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• Easiest RPC client method in PHP

  - by T.K.

  I've been asked to help a friend's company to bring up a web application. I have very limited time and I reluctantly accepted the request, at one condition. As most of the logic goes on in the back-end, I suggested that I would finish the complete back-end only, allowing a front-end developer to simply interface with my backend. I plan to do the back-end in Java EE or Python (with Pylons). It does not really matter at this point. I plan to have my back-end completely ready and unit-tested, so that my input will hardly be needed after my work is done. I know they have a PHP programmer, but as far as I could tell he is a real rookie. I want him to basically interface with my backend's services in the easiest possible way, with no way of him "stuffing" it up. It's basically a CRUD-only application. I could implement the backend as accessible through a webservice such as XML-RPC or SOAP. Even a RESTful API could be possible. However, my main objective is to make something that complete "noob" PHP programmer can easily interface with without getting confused. Preferably I do not even want to talk to him because I generally have an extremely busy schedule, and doing "support calls" is not something I am willing to do. Which approach should I choose? I would welcome any suggestions and inputs!

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• Using Doctrine to abstract CRUD operations

  - by TomWilsonFL

  This has bothered me for quite a while, but now it is necessity that I find the answer. We are working on quite a large project using CodeIgniter plus Doctrine. Our application has a front end and also an admin area for the company to check/change/delete data. When we designed the front end, we simply consumed most of the Doctrine code right in the controller: //In semi-pseudocode function register() { $data = get_post_data(); if (count($data) && isValid($data)) { $U = new User(); $U->fromArray($data); $U->save(); $C = new Customer(); $C->fromArray($data); $C->user_id = $U->id; $C->save(); redirect_to_next_step(); } } Obviously when we went to do the admin views code duplication began and considering we were in a "get it DONE" mode so it now stinks with code bloat. I have moved a lot of functionality (business logic) into the model using model methods, but the basic CRUD does not fit there. I was going to attempt to place the CRUD into static methods, i.e. Customer::save($array) [would perform both insert and update depending on if prikey is present in array], Customer::delete($id), Customer::getObj($id = false) [if false, get all data]. This is going to become painful though for 32 model objects (and growing). Also, at times models need to interact (as the interaction above between user data and customer data), which can't be done in a static method without breaking encapsulation. I envision adding another layer to this (exposing web services), so knowing there are going to be 3 "controllers" at some point I need to encapsulate this CRUD somewhere (obviously), but are static methods the way to go, or is there another road? Your input is much appreciated.

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• flash creates more than one http request

  - by MilanAleksic

  We are facing one issue directly connected with our Flash API we've given to a 3rd party flash vendor. To make a long story short, our API basically wraps domain logic on client and creates a single POST request towards the server in JSON format. All will be ok except in combination MacOS + Safari we receive double requests on server (?). Even more interesting, we are receiving different agent names - one is expected name/decriptor of the browser and system, other is "CFNetwork". POST /RuntimeDelegate.ashx - 80 Mozilla/5.0+(Macintosh;+U;+Intel+Mac+OS+X+10_4_11;+fr)+AppleWebKit/531.22.7+(KHTML,+like+Gecko)+Version/4.0.5+Safari/531.22.7 200 0 0 POST /RuntimeDelegate.ashx - 80 CFNetwork/129.24 200 0 0 POST /RuntimeDelegate.ashx - 80 Mozilla/5.0+(Macintosh;+U;+Intel+Mac+OS+X+10_4_11;+fr)+AppleWebKit/531.22.7+(KHTML,+like+Gecko)+Version/4.0.5+Safari/531.22.7 200 0 0 POST /RuntimeDelegate.ashx - 80 Mozilla/5.0+(Macintosh;+U;+Intel+Mac+OS+X+10_4_11;+fr)+AppleWebKit/531.22.7+(KHTML,+like+Gecko)+Version/4.0.5+Safari/531.22.7 200 0 0 POST /RuntimeDelegate.ashx - 80 CFNetwork/129.24 200 0 0 POST /RuntimeDelegate.ashx - 80 Mozilla/5.0+(Macintosh;+U;+Intel+Mac+OS+X+10_4_11;+fr)+AppleWebKit/531.22.7+(KHTML,+like+Gecko)+Version/4.0.5+Safari/531.22.7 200 0 0 POST /RuntimeDelegate.ashx - 80 CFNetwork/129.24 200 0 0 POST /RuntimeDelegate.ashx - 80 CFNetwork/129.24 200 0 0 Has anyone encounter anything like this before?

