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  • Code Golf: Morse code

    - by LiraNuna
    The challenge The shortest code by character count, that will input a string using only alphabetical characters (upper and lower case), numbers, commas, periods and question mark, and returns a representation of the string in Morse code. The Morse code output should consist of a dash (-, ascii 0x2D) for a long beep (aka 'dah') and a dot (., ascii 0x2E) for short beep (aka 'dit'). Each letter should be separated by a space (' ', ascii 0x20), and each word should be separated by a forward slash (/, ascii 0x2F). Morse code table: Test cases: Input: Hello world Output: .... . .-.. .-.. --- / .-- --- .-. .-.. -.. Input: Hello, Stackoverflow. Output: .... . .-.. .-.. --- --..-- / ... - .- -.-. -.- --- ...- . .-. ..-. .-.. --- .-- .-.-.- Code count includes input/output (i.e full program).

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  • implementing Ws-security within WCF proxy

    - by harrisonmeister
    Hi, I have imported an axis based wsdl into a VS 2008 project as a service reference. I need to be able to pass security details such as username/password and nonce values to call the axis based service. I have looked into doing it for wse, which i understand the world hates (no issues there) I have very little experience of WCF, but have worked how to physically call the endpoint now, thanks to SO, but have no idea how to set up the SoapHeaders as the schema below shows: <S:Envelope xmlns:S="http://www.w3.org/2001/12/soap-envelope" xmlns:ws="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/ws/2002/04/secext"> <S:Header> <ws:Security> <ws:UsernameToken> <ws:Username>aarons</ws:Username> <ws:Password>snoraa</ws:Password> </ws:UsernameToken> </wsse:Security> ••• </S:Header> ••• </S:Envelope> Any help much appreciated Thanks, Mark

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  • Data Binding to an object in C#

    - by Allen
    Objective-c/cocoa offers a form of binding where a control's properties (ie text in a textbox) can be bound to the property of an object. I am trying to duplicate this functionality in C# w/ .Net 3.5. I have created the following very simple class in the file MyClass.cs: class MyClass { private string myName; public string MyName { get { return myName; } set { myName = value; } } public MyClass() { myName = "Allen"; } } I also created a simple form with 1 textbox and 1 button. I init'd one instance of Myclass inside the form code and built the project. Using the DataSource Wizard in Vs2008, i selected to create a data source based on object, and selected the MyClass assembly. This created a datasource entity. I changed the databinding of the textbox to this datasource; however, the expected result (that the textbox's contents would be "allen") was not achieved. Further, putting text into the textbox is not updating the name property of the object. I know i'm missing something fundamental here. At some point i should have to tie my instance of the MyClass class that i initialized inside the form code to the textbox, but that hasn't occurred. Everything i've looked at online seems to gloss over using DataBinding with an object (or i'm missing the mark entirely), so any help is great appreciated. ----Edit--- Utilizing what i learned by the answers, i looked at the code generated by Visual Studio, it had the following: this.myClassBindingSource.DataSource = typeof(BindingTest.MyClass); if i comment that out and substitute : this.myClassBindingSource.DataSource = new MyClass(); i get the expected behavior. Why is the default code generated by VS like it is? Assuming this is more correct than the method that works, how should i modify my code to work within the bounds of what VS generated?

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  • Overridden button control escaping content. How to stop it?

    - by RemotecUk
    Hi, I've got an ASP.Net button control that I have overridden to provide different functionality. the code looks as follows.. I'm overriding the Render method to surround the control with an <a>... /// <summary> /// Render Method /// </summary> /// <param name="writer"></param> protected override void Render(HtmlTextWriter writer) { base.CssClass = "euva-button-decorated"; writer.Write("<a class=\"euva-button\">"); base.Render(writer); writer.Write("</a>"); } When I check the generated source on the page, I find that where ASP.Net has injected its click handler it does the following... <a class="euva-button"><input type="submit" name="TestButton" value="Test Button" onclick="clickOnce(this);WebForm_DoPostBackWithOptions(new WebForm_PostBackOptions(&quot;TestButton&quot;, &quot;&quot;, true, &quot;&quot;, &quot;&quot;, false, false))" id="TestButton" class="euva-button-decorated" /></a> ... it seems to be escaping the output for the double quotes which means that the browser cannot understand the javascript. How do I make the render method not escape the injected ASP.Net client click handler ?? Note I also have my own client click handler which is declared declaratively in the page mark-up.

