage = "Resource id is Required")] [Range(0, int.MaxValue, ErrorMessage = "Resource id is must be an number")] public object ResourceId { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Date is Required")] public object DateFrom { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Time From is Required")] public object TimeFrom { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Time to is Required")] public object TimeTo { get; set; } } The problem I'm trying to solve is to get records from table HistoryBookedResource and have the result in an IEnumerable<BookedResource> using Entity Framework and LINQ. UPDATE: When using the following the cast seams to work but when trying to loop with a foreach the data is lost. resultFromDb.ToList() as IEnumerable<BookedResource>; UPDATE 2: Im using entity frameworks generated model, model (edmx) is created from database, edmx include classes that reprecent the database tables. In database i have a history table for old BookedResource and it can happen that the user want to look at these and to get the old data from the database entity framework uses classes with the same name as the tables to receive data from db. So i receive the data from table HistoryBookedResource in HistoryBookedResource class. Because entity framework generate the partial classes with the properties i dont know if i can make them virtual and override. Any suggestions will be greatly appreciated.

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  • JavaFX2: Drag Event start and end coordinates

    - by user
    I have one node(ImageView) that displays an image and another node(rectangle) that resides on top of it. The behavior I need is that when the mouse is dragged(press-drag-release gesture) over the rectangle, both the nodes should move coherently. My thought process goes in the following direction: • Move both the nodes by the same distance in the direction of the drag. For this option(maybe there are more options) I need the distance between the start and end of the mouse drags. I tried capturing the start and end coordinates of the drag but have been unsuccessful. I think I am getting lost in which handlers to implement. The code I have is below: import javafx.event.EventHandler; import javafx.geometry.Rectangle2D; import javafx.scene.image.ImageView; import javafx.scene.input.MouseEvent; public class MyView { double mouseDragStartX; double mouseDragEndX; double mouseDragStartY; double mouseDragEndY; ImageView imageView; public MyView() { imageView = new ImageView("C:\\temp\\test.png"); } private void setRectangleEvents(final MyObject myObject) { myObject.getRectangle().setOnMousePressed(new EventHandler<MouseEvent>() { @Override public void handle(MouseEvent mouseEvent) { mouseDragStartX = mouseEvent.getX(); mouseDragStartY = mouseEvent.getY(); mouseEvent.consume(); } }); myObject.getRectangle().setOnMouseReleased(new EventHandler<MouseEvent>() { public void handle(MouseEvent mouseEvent) { mouseDragEndX = mouseEvent.getX(); mouseDragEndY = mouseEvent.getY(); myObjectDraggedHandler(); } }); } private void myObjectDraggedHandler() { Rectangle2D viewport = this.imageView.getViewport(); double newX = this.imageView.getImage().getWidth() + (mouseDragEndX - mouseDragStartX); double newY = this.imageView.getImage().getHeight() + (mouseDragEndY - mouseDragStartY); this.imageView.setViewport(new Rectangle2D(newX, newY, viewport.getWidth(), viewport .getHeight())); } } P.S: This code is just for indicating what I am trying to implement and will not compile correctly. Or maybe my question should just have been: How to capture the length or span of a mouse drag?

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  • organizing unit test

    - by soulmerge
    I have found several conventions to housekeeping unit tests in a project and I'm not sure which approach would be suitable for our next PHP project. I am trying to find the best convention to encourage easy development and accessibility of the tests when reviewing the source code. I would be very interested in your experience/opinion regarding each: One folder for productive code, another for unit tests: This separates unit tests from the logic files of the project. This separation of concerns is as much a nuisance as it is an advantage: Someone looking into the source code of the project will - so I suppose - either browse the implementation or the unit tests (or more commonly: the implementation only). The advantage of unit tests being another viewpoint to your classes is lost - those two viewpoints are just too far apart IMO. Annotated test methods: Any modern unit testing framework I know allows developers to create dedicated test methods, annotating them (@test) and embedding them in the project code. The big drawback I see here is that the project files get cluttered. Even if these methods are separated using a comment header (like UNIT TESTS below this line) it just bloats the class unnecessarily. Test files within the same folders as the implementation files: Our file naming convention dictates that PHP files containing classes (one class per file) should end with .class.php. I could imagine that putting unit tests regarding a class file into another one ending on .test.php would render the tests much more present to other developers without tainting the class. Although it bloats the project folders, instead of the implementation files, this is my favorite so far, but I have my doubts: I would think others have come up with this already, and discarded this option for some reason (i.e. I have not seen a java project with the files Foo.java and FooTest.java within the same folder.) Maybe it's because java developers make heavier use of IDEs that allow them easier access to the tests, whereas in PHP no big editors have emerged (like eclipse for java) - many devs I know use vim/emacs or similar editors with little support for PHP development per se. What is your experience with any of these unit test placements? Do you have another convention I haven't listed here? Or am I just overrating unit test accessibility to reviewing developers?

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  • Controlling the USB from Windows

    - by b-gen-jack-o-neill
    Hi, I know this probably is not the easiest thing to do, but I am trying to connect Microcontroller and PC using USB. I dont want to use internal USART of Microcontroller or USB to RS232 converted, its project indended to help me understand various principles. So, getting the communication done from the Microcontroller side is piece of cake - I mean, when I know he protocol, its relativelly easy to implement it on Micro, becouse I am in direct control of evrything, even precise timing. But this is not the case of PC. I am not very familiar with concept of Windows handling the devices connected. In one of my previous question I ask about how Windows works with devices thru drivers. I understood that for internal use of Windows, drivers must have some default set of functions available to OS. I mean, when OS wants to access HDD, it calls HDD driver (which is probably internal in OS), with specific "questions" so that means that HDD driver has to be written to cooperate with Windows, to have write function in the proper place to be called by the OS. Something similiar is for GPU, Even DirectX, I mean DirectX must call specific functions from drivers, so drivers must be written to work with DX. I know, many functions from WinAPI works on their own, but even "simple" window must be in the end written into framebuffer, using MMIO to adress specified by drivers. Am I right? So, I expected that Windows have internal functions, parts of WinAPI designed to work with certain comonly used things. To call manufacturer-designed drivers. But this seems to not be entirely true becouse Windows has no way to communicate thru Paralel port. I mean, there is no function in the WinAPI to work with serial port, but there are funcions to work with HDD,GPU and so. But now there comes the part I am getting very lost at. So, I think Windows must have some built-in functions to communicate thru USB, becouse for example it handles USB flash memory. So, is there any WinAPI function designed to let user to operate USB thru that function, or when I want to use USB myself, do I have to call desired USB-driver function myself? Becouse all you need to send to USB controller is device adress and the infromation right? I mean, I don´t have to write any new drivers, am I right? Just to call WinAPI function if there is such, or directly call original USB driver. Does any of this make some sense?

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