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  • Wordpress pages address rewrite

    - by kemp
    UPDATE I tried using the internal wordpress rewrite. What I have to do is an address like this: http://example.com/galleria/artist-name sent to the gallery.php page with a variable containing the artist-name. I used these rules as per Wordpress' documentation: // REWRITE RULES (per gallery) {{{ add_filter('rewrite_rules_array','wp_insertMyRewriteRules'); add_filter('query_vars','wp_insertMyRewriteQueryVars'); add_filter('init','flushRules'); // Remember to flush_rules() when adding rules function flushRules(){ global $wp_rewrite; $wp_rewrite->flush_rules(); } // Adding a new rule function wp_insertMyRewriteRules($rules) { $newrules = array(); $newrules['(galleria)/(.*)$'] = 'index.php?pagename=gallery&galleryname=$matches[2]'; return $newrules + $rules; } // Adding the id var so that WP recognizes it function wp_insertMyRewriteQueryVars($vars) { array_push($vars, 'galleryname'); return $vars; } what's weird now is that on my local wordpress test install, that works fine: the gallery page is called and the galleryname variable is passed. On the real site, on the other hand, the initial URL is accepted (as in it doesn't go into a 404) BUT it changes to http://example.com/gallery (I mean it actually changes in the browser's address bar) and the variable is not defined in gallery.php. Any idea what could possibly cause this different behavior? Alternatively, any other way I couldn't think of which could achieve the same effect described in the first three lines is perfectly fine. Old question What I need to do is rewriting this address: (1) http://localhost/wordpress/fake/text-value to (2) http://localhost/wordpress/gallery?somevar=text-value Notes: the remapping must be transparent: the user always has to see address (1) gallery is a permalink to a wordpress page, not a real address I basically need to rewrite the address first (to modify it) and then feed it back to mod rewrite again (to let wordpress parse it its own way). Problems if I simply do RewriteRule ^fake$ http://localhost/wordpress/gallery [L] it works but the address in the browser changes, which is no good, if I do RewriteRule ^fake$ /wordpress/gallery [L] I get a 404. I tried different flags instead of [L] but to no avail. How can I get this to work? EDIT: full .htaccess # BEGIN WordPress <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^fake$ /wordpress/gallery [R] RewriteBase /wordpress/ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule . /wordpress/index.php [L] </IfModule> # END WordPress

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  • Throwing cats out of windows

    - by AndrewF
    Imagine you're in a tall building with a cat. The cat can survive a fall out of a low story window, but will die if thrown from a high floor. How can you figure out the longest drop that the cat can survive, using the least number of attempts? Obviously, if you only have one cat, then you can only search linearly. First throw the cat from the first floor. If it survives, throw it from the second. Eventually, after being thrown from floor f, the cat will die. You then know that floor f-1 was the maximal safe floor. But what if you have more than one cat? You can now try some sort of logarithmic search. Let's say that the build has 100 floors and you have two identical cats. If you throw the first cat out of the 50th floor and it dies, then you only have to search 50 floors linearly. You can do even better if you choose a lower floor for your first attempt. Let's say that you choose to tackle the problem 20 floors at a time and that the first fatal floor is #50. In that case, your first cat will survive flights from floors 20 and 40 before dying from floor 60. You just have to check floors 41 through 49 individually. That's a total of 12 attempts, which is much better than the 50 you would need had you attempted to use binary elimination. In general, what's the best strategy and it's worst-case complexity for an n-storied building with 2 cats? What about for n floors and m cats? Assume that all cats are equivalent: they will all survive or die from a fall from a given window. Also, every attempt is independent: if a cat survives a fall, it is completely unharmed. This isn't homework, although I may have solved it for school assignment once. It's just a whimsical problem that popped into my head today and I don't remember the solution. Bonus points if anyone knows the name of this problem or of the solution algorithm.

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  • Why do sockets not die when server dies? Why does a socket die when server is alive?

    - by Roman
    I try to play with sockets a bit. For that I wrote very simple "client" and "server" applications. Client: import java.net.*; public class client { public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { InetAddress localhost = InetAddress.getLocalHost(); System.out.println("before"); Socket clientSideSocket = null; try { clientSideSocket = new Socket(localhost,12345,localhost,54321); } catch (ConnectException e) { System.out.println("Connection Refused"); } System.out.println("after"); if (clientSideSocket != null) { clientSideSocket.close(); } } } Server: import java.net.*; public class server { public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { ServerSocket listener = new ServerSocket(12345); while (true) { Socket serverSideSocket = listener.accept(); System.out.println("A client-request is accepted."); } } } And I found a behavior that I cannot explain: I start a server, than I start a client. Connection is successfully established (client stops running and server is running). Then I close the server and start it again in a second. After that I start a client and it writes "Connection Refused". It seems to me that the server "remember" the old connection and does not want to open the second connection twice. But I do not understand how it is possible. Because I killed the previous server and started a new one! I do not start the server immediately after the previous one was killed (I wait like 20 seconds). In this case the server "forget" the socket from the previous server and accepts the request from the client. I start the server and then I start the client. Connection is established (server writes: "A client-request is accepted"). Then I wait a minute and start the client again. And server (which was running the whole time) accept the request again! Why? The server should not accept the request from the same client-IP and client-port but it does!

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  • Any way to allow classes implementing IEntity and downcast to have operator == comparisons?