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  • When *not* to use prepared statements?

    - by Ben Blank
    I'm re-engineering a PHP-driven web site which uses a minimal database. The original version used "pseudo-prepared-statements" (PHP functions which did quoting and parameter replacement) to prevent injection attacks and to separate database logic from page logic. It seemed natural to replace these ad-hoc functions with an object which uses PDO and real prepared statements, but after doing my reading on them, I'm not so sure. PDO still seems like a great idea, but one of the primary selling points of prepared statements is being able to reuse them… which I never will. Here's my setup: The statements are all trivially simple. Most are in the form SELECT foo,bar FROM baz WHERE quux = ? ORDER BY bar LIMIT 1. The most complex statement in the lot is simply three such selects joined together with UNION ALLs. Each page hit executes at most one statement and executes it only once. I'm in a hosted environment and therefore leery of slamming their servers by doing any "stress tests" personally. Given that using prepared statements will, at minimum, double the number of database round-trips I'm making, am I better off avoiding them? Can I use PDO::MYSQL_ATTR_DIRECT_QUERY to avoid the overhead of multiple database trips while retaining the benefit of parametrization and injection defense? Or do the binary calls used by the prepared statement API perform well enough compared to executing non-prepared queries that I shouldn't worry about it? EDIT: Thanks for all the good advice, folks. This is one where I wish I could mark more than one answer as "accepted" — lots of different perspectives. Ultimately, though, I have to give rick his due… without his answer I would have blissfully gone off and done the completely Wrong Thing even after following everyone's advice. :-) Emulated prepared statements it is!

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  • Find actual value of PHP variable

    - by Simon S
    Hi all. I am having a real headache with reading in a tab delimited text file and inserting it into a MySQL Database. The tab delimited text file was generated (I think) from a MS SQL Database, and I have written a simple script to read in the file and insert it into an existing table in my MySQL database. However, there seems to be some problem with the data in the txt file. When my PHP script parses the file and I output the INSERT statements, the values in each of the fields are longer than they should be. For example, the first field should be a simple two character alphanumeric value. If I echo out the INSERT statements, using Firebug (in Firefox), between each of the characters is a question mark in a black diamond. If I var_dump the values, I get the following: string(5) "A1" Now, this clearly shows a two character string, but var_dump tells me it is five characters long!! If I trim() the value, all I get is the first character (in this case "A"). How can I get at the other characters, even if it is only to remove them? Additionally, this appears to be forcing MySQL to insert the value as a BLOB, not as a varchar as it should. Simon

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  • Jquery ajaxStart doesnt get triggered

    - by gnomixa
    This code $("#loading").ajaxStart(function() { alert("start"); $(this).show(); }); in my mark-up <div style="text-align:center;"><img id="loading" src="../images/common/loading.gif" alt="" /></div> Here is the full ajax request: $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "http://localhost/WebServices/Service.asmx/GetResults", data: jsonText, contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function(response) { var results = (typeof response.d) == 'string' ? eval('(' + response.d + ')') : response.d; PopulateTree(results); }, error: function(xhr, status, error) { var msg = JSON.parse(xhr.responseText); alert(msg.Message); } }); $("#loading").ajaxStart(function() { alert("start"); $(this).show(); }); $("#loading").ajaxStop(function() { alert("stop"); $(this).hide(); $("#st-tree-container").show(); }); never fires alert "start" even though the gif is shown to rotate. AjaxStop gets triggered as expected. Any ideas why?

