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  • Obj-C component-based game architecture and message forwarding

    - by WanderWeird
    Hello, I've been trying to implement a simple component-based game object architecture using Objective-C, much along the lines of the article 'Evolve Your Hierarchy' by Mick West. To this end, I've successfully used a some ideas as outlined in the article 'Objective-C Message Forwarding' by Mike Ash, that is to say using the -(id)forwardingTargetForSelector: method. The basic setup is I have a container GameObject class, that contains three instances of component classes as instance variables: GCPositioning, GCRigidBody, and GCRendering. The -(id)forwardingTargetForSelector: method returns whichever component will respond to the relevant selector, determined using the -(BOOL)respondsToSelector: method. All this, in a way, works like a charm: I can call a method on the GameObject instance of which the implementation is found in one of the components, and it works. Of course, the problem is that the compiler gives 'may not respond to ...' warnings for each call. Now, my question is, how do I avoid this? And specifically regarding the fact that the point is that each instance of GameObject will have a different set of components? Maybe a way to register methods with the container objects, on a object per object basis? Such as, can I create some kind of -(void)registerMethodWithGameObject: method, and how would I do that? Now, it may or may not be obvious that I'm fairly new to Cocoa and Objective-C, and just horsing around, basically, and this whole thing may be very alien here. Of course, though I would very much like to know of a solution to my specific issue, anyone who would care to explain a more elegant way of doing this would additionally be very welcome. Much appreciated, -Bastiaan

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  • System.Web.Caching vs. Enterprise Library Caching Block

    - by ESV
    For a .NET component that will be used in both web applications and rich client applications, there seem to be two obvious options for caching: System.Web.Caching or the Ent. Lib. Caching Block. What do you use? Why? System.Web.Caching Is this safe to use outside of web apps? I've seen mixed information, but I think the answer is maybe-kind-of-not-really. a KB article warning against 1.0 and 1.1 non web app use The 2.0 page has a comment that indicates it's OK: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.web.caching.cache(VS.80).aspx Scott Hanselman is creeped out by the notion The 3.5 page includes a warning against such use Rob Howard encouraged use outside of web apps I don't expect to use one of its highlights, SqlCacheDependency, but the addition of CacheItemUpdateCallback in .NET 3.5 seems like a Really Good Thing. Enterprise Library Caching Application Block other blocks are already in use so the dependency already exists cache persistence isn't necessary; regenerating the cache on restart is OK Some cache items should always be available, but be refreshed periodically. For these items, getting a callback after an item has been removed is not very convenient. It looks like a client will have to just sleep and poll until the cache item is repopulated. Memcached for Win32 + .NET client What are the pros and cons when you don't need a distributed cache?

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  • ClickOnce Deployment Error - Access to the Path is Denied

    - by michael.lukatchik
    I have a WPF app that I'm deploying to a network path using ClickOnce deployment. After the app is deployed to a network location, I use the ClickOnce html page to launch the installation process. I am successfully able to download and install the app. However, my users are not able to download and install the app. When a user navigates to the ClickOnce html page and clicks to begin the installation process, the following error message is received: ERROR SUMMARY Below is a summary of the errors, details of these errors are listed later in the log. * Activation of http://software.mycompany.com/myapp/myapp.application resulted in exception. Following failure messages were detected: + Downloading file://dev/webs/software/myapp/myapp.application did not succeed. * [4/5/2010 1:56:59 PM] System.Deployment.Application.DeploymentDownloadException (Unknown subtype) - Downloading file://dev/Webs/software/myapp/myapp.application did not succeed. All signs point to this being a security issue. So, I've done the following: Ensured that "Everyone" had read access to the files that were being deployed as part of my project Ensured that "Everyone" had read access to the network location where the app was deployed (//dev/webs/software/myapp) Ensured that "Everyone" had read access to the IIS path where the ClickOnce html page is located In each of these cases, I've made no progress in getting the app to successfully deploy via ClickOnce. Again, the odd thing is that I am able to successfully walk through the process of downloading and installing the app. It's my users, though, that need the ability to download and install the app. I've looked extensively on the web for answers, but there hasn't been much. I'd like to resolve the issue without "re-installing" or "rigging" anything. I need a solid answer. Thank you all for your input!! Mike

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  • Pythonic mapping of an array (Beginner)

