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  • asp.net membership create user error

    - by nitroxn
    Hi, I encountered an issue while creating users using the asp.net user membership. The membership provider configuration is as follows- The error generated by ASP.net configuration application is as follows- An error was encountered. Please return to the previous page and try again. The following message may help in diagnosing the problem: Exception has been thrown by the target of an invocation. at System.RuntimeMethodHandle._InvokeMethodFast(IRuntimeMethodInfo method, Object target, Object[] arguments, SignatureStruct& sig, MethodAttributes methodAttributes, RuntimeType typeOwner) at System.RuntimeMethodHandle.InvokeMethodFast(IRuntimeMethodInfo method, Object target, Object[] arguments, Signature sig, MethodAttributes methodAttributes, RuntimeType typeOwner) at System.Reflection.RuntimeMethodInfo.Invoke(Object obj, BindingFlags invokeAttr, Binder binder, Object[] parameters, CultureInfo culture, Boolean skipVisibilityChecks) at System.Reflection.RuntimeMethodInfo.Invoke(Object obj, BindingFlags invokeAttr, Binder binder, Object[] parameters, CultureInfo culture) at System.Web.Administration.WebAdminMembershipProvider.CallWebAdminMembershipProviderHelperMethodOutParams(String methodName, Object[] parameters, Type[] paramTypes) at System.Web.Administration.WebAdminMembershipProvider.CreateUser(String username, String password, String email, String passwordQuestion, String passwordAnswer, Boolean isApproved, Object providerUserKey, MembershipCreateStatus& status) at System.Web.UI.WebControls.CreateUserWizard.AttemptCreateUser() at System.Web.UI.WebControls.CreateUserWizard.OnNextButtonClick(WizardNavigationEventArgs e) at System.Web.UI.WebControls.Wizard.OnBubbleEvent(Object source, EventArgs e) at System.Web.UI.WebControls.CreateUserWizard.OnBubbleEvent(Object source, EventArgs e) at System.Web.UI.WebControls.Wizard.WizardChildTable.OnBubbleEvent(Object source, EventArgs args) at System.Web.UI.Control.RaiseBubbleEvent(Object source, EventArgs args) at System.Web.UI.WebControls.Button.OnCommand(CommandEventArgs e) at System.Web.UI.WebControls.Button.RaisePostBackEvent(String eventArgument) at System.Web.UI.WebControls.Button.System.Web.UI.IPostBackEventHandler.RaisePostBackEvent(String eventArgument) at System.Web.UI.Page.RaisePostBackEvent(IPostBackEventHandler sourceControl, String eventArgument) at System.Web.UI.Page.RaisePostBackEvent(NameValueCollection postData) at System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint)

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  • Javascript parentNode and innerHTML do not work properly in FireFox

    - by Uda
    Hello, I have a problem when using javascript in Firefox, here is the html: <HTML> <BODY> <TABLE align="center"> <TR><td><input type=button name=submit onclick="javascript:submitIt()" value="submit" align="center"></td></TR> <TD> <TABLE> <DIV STYLE="display:none position:relative;"> <FORM ID="formA" NAME="formA" METHOD="post" ACTION="b.html" TARGET="_blank"> <INPUT TYPE="hidden" NAME=aInput VALUE="1294457296"> </FORM> </DIV> </TABLE> </TD> </TABLE></BODY></HTML> and here's the javascript: <script language="Javascript"> function submitIt() { oForm = document.getElementById("formA"); strRequest = "<HTML><BODY>" + oForm.parentNode.innerHTML + "</BODY></HTML>"; newDoc = window.open("", "", ""); newDoc.document.write(strRequest); } Problem is when you click submit button in this html page, you'll get a new html with source: <HTML><BODY><form id="formA" name="formA" method="post" action="b.html" target="_blank"></form> <input name="aInput" value="1294457296" type="hidden"> </BODY></HTML> but it's supposed to be <HTML><BODY><form id="formA" name="formA" method="post" action="b.html" target="_blank"> <input name="aInput" value="1294457296" type="hidden"></form> </BODY></HTML> Could anyone please help please? it will be really appreciated. Thanks!