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  • Deployments and TFS, general questions

    - by Velika
    SOX requires that we have a separate group deploy our ASP.NET web to production. Currently, that group has access to our current code repository in VSS and uses VSS to deploy code that has been checked into VSS. How are deployments typically done for web applications? As a developer, I have used the Deploy function in Visual Studio to deploy code to a network share which corresponds to a IS virtual folder, but I don't think we can expect that the deployment group will be purchasing a copy of Visual Studio just to do deployments. We could check the code into TFS, but what is the minimum software that that group would need to perform the deployment? Would a Team Explorer Client Access suffice? I am aware that Team System has functionality to automate the building of an application. Do people typically deploy to Production by copying aspx and dlls files from the QA environment to production or do you normally deploy from TFS or even VS directly? It seems to me that the preferred approach would be to deploy from the QA environment, since that is the environment that must have been approved for release or that those files should be checked into TFS and the deployed from TFS, assuming you can deploy from TFS. What confuses me is whether bin (binary) files that are local to the project-do they go into TFS? Is so, doesn't this create problems for other developers in that only 1 developers-the one with the binary checked - can actually debug because debugging requires write access to the binaries? Does this mean that the binaries shouldn't be checked into TFS? But eventually, if you deploy from TFS, the binaries HAVE to be added to TFS. Are they added as a separate (compiled) application node? If so,m this sounds real ugly. I would assume not. How does one ensure that the binaries match the source code that we mark with a particular version number? Obviously, I'm clueless. Can someone give me a general idea of how you handle version control and deployments in particular using TFS?

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  • jsTree: How to create a new ID for the new added node?

    - by marknt15
    Hi, I can normally get the ID of the default tree nodes but my problem is onCreate then jsTree will add a new node but it doesn't have an ID. My question is how can I add an ID to the newly created tree node? What I'm thinking to do is adding the ID HTML attribute to the newly created tree node but how? I need to get the ID of all of the nodes because it will serve as a reference for the node's respective div storage. HTML code: <div class="demo" id="demo_1"> <ul> <li id="phtml_1" class="file"><a href="#"><ins>&nbsp;</ins>Root node 1</a></li> <li id="phtml_2" class="file"><a href="#"><ins>&nbsp;</ins>Root node 2</a></li> </ul> </div> JS code: $("#demo_1").tree({ ui : { theme_name : "apple" }, callback : { onrename : function (NODE, TREE_OBJ) { alert(TREE_OBJ.get_text(NODE)); alert($(NODE).attr('id')); } } }); Cheers, Mark

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  • Teach Markup or use a WYSIWYG editor?

    - by Atomiton
    When it comes to WYSIWYG editors WYSI rarely WYG. The problem I always have is when people paste in formatted text from word. Ideally, what I'm looking for is a way for people to input text into the document while at the same time teaching them structure... I just don't know if that's a realistic goal ( compared to cut n' paste ) I'm curious if people have found using something other than WYSIWYG editors ( take SO, for example ) has worked for REAL WORLD USERS. I'm not talking about programmers, developers and experience internet users... I'm talking about your average user. I'd be interested in best practices when it comes to getting users to enter content... and I'd love it if someone could point me to some good editors/examples. there are lots of choices when it comes to WYSIWYG ( ckEditor, FreeTextBox, TinyMCE ) but I don't hear a lot about SO-like techniques. Does adding that small barrier scares users away? Is it too difficult to teach people to mark up their text? Is it easier to teach them html? Is a BBCode implementation a good idea? What are some Pros/Cons to wysiwyg/markup. What approach have others used?

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  • PHP str_replace and preg_replace work on one server but not another

    - by retailevolved
    I have a simple function on a php page that takes a url such as: http://myurl.com/mypage.html?param1=value1 and converts it to: http://myurl.com/searchpage.html?param1=value1 All it does it swap out the page.html portion. To do this, I use the following: $currentUrl = $this-getCurrentUrl(); // Grabs the current url, i.e 'http://myurl.com/mypage.html?param1=value1' // Derive a search pattern from the current url $pattern = "/" . str_replace(array("/", ".", "-"), array("\\/", "\\.", "\\-"), $currentUrl) . "/"; // get rid of the 'mypage.html' $newUrl = preg_replace($pattern, 'http://myurl.com/', $currentUrl); // replace the question mark with the correct page $newUrl = str_replace("/?", "/searchpage.html?", $newUrl); The above code is not the exact code but is a good representation. It works beautifully on one server, but when I push to production, the preg_replace does not work. I originally attempted to use str_replace. It also works on my local development machine, but not on the production server. I have confirmed that the URL variables are coming in correctly. Any ideas?