    - by George Mauer
    Basically here's the issue. All entities in my system are identified by their type and their id. new Customer() { Id = 1} == new Customer() {Id = 1}; new Customer() { Id = 1} != new Customer() {Id = 2}; new Customer() { Id = 1} != new Product() {Id = 1}; Pretty standard scenario. Since all Entities have an Id I define an interface for all entities. public interface IEntity { int Id { get; set;} } And to simplify creation of entities I make public abstract class BaseEntity<T> : where T : IEntity { int Id { get; set;} public static bool operator ==(BaseEntity<T> e1, BaseEntity<T> e2) { if (object.ReferenceEquals(null, e1)) return false; return e1.Equals(e2); } public static bool operator !=(BaseEntity<T> e1, BaseEntity<T> e2) { return !(e1 == e2); } } where Customer and Product are something like public class Customer : BaseEntity<Customer>, IEntity {} public class Product : BaseEntity<Product>, IEntity {} I think this is hunky dory. I think all I have to do is override Equals in each entity (if I'm super clever, I can even override it only once in the BaseEntity) and everything with work. So now I'm expanding my test coverage and find that its not quite so simple! First of all , when downcasting to IEntity and using == the BaseEntity< override is not used. So what's the solution? Is there something else I can do? If not, this is seriously annoying. Upadate It would seem that there is something wrong with my tests - or rather with comparing on generics. Check this out [Test] public void when_created_manually_non_generic() { // PASSES! var e1 = new Terminal() {Id = 1}; var e2 = new Terminal() {Id = 1}; Assert.IsTrue(e1 == e2); } [Test] public void when_created_manually_generic() { // FAILS! GenericCompare(new Terminal() { Id = 1 }, new Terminal() { Id = 1 }); } private void GenericCompare<T>(T e1, T e2) where T : class, IEntity { Assert.IsTrue(e1 == e2); } Whats going on here? This is not as big a problem as I was afraid, but is still quite annoying and a completely unintuitive way for the language to behave. Update Update Ah I get it, the generic implicitly downcasts to IEntity for some reason. I stand by this being unintuitive and potentially problematic for my Domain's consumers as they need to remember that anything happening within a generic method or class needs to be compared with Equals()

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  • Primary language - C++/Qt, C#, Java?

    - by Airjoe
    I'm looking for some input, but let me start with a bit of background (for tl;dr skip to end). I'm an IT major with a concentration in networking. While I'm not a CS major nor do I want to program as a vocation, I do consider myself a programmer and do pretty well with the concepts involved. I've been programming since about 6th grade, started out with a proprietary game creation language that made my transition into C++ at college pretty easy. I like to make programs for myself and friends, and have been paid to program for local businesses. A bit about that- I wrote some programs for a couple local businesses in my senior year in high school. I wrote management systems for local shops (inventory, phone/pos orders, timeclock, customer info, and more stuff I can't remember). It definitely turned out to be over my head, as I had never had any formal programming education. It was a great learning experience, but damn was it crappy code. Oh yeah, by the way, it was all vb6. So, I've used vb6 pretty extensively, I've used c++ in my classes (intro to programming up to algorithms), used Java a little bit in another class (had to write a ping client program, pretty easy) and used Java for some simple Project Euler problems to help learn syntax and such when writing the program for the class. I've also used C# a bit for my own simple personal projects (simple programs, one which would just generate an HTTP request on a list of websites and notify if one responded unexpectedly or not at all, and another which just held a list of things to do and periodically reminded me to do them), things I would've written in vb6 a year or two ago. I've just started using Qt C++ for some undergrad research I'm working on. Now I've had some formal education, I [think I] understand organization in programming a lot better (I didn't even use classes in my vb6 programs where I really should have), how it's important to structure code, split into functions where appropriate, document properly, efficiency both in memory and speed, dynamic and modular programming etc. I was looking for some input on which language to pick up as my "primary". As I'm not a "real programmer", it will be mostly hobby projects, but will include some 'real' projects I'm sure. From my perspective: QtC++ and Java are cross platform, which is cool. Java and C# run in a virtual machine, but I'm not sure if that's a big deal (something extra to distribute, possibly a bit slower? I think Qt would require additional distributables too, right?). I don't really know too much more than this, so I appreciate any help, thanks! TL;DR Am an avocational programmer looking for a language, want quick and straight forward development, liked vb6, will be working with database driven GUI apps- should I go with QtC++, Java, C#, or perhaps something else?

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  • Setting default values for inherited property without using accessor in Objective-C?

    - by Ben Stock
    I always see people debating whether or not to use a property's setter in the -init method. I don't know enough about the Objective-C language yet to have an opinion one way or the other. With that said, lately I've been sticking to ivars exclusively. It seems cleaner in a way. I don't know. I digress. Anyway, here's my problem … Say we have a class called Dude with an interface that looks like this: @interface Dude : NSObject { @private NSUInteger _numberOfGirlfriends; } @property (nonatomic, assign) NSUInteger numberOfGirlfriends; @end And an implementation that looks like this: @implementation Dude - (instancetype)init { self = [super init]; if (self) { _numberOfGirlfriends = 0; } } @end Now let's say I want to extend Dude. My subclass will be called Playa. And since a playa should have mad girlfriends, when Playa gets initialized, I don't want him to start with 0; I want him to have 10. Here's Playa.m: @implementation Playa - (instancetype)init { self = [super init]; if (self) { // Attempting to set the ivar directly will result in the compiler saying, // "Instance variable `_numberOfGirlfriends` is private." // _numberOfGirlfriends = 10; <- Can't do this. // Thus, the only way to set it is with the mutator: self.numberOfGirlfriends = 10; // Or: [self setNumberOfGirlfriends:10]; } } @end So what's a Objective-C newcomer to do? Well, I mean, there's only one thing I can do, and that's set the property. Unless there's something I'm missing. Any ideas, suggestions, tips, or tricks? Sidenote: The other thing that bugs me about setting the ivar directly — and what a lot of ivar-proponents say is a "plus" — is that there are no KVC notifications. A lot of times, I want the KVC magic to happen. 50% of my setters end in [self setNeedsDisplay:YES], so without the notification, my UI doesn't update unless I remember to manually add -setNeedsDisplay. That's a bad example, but the point stands. I utilize KVC all over the place, so without notifications, things can act wonky. Anyway, any info is much appreciated. Thanks!