    - by scott_karana
    Hey StackOverflow, I've got a question related to a beginner Python snippet I've written to introduce myself to the language. It's an admittedly trivial early effort, but I'm still wondering how I could have written it more elegantly. The program outputs NATO phoenetic readable versions of an argument, such "H2O" - "Hotel 2 Oscar", or (lacking an argument) just outputs the whole alphabet. I mainly use it for calling in MAC addresses and IQNs, but it's useful for other phone support too. Here's the body of the relevant portion of the program: #!/usr/bin/env python import sys nato = { "a": 'Alfa', "b": 'Bravo', "c": 'Charlie', "d": 'Delta', "e": 'Echo', "f": 'Foxtrot', "g": 'Golf', "h": 'Hotel', "i": 'India', "j": 'Juliet', "k": 'Kilo', "l": 'Lima', "m": 'Mike', "n": 'November', "o": 'Oscar', "p": 'Papa', "q": 'Quebec', "r": 'Romeo', "s": 'Sierra', "t": 'Tango', "u": 'Uniform', "v": 'Victor', "w": 'Whiskey', "x": 'Xray', "y": 'Yankee', "z": 'Zulu', } if len(sys.argv) < 2: for n in nato.keys(): print nato[n] else: # if sys.argv[1] == "-i" # TODO for char in sys.argv[1].lower(): if char in nato: print nato[char], else: print char, As I mentioned, I just want to see suggestions for a more elegant way to code this. My first guess was to use a list comprehension along the lines of [nato[x] for x in sys.argv[1].lower() if x in nato], but that doesn't allow me to output any non-alphabetic characters. My next guess was to use map, but I couldn't format any lambdas that didn't suffer from the same corner case. Any suggestions? Maybe something with first-class functions? Messing with Array's guts? This seems like it could almost be a Code Golf question, but I feel like I'm just overthinking :)

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  • Highlighting a Table Correctly Despite rowspan and colspan attributes - WITHOUT jQuery

    - by ScottSEA
    Thanks to some !#$#@ in another department who wrote some crap code, I am unable to use the jQuery library - despite my fervent desire to do so. Their software has already been released into the world, and I have to be compatible. ============================================ I am trying to highlight a table. Desired behavior: Clicking on a cell in the body highlights the row. Clicking on a cell in the head highlights the column. If a column and row are both highlighted, the intersection is highlighted a different color (super-highlight). Clicking on a previously super-highlighted cell turns off the highlights. This behavior is simple enough to do with a basic table, but when rowspans and colspans start rearing their ugly heads, things start to get a little wonky... highlighting cell[5], for instance, no longer works reliably. My thought, in order to speed execution time of the highlighting itself (by changing a class name), is to pre-calculate the 'offsets' of all cells - with a 'colStart' and 'colEnd', 'rowStart' and 'rowEnd' when the page loads and store that in an array somehow. The question: How would YOU implement this functionality? I am fairly rusty at my JavaScript, awfully rudimentary in my programming skills and would benefit greatly from some guidance. Thanks, Scott.

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  • Select a distinct record, filtering is not working..

    - by help_inmssql
    Hello EVery I am new to SQl. query to result in the following records. I have a table with records as c1 c2 c3 c4 c5 c6 1 John 2.3.2010 12:09:54 4 7 99 2 mike 2.3.2010 13:09:59 8 6 88 3 ahmad 2.3.2010 13:09:59 1 9 19 4 Jim 23.3.2010 16:35:14 4 5 99 5 run 23.3.2010 12:09:54 3 8 12 I want to fecth only records. i.e only 1 latest record per day. If both of them happen at the same time, sort by C1.so in 1&3 it should fetch 3. 3 ahmad 2.3.2010 14:09:59 1 9 19 4 Jim 23.3.2010 16:35:14 4 5 99 I have got a new problem in this. If i filter the records based on conditions the last record is missing. I tried many ways but still it is failing. Here update_log is my table. SELECT * FROM update_log t1 WHERE (t1.c3) = ( SELECT MAX(t2.c3) FROM update_log t2 WHERE DATEDIFF(dd,t2.c3, t1.c3) = 0 ) and t1.c3 > '02.03.2010' and t1.modified_at <= '22.03.2010' ORDER BY t1.c3 ASC. But i am not able to retrieve the record 4 Jim 23.3.2010 16:35:14 4 5 99 I dont know this query results in only 3 ahmad 2.3.2010 14:09:59 1 9 19 The format of the column c3 is datetime. I am pumping the data into the column as using $date = date("d.m.Y H:i",time()); -- simple date fetch of today. Another query that i tried for the same purpose. select * from (select convert(varchar(10), c3,104) as date, max(c3) as max_date, max(c1) as Nr from update_log group by convert(varchar(10), c3,104)) as t2 inner join update_log as t1 on (t2.max_date = t1.c3 and convert(varchar(10), c3,104) = date and t1.[c1]= Nr) WHERE t1.c3 >= '02.03.2010' and t1.c3 <= '16.04.2010' . I even tried this way..the same error last record is not coming..