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• Bring a subview to the top on mouseDown: AND keep receiving events (for dragging)

  - by d11wtq

  Ok, basically I have a view with a series of slightly overlapping subviews. When a subview is clicked, it moves to the top (among other things), by a really simple two-liner: -(void)mouseDown:(NSEvent *)theEvent { if (_selected) { // Don't do anything this subview is already in the foreground return; } NSView *superview = [self superview]; [self removeFromSuperview]; [superview addSubview:self position:NSWindowAbove relativeTo:nil]; } This works fine and seems to be the "normal" way to do this. The problem is that I'm now introducing some drag logic to the view, so I need to respond to -mouseDragged:. Unfortunately, since the view is removed from the view hierarchy and re-added in the process, I can have the view come to the foreground and be dragged in the same mouse action. It only drags if I leave go of the mouse and click on the view again, since the second click doesn't do any view hierarchy juggling. Is there anything I can do that will allow the view to move to the foreground like this, AND continue to receive the subsequent -mouseDragged: and -mouseUp: events that follow? I started along the lines of thinking of overriding -hitTest: in the superview and intercepting the mouseDown event in order to bring the view to the foreground before it actually receives the event. The problem here is, from within -hitTest:, how do I distinguish what type of event I'm actually performing the hit test for? I wouldn't want to move the subview to the foreground for other mouse events, such as mouseMoved etc.

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• View Models (ViewData), UserControls/Partials and Global variables - best practice?

  - by elado

  Hi I'm trying to figure out a good way to have 'global' members (such as CurrentUser, Theme etc.) in all of my partials as well as in my views. I don't want to have a logic class that can return this data (like BL.CurrentUser) I do think it needs to be a part of the Model in my views So I tried inheriting from BaseViewData with these members. In my controllers, in this way or another (a filter or base method in my BaseController), I create an instance of the inheriting class and pass it as a view data. Everything's perfect till this point, cause then I have my view data available on the main View with the base members. But what about partials? If I have a simple partial that needs to display a blog post then it looks like this: <%@ Control Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" Inherits="ViewUserControl<Post>" %> and simple code to render this partial in my view (that its model.Posts is IEnumerable<Post>): <%foreach (Post p in this.Model.Posts) {%> <%Html.RenderPartial("Post",p); %> <%}%> Since the partial's Model isn't BaseViewData, I don't have access to those properties. Hence, I tried to make a class named PostViewData which inherits from BaseViewData, but then my containing views will have a code to actually create the PostViewData in them in order to pass it to the partial: <%Html.RenderPartial("Post",new PostViewData { Post=p,CurrentUser=Model.CurrentUser,... }); %> Or I could use a copy constructor <%Html.RenderPartial("Post",new PostViewData(Model) { Post=p }); %> I just wonder if there's any other way to implement this before I move on. Any suggestions? Thanks!

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• Entity Framework and differences between Contains between SQL and objects using ToLower

  - by John Ptacek

  I have run into an "issue" I am not quite sure I understand with Entity Framework. I am using Entity Framework 4 and have tried to utilize a TDD approach. As a result, I recently implemented a search feature using a Repository pattern. For my test project, I am implementing my repository interface and have a set of "fake" object data I am using for test purposes. I ran into an issue trying to get the Contains clause to work for case invariant search. My code snippet for both my test and the repository class used against the database is as follows: if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(Description)) { items = items.Where(r => r.Description.ToLower().Contains(Description.ToLower())); } However, when I ran my test cases the results where not populated if my case did not match the underlying data. I tried looking into what I thought was an issue for a while. To clear my mind, I went for a run and wondered if the same code with EF would work against a SQL back end database, since SQL will explicitly support the like command and it executed as I expected, using the same logic. I understand why EF against the database back end supports the Contains clause. However, I was surprised that my unit tests did not. Any ideas why other than the SQL server support of the like clause when I use objects I populate in a collection instead of against the database server? Thanks! John

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• how to read an arraylist from a txt file in java?