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  • Patterns for dynamic CMS components (event driven?)

    - by CitrusTree
    Sorry my title is not great, this is my first real punt at moving 100% to OO as I've been procedural for more years than I can remember. I'm finding it hard to understand if what I'm trying to do is possible. Depending on people's thoughts on the 2 following points, I'll go down that route. The CMS I'm putting together is quote small, however focuses very much on different types of content. I could easily use Drupal which I'm very comfortable with, but I want to give myself a really good reasons to move myself into design patterns / OO-PHP 1) I have created a base 'content' class which I wish to be able to extend to handle different types of content. The base class, for example, handles HTML content, and extensions might handle XML or PDF output instead. On the other hand, at some point I may wish to extend the base class for a given project completely. I.e. if class 'content-v2' extended class 'content' for that site, any calls to that class should actually call 'content-v2' instead. Is that possible? If the code instantiates an object of type 'content' - I actually want it to instantiate one of type 'content-v2'... I can see how to do it using inheritance, but that appears to involve referring to the class explicitly, I can't see how to link the class I want it to use instead dynamically. 2) Secondly, the way I'm building this at the moment is horrible, I'm not happy with it. It feels very linear indeed - i.e. get session details get content build navigation theme page publish. To do this all the objects are called 1-by-1 which is all very static. I'd like it to be more dynamic so that I can add to it at a later date (very closely related to first question). Is there a way that instead of my orchestrator class calling all the other classes 1-by-1, then building the whole thing up at the end, that instead each of the other classes can 'listen' for specific events, then at the applicable point jump in and do their but? That way the orchestrator class would not need to know what other classes were required, and call them 1-by-1. Sorry if I've got this all twisted in my head. I'm trying to build this so it's really flexible.

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  • Why sockets does not die when server dies? Why socket dies when server is alive?

    - by Roman
    I try to play with sockets a bit. For that I wrote very simple "client" and "server" applications. Client: import java.net.*; public class client { public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { InetAddress localhost = InetAddress.getLocalHost(); System.out.println("before"); Socket clientSideSocket = null; try { clientSideSocket = new Socket(localhost,12345,localhost,54321); } catch (ConnectException e) { System.out.println("Connection Refused"); } System.out.println("after"); if (clientSideSocket != null) { clientSideSocket.close(); } } } Server: import java.net.*; public class server { public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { ServerSocket listener = new ServerSocket(12345); while (true) { Socket serverSideSocket = listener.accept(); System.out.println("A client-request is accepted."); } } } And I found a behavior that I cannot explain: I start a server, than I start a client. Connection is successfully established (client stops running and server is running). Then I close the server and start it again in a second. After that I start a client and it writes "Connection Refused". It seems to me that the server "remember" the old connection and does not want to open the second connection twice. But I do not understand how it is possible. Because I killed the previous server and started a new one! I do not start the server immediately after the previous one was killed (I wait like 20 seconds). In this case the server "forget" the socket from the previous server and accepts the request from the client. I start the server and then I start the client. Connection is established (server writes: "A client-request is accepted"). Then I wait a minute and start the client again. And server (which was running the whole time) accept the request again! Why? The server should not accept the request from the same client-IP and client-port but it does!

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  • Circular database relationships. Good, Bad, Exceptions?

    - by jim
    I have been putting off developing this part of my app for sometime purely because I want to do this in a circular way but get the feeling its a bad idea from what I remember my lecturers telling me back in school. I have a design for an order system, ignoring the everything that doesn't pertain to this example I'm left with: CreditCard Customer Order I want it so that, Customers can have credit cards (0-n) Customers have orders (1-n) Orders have one customer(1-1) Orders have one credit card(1-1) Credit cards can have one customer(1-1) (unique ids so we can ignore uniqueness of cc number, husband/wife may share cc instances ect) Basically the last part is where the issue shows up, sometimes credit cards are declined and they wish to use a different one, this needs to update which their 'current' card is but this can only change the current card used for that order, not the other orders the customer may have on disk. Effectively this creates a circular design between the three tables. Possible solutions: Either Create the circular design, give references: cc ref to order, customer ref to cc customer ref to order or customer ref to cc customer ref to order create new table that references all three table ids and put unique on the order so that only one cc may be current to that order at any time Essentially both model the same design but translate differently, I am liking the latter option best at this point in time because it seems less circular and more central. (If that even makes sense) My questions are, What if any are the pros and cons of each? What is the pitfalls of circular relationships/dependancies? Is this a valid exception to the rule? Is there any reason I should pick the former over the latter? Thanks and let me know if there is anything you need clarified/explained. --Update/Edit-- I have noticed an error in the requirements I stated. Basically dropped the ball when trying to simplify things for SO. There is another table there for Payments which adds another layer. The catch, Orders can have multiple payments, with the possibility of using different credit cards. (if you really want to know even other forms of payment). Stating this here because I think the underlying issue is still the same and this only really adds another layer of complexity.

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  • Are there compelling reasons not to use Groovy?