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  • MVC 4 Beta with Mobile Project FIle Upload does not work

    - by Jim Shaffer
    I am playing around with the new MVC 4 beta release. I created a new web project using the Mobile Application template. I simply added a controller and a view to upload a file, but the file is always null in the action result. Is this a bug, or am I doing something wrong? Controller Code: using System.IO; using System.Web; using System.Web.Mvc; namespace MobileWebExample.Controllers { public class FileUploadController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } [AllowAnonymous] [HttpPost] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Upload(HttpPostedFileBase file) { int i = Request.Files.Count; if (file != null) { if (file.ContentLength > 0) { var fileName = Path.GetFileName(file.FileName); var path = Path.Combine(Server.MapPath("~/App_Data/uploads"), fileName); file.SaveAs(path); } } return RedirectToAction("Index"); } } } And the view looks like this: @{ ViewBag.Title = "Index"; } <h2>Index</h2> <form action="@Url.Action("Upload")" method="post" enctype="multipart/form-data"> <label for="file">Filename:</label> <input type="file" name="file" id="file" /> <input type="submit" value="Submit" /> </form>

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  • how can i change the back arrow in navigation toolbar function

    - by jackrobert
    hi i have developed simple web application using jsp... Step 1 : I have one login page : (contains username ,password and sumbit button) Step2 : I have one logout page : it has one link (Go to login page), just u click this link go to login page.. step3 : And i have some pages like (page1,page2,page3, page4.....) Normal application working following way : after login comes page1.. Then click some action and it will go to page2 Then i click some action and it will goto page3 Then i click some action and it will goto page4 So now i am in page4... now click back arrow in navigation toolbar in browser, generally go to previous page (page3). For example... If u seeing gmail inbox msg... that time u click back arrow..then automatically go to previous page.. But i need , if click back arrow in navigation toolbar (from any page in my application) ,then go to logout page... For example.... Suppose i am in page4... here i click backarrow in browser then i want to go logout page, don't go to page3 how to acheive this... Is there any possible....Any javascript or any otherway pls help me...

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  • App will not launch from drawer after phone is removed from car dock

    - by BigFwoosh
    I am creating a replacement Car Home app for Android 2.0+ devices. The app needs to launch when the phone is inserted into the car dock, as well as terminate when it is removed from the dock. It also needs to be able to be launched from the app drawer. I'm having a problem right now where once the phone is inserted and removed from the dock, I can no longer launch the app from the app drawer because every time I launch the app my BroadcastReceiver picks up a DOCK_EVENT action for some reason. I created a test project that only registers my BroadcastReceiver, and the same thing happens. Here's the code for the BroadcastReceiver: public class CarDockBroadcastReceiver extends BroadcastReceiver { /** * @see android.content.BroadcastReceiver#onReceive(Context,Intent) */ @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { // TODO Put your code here if(intent.getExtras().containsKey("android.intent.extra.DOCK_STATE")){ int state = intent.getExtras().getInt("android.intent.extra.DOCK_STATE",1); if(state == 0){ Log.i("Dock", "Removed from dock!"); ((Activity)context).finish(); } } } } My main Activity is as follows: public class MainActivity extends Activity { /** Called when the activity is first created. */ CarDockBroadcastReceiver receiver; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); IntentFilter filter = new IntentFilter("android.intent.action.DOCK_EVENT"); receiver = new CarDockBroadcastReceiver(); registerReceiver(receiver, filter); } @Override protected void onDestroy() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub unregisterReceiver(receiver); super.onDestroy(); } } The main Activity has an intent filter for action.MAIN, category.LAUNCHER, category.DEFAULT, and category.CAR_DOCK. Any ideas on why this is happening?

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  • Can I use a specific model from within a behavior in CakePHP?

    - by Paul Willy
    I'm trying to write a behavior that will give my models access to a simple workflow engine I've devised. The workflow engine itself works as a CakePHP model, with workflow data stored in the database just as any other model data is stored. Basically what I want to do is have the behavior use the workflow model whenever an action is called on the base model. For example, if the edit() action is executed for Posts, then the Post (with the behavior attached) will trigger the workflow behavior with its own model name, action, and id as arguments (e.g. [Post, edit, 1]). Then the behavior will invoke the functionality of the Workflow model, which has a record for what to do when edit is run on Posts (e.g. send e-mail to users who are subscribed to that post) and will carry that out. My question is, what is the proper way to invoke model/controller methods from within the behavior? The model to be used from within the behavior will always be Workflow, but the behavior should be usable from basically any model (aside from Workflow itself). I know I could run SQL queries directly from the behavior, but of course this is not the Cake way :-) Or, am I going about this in the wrong way? I want to store a certain amount of logic in the database so that it is easily configurable by different users, and not have endless configuration checks within the model/controller logic itself so that workflow steps can be easily added/changed/removed in the future.