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  • Python sorting list of dictionaries by multiple keys

    - by simi
    I have a list of dicts: b = [{u'TOT_PTS_Misc': u'Utley, Alex', u'Total_Points': 96.0}, {u'TOT_PTS_Misc': u'Russo, Brandon', u'Total_Points': 96.0}, {u'TOT_PTS_Misc': u'Chappell, Justin', u'Total_Points': 96.0}, {u'TOT_PTS_Misc': u'Foster, Toney', u'Total_Points': 80.0}, {u'TOT_PTS_Misc': u'Lawson, Roman', u'Total_Points': 80.0}, {u'TOT_PTS_Misc': u'Lempke, Sam', u'Total_Points': 80.0}, {u'TOT_PTS_Misc': u'Gnezda, Alex', u'Total_Points': 78.0}, {u'TOT_PTS_Misc': u'Kirks, Damien', u'Total_Points': 78.0}, {u'TOT_PTS_Misc': u'Worden, Tom', u'Total_Points': 78.0}, {u'TOT_PTS_Misc': u'Korecz, Mike', u'Total_Points': 78.0}, {u'TOT_PTS_Misc': u'Swartz, Brian', u'Total_Points': 66.0}, {u'TOT_PTS_Misc': u'Burgess, Randy', u'Total_Points': 66.0}, {u'TOT_PTS_Misc': u'Smugala, Ryan', u'Total_Points': 66.0}, {u'TOT_PTS_Misc': u'Harmon, Gary', u'Total_Points': 66.0}, {u'TOT_PTS_Misc': u'Blasinsky, Scott', u'Total_Points': 60.0}, {u'TOT_PTS_Misc': u'Carter III, Laymon', u'Total_Points': 60.0}, {u'TOT_PTS_Misc': u'Coleman, Johnathan', u'Total_Points': 60.0}, {u'TOT_PTS_Misc': u'Venditti, Nick', u'Total_Points': 60.0}, {u'TOT_PTS_Misc': u'Blackwell, Devon', u'Total_Points': 60.0}, {u'TOT_PTS_Misc': u'Kovach, Alex', u'Total_Points': 60.0}, {u'TOT_PTS_Misc': u'Bolden, Antonio', u'Total_Points': 60.0}, {u'TOT_PTS_Misc': u'Smith, Ryan', u'Total_Points': 60.0}] and I need to use a multi key sort reversed by Total_Points, then not reversed by TOT_PTS_Misc. This can be done at the command prompt like so: a = sorted(b, key=lambda d: (-d['Total_Points'], d['TOT_PTS_Misc'])) But I have to run this through a function, where I pass in the list and the sort keys. For example, def multikeysort(dict_list, sortkeys):. How can the lambda line be used which will sort the list, for an arbitrary number of keys that are passed in to the multikeysort function, and take into consideration that the sortkeys may have any number of keys and those that need reversed sorts will be identified with a '-' before it?

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  • my MKAnnotationVIew is not showing the title

    - by hydev
    Hi, I am new to iPhone programming and I can't understand why the MKAnnotationView is not showing the title's of my annotation's. Below is the code that is used to display it on the map. - (void)mapView:(MKMapView *)mv didAddAnnotationViews:(NSArray *)views { NSLog(@"Entered didAddAnnotationViews"); MKAnnotationView *annotationView = [views objectAtIndex:0]; id <MKAnnotation> mp = [annotationView annotation]; MKCoordinateRegion region = MKCoordinateRegionMakeWithDistance([mp coordinate], 250, 250); [mv setRegion:region animated:YES]; } Here is where I am defining my annotations: MapPoint *mp = [[MapPoint alloc] initWithCoordinate:[newLocation coordinate] title:[locationTitleField text]]; [mapView addAnnotation:mp]; [mp release]; mp is a class I have created to keep track of all the map points: #import "MapPoint.h" @implementation MapPoint @synthesize coordinate, title; - (id)initWithCoordinate:(CLLocationCoordinate2D)c title:(NSString *)t { [super init]; coordinate = c; [self setTitle:t]; return self; } - (void)dealloc { [title release]; [super dealloc]; } @end I am beginner so go easy, and all help greatly appreciated. Mike