    - by Leonard H Martin
    I'm developing a LoB application in Java after a long absence from the platform (having spent the last 8 years or so entrenched in Fortran, C, a smidgin of C++ and latterly .Net). Java, the language, is not much changed from how I remember it. I like it's strengths and I can work around its weaknesses - the platform has grown and deciding upon the myriad of different frameworks which appear to do much the same thing as one another is a different story; but that can wait for another day - all-in-all I'm comfortable with Java. However, over the last couple of weeks I've become enamoured with Groovy, and purely from a selfish point of view: but not just because it makes development against the JVM a more succinct and entertaining (and, well, "groovy") proposition than Java (the language). What strikes me most about Groovy is its inherent maintainability. We all (I hope!) strive to write well documented, easy to understand code. However, sometimes the languages we use themselves defeat us. An example: in 2001 I wrote a library in C to translate EDIFACT EDI messages into ANSI X12 messages. This is not a particularly complicated process, if slightly involved, and I thought at the time I had documented the code properly - and I probably had - but some six years later when I revisited the project (and after becoming acclimatised to C#) I found myself lost in so much C boilerplate (mallocs, pointers, etc. etc.) that it took three days of thoughtful analysis before I finally understood what I'd been doing six years previously. This evening I've written about 2000 lines of Java (it is the day of rest, after all!). I've documented as best as I know how, but, but, of those 2000 lines of Java a significant proportion is Java boiler plate. This is where I see Groovy and other dynamic languages winning through - maintainability and later comprehension. Groovy lets you concentrate on your intent without getting bogged down on the platform specific implementation; it's almost, but not quite, self documenting. I see this as being a huge boon to me when I revisit my current project (which I'll port to Groovy asap) in several years time and to my successors who will inherit it and carry on the good work. So, are there any reasons not to use Groovy?

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  • Primary language - QtC++, C#, Java?

    - by Airjoe
    I'm looking for some input, but let me start with a bit of background (for tl;dr skip to end). I'm an IT major with a concentration in networking. While I'm not a CS major nor do I want to program as a vocation, I do consider myself a programmer and do pretty well with the concepts involved. I've been programming since about 6th grade, started out with a proprietary game creation language that made my transition into C++ at college pretty easy. I like to make programs for myself and friends, and have been paid to program for local businesses. A bit about that- I wrote some programs for a couple local businesses in my senior year in high school. I wrote management systems for local shops (inventory, phone/pos orders, timeclock, customer info, and more stuff I can't remember). It definitely turned out to be over my head, as I had never had any formal programming education. It was a great learning experience, but damn was it crappy code. Oh yeah, by the way, it was all vb6. So, I've used vb6 pretty extensively, I've used c++ in my classes (intro to programming up to algorithms), used Java a little bit in another class (had to write a ping client program, pretty easy) and used Java for some simple Project Euler problems to help learn syntax and such when writing the program for the class. I've also used C# a bit for my own simple personal projects (simple programs, one which would just generate an HTTP request on a list of websites and notify if one responded unexpectedly or not at all, and another which just held a list of things to do and periodically reminded me to do them), things I would've written in vb6 a year or two ago. I've just started using Qt C++ for some undergrad research I'm working on. Now I've had some formal education, I [think I] understand organization in programming a lot better (I didn't even use classes in my vb6 programs where I really should have), how it's important to structure code, split into functions where appropriate, document properly, efficiency both in memory and speed, dynamic and modular programming etc. I was looking for some input on which language to pick up as my "primary". As I'm not a "real programmer", it will be mostly hobby projects, but will include some 'real' projects I'm sure. From my perspective: QtC++ and Java are cross platform, which is cool. Java and C# run in a virtual machine, but I'm not sure if that's a big deal (something extra to distribute, possibly a bit slower? I think Qt would require additional distributables too, right?). I don't really know too much more than this, so I appreciate any help, thanks! TL;DR Am an avocational programmer looking for a language, want quick and straight forward development, liked vb6, will be working with database driven GUI apps- should I go with QtC++, Java, C#, or perhaps something else?

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  • Duplicate Blob field with foreach

    - by JGSilva
    I have some fields (blob) where I have uploaded some images. The images display correctly and I can open it without problem in Photoshop for example. I created a button where user can duplicate the product and everything works fine, but when it comes to duplicate the image entry I got some errors, like 1064 and others ones that I can't remember cause I am working 3 days inside this. Because de original product have 3 or more images I select then and gave an foreach. What I notice when a print de blob is that in the end it eats the next array, like if don't have an end. In other words, the next item got inside that utf-8 character in the print. That gave me some clue. The next approach was to save it in somewhere, and reupload it. The problem is that only the first one works. When I download the image saved, it opens normally so, it is not a saving in disk problem. When I gave a print in the $result, the same happens, is like the image is hungry and ate the next one. Here is the code. Notice = I created the [$count] to see if was not an rewrite in array error. Even tried to , in beging of the foreach, kind of clean the vars… $count=0; foreach ($original_image as $key => $val) { $count++; //$arquivo = ''; //$image = ''; //$file = ''; //$this->image = ''; //$return = ''; $arquivo[$count] = $val['pi_id'].'.'.$val['pi_type']; $image[$count] = $caminho_url.$arquivo[$count]; if (file_exists($image[$count])) { $this->image = Image::factory($image[$count]); $this->image->save($image[$count]); $file[$count]=mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes(fread(fopen($image[$count], "r"), filesize($image[$count])))); $return[$count] = Product::add_image($id_prod, $file[$count], $val['pi_type'],$val['pi_main']); }else { die('no'); } }

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  • In R, how do you get the best fitting equation to a set of data?