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  • Maven compile plugin

    - by phanikiran
    Hi every body, in pom of a project, i have added dependency with scope compile . which is a jar file which contains some class file and jar's as well. my current java file needs internal jars of dependent jar to compile. But maven compile goal returning compilation error . :banghead: All the jar's needed to compile are in the single jar file which is added in dependency............................. Please help me! my pom: <dependency> <groupId>eagle</groupId> <artifactId>zkui</artifactId> <version>360LTS</version> <type>jar</type> <scope>compile</scope> </dependency> <build> <sourceDirectory>./src/main/java/</sourceDirectory> <outputDirectory>./target/classes/</outputDirectory> <finalName>${project.groupId}-${project.artifactId}</finalName> <plugins> <plugin> <groupId>org.apache.maven.plugins</groupId> <artifactId>maven-compiler-plugin</artifactId> <version>2.2</version> <configuration> <source>1.6</source> <target>1.6</target> </plugin> </plugins> </build> </project> error: package org.zkoss.zk.ui does not exist this package org.zkoss.zk.ui is in jar file zkex.jar which is in dependency jar eagle:zkui:360LTS jar file Please Help ME!!!! :jumpingjoy: Advance Thanks

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  • 2 different routes on one page?

    - by Dejan.S
    Hi I'm pretty new with MVC2 or MVC in general. If it's one thing I get caught up with it's routes. Like now I got this scenario. Im going from the regular site to Admin. My navigation is the same partialview on both I just do a check which data to render something like this. <% if (!Request.RawUrl.Contains("Admin")){%> <% foreach (var site in Model) { %> <%= Html.MenuItem(site.BelongSite, "Sida", "Site", site.BelongSite) %> | <%} %> <%} else {%> <%= Html.ActionLink("Konfig", "Konfigurera", "Admin") %> <% } %> My route looks like this routes.MapRoute( "Admin", // Route name "Admin/{action}/{name}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Admin", action = "konfigurera", name = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); On my View called Konfigurera I got Edit sites and they use the route above and it works great. The navigation tho dont get no action assigned to it. It's just <a href='Admin/'> The navigation is in the shared folder, and it is a strongly typed. Any Ideas? I been struggling with this for about a hour now Thanks for any input

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  • How would I send a POST Request via Ajax?

    - by Gotactics
    I have a php page, Post.php it recieves the POST's Action, and that has two functions. Insert, and Update.Now how would I go about posting INSERT with this Ajax code. The code posts update fine but is doesnt post insert at all. $(document).ready(function(){ //global vars var inputUser = $("#nick"); var inputMessage = $("#message"); var loading = $("#loading"); var messageList = $(".content ul"); //functions function updateShoutbox(){ //just for the fade effect messageList.hide(); loading.fadeIn(); //send the post to shoutbox.php $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "Shoutbox.php", data: "action=update", complete: function(data){ loading.fadeOut(); messageList.html(data.responseText); messageList.fadeIn(2000); } }); } //check if all fields are filled function checkForm(){ if(inputUser.attr("value") && inputMessage.attr("value")) return true; else return false; } //Load for the first time the shoutbox data updateShoutbox(); //on submit event $("#form").submit(function(){ if(checkForm()){ var nick = inputUser.attr("value"); var message = inputMessage.attr("value"); //we deactivate submit button while sending $("#send").attr({ disabled:true, value:"Sending..." }); $("#send").blur(); //send the post to shoutbox.php $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "Shoutbox.php", data: "action=insert&nick=" + nick + "&message=" + message, complete: function(data){ messageList.html(data.responseText); updateShoutbox(); //reactivate the send button $("#send").attr({ disabled:false, value:"Shout it!" }); } }); } else alert("Please fill all fields!"); //we prevent the refresh of the page after submitting the form return false; }); });emphasized text

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  • Why is it not good to use $_SESSION in Restful Implementations?