  - by lox

  how to read an arraylist from a txt file in java? my arraylist is the form of: public class Account { String username; String password; } i managed to put some "Accounts" in the a txt file, but now i don't know how to read them. this is how my arraylist look in the txt file: username1 password1 | username2 password2 | etc this is a part of the code i came up with, but it doesn't work. it looks logic to me though... :) . public static void RdAc(String args[]) { ArrayList<Account> peoplelist = new ArrayList<Account>(50); int i,i2,i3; String[] theword = null; try { FileReader fr = new FileReader("myfile.txt"); BufferedReader br = new BufferedReader(fr); String line = ""; while ((line = br.readLine()) != null) { String[] theline = line.split(" | "); for (i = 0; i < theline.length; i++) { theword = theline[i].split(" "); } for(i3=0;i3<theline.length;i3++) { Account people = new Account(); for (i2 = 0; i2 < theword.length; i2++) { people.username = theword[i2]; people.password = theword[i2+1]; peoplelist.add(people); } } } } catch (IOException ex) { System.out.println("Could not read from file"); } }

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• How to prevent external translation of a movieclip object on stage in AS3?

  - by Aaron H.

  I have a MovieClip object, which is exported for actionscript (AS3) in an .swc file. When I place an instance of the clip on the stage without any modifications, it appears in the upper left corner, about half off stage (i.e. only the lower right quadrant of the object is visible). I understand that this is because the clip has a registration point which is not the upper left corner. If you call getBounds() on the movieclip you can get the bounds of the clip (presumably from the "point" that it's aligned on) which looks something like (left: -303, top: -100, right: 303, bottom: 100), you can subtract the left and top values from the clip x and y: clip.x -= bounds.left; clip.y -= bounds.top; This seems to properly align the clip fully on stage with the top left of the clip squarely in the corner of the stage. But! Following that logic doesn't seem to work when aligning it on the center of the stage! clip.x = (stage.stageWidth / 2); etc... This creates the crazy parallel universe where the clip is now down in the lower right corner of the stage. The only clue I have is that looking at: clip.transform.matrix and clip.transform.concatenatedMatrix matrix has a tx value of 748 (half of stage height) ty value of 426 (Half of stage height) concatenatedMatrix has a tx value of 1699.5 and ty value of 967.75 That's also obviously where the movieclip is getting positioned, but why? Where is this additional translation coming from?

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• Web page database query optimization

  - by morpheous

  I am putting together a web page which is quite 'expensive' in terms of database hits. I don't want to start optimizing at this stage - though with me trying to hit a deadline, I may end up not optimizing at all. Currently the page requires 18 (that's right eighteen) hits to the db. I am already using joins, and some of the queries are UNIONed to minimize the trips to the db. My local dev machine can handle this (page is not slow) however, I feel if I release this into the wild, the number of queries will quickly overwhelm my database (MySQL). I could always use memcache or something similar, but I would much rather continue with my other dev work that needs to be completed before the deadline - at least retrieving the page works - its simply a matter of optimization now (if required). My question therefore is - is 18 db queries for a single page retrieval completely outrageous - (i.e. I should put everything on hold and optimize the hell of the retrieval logic), or shall I continue as normal, meet the deadline and release on schedule and see what happens? [Edit] Just to clarify, I have already done the 'obvious' things like using (single and composite) indexes for fields used in the queries. What I haven't yet done is to run a query analyzer to see if my indexes etc are optimal.

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• Java Client .class File Protection

  - by Zac

  I am in the requirements phase of building a JEE application that will most likely run on a GlassFish/JBoss backend (doesn't matter for now). I know I shouldn't be thinking about architecture at requirements time, but one can't help but start to imagine how the components would all snap together :-) Here are some hard, non-flexible requirements on the client-side: (1) The client application will be a Swing box (2) The client is free to download, but will use a subscription model (thus requiring a login mechanism with server-side authentication/authorization, etc.) (3) Yes, Java is the best platform solution for the problem at hand for reasons outside the scope of this post (4) The client-side .class files need safeguarding against decompiling That last (4th) requirement is the basis of this post. I'm not really worried about someone actually decompiling and getting at my source code: in the end, it's just Swing controls driven by some lightweight business logic. I'm worried about a scenario where someone decompiles my code, modifies it to exploit/attack the server, re-compiles, and fires it up. I've envisioned all sorts of nasty solutions, but didn't know if this was a common problem with a common solution for JEE developers. Any thoughts? Not interested in "code obfuscation" techniques! Thanks for any input!