    - by Matherion
    I'm not sure wether R can do this (I assume it can, but maybe that's just because I tend to assume that R can do anything :-)). What I need is to find the best fitting equation to describe a dataset. For example, if you have these points: df = data.frame(x = c(1, 5, 10, 25, 50, 100), y = c(100, 75, 50, 40, 30, 25)) How do you get the best fitting equation? I know that you can get the best fitting curve with: plot(loess(df$y ~ df$x)) But as I understood you can't extract the equation, see Loess Fit and Resulting Equation. When I try to build it myself (note, I'm not a mathematician, so this is probably not the ideal approach :-)), I end up with smth like: y.predicted = 12.71 + ( 95 / (( (1 + df$x) ^ .5 ) / 1.3)) Which kind of seems to approximate it - but I can't help to think that smth more elegant probably exists :-) I have the feeling that fitting a linear or polynomial model also wouldn't work, because the formula seems different from what those models generally use (i.e. this one seems to need divisions, powers, etc). For example, the approach in Fitting polynomial model to data in R gives pretty bad approximations. I remember from a long time ago that there exist languages (Matlab may be one of them?) that do this kind of stuff. Can R do this as well, or am I just at the wrong place? (Background info: basically, what we need to do is find an equation for determining numbers in the second column based on the numbers in the first column; but we decide the numbers ourselves. We have an idea of how we want the curve to look like, but we can adjust these numbers to an equation if we get a better fit. It's about the pricing for a product (a cheaper alternative to current expensive software for qualitative data analysis); the more 'project credits' you buy, the cheaper it should become. Rather than forcing people to buy a given number (i.e. 5 or 10 or 25), it would be nicer to have a formula so people can buy exactly what they need - but of course this requires a formula. We have an idea for some prices we think are ok, but now we need to translate this into an equation.

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  • What alternatives do I have for source control and does GIT does that?

    - by RubberDuck
    I work as a freelancer programmer for some clients and also create apps for myself. When I work for myself, obviously I work alone. I generally don't work in a linear way. My big problems today are: I have a lot of apps that use the same classes I have developed; In the past, I put all these common classes on a directory outside all projects and included them on my apps using absolute paths, but this method sucks because by accident (if you forget) you may change a path or the disk and all projects are broken. Then I decided to copy those classes to my projects every time. Because the majority of these classes do not change frequently, I am relatively ok, but when they change, I am in hell; When I change one of these classes I have to propagate the changes to all other apps using copies of them. I have also tried to create frameworks but thanks to Apple, I cannot create frameworks for iOS and have to create libraries and bundles and create a nightmare of paths from one to the other and to the project to make that sh!t works. So, I am done with frameworks/libraries on Xcode until Xcode is a decent IDE. So, I see I need something better to manage my source code. What I need is this (I never used GIT on Xcode. I have read Apple docs but I still have these points): does git locally on Xcode allows me to deal with assets or just code? Can I have the equivalent of a "framework" (code + assets) managed by git locally? Can an entire xcodeproj be managed as a unity? I mean, Suppose I have a xcodeproj created and want GIT to manage it. How do I enable git on a project that was created without it and start designating files for management. (I have enabled git on Xcode's preferences, but all source control menu is grayed out). Is git the best option? Do I have another? Remember that my main condition is that the files should stay on the local computer. Please save me (I am a bit dramatic today). Thanks.

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  • Best Practices for Working with Multiple Monitors in Visual Studio 2010

    - by Clever Human
    Now that Visual Studio 2010 has support for multiple monitors, I am curious how other people have their environments arranged. I have yet to come up with an arrangement that I am really satisfied with. The current best I have come up with for my 2 monitor system is to have all code windows detached. Then, on my primary monitor, I am able to have two code windows side by side (using the Windows 7 keyboard shortcuts WinKey+LeftArrow and WinKey+RightArrow.) On my secondary monitor I put the rest of the IDE with all of the tool windows that are normally on the bottom (errors list, find window, call stack, etc...) docked where the code windows normally go. I've also tried having all those things detached and having almost nothing in the IDE proper. The problems with this layout are: Newly opened code windows always open in the IDE, not on top of one of the detached windows. Detached code windows do not remember their exact placement from session to session (they are slightly off, having me to use the winkey + arrow key shortcut again and again for each window. There seems to be no way to have the code panes aware that they are on top of one another (IE -- multiple tabs.) The CTRL+TAB shortcut always displays on top of the IDE proper. The Code Panes are always "on top" of (children of) the IDE. So clicking on any code pane brings the IDE to the foreground, even when I care only about that code pane, and not the IDE. Other more minor issues... What would go a long way to making this better is having the code panes detach such that they are tab strips that can have other code panes docked within them. The new multi-monitor support in VS2010 is good, but it still seems really lacking. Can these issues be solved with an add-in? If so, is anyone aware of one? Is there a better way to work with the IDE on multiple monitors than what I am doing? NOTE: While this question is subjective (there is certainly no "this is the best way and that's final" answer) I'd really like to know possibly better methods of working with the IDE than what I have come up with. The intent is not to start a "mine's best" flame war.

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  • What is the proper way to change the UINavigationController transition effect

    - by Felipe Sabino
    I have seen lots of people asking on how to push/pop UINavigationControllers using other animations besides the default one, like flip or curl. The problem is that either the question/answer was relative old, which means the have some things like [UIView beginAnimations:] (example here) or they use two very different approaches. The first is to use UIView's transitionFromView:toView:duration:options:completion: selector before pushing the controller (with the animation flag set to NO), like the following: UIViewController *ctrl = [[UIViewController alloc] init]; [UIView transitionFromView:self.view toView:ctrl.view duration:1 options:UIViewAnimationOptionTransitionFlipFromTop completion:nil]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:ctrl animated:NO]; Another one is to use CoreAnimation explicitly with a CATransaction like the following: // remember you will have to have the QuartzCore framework added to your project for this approach and also add <QuartzCore/QuartzCore.h> to the class this code is used CATransition* transition = [CATransition animation]; transition.timingFunction = [CAMediaTimingFunction functionWithName:kCAMediaTimingFunctionEaseIn]; transition.duration = 1.0f; transition.type = @"flip"; transition.subtype = @"fromTop"; [self.navigationController.view.layer removeAllAnimations]; [self.navigationController.view.layer addAnimation:transition forKey:kCATransition]; UIViewController *ctrl = [[UIViewController alloc] init]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:ctrl animated:NO]; There are pros and cons for both approaches. The first approach gives me a much cleaner code but restricts me from using animations like "suckEffect", "cube" and others. The second approach feels wrong just by looking at it. It starts by using undocumented transitions types (i.e. not present in the Common transition types documentation from CATransition Class Reference) which might get your app rejected from App Store (I mean might as I could not found any reference of apps being rejected because it was using this transactions, which I would also appreciate any clarification on this matter), but it gives you much more flexibility on your animations, as I can use other animation types such as "cameraIris", "rippleEffect" and so on. Regarding all that, do I really need to appeal for QuartzCore and CoreAnimation whenever I need a fancier UINavigationController transition? Is there any other way to accomplish the same effect using only UIKit? If not, will the use of string values like "flip" and "cube" instead of the pre-defined constants (kCATransitionFade, kCATransitionMoveIn, etc...) be an issue regarding my app approval in the App Store? Also, are there other pros and cons regarding both approaches that could help me deciding whether to choose each one of them?