    - by keisimone
    Original Question: i read that for RESTful websites. it is not good to use $_SESSION. Why is it not good? how then do i properly authenticate users without looking up database all the time to check for the user's roles? I read that it is not good to use $_SESSION. http://www.recessframework.org/page/towards-restful-php-5-basic-tips I am creating a WEBSITE, not web service in PHP. and i am trying to make it more RESTful. at least in spirit. right now i am rewriting all the action to use Form tags POST and add in a hidden value called _method which would be "delete" for deleting action and "put" for updating action. however, i am not sure why it is recommended NOT to use $_SESSION. i would like to know why and what can i do to improve. To allow easy authorization checking, what i did was to after logging in the user, the username is stored in the $_SESSION. Everytime the user navigates to a page, the page would check if the username is stored inside $_SESSION and then based on the $_SESSION retrieves all the info including privileges from the database and then evaluates the authorization to access the page based on the info retrieved. Is the way I am implementing bad? not RESTful? how do i improve performance and security? Thank you.

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  • Passing parameters to eventListener function

    - by bryan sammon
    I have this function check(e) that I'd like to be able to pass parameters from test() when I add it to the eventListener. Is this possible? Like say to get the mainlink variable to pass through the parameters. Is this even good to do? I put the javascript below, I also have it on jsbin: http://jsbin.com/ujahe3/9/edit function test() { if (!document.getElementById('myid')) { var mainlink = document.getElementById('mainlink'); var newElem = document.createElement('span'); mainlink.appendChild(newElem); var linkElemAttrib = document.createAttribute('id'); linkElemAttrib.value = "myid"; newElem.setAttributeNode(linkElemAttrib); var linkElem = document.createElement('a'); newElem.appendChild(linkElem); var linkElemAttrib = document.createAttribute('href'); linkElemAttrib.value = "jsbin.com"; linkElem.setAttributeNode(linkElemAttrib); var linkElemText = document.createTextNode('new click me'); linkElem.appendChild(linkElemText); if (document.addEventListener) { document.addEventListener('click', check/*(WOULD LIKE TO PASS PARAMETERS HERE)*/, false); }; }; }; function check(e) { if (document.getElementById('myid')) { if (document.getElementById('myid').parentNode === document.getElementById('mainlink')) { var target = (e && e.target) || (event && event.srcElement); var obj = document.getElementById('mainlink'); if (target!= obj) { obj.removeChild(obj.lastChild); }; }; }; };

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  • jQuery: Stop browser scrolling on event update beyond the fold?

    - by neezer
    I have several links at the bottom of my page that update content at the top of my page (more than a viewport away). Here's the gist of what the update looks like: $('#private-photo div').fadeOut(function() { $(this).html('<%= escape_javascript(image_tag current_user.private_photo.image.url(:profile)) %>'); }).fadeIn(); Basically it's just fading out the old content and fading in the new content. My problem is that when this happens, the browser window automatically scrolls up just far enough so that the bottom of the updated content (#private-photo div) appears at the top of the browser viewport. I do not want this to happen. I want the content to be updated (still fading in and out), but without the browser viewport realigning its focus. I want to keep the animation because if the user has a big enough screen, or if they are using a link closer to the top of the page, I still want them to see the animation. Any ideas about how to prevent the browser from scrolling as described? If not, any suggestions for workarounds? FYI, I have this same problem in Safari 4, Chrome (for Mac), & Firefox 3.5. EDIT: Here's the link that calls the update action, which is itself inside a Colorbox: $('a.edit-photo').colorbox({ title: function() { return 'Edit Photo in ' + $(this).attr('rel'); }, overlayClose: false, onComplete: function() { $('#edit-photo-modal').submit(function(e) { $('#photo_submit').after('<span id="saving">Saving...</span>'); e.preventDefault(); $.post($(this).attr('action'), $(this).serialize(), function() { $('#edit-photo-modal #saving').text('Saved!'); }, "script"); }); } }); The lightbox opens, presents a form fetched through an AJAX request, then (on submit) triggers the update action mentioned above. I had these links outside of the Colorbox in an earlier design revision, and they exhibited the same problem, so I've ruled out Colorbox itself as a cause. If you need anymore info, let me know!