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  • Can't start the portable version of NetBeans 6.9.1 IDE

    - by Coder
    I downloaded the portable version of netbeans netbeans-6.9.1-201007282301-ml.zip from the netbeans site and changed the config file in etc/netbeans.conf as indicated on the netbeans site. The file contents are below. # ${HOME} will be replaced by JVM user.home system property #netbeans_default_userdir="${HOME}/.netbeans/6.9" netbeans_default_userdir=".netbeans/6.9" # Options used by NetBeans launcher by default, can be overridden by explicit # command line switches: netbeans_default_options="-J-client -J-Xss2m -J-Xms32m -J-XX:PermSize=32m -J-XX:MaxPermSize=200m -J-Dapple.laf.useScreenMenuBar=true -J-Dapple.awt.graphics.UseQuartz=true -J-Dsun.java2d.noddraw=true" # Note that a default -Xmx is selected for you automatically. # You can find this value in var/log/messages.log file in your userdir. # The automatically selected value can be overridden by specifying -J-Xmx here # or on the command line. # If you specify the heap size (-Xmx) explicitely, you may also want to enable # Concurrent Mark & Sweep garbage collector. In such case add the following # options to the netbeans_default_options: # -J-XX:+UseConcMarkSweepGC -J-XX:+CMSClassUnloadingEnabled -J-XX:+CMSPermGenSweepingEnabled # (see http://wiki.netbeans.org/wiki/view/FaqGCPauses) # Default location of JDK, can be overridden by using --jdkhome <dir>: #netbeans_jdkhome="/path/to/jdk" netbeans_jdkhome="C:\Program Files\Java\jdk1.6.0_24\" # Additional module clusters, using ${path.separator} (';' on Windows or ':' on Unix): #netbeans_extraclusters="/absolute/path/to/cluster1:/absolute/path/to/cluster2" # If you have some problems with detect of proxy settings, you may want to enable # detect the proxy settings provided by JDK5 or higher. # In such case add -J-Djava.net.useSystemProxies=true to the netbeans_default_options. But it refuses to start when i try to run it. If i change the JDK path to something incorrect it complains that it can't find the jdk so i think the jdk path is correct. It also creates a .netbeans directory when i try to start it. I don't see any errors and it just doesn't do anything else observable. Does anybody know how to set up this version of netbeans? Thanks.

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  • In asp.Net, writing code in the control tag generates compile error

    - by Nour Sabouny
    Hi this is really strange !! But look at the following asp code: <div runat="server" id="MainDiv"> <%foreach (string str in new string[]{"First#", "Second#"}) { %> <div id="<%=str.Replace("#","div") %>"> </div> <%} %> </div> now if you put this code inside any web page (and don't worry about the moral of this code, I made it just to show the idea) you'll get this error : Compiler Error Message: CS1518: Expected class, delegate, enum, interface, or struct Of course the error has nothing to do with the real problem, I searched for the code that was generated by asp.net and figured out the following : private void @__RenderMainDiv(System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriter @__w, System.Web.UI.Control parameterContainer) { @__w.Write("\r\n "); #line 20 "blabla\blabla\Default.aspx" foreach (string str in new string[] { "First#", "Second#" }) { #line default #line hidden @__w.Write("\r\n <div id=\""); #line 22 "blabla\blabla\Default.aspx" @__w.Write(str.Replace("#", "div")); #line default #line hidden @__w.Write("\">\r\n "); } This is the code that was generated from the asp page and this is the method that is meant to render our div (MainDiv), I found out that there is a missing bracket "}" that closes the method or the (for loop). now the problem has three parts: 1- first you should have a server control (in our situation is the MainDiv) and I'm not sure if it is only the div tag. 2- HTML control inside the server control and a code inside it using the double quotation mark ( for example <div id="<%=str instead of <div id='<%=str. 3-Any keyword which has block brackets e.g.:for{},while{},using{}...etc. now removing any part, will solve the problem !!! how is this happening ?? any ideas ? BTW: please help me to make the question more obvious, because I couldn't find the best words to describe the problem.