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  • automated email downloading and treading similar messages

    - by Michael
    Okay here it is : I have built an c# console app that downloads email, save attachments , and stores the subject, from, to, body to a MS SQL Database. I use aspNetPOP3 Component to do this. I have build a front end ASP.NET application to search and view the messages. Works great. Next Steps (this is where I need help ): Now I want my users (of the asp.net app) to reply to this message send the email to the originator, and tread any additional replies back and forth on from that original message(like basecamp). This would allow my end user not to have to log-in to a system, they just continue using email (our users can as well). The question is what should I use to determine if messages are related? Subject line I think is a bad approach. I believe the best method i've seen so far is way basecamp does it, but I'm not sure how that is done, here is a real example of the reply to address from a basecamp email (I've changed the host name): [email protected] Basecamp obviously are prefixing the pre-pending a tracking id to the email address, however , when I try this with my mail service, it's rejected. Is this the best approach, is there a way I can accomplish this, is there a better approach, or even a better email component tool? Thanks, Mike

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  • How to use a viewstate'd object as a datasource for controls on a user control

    - by user557325
    I've got a listview on a control. Each row comprises a checkbox and another listview. The outer listview is bound to a property on the control (via a method call, can't set a property as a SelectMethod on an ObjectDataSource it would appear) which is lazy loaded suchly: Public ReadOnly Property ProductLineChargeDetails() As List(Of WebServiceProductLineChargeDetail) Get If ViewState("WSProductLineChargeDetails") Is Nothing Then ViewState("WSProductLineChargeDetails") = GetWebServiceProductLineChargeDetails() End If Return DirectCast(ViewState("WSProductLineChargeDetails"), Global.System.Collections.Generic.List(Of Global.MI.Open.WebServiceProductLineChargeDetail)) End Get End Property The shape of the object referenced by the data source is something like this: (psuedocode) Product { bool Licenced; List<Charge> charges; } Charge { int property1; string property2; bool property3 . . . } The reason for the use of viewstate is this: When an one of the checkboxes on one of the outer list view rows is checked or unchecked I want to modify the object that the ODS represents (for example I'll add a couple of Charge objects to the relevant Product object) and then rebind. The problem I'm getting is that after every postback (specifically after checking or unchecking one of the rows' checkbox) my viewstate is empty. Thiss means that any changes I make to my viewstate'd object is lost. Now, I've worked out (after much googling and reading, amongst many others, Scott Mitchel's excellent bit on ViewState) that during initial databinding IsTrackingViewState is set to false. That means, I think, that assigning the return from GetWebServiceProductLineChargeDetails() to the ViewState item in my Property Get during the initial databind won't work. Mind you, even when the IsTrackingViewState is true and I call the Property Get, come the next postback, the viewstate is empty. So do you chaps have any ideas on how I keep the object referenced by the ObjectDataSource in ViewState between postbacks and update it and get those changes to stay in ViewState? This has been going on for a couple of days now and I'm getting fed up! Cheers in advance Steve

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  • Class/Model Level Validation (as opposed to Property Level)? (ASP.NET MVC 2.0)

    - by Erx_VB.NExT.Coder
    Basically, what the title says. I have several properties that combine together to really make one logical answer, and i would like to run a server-side validation code (that i write) which take these multiple fields into account and hook up to only one validation output/error message that users see on the webpage. I looked at scott guthries method of extending an attribute and using it in yoru dataannotations declarations, but, as i can see, there is no way to declare a dataannotations-style attribute on multiple properties, and you can only place the declarations (such as [Email], [Range], [Required]) over one property :(. i have looked at the PropertiesMustMatchAttribute in the default mvc 2.0 project that appears when you start a new project, this example is as useful as using a pair of pins to check your motor oil - useless! i have tried this method, however, creating a class level attribute, and have no idea how to display the error from this in my aspx page. i have tried html.ValidationMessage("ClassNameWhereAttributeIsAdded") and a variety of other thing, and it has not worked. and i should mention, there is NOT ONE blog post on doing validation at this level - despite this being a common need in any project or business logic scenario! can anyone help me in having my message displayed in my aspx page, and also if possible a proper document or reference explaining validation at this level?

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  • IIS: How to get the Metabase path?