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  • How can I force the server socket to re-accept a request from a client?

    - by Roman
    For those who does not want to read a long question here is a short version: A server has an opened socket for a client. The server gets a request to open a socket from the same client-IP and client-port. I want to fore the server not to refuse such a request but to close the old socket and open a new one. How can I do ti? And here is a long (original) question: I have the following situation. There is an established connection between a server and client. Then an external software (Bonjour) says to my client the it does not see the server in the local network. Well, client does nothing about that because of the following reasons: If Bonjour does not see the server it does not necessarily means that client cannot see the server. Even if the client trusts the Bonjour and close the socket it does not improve the situation ("to have no open socket" is worser that "to have a potentially bad socket"). So, client do nothing if server becomes invisible to Bonjour. But than the server re-appears in the Bonjour and Bonjour notify the client about that. In this situation the following situations are possible: The server reappears on a new IP address. So, the client needs to open a new socket to be able to communicate with the server. The server reappears on the old IP address. In this case we have two subcases: 2.1. The server was restarted (switched off and then switched on). So, it does not remember the old socket (which is still used by the client). So, client needs to close the old socket and open a new one (on the same server-IP address and the same server-port). 2.2. We had a temporal network problem and the server was running the whole time. So, the old socket is still available for the use. In this case the client does not really need to close the old socket and reopen a new one. But to simplify my life I decide to close and reopen the socket on the client side in any case (in spite on the fact that it is not really needed in the last described situation). But I can have problems with that solution. If I close the socket on the client side and than try to reopen a socket from the same client-IP and client-port, server will not accept the call for a new socket. The server will think that such a socket already exists. Can I write the server in such a way, that it does not refuse such calls. For example, if it (the server) sees that a client send a request for a socket from the same client-IP and client-port, it (server) close the available socket, associated with this client-IP and client-port and than it reopens a new socket.

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  • Device drivers and Windows

    - by b-gen-jack-o-neill
    Hi, I am trying to complete the picture of how the PC and the OS interacts together. And I am at point, where I am little out of guess when it comes to device drivers. Please, don´t write things like its too complicated, or you don´t need to know when using high programming laguage and winapi functions. I want to know, it´s for study purposes. So, the very basic structure of how OS and PC (by PC I mean of course HW) is how I see it is that all other than direct CPU commands, which can CPU do on itself (arithmetic operation, its registers access and memory access) must pass thru OS. Mainly becouse from ring level 3 you cannot use in and out intructions which are used for acesing other HW. I know that there is MMIO,but it must be set by port comunication first. It was not like this all the time. Even I am bit young to remember MSDOS, I know you could access HW directly, becouse there ws no limitation, no ring mode. So you could to write string to diplay use wheather DOS function, or directly acess video card memory and write it by yourself. But as OS developed, there is no longer this possibility. But it is fine, since OS now handles all the HW comunication, and frankly it more convinient and much more safe (I would say the only option) in multitasking environment. So nowdays you instead of using int instructions to use BIOS mapped function or DOS function you call dll which internally than handles everything you don´t need to know about. I understand this. I also undrstand that device drivers is the piece of code that runs in ring level 0, so it can do all the HW interactions. But what I don´t understand is connection between OS and device driver. Let´s take a example - I want to make a sound card make a sound. So I call windows API to acess sound card, but what happens than? Does windows call device drivers to do so? But if it does call device driver, does it mean, that all device drivers which can be called by winAPI function, must have routines named in some specific way? I mean, when I have new sound card, must its drivers have functions named same as the old one? So Windows can actually call the same function from its perspective? But if Windows have predefined sets of functions requored by device drivers, that it cannot use new drivers that doesent existed before last version of OS came out. Please, help me understand this mess. I am really getting mad. Thanks.

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  • Drag and drop game - why isn't it working now I've moved it to another domain?

    - by vward
    Earlier this year I did some work on a drag and drop game. It was the first thing I'd coded other than basic html. I got it working but then had to put it to one side for a while. I've now come back to work on it. The game I had created was put on the ftp of a domain I no longer have. I took the html and image files and put them on another domain expecting them to work. However now nothing drags! I don't know what could be different. I can barely remember how I coded this in the first place. Is there an additional file that should be on the ftp or something like that? Can anyone shed any light? Thanks Vic Game: http://www.vic-taylor.com/dolls/doll6.html Code: <!doctype html> <html lang="en"> <head> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery.min.js"></script> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/ui/1.8.17/jquery-ui.min.js"></script> <script> $(function() { $( "#draggable" ).draggable() }); </script> <script> $(function() { $( "#draggable2" ).draggable(); }); </script> <script> $(function() { $( "#draggable3" ).draggable(); }); </script> <script> $(function() { $( "#draggable4" ).draggable(); }); </script> <script> $(function() { $( "#draggable5" ).draggable(); }); </script> </head> </body> <div id="bodies/palepd.gif"> <img src="bodies/palepd.gif" class="ui-widget-content" id="draggable"> <img src="bodies/trousers.gif" class="ui-widget-content" id="draggable2"> <img src="bodies/top.gif" class="ui-widget-content" id="draggable3"> <img src="bodies/dress.gif" class="ui-widget-content" id="draggable4"> <img src="bodies/coat.gif" class="ui-widget-content" id="draggable5"> </div> </body>