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  • Query on object id in VQL

    - by Banang
    I'm currently working with the versant object database (using jvi), and have a case where I need to query the database based on an object id. What I'm trying to achieve is something along the lines of Employee employee = new Employee("Mr. Pickles"); session.commit(); FundVQLQuery q = new FundVQLQuery(session, "select * from Employee employee where employee = $1"); q.bind(employee); q.execute(); However, I'm finding out the hard way (I get an EVJ_NOT_A_VALID_KEY_TYPE error thrown at me) that this is infact not the way to do it. Anyone got any experience in working with VQL? Your help is much apreciated! A small clarification: The problem is I'm running some performance tests on the database using the pole position framework, and one of the tests in that framework requires me to fetch an object from the database using either an object reference or a low level object id. Thus, I'm not allowed to reference specific fields in the employee object, but must perform the query on the object in its entirety. So, it's not allowed for me to go "select * from Employee e where e.id = 4", I need it to use the entire object. Accepted answer: Since there is some sort of lunacy magic built into SO that prevents me to mark an accepted answer after a bounty has run out, readers should know that the answer posted by Chris Holmes solves this issue. Readers are encouraged to up-vote his post to further signalize the correctness of his answer to any future readers of this thread.

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  • Movies recommendation engine conceptual database design

    - by Supyxy
    I am working at an movie recommendations engine and i'm facing a DB design issue. My actual database looks like this: MOVIES [ID,TITLE] KEYWORDS_TABLE [ID,KEY_ID] - where ID is Foreign Key for MOVIES.id and KEY_ID is a key for a text keywords table This is not the entire DB, but i showed here what's important for my problem. I have about 50,000 movies and about 1,3 milion keywords correlations, and basically my algorithm consists in extracting all the who have the same keywords with a given movie, then ordering them by the number of keywords correlations. For example i looked for a movie similar to 'Cast away' and it returned 'Six days and six nights' because it had the most keywords correlations (4 keywords): Island Airplane crash Stranded Pilot The algorithm is based on more factors, but this one is the most important and the most difficult for the approach. Basically what i do now is getting all the movies that have at least one keyword similar to the given movie and then ordering them by other factors which are not important for a moment. There wouldn't be any problem if there weren't so many records, a query lasts in many cases up to 10-20 seconds and some of them return even over 5000 movies. Someone already helped me on here (thanks Mark Byers) with optimizing the query but that's not enough because it takes too longer SELECT DISTINCT M.title FROM keywords_table K1 JOIN keywords_table K2 ON K2.key_id = K1.key_id JOIN movies M ON K2.id = M.id WHERE K1.id = 4 So i thought it would be better if i pre-made those lists with movies recommendations for each movie, but i'm not sure how to design the tables.. whatever is it a good idea or how would you take this approach?

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  • mprotect - how aligning to multiple of pagesize works?

    - by user299988
    Hi, I am not understanding the 'aligning allocated memory' part from the mprotect usage. I am referring to the code example given on http://linux.die.net/man/2/mprotect char *p; char c; /* Allocate a buffer; it will have the default protection of PROT_READ|PROT_WRITE. */ p = malloc(1024+PAGESIZE-1); if (!p) { perror("Couldn't malloc(1024)"); exit(errno); } /* Align to a multiple of PAGESIZE, assumed to be a power of two */ p = (char *)(((int) p + PAGESIZE-1) & ~(PAGESIZE-1)); c = p[666]; /* Read; ok */ p[666] = 42; /* Write; ok */ /* Mark the buffer read-only. */ if (mprotect(p, 1024, PROT_READ)) { perror("Couldn't mprotect"); exit(errno); } For my understanding, I tried using a PAGESIZE of 16, and 0010 as address of p. I ended up getting 0001 as the result of (((int) p + PAGESIZE-1) & ~(PAGESIZE-1)). Could you please clarify how this whole 'alignment' works? Thanks,

