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• Use MySQL trigger to update another table when duplicate key found

  - by Jason

  Been scratching my head on this one, hoping one of you kind people and direct me towards solving this problem. I have a mysql table of customers, it contains a lot of data, but for the purpose of this question, we only need to worry about 4 columns 'ID', 'Firstname', 'Lastname', 'Postcode' Problem is, the table contains a lot of duplicated customers. A new table is being created where each customer is unique and for us, we decide a unique customer is based on 'Firstname', 'Lastname' and 'Postcode' However, (this is the important bit) we need to ensure each new "unique" customer record also can be matched to the original multiple entries of that customer in the original table. I believe the best way to do this is to have a third table, that has 'NewUniqueID', 'OldCustomerID'. So we can search this table for 'NewUniqueID' = '123' and it would return multiple 'OldCustomerID' values where appropriate. I am hoping to make this work using a trigger and the on duplicate key syntax. So what would happen is as follows: An query is run taking the old customer table and inserting it in to the new unique table. (A standard Insert Select query) On duplicate key continue adding records, but add one entry in to the third table noting the 'NewUniqueID' that duped along with the 'OldCustomerID' of the record we were trying to insert. Hope this makes sense, my apologies if it isn't clear. I welcome and appreciate any thoughts on this one! Many thanks Jason

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• How do I set the LRECL in C#.NET?

  - by donde

  I have been trying to ftp a dtl file from .net to, what I beleive, is an AS400. The error being reported back to me is: "One or more lines have been truncated" and the admin is saying the file is coming over with 256 lines that have variable length columns. I found this explanation online: we have to establish defaults because no specifics about the file exist. The default RECFM is V and LRECL is 256. This means that SAS will scan the input record looking for the CR & LF to tell us that we are at the EOR. If the marker isn't found within the limit of the LRECL, SAS discards the data from the LRECL value to the end of the record and adds a message to the Log that "One or more lines have been truncated". So I need to set the LRECL. How do I do this in C# .NET? FtpWebRequest ftp = (FtpWebRequest)FtpWebRequest.Create(ftpfullpath); ftp.Credentials = new NetworkCredential(user, pwd); ftp.KeepAlive = false; ftp.UseBinary = false; ftp.Method = WebRequestMethods.Ftp.UploadFile; FileStream fs = File.OpenRead(inputfilepath + ftpfileName); byte[] buffer = new byte[fs.Length]; fs.Read(buffer, 0, buffer.Length); fs.Close(); Stream ftpstream = ftp.GetRequestStream(); int i = 0; int intBlock = 1786; int intBuffLeft = buffer.Length; while (i < buffer.Length) { if (intBuffLeft >= 1786) { ftpstream.Write(buffer, i, intBlock); } else { ftpstream.Write(buffer, i, intBuffLeft); } i += intBlock; intBuffLeft -= 1786; } ftpstream.Close();

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• SQL Server race condition issue with range lock

  - by Freek

  I'm implementing a queue in SQL Server (please no discussions about this) and am running into a race condition issue. The T-SQL of interest is the following: set transaction isolation level serializable begin tran declare @RecordId int declare @CurrentTS datetime2 set @CurrentTS=CURRENT_TIMESTAMP select top 1 @RecordId=Id from QueuedImportJobs with (updlock) where Status=@Status and (LeaseTimeout is null or @CurrentTS>LeaseTimeout) order by Id asc if @@ROWCOUNT> 0 begin update QueuedImportJobs set LeaseTimeout = DATEADD(mi,5,@CurrentTS), LeaseTicket=newid() where Id=@RecordId select * from QueuedImportJobs where Id = @RecordId end commit tran RecordId is the PK and there is also an index on Status,LeaseTimeout. What I'm basically doing is select a record of which the lease happens to be expired, while simultaneously updating the lease time with 5 minutes and setting a new lease ticket. So the problem is that I'm getting deadlocks when I run this code in parallel using a couple of threads. I've debugged it up to the point where I found out that the update statement sometimes gets executing twice for the same record. Now, I was under the impression that the with (updlock) should prevent this (it also happens with xlock btw, not with tablockx). So it actually look like there is a RangeS-U and a RangeX-X lock on the same range of records, which ought to be impossible. So what am I missing? I'm thinking it might have something to do with the top 1 clause or that SQL Server does not know that where Id=@RecordId is actually in the locked range? Deadlock graph: Table schema (simplified):

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• How to effectively execute this cron job?