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  • jquery animation problem using stop

    - by Flanders
    Hi! When running a Jquery animation like slideDown(), it looks like a number of element-specific css properties is set to be updated at a specific interval and when the animation is complete these properties are unset and the display property is simply set to auto or whatever. At least in firebug you can't see those temporary properties any more. The problem I've encountered is the scenario where we stop the slide down with stop(). The element is then left with the current temporary css values. Which is fine because it has to, but let us say that I stoped the slidedown because I have decided to slide it back up again a bit prematurely. It would look something like this: $(this).slideDown(2000) //The below events is not in queue but will rather start execute almost simultaneously as the above line. (dont remember the exact syntax) $(this).delay(1000).stop().slideUp(2000) The above code might not make much sense, but the point is: After 1 second of sliding down the animation is stopped and it starts to slide back up. Works like a charm. BUT!!! And here is the problem. Once it it has slid back up the elements css properties are reset to the exact values it had 1000ms into the slideDown() animation (when stop() was called). If we now try to run the following: $(this).slideDown(2000) It will slide down to the very point the prior slideDown was aborted and not further at half the speed (since it uses the same time for approximately half the height). This is because the css properties were saved as I see it. But it is not especially wished for. Of course I want it to slide all the way down this time. Due to UI interaction that is hard to predict everything might soon break. The longer animations we use increases the risk of something like this happening. Is this to be considered a bug, or am I doing something wrong? Or maybe it's just a feature that is not supported? I guess I can use a callback function to reset the css properties, but depending on the animation used, different css properties are used to render it, and covering your back would result in quite a not-so-fancy solution.

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  • Complex multiple join query across 3 tables

    - by Keir Simmons
    I have 3 tables: shops, PRIMARY KEY cid,zbid shop_items, PRIMARY KEY id shop_inventory, PRIMARY KEY id shops a is related to shop_items b by the following: a.cid=b.cid AND a.zbid=b.szbid shops is not directly related to shop_inventory shop_items b is related to shop_inventory c by the following: b.cid=c.cid AND b.id=c.iid Now, I would like to run a query which returns a.* (all columns from shops). That would be: SELECT a.* FROM shops a WHERE a.cid=1 AND a.zbid!=0 Note that the WHERE clause is necessary. Next, I want to return the number of items in each shop: SELECT a.*, COUNT(b.id) items FROM shops a LEFT JOIN shop_items b ON b.cid=a.cid AND b.szbid=a.zbid WHERE a.cid=1 GROUP BY b.szbid,b.cid As you can see, I have added a GROUP BY clause for this to work. Next, I want to return the average price of each item in the shop. This isn't too hard: SELECT a.*, COUNT(b.id) items, AVG(COALESCE(b.price,0)) average_price FROM shops a LEFT JOIN shop_items b ON b.cid=a.cid AND b.szbid=a.zbid WHERE a.cid=1 GROUP BY b.szbid,b.cid My next criteria is where it gets complicated. I also want to return the unique buyers for each shop. This can be done by querying shop_inventory c, getting the COUNT(DISTINCT c.zbid). Now remember how these tables are related; this should only be done for the rows in c which relate to an item in b which is owned by the respective shop, a. I tried doing the following: SELECT a.*, COUNT(b.id) items, AVG(COALESCE(b.price,0)) average_price, COUNT(DISTINCT c.zbid) FROM shops a LEFT JOIN shop_items b ON b.cid=a.cid AND b.szbid=a.zbid LEFT JOIN shop_inventory c ON c.cid=b.cid AND c.iid=b.id WHERE a.cid=1 GROUP BY b.szbid,b.cid However, this did not work as it messed up the items value. What is the proper way to achieve this result? I also want to be able to return the total number of purchases made in each shop. This would be done by looking at shop_inventory c and adding up the c.quantity value for each shop. How would I add that in as well?

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  • In .NET Xml Serialization, is it possible to serialize a class with an enum property with different

    - by Lasse V. Karlsen
    I have a class, containing a list property, where the list contains objects that has an enum property. When I serialize this, it looks like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ibm850"?> <test> <events> <test-event type="changing" /> <test-event type="changed" /> </events> </test> Is it possible, through attributes, or similar, to get the Xml to look like this? <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ibm850"?> <test> <events> <changing /> <changed /> </events> </test> Basically, use the property value of the enum as a way to determine the tag-name? Is using a class hierarchy (ie. creating subclasses instead of using the property value) the only way? Edit: After testing, it seems even a class-hierarchy won't actually work. If there is a way to structure the classes to get the output I want, even with sub-classes, that is also an acceptable answer. Here's a sample program that will output the above Xml (remember to hit Ctrl+F5 to run in Visual Studio, otherwise the program window will close immediately): using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Xml.Serialization; namespace ConsoleApplication18 { public enum TestEventTypes { [XmlEnum("changing")] Changing, [XmlEnum("changed")] Changed } [XmlType("test-event")] public class TestEvent { [XmlAttribute("type")] public TestEventTypes Type { get; set; } } [XmlType("test")] public class Test { private List<TestEvent> _Events = new List<TestEvent>(); [XmlArray("events")] public List<TestEvent> Events { get { return _Events; } } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Test test = new Test(); test.Events.Add(new TestEvent { Type = TestEventTypes.Changing }); test.Events.Add(new TestEvent { Type = TestEventTypes.Changed }); XmlSerializer serializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(Test)); XmlSerializerNamespaces ns = new XmlSerializerNamespaces(); ns.Add("", ""); serializer.Serialize(Console.Out, test, ns); } } }