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  • Mocking attributes - C#

    - by bob
    I use custom Attributes in a project and I would like to integrate them in my unit-tests. Now I use Rhino Mocks to create my mocks but I don't see a way to add my attributes (and there parameters) to them. Did I miss something, or is it not possible? Other mocking framework? Or do I have to create dummy implementations with my attributes? example: I have an interface in a plugin-architecture (IPlugin) and there is an attribute to add meta info to a property. Then I look for properties with this attribute in the plugin implementation for extra processing (storing its value, mark as gui read-only...) Now when I create a mock can I add easily an attribute to a property or the object instance itself? EDIT: I found a post with the same question - link. The answer there is not 100% and it is Java... EDIT 2: It can be done... searched some more (on SO) and found 2 related questions (+ answers) here and here Now, is this already implemented in one or another mocking framework?

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  • Can I serialize an object if I didn't write the class used to instantiate that object?

    - by Richard77
    Hello, I've a simple class [Serializable] public class MyClass { public String FirstName { get; set: } public String LastName { get; set: } //Bellow is what I would like to do //But, it's not working //I get an exception ContactDataContext db = new ContactDataContext(); public void Save() { Contact contact = new Contact(); contact.FirstName = FirstName; contact.LastName = LastName; db.Contacts.InsertOnSubmit(contact); db.SubmitChanges(); } } I wanted to attach a Save method to the class so that I could call it on each object. When I introduced the above statement which contains ContactDataContext, I got the following error "In assembly ... PublicKeyToken=null' is not marked as serializable" It's clear that the DataContext class is generated by the framework (). I checked and did not see where that class was marked serialize. What can I do to overcome that? What's the rule when I'm not the author of a class? Just go ahead and mark the DataContext class as serializable, and pretend that everything will work? Thanks for helping

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  • Java: Match tokens between two strings and return the number of matched tokens

    - by Cryssie
    Need some help to find the number of matched tokens between two strings. I have a list of string stored in ArrayList (example given below): Line 0 : WRB VBD NN VB IN CC RB VBP NNP Line 1 : WDT NNS VBD DT NN NNP NNP Line 2 : WRB MD PRP VB DT NN IN NNS POS JJ NNS Line 3 : WDT NN VBZ DT NN IN DT JJ NN IN DT NNP Line 4 : WP VBZ DT JJ NN IN NN Here, you can see each string consists of a bunch of tokens separated by spaces. So, there's three things I need to work with.. Compare the first token (WRB) in Line 0 to the tokens in Line 1 to see if they match. Move on to the next tokens in Line 0 until a match is found. If there's a match, mark the matched tokens in Line 1 so that it will not be matched again. Return the number of matched tokens between Line 0 and Line 1. Return the distance of the matched tokens. Example: token NN is found on position 3 on line 0 and position 5 on Line 1. Distance = |3-5| = 2 I've tried using split string and store it to String[] but String[] is fixed and doesn't allow shrinking or adding of new elements. Tried Pattern Matcher but with disasterous results. Tried a few other methods but there's some problems with my nested for loops..(will post part of my coding if it will help). Any advice or pointers on how to solve this problem this would be very much appreciated. Thank you very much.