  - by Lost_in_code

  I have a table with 200 rows. I'm running a cron job every 10 minutes to perform some kind of insert/update operation on the table. The operation needs to be performed only on 5 rows at a time every time the cron job runs. So in first 10 mins records 1-5 are updated, records 5-10 in the 20th minute and so on. When the cron job runs for the 20th time, all the records in the table would have been updated exactly once. This is what is to be achieved at least. And the next cron job should repeat the process again. The problem: is that, every time a cron job runs, the insert/update operation should be performed on N rows (not just 5 rows). So, if N is 100, all records would've been updated by just 2 cron jobs. And the next cron job would repeat the process again. Here's an example: This is the table I currently have (200 records). Every time a cron job executes, it needs to pick N records (which I set as a variable in PHP) and update the time_md5 field with the current time's MD5 value. +---------+-------------------------------------+ | id | time_md5 | +---------+-------------------------------------+ | 10 | 971324428e62dd6832a2778582559977 | | 72 | 1bd58291594543a8cc239d99843a846c | | 3 | 9300278bc5f114a290f6ed917ee93736 | | 40 | 915bf1c5a1f13404add6612ec452e644 | | 599 | 799671e31d5350ff405c8016a38c74eb | | 56 | 56302bb119f1d03db3c9093caf98c735 | | 798 | 47889aa559636b5512436776afd6ba56 | | 8 | 85fdc72d3b51f0b8b356eceac710df14 | | .. | ....... | | .. | ....... | | .. | ....... | | .. | ....... | | 340 | 9217eab5adcc47b365b2e00bbdcc011a | <-- 200th record +---------+-------------------------------------+ So, the first record(id 10) should not be updated more than once, till all 200 records are updated once - the process should start over once all the records are updated once. I have some idea on how this could be achieved, but I'm sure there are more efficient ways of doing it. Any suggestions?

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• how to add an ajax jQuery code, that return a row from php file [DB] and then change the value of input text?

  - by Nisreen KH

  //this is a code in php which is fetch a record from database <?php include("dbconn.inc"); $data=mysql_query("SELECT `subtitle`, `mian-title`, `page_num`, `note_path`, `flash_path` FROM `main-page` WHERE `page_num` =".$r." LIMIT 1"); echo $data; if (mysql_num_rows($data) == 0) { echo "No rows found, nothing to print so am exiting"; exit; } while ($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($data)) { echo $row['page_num']; } include("close.php"); ?> //and this is a code in html <form method="post" action="data.php"> <input name="Button1" type="submit" value="&lt;&lt;" /> <input name="test" style="width: 31px; height: 23px" type="text" /> // this is a value of page_num in DB. <input name="Button2" type="submit" value="&gt;&gt;" > </form> //i want to add an ajax code to retrieve the record from php code, and then change the input values depends on returned data ,and also to prevent refreshing the page always!!

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• Entity Framework one-to-one relationship mapping flattened in code

  - by Josh Close

  I have a table structure like so. Address: AddressId int not null primary key identity ...more columns AddressContinental: AddressId int not null primary key identity foreign key to pk of Address County State AddressInternational: AddressId int not null primary key identity foreign key to pk of Address ProvinceRegion I don't have control over schema, this is just the way it is. Now, what I want to do is have a single Address object. public class Address { public int AddressId { get; set; } public County County { get; set; } public State State { get; set } public ProvinceRegion { get; set; } } I want to have EF pull it out of the database as a single entity. When saving, I want to save the single entity and have EF know to split it into the three tables. How would I map this in EF 4.1 Code First? I've been searching around and haven't found anything that meets my case yet. UPDATE An address record will have a record in Address and one in either AddressContinental or AddressInternational, but not both.

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• How do you bind SQL Data to a .NET DataGridView?

  - by Jordan S

  I am trying to bind a table in an SQL database to a DataGridView Control. I would like to make it so that when the user enters a new line of data in the DataGridView that a record is automatically added to the database. Is there a way to do this using LINQ to SQL? I have tried using the code below but after I add a new entry I dont think the data gets added to the DB. Please Help! BOMClassesDataContext DB = new BOMClassesDataContext(); var mfrs = from m in DB.Manufacturers select m; BindingSource bs = new BindingSource(); bs.DataSource = mfrs; dataGridView1.DataSource = bs; I tried adding DB.SubmitChanges() to the CellValueChanged eventhandler and that partially works. If I click the bottom empty row it automatically fills in the ID (identity) column of the table with a "0" instead of the next unused value. If I change that value manually to the next available then it adds the new record fine but if I leave it at 0 it does nothing. How can i fix this?