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  • 'Stack level too deep' error in engine-like plugin with globalize

    - by nutsmuggler
    Hello folks. I have built an engine-like plugin thanks to the new features of Rails 2.3. It's a 'Product' module for a CMS, extrapolated from a previously existing (and working) model/controller. The plugin relies on easy_fckeditor and on globalize (description and title field are localised), and I suspect that globalized could be the culprit here... Everything works fine, except for the update action. I get the following error message: (posting just the first lines, all the message is about attribute_methods) stack level too deep /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.2/lib/active_record/attribute_methods.rb:64:in `generated_methods?' /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.2/lib/active_record/attribute_methods.rb:241:in `method_missing' /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.2/lib/active_record/attribute_methods.rb:249:in `method_missing' For referenze, the full error stack is here: http://pastie.org/596546 I've tried to debug eliminating all the input fields, one by one, but I keep getting the error. fckeditor doesn't seem the culprit (error even without fckeditor) This is the action: def update params[:product][:term_ids] ||= [] @product = Product.find(params[:id]) respond_to do |format| if @product.update_attributes(params[:product]) flash[:notice] = t(:Product_was_successfully_updated) format.html { redirect_to products_path } format.xml { head :ok } else format.html { render :action => "edit" } format.xml { render :xml => @product.errors, :status => :unprocessable_entity } end end end As you see it's quite straightforward. Of course I am not hoping someone to solve this question straightaway, I'd just like to have a head up, a suggestion about where to look to solve this issue. Thanks in advance, Davide

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  • strange chi-square result using scikit_learn with feature matrix

    - by user963386
    I am using scikit learn to calculate the basic chi-square statistics(sklearn.feature_selection.chi2(X, y)): def chi_square(feat,target): """ """ from sklearn.feature_selection import chi2 ch,pval = chi2(feat,target) return ch,pval chisq,p = chi_square(feat_mat,target_sc) print(chisq) print("**********************") print(p) I have 1500 samples,45 features,4 classes. The input is a feature matrix with 1500x45 and a target array with 1500 components. The feature matrix is not sparse. When I run the program and I print the arrray "chisq" with 45 components, I can see that the component 13 has a negative value and p = 1. How is it possible? Or what does it mean or what is the big mistake that I am doing? I am attaching the printouts of chisq and p: [ 9.17099260e-01 3.77439701e+00 5.35004211e+01 2.17843312e+03 4.27047184e+04 2.23204883e+01 6.49985540e-01 2.02132664e-01 1.57324454e-03 2.16322638e-01 1.85592258e+00 5.70455805e+00 1.34911126e-02 -1.71834753e+01 1.05112366e+00 3.07383691e-01 5.55694752e-02 7.52801686e-01 9.74807972e-01 9.30619466e-02 4.52669897e-02 1.08348058e-01 9.88146259e-03 2.26292358e-01 5.08579194e-02 4.46232554e-02 1.22740419e-02 6.84545170e-02 6.71339545e-03 1.33252061e-02 1.69296016e-02 3.81318236e-02 4.74945604e-02 1.59313146e-01 9.73037448e-03 9.95771327e-03 6.93777954e-02 3.87738690e-02 1.53693158e-01 9.24603716e-04 1.22473138e-01 2.73347277e-01 1.69060817e-02 1.10868365e-02 8.62029628e+00] ********************** [ 8.21299526e-01 2.86878266e-01 1.43400668e-11 0.00000000e+00 0.00000000e+00 5.59436980e-05 8.84899894e-01 9.77244281e-01 9.99983411e-01 9.74912223e-01 6.02841813e-01 1.26903019e-01 9.99584918e-01 1.00000000e+00 7.88884155e-01 9.58633878e-01 9.96573548e-01 8.60719653e-01 8.07347364e-01 9.92656816e-01 9.97473024e-01 9.90817144e-01 9.99739526e-01 9.73237195e-01 9.96995722e-01 9.97526259e-01 9.99639669e-01 9.95333185e-01 9.99853998e-01 9.99592531e-01 9.99417113e-01 9.98042114e-01 9.97286030e-01 9.83873717e-01 9.99745466e-01 9.99736512e-01 9.95239765e-01 9.97992843e-01 9.84693908e-01 9.99992525e-01 9.89010468e-01 9.64960636e-01 9.99418323e-01 9.99690553e-01 3.47893682e-02]

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  • Delphi Performance: Case Versus If

    - by Andreas Rejbrand
    I guess there might be some overlapping with previous SO questions, but I could not find a Delphi-specific question on this topic. Suppose that you want to check if an unsigned 32-bit integer variable "MyAction" is equal to any of the constants ACTION1, ACTION2, ... ACTIONn, where n is - say 1000. I guess that, besides being more elegant, case MyAction of ACTION1: {code}; ACTION2: {code}; ... ACTIONn: {code}; end; if much faster than if MyAction = ACTION1 then // code else if MyAction = ACTION2 then // code ... else if MyAction = ACTIONn then // code; I guess that the if variant takes time O(n) to complete (i.e. to find the right action) if the right action ACTIONi has a high value of i, whereas the case variant takes a lot less time (O(1)?). Am I correct that switch is much faster? Am I correct that the time required to find the right action in the switch case actually is independent of n? I.e. is it true that it does not really take any longer to check a million cases than to check 10 cases? How, exactly, does this work?