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  • Thread safe lazy contruction of a singleton in C++

    - by pauldoo
    Is there a way to implement a singleton object in C++ that is: Lazily constructed in a thread safe manner (two threads might simultaneously be the first user of the singleton - it should still only be constructed once). Doesn't rely on static variables being constructed beforehand (so the singleton object is itself safe to use during the construction of static variables). (I don't know my C++ well enough, but is it the case that integral and constant static variables are initialized before any code is executed (ie, even before static constructors are executed - their values may already be "initialized" in the program image)? If so - perhaps this can be exploited to implement a singleton mutex - which can in turn be used to guard the creation of the real singleton..) Excellent, it seems that I have a couple of good answers now (shame I can't mark 2 or 3 as being the answer). There appears to be two broad solutions: Use static initialisation (as opposed to dynamic initialisation) of a POD static varible, and implementing my own mutex with that using the builtin atomic instructions. This was the type of solution I was hinting at in my question, and I believe I knew already. Use some other library function like pthread_once or boost::call_once. These I certainly didn't know about - and am very grateful for the answers posted.

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  • NSFetchedResultsController is driving me crazy

    - by user267980
    Hi everyone. i've been building an app since 1 month using NSFetchedResultsController and i was testing the app on the 3.1.2 SDK. The poblem is that i've been using NSFetchedResultsController everywhere in my app and was working on the 3.1.2 version of the SDK, now my client say that i should make it compatible with the 3.0 version and the deadline is almost there. But is crashing everytime i change an object handled by the contoller, the application is crashing with very weird errors. The problem occure when removing the last object in a section and when a change make an object love to another section. I've been using a sample code from "More iPhone 3 Development Tackling iPhone SDK 3" by Dave Mark and Jeff LaMarche. I've also included some changes from link text Here is a sample output of the console when the application is crashing. * Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: 'Invalid update: invalid number of sections. The number of sections contained in the table view after the update (1) must be equal to the number of sections contained in the table view before the update (2), plus or minus the number of sections inserted or deleted (2 inserted, 0 deleted).' 2010-03-14 16:23:29.758 Instaproofs[5879:207] Stack: ( 807902715, 7364425, 807986683, 811271572, 815059090, 815007323, 211023, 4363331, 810589786, 807635429, 810579728, 3620573, 3620227, 3614682, 3609719, 27337, 810595174, 807686849, 807683624, 839142449, 839142646, 814752238 ) If i knew that NSFetchedResultsController is so buggy, i would never used it. So basicaly i need the my NSFetchedResultsControllerDelegate to work fine on the 3.0 and above SDKs. It would be life saver if someone help me figure out what i'm doing wrong.

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  • WHMCS - Mapping of a Manually Created Invoice with its Corresponding Domain

    - by Knowledge Craving
    I am using WHMCS version 4.2.1 for maintaining domain registration & website hosting services, in one of my websites. Currently, the automatic domain registration process is working great for both the existing & new clients. The main way to register domains automatically is to mark the respective invoices as paid, and automatically the domains get registered through my selected registrar. Recently, I am facing a major problem in domain renewals, where the domain has been already registered by us in the past. The problem is that some of the corresponding invoices are not already generated for the domains & so I have to manually create invoice for each of those domain renewals. However, I am unable to map that invoice with the corresponding domain. This is required because unless the domain knows that for its renewal, an invoice has been created, the marking of the invoice as paid will not instantiate the automatic renewal process through my registrar. Can anybody please tell me the probable way of mapping the invoice with its corresponding domain? I've tried to explain the problem as it is occurring in the best way possible. Still, if any more information regarding this is required, please ask. Any help is greatly appreciated.

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  • Missing Intellisense While Describing Custom Control Properties Declaratively