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• Do I lose the benefits of macro recording if I develop Excel apps in Visual Studio?

  - by DanM

  I've written lots of Excel macros in the past using the following development process: Record a macro. Open the VBA editor. Edit the macro. I'm now experimenting with a Visual Studio 2008 "Excel 2007 Add-In" project (C#), and I'm wondering if I will have to give up this development process. Questions: I know I can still record macros using Excel, but is there any way to access the resulting code in Visual Studio? Or do I just have to copy and paste then C#-ize it? What happens with my "Personal Macro Workbook"? Can I use the macros I have stored in there within C#? Or is there some way to convert them to C#? If there is some support for opening and editing VBA macros in Visual Studio, can you provide a very brief summary of how it works or point me to a good reference? Do you have any other tips for transitioning from writing macros in VBA using Excel's built-in editor to writing them in C# with Visual Studio?

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• Do you catch expected exceptions in the controller or business service of your asp.net mvc application

  - by Pascal

  I am developing an asp.net mvc application where user1 could delete data records which were just loaded before by user2. User2 either changes this non-existent data record (Update) or is doing an insert with this data in another table that a foreign-key constraint is violated. Where do you catch such expected exceptions? In the Controller of your asp.net mvc application or in the business service? Just a sidenote: I only catch the SqlException here if its a ForeignKey constraint exception to tell the user that another user has deleted a certain parent record and therefore he can not create the testplan. But this code is not fully implemented yet! Controller:   public JsonResult CreateTestplan(Testplan testplan)   {    bool success = false;    string error = string.Empty;    try   {    success = testplanService.CreateTestplan(testplan);    }   catch (SqlException ex)    {    error = ex.Message;    }    return Json(new { success = success, error = error }, JsonRequestBehavior.AllowGet);   } OR Business service: public Result CreateTestplan(Testplan testplan) { Result result = new Result(); try { using (var con = new SqlConnection(_connectionString)) using (var trans = new TransactionScope()) { con.Open(); _testplanDataProvider.AddTestplan(testplan); _testplanDataProvider.CreateTeststepsForTestplan(testplan.Id, testplan.TemplateId); trans.Complete(); result.Success = true; } } catch (SqlException e) { result.Error = e.Message; } return result; } then in the Controller: public JsonResult CreateTestplan(Testplan testplan)   {    Result result = testplanService.CreateTestplan(testplan);       return Json(new { success = result.success, error = result.error }, JsonRequestBehavior.AllowGet);   }

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• SQL Binary Microsoft Access - Combining two tables if specific field values are equal

  - by Jordan

  I am new to Microsoft Access and SQL but have a decent programming background and I believe this problem should be relatively simple. I have two tables that I have imported into Access. I will give you a little context. One table is huge and contains generic, global data. The other table is still big but contains specific, regional data. There is only one common field (or column) between the two tables. Let’s call this common field CF. The other fields in both tables are different. I’ll take you through one iteration of what I need to do. I need to take each CF value in the regional, smaller table and find the common CF value in the larger, global table. After finding the match, I need to take the whole “record” or “row” from the global data and copy it over to the corresponding record in the smaller regional table (This should involve creating the new fields). I need to do this for all CF values in the regional, smaller table. I was recommended to use SQL and a binary search, but I am unfamiliar. Let me know if you have any questions. I appreciate the help!

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• Unable to delete inherited entity class in EF4