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  • My store returns no code id and breaks 404 error. Magento

    - by numerical25
    I know what the issue is but I dont know how to fix it. I just migrated my magento store locally and I guess possibly some data may have been lost when transferring the DB. the DB is very large. Anyhow, when I login to my admin page, I get a 404 error, page was not found. I debugged the issue and got down to the wire. The exception is thrown in Mage/Core/Model/App.php. Line 759 to be exacted. The following is a snippet. Mage/Core/Model/App.php if (empty($this->_stores[$id])) { $store = Mage::getModel('core/store'); /* @var $store Mage_Core_Model_Store */ if (is_numeric($id)) { $store->load($id); // THIS ID IS FROM Mage_Core_Model_App::ADMIN_STORE_ID and its empty which causes the error } elseif (is_string($id)) { $store->load($id, 'code'); } if (!$store->getCode()) { // RETURNS FALSE HERE BECAUSE NO ID Specified $this->throwStoreException(); } $this->_stores[$store->getStoreId()] = $store; $this->_stores[$store->getCode()] = $store; } The store returns null because $id is null so it therefore does not load any model which explains why it returns false when calling getCode() [EDIT] If you want clarification, please ask for more before voting my post down. Remember I am still trying to get help not get neglected. I am using Version 1.4.1.1. When I type in the URL for admin, I get a 404 page. I walked through the code thouroughly and found that the Model MAGE_CORE_MODEL_STORE::getCode(); Returns Null which triggers the exception. and ends the script. I do not have any other detail. I further troubleshooted the issue by checking the database and that is what the screen shot is. Showing that there is infact data in the Code Colunn. So my question is why is the Model returning a empty column when the column clearly has a value. What can I do to further troubleshoot and figure out why its not working [EDIT UPDATE NEW] I did some research. the reason its returning NULL is because the store ID is null being passed Mage::getStoreConfigFlag('web/secure/use_in_adminhtml', Mage_Core_Model_App::ADMIN_STORE_ID); // THIS IS THE ID being specified Mage_Core_Model_App::ADMIN_STORE_ID has no value in it, so this method throws the exception. Not sure why how to fix this.

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  • Should the argument be passed by reference in this .net example?

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    I have used Java, C++, .Net. (in that order). When asked about by-value vs. by-ref on interviews, I have always done well on that question ... perhaps because nobody went in-depth on it. Now I know that I do not see the whole picture. I was looking at this section of code written by someone else: XmlDocument doc = new XmlDocument(); AppendX(doc); // Real name of the function is different AppendY(doc); // ditto When I saw this code, I thought: wait a minute, should not I use a ref in front of doc variable (and modify AppendX/Y accordingly? it works as written, but made me question whether I actually understand the ref keyword in C#. As I thought about this more, I recalled early Java days (college intro language). A friend of mine looked at some code I have written and he had a mental block - he kept asking me which things are passed in by reference and when by value. My ignorant response was something like: Dude, there is only one kind of arg passing in Java and I forgot which one it is :). Chill, do not over-think and just code. Java still does not have a ref does it? Yet, Java hackers seem to be productive. Anyhow, coding in C++ exposed me to this whole by reference business, and now I am confused. Should ref be used in the example above? I am guessing that when ref is applied to value types: primitives, enums, structures (is there anything else in this list?) it makes a big difference. And ... when applied to objects it does not because it is all by reference. If things were so simple, then why would not the compiler restrict the usage of ref keyword to a subset of types. When it comes to objects, does ref serve as a comment sort of? Well, I do remember that there can be problems with null and ref is also useful for initializing multiple elements within a method (since you cannot return multiple things with the same easy as you would do in Python). Thanks.

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  • Is it possible to start (and stop) a thread inside a DLL?

    - by Jerry Dodge
    I'm pondering some ideas for building a DLL for some common stuff I do. One thing I'd like to check if it's possible is running a thread inside of a DLL. I'm sure I would be able to at least start it, and have it automatically free on terminate (and make it forcefully terminate its self) - that I can see wouldn't be much of a problem. But once I start it, I don't see how I can continue communicating with it (especially to stop it) mainly because each call to the DLL is unique (as far as my knowledge tells me) but I also know very little of the subject. I've seen how in some occasions, a DLL can be loaded at the beginning and released at the end when it's not needed anymore. I have 0 knowledge or experience with this method, other than just seeing something related to it, couldn't even tell you what or how, I don't remember. But is this even possible? I know about ActiveX/COM but that is not what I want - I'd like just a basic DLL that can be used across languages (specifically C#). Also, if it is possible, then how would I go about doing callbacks from the DLL to the app? For example, when I start the thread, I most probably will assign a function (which is inside the EXE) to be the handler for the events (which are triggered from the DLL). So I guess what I'm asking is - how to load a DLL for continuous work and release it when I'm done - as opposed to the simple method of calling individual functions in the DLL as needed. In the same case - I might assign variables or create objects inside the DLL. How can I assure that once I assign that variable (or create the object), how can I make sure that variable or object will still be available the next time I call the DLL? Obviously it would require a mechanism to Initialize/Finalize the DLL (I.E. create the objects inside the DLL when the DLL is loaded, and free the objects when the DLL is unloaded). EDIT: In the end, I will wrap the DLL inside of a component, so when an instance of the component is created, DLL will be loaded and a corresponding thread will be created inside the DLL, then when the component is free'd, the DLL is unloaded. Also need to make sure that if there are for example 2 of these components, that there will be 2 instances of the DLL loaded for each component. Is this in any way related to the use of an IInterface? Because I also have 0 experience with this. No need to answer it directly with sample source code - a link to a good tutorial would be great.

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