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  • How do I detect if both left and right buttons are pushed?

    - by Greg McGuffey
    I would like have three mouse actions over a control: left, right and BOTH. I've got the left and right and am currently using the middle button for the third, but am curious how I could use the left and right buttons being pressed together, for those situations where the user has a mouse without a middle button. This would be handled in the OnMouseDown method of a custom control. UPDATE After reviewing the suggested answers, I need to clarify that what I was attempting to do was to take action on the mouse click in the MouseDown event (actually OnMouseDown method of a control). Because it appears that .NET will always raise two MouseDown events when both the left and right buttons on the mouse are clicked (one for each button), I'm guessing the only way to do this would be either do some low level windows message management or to implement some sort of delayed execution of an action after MouseDown. In the end, it is just way simpler to use the middle mouse button. Now, if the action took place on MouseUp, then Gary's or nos's suggestions would work well. Any further insights on this problem would be appreciated. Thanks!

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  • AnyCPU/x86/x64 for C# application and it's C++/CLI dependency

    - by Soonts
    I'm Windows developer, I'm using Microsoft visual studio 2008 SP1. My developer machine is 64 bit. The software I'm currently working on is managed .exe written in C#. Unfortunately, I was unable to solve the whole problem solely in C#. That's why I also developed a small managed DLL in C++/CLI. Both projects are in the same solution. My C# .exe build target is "Any CPU". When my C++ DLL build target is "x86", the DLL is not loaded. As far as I understood when I googled, the reason is C++/CLI language, unlike other .NET languages, compiles to the native code, not managed code. I switched the C++ DLL build target to x64, and everything works now. However, AFAIK everything will stop working as soon as my client will install my product on a 32-bit OS. I have to support Windows Vista and 7, both 32 and 64 bit versions of each of them. I don't want to fall back to 32 bits. That 250 lines of C++ code in my DLL is only 2% of my codebase. And that DLL is only used in several places, so in the typical usage scenario it's not even loaded. My DLL implements two COM objects with ATL, so I can't use "/clr:safe" project setting. Is there way to configure the solution and the projects so that C# project builds "Any CPU" version, the C++ project builds both 32 bit and 64 bit versions, then in the runtime when the managed .EXE is starting up, it uses either 32-bit DLL or 64-bit DLL depending on the OS? Or maybe there's some better solution I'm not aware of? Thanks in advance!

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  • Grails , how do I get an object NOT to save

    - by user350325
    Hello I am new to grails and trying to create a form which allows a user to change the email address associated with his/her account for a site I am creating. It asks for the user for their current password and also for the new email address they want to use. If the user enters the wrong password or an invalid email address then it should reject them with an appropriate error message. Now the email validation can be done through constraints in grails, but the password change has to match their current password. I have implemented this check as a method on a service class. See code below: def saveEmail = { def client = ClientUser.get(session.clientUserID) client.email = params.email if(clientUserService.checkPassword(session.clientUserID , params.password) ==false) { flash.message = "Incorrect Password" client.discard() redirect(action:'changeEmail') } else if(!client.validate()) { flash.message = "Invalid Email Address" redirect(action:'changeEmail') } else { client.save(); session.clientUserID = null; flash.message = "Your email address has been changed, please login again" redirect(controller: 'clientLogin' , action:'index') } } Now what I noticed that was odd was that if I entered an invalid email then it would not save the changes (as expected) BUT if I entered the wrong password and a valid email then it would save the changes and even write them back into the database even though it would give the correct "invalid password" error message. I was puzzled so set break points in all the if/else if/else blocks and found that it was hitting the first if statement as expected and not hitting the others , so it would never come accross a call to the save() method, yet it was saved anyway. After a little research I came accross documentation for the discard() method which you can see used in the code above. So I added this but still no avail. I even tried using discard then reloading the client object from the DB again but still no dice. This is very frustrating and I would be grateful for any help, since I think that this should surely not be a complicated requirement!