  - by Coding Gorilla

  I have two entities in an EF4 model (using Model First), let's call them EntityA and EntityB. EntityA is marked as abstract, and EntityB inherits from EntityA. They are similar to the following: public class EntityA { public Guid Id; public string Name; public string Uri; } public class EntityB : EntityA { public string AnotherProperty; } The generated database tables look as I would expect them, with EntityA as on table, and then another table like: EntityA_EntityB Id (PK, FK, uniqueidentifier) AnotherProperty (varchar) There is a foreign key constraint on EntityA_EntityB that references EntityA's Id property, no cascades are configured (although I did try changing these myself). The problem is that when I attempt to do something like: Context.DeleteObject(EntityA_EntityB); EF attempts to delete the EntityA_EntityB table record before deleting the EntityA table record, which of course violates the foreign key constraint on EntityA_EntityB table. Using EFProfiler I see the following commands being sent to the database: delete [dbo].[EntityA_EntityB] where (([Id] = '5c02899f-09ea-2ed9-d44b-01aef80f6b64' /* @0 */) followed by delete [dbo].[EntityA] where ([Id] = '5c02899f-09ea-2ed9-d44b-01aef80f6b64' /* @0 */) I'm completely stumped as to how to get around this problem. I would think the EF should know that it needs to delete the base class first, before deleting the inherited class. I know I could do some triggers or other database type solutions, but I'd rather avoid doing that if I can. All my classes are POCO built using some customized T4 templates. I don't want to paste in a lot of extraneous code, but if you need more information I'll provide what I can.

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• Cached data accessed by reference?

  - by arthurdent510

  I am running into an odd problem, and this is the only thing I can think of. I'm storing a list in cache, and I am randomly losing items from my list as users use the site. I have a class that is called that either goes to cache and returns the list from there, or if the cache is over a certain time frame old, it goes to the database and refreshes the cache. So when I pull the data from cache, this is what it looks like.... results = (List<Software>)cache["software"]; And then I return results and do some processing, filter for security, and eventually it winds up on the screen. For each Software record, there can be multiple resources attached to it, and based on how the security goes they may see some, all, or none of the records. So in the security check it will remove some of those resources from the software record. So my question is.... when I return my results list, is it a reference directly to the cache object? So when I remove a resource from the software object, it is really removing from cache as well? If that is the case, is there any way to not return it as a reference? Thanks!

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• Adding a column to a model at runtime (without additional tables) in rails

  - by Marek

  I'm trying to give admins of my web application the ability to add some new fields to a model. The model is called Artwork and i would like to add, for instante, a test_column column at runtime. I'm just teting, so i added a simple link to do it, it will be of course parametric. I managed to do it through migrations: def test_migration_create Artwork.add_column :test_column, :integer flash[:notice] = "Added Column test_column to artworks" redirect_to :action => 'index' end def test_migration_delete Artwork.remove_column :test_column flash[:notice] = "Removed column test_column from artworks" redirect_to :action => 'index' end It works, the column gets added/ removed to/from the databse without issues. I'm using active_scaffold at the moment, so i get the test_column field in the form without adding anything. When i submit a create or an update, however, the test_column does not get updated and stay empty. Inspecting the parameters, i can see: Parameters: {"commit"=>"Update", "authenticity_token"=>"37Bo5pT2jeoXtyY1HgkEdIhglhz8iQL0i3XAx7vu9H4=", "id"=>"62", "record"=>{"number"=>"test_artwork", "author"=>"", "title"=>"Opera di Test", "test_column"=>"TEEST", "year"=>"", "description"=>""}} the test_column parameter is passed correctly. So why active record keeps ignoring it? I tried to restart the server too without success. I'm using ruby 1.8.7, rails 2.3.5, and mongrel with an sqlite3 database. Thanks

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• Is this use of PreparedStatements in a Thread in JAVA correct?

  - by Gormcito

  I'm still an undergrad just working part time and so I'm always trying to be aware of better ways to do things. Recently I had to write a program for work where the main thread of the program would spawn "task" threads (for each db "task" record) which would perform some operations and then update the record to say that it has finished. Therefore I needed a database connection object and PreparedStatement objects in or available to the ThreadedTask objects. This is roughly what I ended up writing, is creating a PreparedStatement object per thread a waste? I thought static PreparedStatments could create race conditions... Thread A stmt.setInt(); Thread B stmt.setInt(); Thread A stmt.execute(); Thread B stmt.execute(); A´s version never gets execed.. Is this thread safe? Is creating and destroying PreparedStatement objects that are always the same not a huge waste? public class ThreadedTask implements runnable { private final PreparedStatement taskCompleteStmt; public ThreadedTask() { //... taskCompleteStmt = Main.db.prepareStatement(...); } public run() { //... taskCompleteStmt.executeUpdate(); } } public class Main { public static final db = DriverManager.getConnection(...); }

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• Why does this SELECT ... JOIN statement return no results?