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• Using OUTPUT/INTO within instead of insert trigger invalidates 'inserted' table

  - by Dan

  I have a problem using a table with an instead of insert trigger. The table I created contains an identity column. I need to use an instead of insert trigger on this table. I also need to see the value of the newly inserted identity from within my trigger which requires the use of OUTPUT/INTO within the trigger. The problem is then that clients that perform INSERTs cannot see the inserted values. For example, I create a simple table: CREATE TABLE [MyTable]( [MyID] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [MyBit] [bit] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_MyTable_MyID] PRIMARY KEY NONCLUSTERED ( [MyID] ASC )) Next I create a simple instead of trigger: create trigger [trMyTableInsert] on [MyTable] instead of insert as BEGIN DECLARE @InsertedRows table( MyID int, MyBit bit); INSERT INTO [MyTable] ([MyBit]) OUTPUT inserted.MyID, inserted.MyBit INTO @InsertedRows SELECT inserted.MyBit FROM inserted; -- LOGIC NOT SHOWN HERE THAT USES @InsertedRows END; Lastly, I attempt to perform an insert and retrieve the inserted values: DECLARE @tbl TABLE (myID INT) insert into MyTable (MyBit) OUTPUT inserted.MyID INTO @tbl VALUES (1) SELECT * from @tbl The issue is all I ever get back is zero. I can see the row was correctly inserted into the table. I also know that if I remove the OUTPUT/INTO from within the trigger this problem goes away. Any thoughts as to what I'm doing wrong? Or is how I want to do things not feasible? Thanks.

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• SharePoint Item Event Receivers and Site Creation

  - by Michael Edwards

  I have created an Item Event Receiver for a document library and I have test that the logic works correctly and it all does. The next thing I wanted to do is automatically create the list when a site is created so I added the list to the ONET.xml file for the site: <Lists> <List Title="Documents" Description="Documents " url="MyDocumentLibrary" Type="10002" FeatureId="CFD8504D-70EB-4ba2-9CCB-52E38DB39E60" QuickLaunchUrl="Docs/AllItems.aspx" /> </Lists> And I ensure that the feature for this list is also activated be adding the feature to the <WebFeatures> <Feature ID="CFD8504D-70EB-4ba2-9CCB-52E38DB39E60" /> </WebFeatures> The problem occurs after I create the site, when I add a document to the list the Item Event Receiver does not run. However if I manually for to the web site features and deactivate and then reactivate the feature the Item Event Receiver does run. It seems that when creating a list through the ONET.xml and activating the feature it does not bind the Item Event Receiver to the list. What is the work around for this? Is this a bug?

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• Data Annotations on ViewModels or Domain Objects

  - by Ahmad

  Where would data annotations be more suitable: ViewModels or Domain Objects or Both I am struggling to decide where these will be more suited. I have not as yet fully utilized them but this question came to mind. From most of the examples I have seen, they are generally placed on Models and simply use the required attributes for validation using ModelState.IsValid. I have also seen another question on SO where the use of data annotations alone is not sufficient and advocate. Option 1 - I will still need to validate again in my service layer. ( I think that my service layer should be complete and this include validation, since its planned to be used elsewhere) Option 2 - How will I then get the benefits of the built in validation both client and server side. Option 3 - there will be a repetition of validation logic, however I was wondering if one could use a MetaData class approach that can be used for both ViewModels and Domain Objects. ( This is completely of the top of my head, so it may be nonsensical) I wonder if this question even makes sense. If not, can someone please help in understanding this better. Have I completely misunderstood the use of data annotations?

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• Data Flow Object Graph and An Execution Engine for it

  - by M Dotnet

  I would like to build a custom workflow engine from scratch. The input to this workflow is a data flow diagram which is composed of a series of activities connected together through lines where each each represent the data flow. Each activity can export multiple outputs. Activities are complex math functions but the logic is hidden from the user. My workflow engine job is to execute the given data flow diagram. Each activity within the data flow diagram is a custom activity and each activity can output different outputs. How do you suggest to model the data flow diagram object? I need to be able to construct the data flow diagram problematically (no need for drag and drop) but I need to display the final result graphically (for display and debugging purposes). Are there any libraries out there that I could use? Should I keep the workflow presentable as an xml? I know that there are many projects out there trying to essentially doing similar thing by building such workflow engines but I need something light weight and open source. I do not need any state machine execution engine and mine is primarily sequential workflow with fork and join capabilities. My activities are wrappable as basic C# classes and I do NOT want to use anything as heavy as .NET workflow foundation.