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  • Sort by date in XSL

    - by bethhilson
    I am trying to sort by date for XML output. Here is my XSL: http://www.dnncreative.com -- <!-- Test to limit number of items displayed. Here only 5 items will be transformed --> <br></br> <!-- to open links in a new window, change target="_main" to target="_blank" --> <strong><a href="{link}" target="_blank"><xsl:value-of select="title"/></a></strong> <br> <!-- <xsl:value-of select="pubDate"/> --> </br> <!-- only display 100 characters of the description, and allow html --> <xsl:value-of disable-output-escaping="yes" select="description"/> I am trying to sort descending using the entereddate in my XML: Media Director 4/2/2009 01646359 Cleveland OH United States of America $0.00 - $0.00 / $0.00/hr - $0.00/hr http://employment.topechelon.com/web77391/jobseeker/sSetup.asp?runsearch=1&spJobAdId=01646359 http://employment.topechelon.com/web77391/jobseeker/sSetup.asp?runsearch=1&spJobAdId=01646359 Any help would be appreciated! Thanks Beth Hilson

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  • Where in maven project's path should I put configuration files that are not considered resources

    - by Paralife
    I have a simple java maven project. One of my classes when executing needs to load an xml configuration file from the classpath. I dont want to package such xml file when producing the jar but I want to include a default xml file in a zip assemply under a conf subfolder and I also want this default xml to be available in the unit tests to test against it. As I see it there are 2 possible places of this default xml: src/main/resources/conf/default.xml src/main/conf/default.xml Both solutions demand special pom actions: In solution 1, I get the auto copy to target folder during build which means it is available in testing but I also get it in the produced jar which i dont want. In solution 2, I get the jar as I want it(free of the xml) but I manually have to copy the xml to the target folder to be available for testing. (I dont want to add src's subfolders in test classpath. I think it is bad practice). The question is what is the best solution of the two? If the correct is 2, what is the best way to copy it to target folder? Is there any other solution better and more common than those two? (I also read http://stackoverflow.com/questions/465001/where-should-i-put-application-configuration-files-for-a-maven-project but I would like to know the most "correct solution" from the "convention over configuration" point of view and this link provides some configuration type solutions but not any convention oriented. Maybe there isnt one but I ask anyway. Also the solutions provided include AntRun plugin and appAssembler plugin and I wonder if I could do it with out them.)

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  • Interrupting Prototype handler, alert() vs event.stop()

    - by lxs
    Here's the test page I'm using. This version works fine, forwarding to #success: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html><head> <script type="text/javascript" src="prototype.js"></script> </head><body> <form id='form' method='POST' action='#fail'> <button id='button'>Oh my giddy aunt!</button> <script type="text/javascript"> var fn = function() { $('form').action = "#success"; $('form').submit(); } $('button').observe('mousedown', fn); </script> </form> </body></html> If I empty the handler: var fn = function() { } The form is submitted, but of course we are sent to #fail this time. With an alert in the handler: var fn = function() { alert("omg!"); } The form is not submitted. This is awfully curious. With event.stop(), which is supposed to prevent the browser taking the default action: var fn = function(event) { event.stop(); } We are sent to #fail. So alert() is more effective at preventing a submission than event.stop(). What gives? I'm using Firefox 3.6.3 and Prototype 1.6.0.3. This behaviour also appears in Prototype 1.6.1.

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  • Images logging as 404s with Zend Framework

    - by azz0r
    Hello, Due to Zend rewriting URL's to module/controller/action, its reporting that images are coming through as a 404. Here is the error: [_requestUri:protected] => /images/Movie/124/thumb/main.png [_baseUrl:protected] => [_basePath:protected] => [_pathInfo:protected] => /images/Movie/124/thumb/main.png [_params:protected] => Array ( [controller] => images [action] => Movie [124] => thumb [module] => default ) [_rawBody:protected] => [_aliases:protected] => Array ( ) [_dispatched:protected] => 1 [_module:protected] => default [_moduleKey:protected] => module [_controller:protected] => images [_controllerKey:protected] => controller [_action:protected] => Movie [_actionKey:protected] => action Here is my HTACCESS SetEnv APPLICATION_ENV development RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -s [OR] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -l [OR] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -d RewriteRule ^.*$ - [NC,L] RewriteRule ^.*$ index.php [NC,L] I guess what I need todo is put some sort of image or /design detection so its not routing to index.php Ideas?