  - by Stephen

  I have two tables: 1. tableA is a list of records with many columns. There is a timestamp column called "created" 2. tableB is used to track users in my application that have locked a record in tableA for review. It consists of four columns: id, user_id, record_id, and another timestamp collumn. I'm trying to select up to 10 records from tableA that have not been locked by for review by anyone in tableB (I'm also filtering in the WHERE clause by a few other columns from tableA like record status). Here's what I've come up with so far: SELECT tableA.* FROM tableA LEFT OUTER JOIN tableB ON tableA.id = tableB.record_id WHERE tableB.id = NULL AND tableA.status = 'new' AND tableA.project != 'someproject' AND tableA.created BETWEEN '1999-01-01 00:00:00' AND '2010-05-06 23:59:59' ORDER BY tableA.created ASC LIMIT 0, 10; There are currently a few thousand records in tableA and zero records in tableB. There are definitely records that fall between those timestamps, and I've verified this with a simple SELECT * FROM tableA WHERE created BETWEEN '1999-01-01 00:00:00' AND '2010-05-06 23:59:59' The first statement above returns zero rows, and the second one returns over 2,000 rows.

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• merging two tables, while applying aggregates on the duplicates (max,min and sum)

  - by cloudraven

  I have a table (let's call it log) with a few millions of records. Among the fields I have Id, Count, FirstHit, LastHit. Id - The record id Count - number of times this Id has been reported FirstHit - earliest timestamp with which this Id was reported LastHit - latest timestamp with which this Id was reported This table only has one record for any given Id Everyday I get into another table (let's call it feed) with around half a million records with these fields among many others: Id Timestamp - Entry date and time. This table can have many records for the same id What I want to do is to update log in the following way. Count - log count value, plus the count() of records for that id found in feed FirstHit - the earliest of the current value in log or the minimum value in feed for that id LastHit - the latest of the current value in log or the maximum value in feed for that id. It should be noticed that many of the ids in feed are already in log. The simple thing that worked is to create a temporary table and insert into it the union of both as in Select Id, Min(Timestamp) As FirstHit, MAX(Timestamp) as LastHit, Count(*) as Count FROM feed GROUP BY Id UNION ALL Select Id, FirstHit,LastHit,Count FROM log; From that temporary table I do a select that aggregates Min(firsthit), max(lasthit) and sum(Count) Select Id, Min(FirstHit),Max(LastHit),Sum(Count) FROM @temp GROUP BY Id; and that gives me the end result. I could then delete everything from log and replace it with everything with temp, or craft an update for the common records and insert the new ones. However, I think both are highly inefficient. Is there a more efficient way of doing this. Perhaps doing the update in place in the log table?

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• Data not transfred from form to mysql table (updating of data is not happening)

  - by Jimson

  Hi all and thanks in advance to all for this I tired and was unable to find the answer i am looking for an answer. my problem is that i am unable to update the values enterd in the form. I have attached all the files i'm using MYSQL database to fetch data. what happens is that i'm able to add and delete records from form using ajax and PHP scripts to MYSQL database, but i am not able to update data which was retrived from database. the file structure is as follows index.php is a file with ajax functions where it displays form for adding new data to MYSQL using save.php file and list of all records are view without refrishing page (calling load-list.php to view all records from index.php works fine, and save.php to save data from form) - *Delete*is an ajax function called from index.php to delete record from mysql database (function calling delete.php works fine) - Update is an ajax function called from index.php to update data using update-form.php by retriving specific record from mysql tabel, (works fine) Problem lies in updating data from update-form.php to update.php (in which update query is wrriten for mysql) i had tried in many ways at last i had figured out that data is not being transfred from update-form.php to update.php there is a small problem in jquery ajax function where it is not transfering data to update.php page. can any one correct this ????? i will be greatfull to them..... please find the link below for all files link to get my form files

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• How do I obtain selected rows in a DataGridView from different pages