    - by Albert Bori
    So, I've been working on this project for a few days now, and have been unable to resolve the issue of getting intellisense support for my custom-defined inner properties for a user control (ascx, mind you). I have seen the solution to this (using server controls, .cs mind you) many times. Spelled out in this article very well. Everything works for me while using ascx controls except intellisense. Here's the outline of my code: [PersistChildren(true)] [ParseChildren(typeof(BreadCrumbItem))] [ControlBuilder(typeof(BreadCrumbItem))] public partial class styledcontrols_buttons_BreadCrumb : System.Web.UI.UserControl { ... [PersistenceMode(PersistenceMode.InnerDefaultProperty)] public List<BreadCrumbItem> BreadCrumbItems { get { return _breadCrumbItems; } set { _breadCrumbItems = value; } } ... protected override void AddParsedSubObject(object obj) { base.AddParsedSubObject(obj); if (obj is BreadCrumbItem) BreadCrumbItems.Add(obj as BreadCrumbItem); } ... public class BreadCrumbItem : ControlBuilder { public string Text { get; set; } public string NavigateURL { get; set; } public override Type GetChildControlType(string tagName, System.Collections.IDictionary attribs) { if (String.Compare(tagName, "BreadCrumbItem", true) == 0) { return typeof(BreadCrumbItem); } return null; } } } Here's my mark up (which works fine, just no intellisense on the child object declarations): <%@ Register src="../styledcontrols/buttons/BreadCrumb.ascx" tagname="BreadCrumb" tagprefix="uc1" %> ... <uc1:BreadCrumb ID="BreadCrumb1" runat="server" BreadCrumbTitleText="Current Page"> <BreadCrumbItem Text="Home Page" NavigateURL="~/test/breadcrumbtest.aspx?iwentsomewhere=1" /> <BreadCrumbItem Text="Secondary Page" NavigateURL="~/test/breadcrumbtest.aspx?iwentsomewhere=1" /> </uc1:BreadCrumb> I think the issue lies with how the intellisense engine traverses supporting classes. All the working examples I see of this are not ascx, but Web Server Controls (cs, in a compiled assembly). If anyone could shed some light on how to accomplish this with ascx controls, I'd appreciate it.

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  • Executing sequential stored procedures; works in query analyzer, doesn't in my .NET application

    - by evanmortland
    Hello, I have an audit record table that I am writing to. I am connecting to MyDb, which has a stored procedure called 'CreateAudit', which is a passthrough stored procedure to another database on the same machine called MyOther DB with a stored procedure called 'CreatedAudit' as well. In other words in MyDB I have CreateAudit, which does the following EXEC dbo.MyOtherDB.CreateAudit. I call the MyDb CreateAudit stored procedure from my application, using subsonic as the DAL. The first time I call it, I call it with the following (pseudocode): Result = CreateAudit(recordId, "Opened") One line after that, I call: Result2 = CreateAudit(recordId, "Closed") In my second stored procedure it is supposed to mark the record that was created by the CreateAudit(recordId, "Opened") with a status of closed. It works great if I run them independently of one another, but when they run in sequence in the application, the record is not marked as "Closed". When I run SQL profiler I see that both queries ran, and if I copy the queries out and run them from query analyzer the record gets marked as closed 100% of the time! When I run it from the application, about once every 20 times or so, the record is successfully marked closed - the other 19 times nothing happens, but I do not get an error! Is it possible for the .NET app to skip over the ouput from the first stored procedure and start executing the second stored procedure before the record in the first is created? When I add a "WAITFOR DELAY '00:00:00:003'" to the top of my stored procedure, the record is also closed 100% of the time. My head is spinning, any ideas why this is happening! Thanks for any responses, very interested in hearing how this can happen.

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  • Altruistic network connection bandwidth estimation

    - by datenwolf
    Assume two peers Alice and Bob connected over a IP network. Alice and Bob are exchanging packets of lossy compressed data which are generated and to be consumes in real time (think a VoIP or video chat application). The service is designed to cope with as little bandwidth available, but relies on low latencies. Alice and Bob would mark their connection with an apropriate QoS profile. Alice and Bob want use a variable bitrate compression and would like to consume all of the leftover bandwidth available for the connection between them, but would voluntarily reduce the consumed bitrate depending on the state of the network. However they'd like to retain a stable link, i.e. avoid interruptions in their decoded data stream caused by congestion and the delay until the bandwidth got adjusted. However it is perfectly possible for them to loose a few packets. TL;DR: Alice and Bob want to implement a VoIP protocol from scratch, and are curious about bandwidth and congestion control. What papers and resources do you suggest for Alice and Bob to read? Mainly in the area of bandwidth estimation and congestion control.

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