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• Extensionless URLs in IIS 6

  - by Jason Marsell

  My client has asked me to build a personalized URL system so that they can send out really short URLs in postcards to customers like this: www.client.com/JasonSmith03 www.client.com/TonyAdams With these URLs, I need IIS 6 to trap the incoming request and pass that “JasonSmith03” token to my database to determine which landing page to redirect them to. I’d love to use an HttpHandler or HttpModule but they both look like they require an file extension (.aspx) in the URL. Wildcard mapping will chew up every incoming request and that’s ridiculous. ISAPI filters are just text routing files, so I can’t employ logic to call the database. According to Scott Guthrie, this would be cake if I had IIS 7, but I don’t. Can this be done using MVC? I’ve been working with MVP for the last few years, so I haven’t done any MVC and routing. I thought I remembered that MVC has the ability to use REST-style extensionless URLs. I’d be more than happy to have these personalized URLs land on a site that’s built in MVC, if it will work. Thank you!

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• foreach() error handling - how do make it do nothing?

  - by Jared

  Hey all, This should be very basic, but I am a little stumped! Here is my array: $menu = array( 'Home', 'Stuff'=>array( 'Losta Stuff', 'Less Stuff', 'Ur moms stuff', 'FAQ' ), 'Public Works' ); Here is my logic: echo "<ol>\n"; foreach( (array)$menu as $header ) { echo ' <li><b>'.$header."</b><br />\n"; echo ' <ol>'; foreach( (array)$header as $headers ) { echo ' <li>'.$headers.".</li>\n"; } echo ' </ol>'; } echo "</ol>\n"; As you can see, Home and Public Works don't have data in the them, so I get a Warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in test.php on line ## If I add (array) to $header like this: foreach( (array)$header as $headers ), It no longer gives me the error, but it just displays the $header as the $headers (i.e. Home - Home, Instead of Home - nothing). Basically, if the data is empty, I want it to do nothing!

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• Returning true or error message in Ruby

  - by seaneshbaugh

  I'm wondering if writing functions like this is considered good or bad form. def test(x) if x == 1 return true else return "Error: x is not equal to one." end end And then to use it we do something like this: result = test(1) if result != true puts result end result = test(2) if result != true puts result end Which just displays the error message for the second call to test. I'm considering doing this because in a rails project I'm working on inside my controller code I make calls to a model's instance methods and if something goes wrong I want the model to return the error message to the controller and the controller takes that error message and puts it in the flash and redirects. Kinda like this def create @item = Item.new(params[:item]) if [email protected]? result = @item.save_image(params[:attachment][:file]) if result != true flash[:notice] = result redirect_to(new_item_url) and return end #and so on... That way I'm not constructing the error messages in the controller, merely passing them along, because I really don't want the controller to be concerned with what the save_image method itself does just whether or not it worked. It makes sense to me, but I'm curious as to whether or not this is considered a good or bad way of writing methods. Keep in mind I'm asking this in the most general sense pertaining mostly to ruby, it just happens that I'm doing this in a rails project, the actual logic of the controller really isn't my concern.

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• c# delegate and abstract class

  - by BeraCim

  Hi all: I currently have 2 concrete methods in 2 abstract classes. One class contains the current method, while the other contains the legacy method. E.g. // Class #1 public abstract class ClassCurrent<T> : BaseClass<T> where T : BaseNode, new() { public List<T> GetAllRootNodes(int i) { //some code } } // Class #2 public abstract class MyClassLegacy<T> : BaseClass<T> where T : BaseNode, new() { public List<T> GetAllLeafNodes(int j) { //some code } } I want the corresponding method to run in their relative scenarios in the app. I'm planning to write a delegate to handle this. The idea is that I can just call the delegate and write logic in it to handle which method to call depending on which class/project it is called from (at least thats what I think delegates are for and how they are used). However, I have some questions on that topic (after some googling): 1) Is it possible to have a delegate that knows the 2 (or more) methods that reside in different classes? 2) Is it possible to make a delegate that spawns off abstract classes (like from the above code)? (My guess is a no, since delegates create concrete implementation of the passed-in classes) 3) I tried to write a delegate for the above code. But I'm being technically challenged: public delegate List GetAllNodesDelegate(int k); GetAllNodesDelegate del = new GetAllNodesDelegate(ClassCurrent.GetAllRootNodes); I got the following error: An object reference is required for the non-static field, method, property ClassCurrent<BaseNode>.GetAllRootNodes(int) I might have misunderstood something... but if I have to manually declare a delegate at the calling class, AND to pass in the function manually as above, then I'm starting to question whether delegate is a good way to handle my problem. Thanks.