  - by cmrhema

  Hi, I have a windows forms DataGridView, where I have data and a checkbox for each row. I will select check box for a particular row and all the selected rows will be populated in another page. if (grdEmp.Rows.Count > 0) { var selectedEmpIDs= from DataGridViewRow coll in grdEmp.Rows where Convert.ToBoolean(coll.Cells["Select"].Value) == true select coll; if (selectedEmpIDs.Count() > 0) { foreach (DataGridViewRow row in selectedEmpIDs) { selectedEmp+= row.Cells["EmpId"].Value + ","; } } } This works good only for one page. When I navigate to another page, and click the selected rows, the previous one goes off. How do I resolve it. Thanks cmrhema Note :Sorry for the confusion, When I meant it works good for a page, I meant paging. I think I need to add more inputs, There are 10 pages in the gridview. I select the first record from each page of the gridview, one after another by clicking next page( Page next button). But only the record that was selected the last is getting displayed and others and ignored off. What could be the prblm

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• how to print data in a table from mysql

  - by robertdd

  hello, i want to extract the last eight entries from my database and print them into a 2 columns table!like this: |1|2| |3|4| |5|6| |7|8| is that possible? this is my code: $db = new Database(DB_SERVER, DB_USER, DB_PASS, DB_DATABASE); $db->connect(); $sql = "SELECT ID, movieno FROM movies ORDER BY ID DESC LIMIT 8 "; $rows = $db->query($sql); print '<table width="307" border="0" cellspacing="5" cellpadding="4">'; while ($record = $db->fetch_array($rows)) { $vidaidi = $record['movieno']; print <<<END <tr> <td> <a href="http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=$vidaidi" target="_blank"> <img src="http://img.youtube.com/vi/$vidaidi/1.jpg" width="123" height="80"></a> </td> </tr> END; } print '</table>';

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• Rails: update_attribute vs update_attributes

  - by Sam

  Object.update_attribute(:only_one_field, "Some Value") Object.update_attributes(:field1 => "value", :field2 => "value2", :field3 => "value3") Both of these will update an object without having to explicitly tell AR to update. Rails API says: for update_attribute Updates a single attribute and saves the record without going through the normal validation procedure. This is especially useful for boolean flags on existing records. The regular update_attribute method in Base is replaced with this when the validations module is mixed in, which it is by default. for update_attributes Updates all the attributes from the passed-in Hash and saves the record. If the object is invalid, the saving will fail and false will be returned. So if I don't want to have the object validated I should use update_attribute. What if I have this update on a before_save, will it stackoverflow? My question is does update_attribute also bypass the before save or just the validation. Also, what is the correct syntax to pass a hash to update_attributes... check out my example at the top.

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• cURL/PHP Request Executes 50% of the Time

  - by makavelli

  After searching all over, I can't understand why cURL requests issued to a remote SSL-enabled host are successful only 50% or so of the time in my case. Here's the situation: I have a sequence of cURL requests, all of them issued to a HTTPS remote host, within a single PHP script that I run using the PHP CLI. Occasionally when I run the script the requests execute successfully, but for some reason most of the times I run it I get the following error from cURL: * About to connect() to www.virginia.edu port 443 (#0) * Trying 128.143.22.36... * connected * Connected to www.virginia.edu (128.143.22.36) port 443 (#0) * successfully set certificate verify locations: * CAfile: none CApath: /etc/ssl/certs * error:140943FC:SSL routines:SSL3_READ_BYTES:sslv3 alert bad record mac * Closing connection #0 If I try again a few times I get the same result, but then after a few tries the requests will go through successfully. Running the script after that again results in an error, and the pattern continues. Researching the error 'alert bad record mac' didn't give me anything helpful, and I hesitate to blame it on an SSL issue since the script still runs occasionally. I'm on Ubuntu Server 10.04, with php5 and php5-curl installed, as well as the latest version of openssl. In terms of cURL specific options, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER is set to false, and both CURLOPT_TIMEOUT and CURLOPT_CONNECTTIMEOUT are set to 4 seconds. Further illustrating this problem is the fact that the same exact situation occurs on my Mac OS X dev machine - the requests only go through ~50% of the time.

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• Get parent attribute within new child form?