    - by Ian Boyd
    i'm trying to get the list of mime types known to an IIS server (which you can see was asked and and answered by me 2 years ago). The copy-pasted answer involves: GetObject("IIS://LocalHost/MimeMap") msdn GetObject("IIS://localhost/mimemap") KB246068 GetObject("IIS://localhost/MimeMap") Scott Hanselman's Blog new DirectoryEntry("IIS://Localhost/MimeMap")) Stack Overflow new DirectoryEntry("IIS://Localhost/MimeMap")) Stack Overflow New DirectoryServices.DirectoryEntry("IIS://localhost/MimeMap") Velocity Reviews You get the idea. Everyone agrees that you use a magical path iis://localhost/mimemap. And this works great, except for the times when it doesn't. The only clue i can find as to why it fails, is from an IIS MVP, Chris Crowe's, blog: string ServerName = "LocalHost"; string MetabasePath = "IIS://" + ServerName + "/MimeMap"; // Note: This could also be something like // string MetabasePath = "IIS://" + ServerName + "/w3svc/1/root"; DirectoryEntry MimeMap = new DirectoryEntry(MetabasePath); There are two clues here: He calls iis://localhost/mimemap the Metabase Path. Which sounds to me like it is some sort of "path" to a "metabase". He says that the path to the metabase could be something else; and he gives an example of what it could be like. Right now i, and the entire planet, are hardcoding the "MetabasePath" as iis://localhost/MimeMap What should it really be? What should the code be doing to construct a valid MetabasePath? Note: i'm not getting an access denied error, the error is the same when you have an invalid MetabasePath, e.g. iis://localhost/SoTiredOfThis

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  • RegAsm for Class Library Used in VB6 Application

    - by michael.lukatchik
    To be short and to the point, I've built a C# class library that is both COM-Visible and Registered for COM Interop. I've compiled the library, which resulted in the generation of .dll and .tlb files. I have another machine that's running a VB6 application. So, I copied the .dll and .tlb files over to C:/Windows/system32 folder on the machine. I then registered those files using the following: C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\RegAsm C:\Windows\system32\TestClass.dll /tlb:TestClass.tlb After the files were registered successfully, I added a project reference to the Test.tlb file from inside my VB6 app, then I tried to invoke a method in my new referenced class like so: Dim myObject As TestNamespace.TestClass Set myObject = New TestNamespace.TestClass MsgBox (myObject.TestMethod()) It doesn't work, and I receive a -2147024894 Automation Error. I've read that I shouldn't install the dll into a private folder like system32. I should either be registering in the GAC or I should be registering in another location using the "/codebase" option: C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\RegAsm C:\TestClass.dll /tlb:TestClass.tlb /codebase Is there any reason I shouldn't be using system32? Past devs that have worked on this project have placed assembly files used by this VB6 project into system32 and there haven't seemed to be any issues. When I register my dll in the system32 location, I get the Automation Error. When I register my dll in another location (i.e. C:/), the method call into my class library from VB6 works as expected. What gives? I should mention that we will NOT be using the GAC to register any DLL's. That's just the way it is. Any help is appreciated. Mike

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  • UTL_FILE.FOPEN() procedure not accepting path for directory ?

    - by Vineet
    I am trying to write in a file stored in c:\ drive named vin1.txt and getting this error .Please suggest! > ERROR at line 1: ORA-29280: invalid > directory path ORA-06512: at > "SYS.UTL_FILE", line 18 ORA-06512: at > "SYS.UTL_FILE", line 424 ORA-06512: at > "SCOTT.SAL_STATUS", line 12 ORA-06512: > at line 1 HERE is the code create or replace procedure sal_status ( p_file_dir IN varchar2, p_filename IN varchar2) IS v_filehandle utl_file.file_type; cursor emp Is select * from employees order by department_id; v_dep_no departments.department_id%TYPE; begin v_filehandle :=utl_file.fopen(p_file_dir,p_filename,'w');--Opening a file utl_file.putf(v_filehandle,'SALARY REPORT :GENERATED ON %s\n',SYSDATE); utl_file.new_line(v_filehandle); for v_emp_rec IN emp LOOP v_dep_no :=v_emp_rec.department_id; utl_file.putf(v_filehandle,'employee %s earns:s\n',v_emp_rec.last_name,v_emp_rec.salary); end loop; utl_file.put_line(v_filehandle,'***END OF REPORT***'); UTL_FILE.fclose(v_filehandle); end sal_status; execute sal_status('C:\','vin1.txt');--Executing