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• How do I create a python module from a fortran program with f2py?

  - by Lars Hellemo

  I am trying to read some smps files with python, and found a fortran implementation, so I thought I would give f2py a shot. The problem is that I have no experience with fortran. I have successfully installed gfortran and f2py on my Linux box and ran the example on thew f2py page, but I have some trouble compiling and running the large program. There are two files, one with a file reader wrapper and one with all the logic. They seem to call each other, but when I compile and link or try f2py, I get errors that they somehow can't find each other: f95 -c FILEWR~1.F f95 -c SMPSREAD.F90 f95 -o smpsread SMPSREAD.o FILEWR~1.o FILEWR~1.o In function `file_wrapper_' FILEWR~1.F(.text+0x3d) undefined reference to `chopen_' usrlibgcci486-linux-gnu4.4.1libgfortranbegin.a(fmain.o) In function `main' (.text+0x27) undefined reference to `MAIN__' collect2 ld returned 1 exit status I also tried changing the name to FILE_WRAPPER.F but that did not help. With f2py I found out I had to include a comment to get it to accept free format, and saved this as a new file and tried: f2py -c -m smpsread smpsread.f90 I get a lot of output and warnings, but the error seems to be this one: getctype: No C-type found in "{'typespec': 'type', 'attrspec': ['allocatable'], 'typename': 'node', 'dimension': [':']}", assuming void. The fortran 90 spms reader can be found here. Any help or suggestions appreciated.

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• How can I order by the result of a recursive SQL query

  - by Tony

  I have the following method I need to ORDER BY: def has_attachments? attachments.size > 0 || (!parent.nil? && parent.has_attachments?) end I have gotten this far: ORDER BY CASE WHEN attachments.size > 0 THEN 1 ELSE (CASE WHEN parent_id IS NULL THEN 0 ELSE (CASE message.parent ...what goes here ) END END END I may be looking at this wrong because I don't have experience with recursive SQL. Essentially I want to ORDER by whether a message or any of its parents has attachments. If it's attachment size is 0, I can stop and return a 1. If the message has an attachment size of 0, I now check to see if it has a parent. If it has no parent then there is no attachment, however if it does have a parent then I essentially have to do the same query case logic for the parent. UPDATE The table looks like this +---------------------+--------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +---------------------+--------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | id | int(11) | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | message_type_id | int(11) | NO | MUL | | | | message_priority_id | int(11) | NO | MUL | | | | message_status_id | int(11) | NO | MUL | | | | message_subject_id | int(11) | NO | MUL | | | | from_user_id | int(11) | YES | MUL | NULL | | | parent_id | int(11) | YES | MUL | NULL | | | expires_at | datetime | YES | MUL | NULL | | | subject_other | varchar(255) | YES | | NULL | | | body | text | YES | | NULL | | | created_at | datetime | NO | MUL | | | | updated_at | datetime | NO | | | | | lock_version | int(11) | NO | | 0 | | +---------------------+--------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ Where the parent_id refers to the parent message, if it exists. Thanks!

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• best way to add and delete text lines with jquery product configurator

  - by Daniel White

  I am creating a product configurator with Jquery. My users can add custom text lines to their product. So you could create say... 4 text lines with custom text. I need to know what the best way to add and delete these lines would be. Currently I have the following code for adding lines... //Add Text Button $('a#addText').live('click', function(event) { event.preventDefault(); //Scroll up the text editor $('.textOptions').slideUp(); $('#customText').val(''); //count how many items are in the ul textList var textItems = $('ul#textList li').size(); var nextNumber = textItems + 1; if(textItems <= 5) { //Change input to reflect current text being changed $('input#currentTextNumber').val(nextNumber); //Append a UL Item to the textList $('ul#textList').append('<li id="textItem'+nextNumber+'">Text Line. +$5.00 <a class="deleteTextItem" href="'+nextNumber+'">Delete</a></li>'); //Scroll down the text editor $('.textOptions').slideDown(); }else { alert('you can have a maximum of 6 textual inputs!'); } }); I'm probably not doing this the best way, but basically i have an empty UL list to start with. So when they click "Add Text Line" it finds out how many list elements are in the unordered list, adds a value of 1 to that and places a new list element with the id TextItem1 or TextItem2 or whatever number we're on. The problem i'm running into is that when you click delete item, it screws everything up because when you add an item again all the numbers aren't correct. I thought about writing some kind of logic that says all the numbers above the one you want deleted get 1 subtracted from their value and all the numbers below stay the same. But I think i'm just going about this the wrong way. Any suggestions on the easiest way to add and delete these text lines is appreciated.