  - by dannymcc

  I have a simple Rails 3 application and I am trying to create a new record that belongs to it's owner. It's working by passing the id to a hidden field in the new form of the child record. This works well and once the new child form submitted it correctly gets associated in the child/parent relationship. What I am trying to do, is lookup values form the parent within the new child form. The problem is that the child relationship is not yet created. Is there anyway I can use a .where lookup in the view? Or, is there a better way of doing this? At the moment I am passing the animal_id though to the new Claim form and it's inserted into a hidden field labelled animal_id. What I am trying to do: <%= @animal.where(:animal_id => params[:animal_id]).id %> The above would ideally get the animal ID from the soon-to-be-associated animal. Is there any sort of before_filter or anything that could take the passed params from the URL and temporarily create the relationship just for the new form view and then permanently create the relationship once the form is submitted? I've tried adding the following to my Claims controller and then called @animal.AnimalName in the view but I get NoMethodError: before_filter :find_animal protected def find_animal if params[:animal_id] Animal.find(params[:animal_id]) end end The URL of the new claim is correctly showing the animal ID so I'm not sure why it's not finding it: http://localhost:3000/claims/new?animal_id=1 The model relations are as follows: animal has_many claims animal has_one exclusion claim has_one animal exception has_one animal

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• Insert Into Two SQL Tables From XML Maintaining Relationship

  - by Thx

  I am looking to insert records from xml into two different tables. For example <Root> <A> <AValue>1</AValue> <Children> <B> <BValue>2</BValue> </B> </Children> </A> </Root> Would insert a record into table A AID AValue # 1 also insert a record into table B BID AID BValue # #(Same as AID Above) 2 I have this DECLARE @idoc INT DECLARE @doc NVARCHAR(MAX) SET @doc = ' <Root> <A> <AValue>1</AValue> <Children> <B> <BValue>2</BValue> </B> </Children> </A> </Root> ' EXEC sp_xml_preparedocument @idoc OUTPUT, @doc CREATE TABLE #A ( AID INT IDENTITY(1, 1) , AValue INT ) INSERT INTO #A SELECT * FROM OPENXML (@idoc, '/Root/A',2) WITH (AValue INT ) CREATE TABLE #B ( BID INT IDENTITY(1, 1) , AID INT , BValue INT ) INSERT INTO #B SELECT * FROM OPENXML (@idoc, '/Root/A/Children/B',2) WITH ( AID INT, BValue INT ) SELECT * FROM #A SELECT * FROM #B DROP TABLE #A DROP TABLE #B Thanks!

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• MySQL Join Question

  - by rbaker86

  Hi i'm struggling to write a particular MySQL Join Query. I have a table containing product data, each product can belong to multiple categories. This m:m relationship is satisfied using a link table. For this particular query I wish to retrieve all products belonging to a given category, but with each product record, I also want to return the other categories that product belongs to. Ideally I would like to achieve this using an Inner Join on the categories table, rather than performing an additional query for each product record, which would be quite inefficient. My simplifed schema is designed roughly as follows: products table: product_id, name, title, description, is_active, date_added, publish_date, etc.... categories table: category_id, name, title, description, etc... product_category table: product_id, category_id I have written the following query, which allows me to retrieve all the products belonging to the specified category_id. However, i'm really struggling to work out how to retrieve the other categories a product belongs to. SELECT p.product_id, p.name, p.title, p.description FROM prod_products AS p LEFT JOIN prod_product_category AS pc ON pc.product_id = p.product_id WHERE pc.category_id = $category_id AND UNIX_TIMESTAMP(p.publish_date) < UNIX_TIMESTAMP() AND p.is_active = 1 ORDER BY p.name ASC I'd be happy just retrieving the category id's releated to each returned product row, as I will have all category data stored in an object, and my application code can take care of the rest. Many thanks, Richard

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• Customer wants some data to appear after you later delete rows. System giant / not my creation. Fast

  - by John Sullivan

  This is a fairly common problem, it probably has a name, I just don't know what it is. A.) User sees obscure piece of information in Row B of L_OBSCURE_INFO displayed on some screen at a certain point. It is in table L_Obscure_info. B.) Under certain circumstances we want to correctly delete data in L_OBSCURE_INFO. Unfortunately, nobody accounted for the fact that the user might want to backtrack and see some random piece of information that was most recently in L_OBSCURE_INFO. C.) The system is enormous and L_OBSCURE_INFO is used all the time. You have no idea what the ramifications are of implementing some kind of hack and whatever you do, you don't want to introduce more bugs. I think the best approach would be to create an L_OBSCURE_INFO_HISTORY table and record a record in there every time you change data. But god help your ensuring it's accurate in this system where L_OBSCURE_INFO is being touched everywhere and you don't have time to implement L_OBSCURE_INFO_HISTORY. Is there a particularly easy, clever design solution for this kind of problem -- basically an elegant database hack? If not, is this kind of design problem under a particular class of problems or have a name?

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