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  • Stream Reuse in C#

    - by MikeD
    I've been playing around with what I thought was a simple idea. I want to be able to read in a file from somewhere (website, filesystem, ftp), perform some operations on it (compress, encrypt, etc.) and then save it somewhere (somewhere may be a filesystem, ftp, or whatever). It's a basic pipeline design. What I would like to do is to read in the file and put it onto a MemoryStream, then perform the operations on the data in the MemoryStream, and then save that data in the MemoryStream somewhere. I was thinking I could use the same Stream to do this but run into a couple of problems: Everytime I use a StreamWriter or StreamReader I need to close it and that closes the stream so that I cannot use it anymore. That seems like there must be some way to get around that. Some of these files may be big and so I may run out of memory if I try to read the whole thing in at once. I was hoping to be able to spin up each of the steps as separate threads and have the compression step begin as soon as there is data on the stream, and then as soon as the compression has some compressed data available on the stream I could start saving it (for example). Is anything like this easily possible with the C# Streams? ANyone have thoughts as to how to accomplish this best? Thanks, Mike

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  • Controlling ASP.NET output cache memory usage

    - by Josh Einstein
    I would like to use output caching with WCF Data Services and although there's nothing specifically built in to support caching, there is an OnStartProcessingRequest method that allows me to hook in and set the cacheability of the request using normal ASP.NET mechanisms. But I am worried about the worker process getting recycled due to excessive memory consumption if large responses are cached. Is there a way to specify an upper limit for the ASP.NET output cache so that if this limit is exceeded, items in the cache will be discarded? I've seen the caching configuration settings but I get the impression from the documentation that this is for explicit caching via the Cache object since there is a separate outputCacheSettings which has no memory-related attributes. Here's a code snippet from Scott Hanselman's post that shows how I'm setting the cacheability of the request. protected override void OnStartProcessingRequest(ProcessRequestArgs args) { base.OnStartProcessingRequest(args); //Cache for a minute based on querystring HttpContext context = HttpContext.Current; HttpCachePolicy c = HttpContext.Current.Response.Cache; c.SetCacheability(HttpCacheability.ServerAndPrivate); c.SetExpires(HttpContext.Current.Timestamp.AddSeconds(60)); c.VaryByHeaders["Accept"] = true; c.VaryByHeaders["Accept-Charset"] = true; c.VaryByHeaders["Accept-Encoding"] = true; c.VaryByParams["*"] = true; }

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  • How do I Unit Test Actions without Mocking that use UpdateModel?

    - by Hellfire
    I have been working my way through Scott Guthrie's excellent post on ASP.NET MVC Beta 1. In it he shows the improvements made to the UpdateModel method and how they improve unit testing. I have recreated a similar project however anytime I run a UnitTest that contains a call to UpdateModel I receive an ArgumentNullException naming the controllerContext parameter. Here's the relevant bits, starting with my model: public class Country { public Int32 ID { get; set; } public String Name { get; set; } public String Iso3166 { get; set; } } The controller action: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Edit(Int32 id, FormCollection form) { using ( ModelBindingDataContext db = new ModelBindingDataContext() ) { Country country = db.Countries.Where(c => c.CountryID == id).SingleOrDefault(); try { UpdateModel(country, form); db.SubmitChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } catch { return View(country); } } } And finally my unit test that's failing: [TestMethod] public void Edit() { CountryController controller = new CountryController(); FormCollection form = new FormCollection(); form.Add("Name", "Canada"); form.Add("Iso3166", "CA"); var result = controller.Edit(2 /*Canada*/, form) as RedirectToRouteResult; Assert.IsNotNull(result, "Expected to be redirected on successful POST."); Assert.AreEqual("Show", result.RouteName, "Expected to redirect to the View action."); } ArgumentNullException is thrown by the call to UpdateModel with the message "Value cannot be null. Parameter name: controllerContext". I'm assuming that somewhere the UpdateModel requires the System.Web.Mvc.ControllerContext which isn't present during execution of the test. I'm also assuming that I'm doing something wrong somewhere and just need to pointed in the right direction. Help Please!