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  • Why does my .NET 4 application know .NET 4 is not installed

    - by Tergiver
    I developed an application that targeted .NET 4 the other day and XCOPY-installed it to a Windows XP machine. I had told the owner of the machine that they would need to install .NET Framework 4 to run my app and he told me he did (not a reliable source). When I ran the application I was presented with a message box that said this app requires .NET Framework 4, would I like to install it? Clicking the Yes button took me to the Microsoft web site and a few clicks later .NET 4 was installed, and the application successfully launched. Now I normally don't develop applications that target the latest version of .NET, I always target the lowest version I can (what features do I really need?). So this was my first .NET 4 app (and I only targeted 4 because it used a library that did). In the past, XCOPY-installing .NET applications to a machine that didn't have the correct version of .NET installed resulted in the application simply crashing on startup with no useful information presented to the user. Was it built into my app because I targeted .NET X? Was it something already installed on the target machine? I love the feature, I just want to know precisely how to leverage it in the future.

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  • Verify an event was raised by mocked object

    - by joblot
    In my unit test how can I verify that an event is raised by the mocked object. I have a View(UI) -- ViewModel -- DataProvider -- ServiceProxy. ServiceProxy makes async call to serivce operation. When async operation is complete a method on DataProvider is called (callback method is passed as a method parameter). The callback method then raise and event which ViewModel is listening to. For ViewModel test I mock DataProvider and verify that handler exists for event raised by DataProvider. When testing DataProvider I mock ServiceProxy, but how can I test that callback method is called and event is raised. I am using RhinoMock 3.5 and AAA syntax Thanks -- DataProvider -- public partial class DataProvider { public event EventHandler<EntityEventArgs<ProductDefinition>> GetProductDefinitionCompleted; public void GetProductDefinition() { var service = IoC.Resolve<IServiceProxy>(); service.GetProductDefinitionAsync(GetProductDefinitionAsyncCallback); } private void GetProductDefinitionAsyncCallback(ProductDefinition productDefinition, ServiceError error) { OnGetProductDefinitionCompleted(this, new EntityEventArgs<ProductDefinition>(productDefinition, error)); } protected void OnGetProductDefinitionCompleted(object sender, EntityEventArgs<ProductDefinition> e) { if (GetProductDefinitionCompleted != null) GetProductDefinitionCompleted(sender, e); } } -- ServiceProxy -- public class ServiceProxy : ClientBase<IService>, IServiceProxy { public void GetProductDefinitionAsync(Action<ProductDefinition, ServiceError> callback) { Channel.BeginGetProductDefinition(EndGetProductDefinition, callback); } private void EndGetProductDefinition(IAsyncResult result) { Action<ProductDefinition, ServiceError> callback = result.AsyncState as Action<ProductDefinition, ServiceError>; ServiceError error; ProductDefinition results = Channel.EndGetProductDefinition(out error, result); if (callback != null) callback(results, error); } }

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  • How do you manually set a RadioGroup value in wicket?

    - by Kane
    I'm trying to change the selected radio button in a Wicket RadioGroup during an AjaxEventBehavior but can't figure out how to do so. Specifically when a user types some text in a textbox I want to change the selected radio button to one I specify. How do you do this? Here's what I have so far (it crashes on addComponent): myRadioGroup = new RadioGroup("MyNewGroup", new PropertyModel(getPojo(), "selectedGroup")); Radio internalRadio = new Radio("InternalDirectoryNumber", new Model("Internal")); myRadioGroup .add(internalRadio); Radio externalRadio = new Radio("OtherMobileNumber", new Model("External")); myRadioGroup .add(externalRadio); TextField myTxtField= new TextField("TextBoxPrivateNumber", new PropertyModel(getVoiceItem(), "privateMobilePhone")); myTxtField.add( new AjaxEventBehavior( "onKeyUp" ) { @Override protected void onEvent(AjaxRequestTarget target) { Component component = target.getPage().get("myForm:MyNewGroup").setDefaultModelObject("External"); target.addComponent(component); //this causes an exception } }); myRadioGroup .add(myTxtField); Here is the exception that's thrown. java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: cannot update component that does not have setOutputMarkupId property set to true. Component: [MarkupContainer [Component id = myRadioGroup]] What's the proper way to do this? I'm not finding a whole lot of wicket documentation for this online.

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