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• Designing DAOs around a JSON API for iPhone Development

  - by Bob Spryn

  So I've been trying to design a clean way of grabbing data for my models in iPhone land. All the data for my application is coming from JSON API's. So right now when a VC needs some models, it does the JSON call itself (asynch) and when it receives the data, it builds the models. It works, but I'm trying to think of a cleaner method whereby the DAO's retrieve the information for me and return the models, all in an async manner. My initial thought is build a protocol for my DAOs, such that the VC would instantiate a DAO and make itself the delegate. When you requested data [DAOinstance getAllUsers] the DAO would do all the network request stuff, and then when it had the data, it would call a method on its delegate (the VC) to pass the data. So I think that's a cool solution, but realized that if I needed to use the same DAO for different purposes in the same VC, my delegate method would have to branch logic depending on which DAO instance initiated the request. So my second thought was to be able to pass 'handler' selectors to the DAO object a la typical javascript patterns. So instead of an official protocol, I would say something like [DAOinstance getAllUsersWithSelector:"TheHandlerFunctionOnMyVC:"] Then when the DAO completed its network activities, it would call the passed selector on the VC, and pass the data back. So am I headed in the wrong direction entirely here? Seems like maybe an ok way to go. Any pointers or articles on designing this kind of data layer would be sweet. Thanks! Bob

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• Windsor IHandlerSelector in RIA Services Visual Studio 2010 Beta2

  - by Savvas Sopiadis

  Hi everybody! I want to implement multi tenancy using Windsor and i don't know how to handle this situation: i succesfully used this technique in plain ASP.NET MVC projects and thought incorporating in a RIA Services project would be similar. So i used IHandlerSelector, registered some components and wrote an ASP.NET MVC view to verify it works in a plain ASP.NET MVC environment. And it did! Next step was to create a DomainService which got an IRepository injected in the constructor. This service is hosted in the ASP.NET MVC application. And it actually ... works:i can get data out of it to a Silverlight application. Sample snippet: public OrganizationDomainService(IRepository<Culture> cultureRepository) { this.cultureRepository = cultureRepository; } Last step is to see if it works multi-tenant-like: it does not! The weird thing is this: using some line of code and writing debug messages in a log file i verified that the correct handler is selected! BUT this handler seems not to be injected in the DomainService. I ALWAYS get the first handler (that's the logic in my SelectHandler) Can anybody verify this behavior? Is injection not working in RIA Services? Or am i missing something basic?? Development environment: Visual Studio 2010 Beta2 Thanks in advance

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• ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Subdomain

  - by Jimmo

  I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.). In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on the customer represented in the URL. When calling something like the MembershipProvider.ValidateUser, I have access to the user's customer affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to compare whether it is a data request for the same customer as the user. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

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• Understanding sql queries formulation methodoloy. How do you think while formulating Sql Queries

  - by Shantanu Gupta

  I have been working on sql server and front end coding and have usually faced problem formulating queries. I do understand most of the concepts of sql that are needed in formulating queries but whenever some new functionality comes into the picture that can be dont using sql query, i do usually fails resolving them. I am very comfortable with select queries using joins and all such things but when it comes to DML operation i usually fails For every query that i never done before I usually finds uncomfortable with that while creating them. Whenever I goes for an interview I usually faces this problem. Is it their some concept behind approaching on formulating sql queries. Eg. I need to create an sql query such that A table contain single column having duplicate record. I need to remove duplicate records. I know i can find the solution to this query very easily on Googling, but I want to know how everyone comes to the desired result. Is it something like Practice Makes Man Perfect i.e. once you did it, next time you will be able to formulate or their is some logic or concept behind.

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