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  • .net mvc pass dictionary data from view to controller

    - by Wei Ma
    A while ago, I was trying to pass a dictionary data from my view to my controller. And I was able to do so after googling on the net(remember it was one of scott hanselman's posts). The solution I had was something like <%for(int index=0; index<Model.Count(); index++){ var property= Model.ElementAt(index);%> <input type="hidden" name="<%="properties["+index+"].Key"%>"/> <input type="hidden" name="<%="properties["+index+"].Value"%>"/> <%}%> public ActionResult Process(IDictionary<string,string> properties) { doSomething(); return View(); } The code worked for awhile and then I did some refactoring and got rid of this chunk of code. Today, I ran into a situation in which I would like to pass a dictionary again. But no matter how hard I try, the properties parameter received by the action was always null. I tried the above code and <%for(int index=0; index<Model.Count(); index++){ var property= Model.ElementAt(index);%> <input type="hidden" name="<%="properties.Keys["+index+"]"%>"/> <input type="hidden" name="<%="properties.Values["+index+"]"%>"/> <%}%> Neither code worked. I googled again but couldn't find the post that helped me before. Can someone point out what I did wrong? thanks a million.

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  • WPF Textbox & Borders - curious resizing behavior

    - by CitizenParker
    The following XAML produces a window with strange behavior around the textbox: <Window x:Class="WpfSandbox.CuriousExample" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="CuriousExample" Height="300" Width="300"> <DockPanel Margin="15"> <TextBox BorderThickness="1" BorderBrush="#FF000000"></TextBox> </DockPanel> </Window> What happens, at least during my limited testing, is that the textbox renders with an inset border pattern (top/left is black, right/bottom is grey). However, when you resize to any position except the original, the entire textbox border goes to black. Whenever you return the window to the exact number of on-screen pixels the form had when it first loaded, it's inset again. I'm guessing it isn't pixel snapping as I can easily correct the problem with this code: <Window x:Class="WpfSandbox.CuriousExample" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="CuriousExample" Height="300" Width="300"> <DockPanel Margin="15"> <Border BorderThickness="1" BorderBrush="#FF000000"> <TextBox BorderThickness="0" ></TextBox> </Border> </DockPanel> </Window> Anyone care to venture an explanation as to what I'm seeing? Or is it all in my head? Like I said, the above workaround can resolve this problem - just trying to understand what is happening here. Thanks, -Scott

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  • Which LINQ expression is faster

    - by Vlad Bezden
    Hi All In following code public class Person { public string Name { get; set; } public uint Age { get; set; } public Person(string name, uint age) { Name = name; Age = age; } } void Main() { var data = new List<Person>{ new Person("Bill Gates", 55), new Person("Steve Ballmer", 54), new Person("Steve Jobs", 55), new Person("Scott Gu", 35)}; // 1st approach data.Where (x => x.Age > 40).ToList().ForEach(x => x.Age++); // 2nd approach data.ForEach(x => { if (x.Age > 40) x.Age++; }); data.ForEach(x => Console.WriteLine(x)); } in my understanding 2nd approach should be faster since it iterates through each item once and first approach is running 2 times: Where clause ForEach on subset of items from where clause. However internally it might be that compiler translates 1st approach to the 2nd approach anyway and they will have the same performance. Any suggestions or ideas? I could do profiling like suggested, but I want to understand what is going on compiler level if those to lines of code are the same to the compiler, or compiler will treat it literally. Thanks in advance for your help.

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  • Converting a Linq expression tree that relies on SqlMethods.Like() for use with the Entity Framework

    - by JohnnyO
    I recently switched from using Linq to Sql to the Entity Framework. One of the things that I've been really struggling with is getting a general purpose IQueryable extension method that was built for Linq to Sql to work with the Entity Framework. This extension method has a dependency on the Like() method of SqlMethods, which is Linq to Sql specific. What I really like about this extension method is that it allows me to dynamically construct a Sql Like statement on any object at runtime, by simply passing in a property name (as string) and a query clause (also as string). Such an extension method is very convenient for using grids like flexigrid or jqgrid. Here is the Linq to Sql version (taken from this tutorial: http://www.codeproject.com/KB/aspnet/MVCFlexigrid.aspx): public static IQueryable<T> Like<T>(this IQueryable<T> source, string propertyName, string keyword) { var type = typeof(T); var property = type.GetProperty(propertyName); var parameter = Expression.Parameter(type, "p"); var propertyAccess = Expression.MakeMemberAccess(parameter, property); var constant = Expression.Constant("%" + keyword + "%"); var like = typeof(SqlMethods).GetMethod("Like", new Type[] { typeof(string), typeof(string) }); MethodCallExpression methodExp = Expression.Call(null, like, propertyAccess, constant); Expression<Func<T, bool>> lambda = Expression.Lambda<Func<T, bool>>(methodExp, parameter); return source.Where(lambda); } With this extension method, I can simply do the following: someList.Like("FirstName", "mike"); or anotherList.Like("ProductName", "widget"); Is there an equivalent way to do this with Entity Framework? Thanks in advance.

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  • nhibernate not taking mappings from assembly

    - by cvista
    Hi I'm using fnh and castle nhib facility. I followed the advice from mike hadlow here: http://mikehadlow.blogspot.com/2009/01/integrating-fluent-nhibernate-and.html here is my FluentNHibernateConfigurationBuilder: public Configuration GetConfiguration(IConfiguration facilityConfiguration) { var defaultConfigurationBuilder = new DefaultConfigurationBuilder(); var configuration = defaultConfigurationBuilder.GetConfiguration(facilityConfiguration); configuration.AddMappingsFromAssembly(typeof(User).Assembly); return configuration; } i know the facility is picking it up as i can break inside that method and it steps through. however, when it's done, non of the mappings are created and i get the following error when i try to save an entity: No persister for: IsItGd.Model.Entities.User here is my user class: //simple model of web user public class User { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string FullName { get; set; } } and here is the mapping: public class UserMap : ClassMap<User> { public UserMap() { Id(x=>x.Id); Map(x=>x.FullName); } } i really can't see what the problem is. the strange thing is - is that if i use automapping it picks everything up - but i don't want to use automapping as i can't do certain things in that scenario. any clues? w://

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  • NHibernate: Mapping multiple classes from a single table row

    - by Michael Kurtz
    I couldn't find an answer to this specific question. I am trying to keep my domain model object-oriented and re-use objects where possible. I am having an issue determining how to provide a mapping to multiple classes from a single row. Let me explain with an example: I have a single table, call it Customer. A customer has several attributes; but, for brevity, assume it has Id, Name, Address, City, State, ZipCode. I would like to create a Customer and Address class that look like this: public class Customer { public virtual long Id {get;set;} public virtual string Name {get;set;} public virtual Address Address {get;set;} } public class Address { public virtual string Address {get;set;} public virtual string City {get;set;} public virtual string State {get;set;} public virtual string ZipCode {get;set;} } What I am having trouble with is determining what the mapping would be for the Address class within the Customer class. There is no Address table and there isn't a "set" of addresses associated with a Customer. I just want a more object-oriented view of the Customer table in code. There are several other tables that have address information in them and it would be nice to have a reusable Address class to deal with them. Addresses are not shared so breaking all addresses into a separate table with foreign keys seems to be overkill and, actually, more painful since I would need foreign keys to multiple tables. Can someone enlighten me on this type of mapping? Please provide an example if you can. Thanks for any insights! -Mike

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  • Creating a desktop icon using JWS JNLP for a JavaFX app.

    - by Sleepycat
    I am trying to get a custom destop icon to be displayed for my app but for some reason no matter what I do the same default java icon shows up. I have tried everything I can think of and gone and compared my jnlp file with others whose icons seem to work ok. According to everything I have read the following should work fine. But of course, it doesn't: <information> <title>MikesApp</title> <vendor>Mike</vendor> <homepage href="http://www.mikesapp.com/"/> <description>Mikes App.</description> <icon kind="shortcut" href="res/icon64x64.png" width="64" height="64"/> <offline-allowed/> <shortcut> <desktop/> </shortcut> </information> Any ideas would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Custom DateTime model binder in Asp.net MVC

    - by Robert Koritnik
    I would like to write my own model binder for DateTime type. First of all I'd like to write a new attribute that I can attach to my model property like: [DateTimeFormat("d.M.yyyy")] public DateTime Birth { get; set,} This is the easy part. But the binder part is a bit more difficult. I would like to add a new model binder for type DateTime. I can either implement IModelBinder interface and write my own BindModel() method inherit from DefaultModelBinder and override BindModel() method My model has a property as seen above (Birth). So when the model tries to bind request data to this property, my model binder's BindModel(controllerContext, bindingContext) gets invoked. Everything ok, but. How do I get property attributes from controller/bindingContext, to parse my date correctly? How can I get to the PropertyDesciptor of property Birth? Edit Because of separation of concerns my model class is defined in an assembly that doesn't (and shouldn't) reference System.Web.MVC assembly. Setting custom binding (similar to Scott Hanselman's example) attributes is a no-go here.

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