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  • Excel 2007 pivot table does not aggregate properly

    - by Patrick
    I am using a an excel pivot table to summarize some data and just found a problem. The problem deals with how aggregate values are calculated. Let's say I have a table of data with three columns: Name, Date, Value. If I create a table where Name and then Date are used as Row Labels and Value is the aggregate value, ie Average. The pivot table will look something like this: +John .3450 5/14/2010 1.234 5/15/2010 3.450 5/16/2010 -3.25 What I think should be happening here is that the values for each date are averaged and then those values are averaged to come up with the value in the same row as the Name, John. But that is not what it does. It takes the average for each date, which it shows across from the date, but then instead of taking the average of those numbers, it actually uses the raw data and computes the average for all of John's values. It should show the average of the daily averages to correspond with the tree hierarchy, but instead just shows me the average for all of John's values. It essential will only aggregate at one level, but visually creates sub levels that it is not using. Does anyone know how to change this or understand by what logic this makes sense? Why would I create any sub groupings if I cannot compute aggregates on them?

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  • Disconnect from PHP after output generated

    - by Oli
    I have a LEMP stack. Nginx sitting in front of PHP-FPM. Because some of the sites are heavy and there's OPCode caching, PHP is set up so that there are only 5 child processes running. The aim being that each child can deal with any request in less than half-a-second and then move onto the next request. One problem I've found is that if it's a big chunk of HTML that's getting sent out, and the user has a slow connection, that PHP thread stays occupied until they've finished downloading. Because of my current setup, I have a pretty unforgiving timeout inside PHP where the script is killed after 20 seconds. This is to make sure everybody gets a turn but on a slow connection, this can mean the user gets cut off with a 504 Gateway timeout. I was wondering if there was some sort of buffer solution that I could implement within or just behind Nginx that sent the request through and then... well... buffered the content into its own cache and feed that onto the client as and when they could download it. The aim being that the underlying PHP thread can be freed up. What I'm asking for doesn't have to be PHP-specific. Anything that deals with FastCGI, or even any Nginx-upstream might have a similar issue to this.

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  • Nginx, HAproxy, Unicorn, Rails and Node settings

    - by Julien Genestoux
    Our application is currently only a "regular" web app, with no fancy things like streaming HTTP or websockets. It's mostly a Rails app, served by a few (20 on 2 machines) Unicorn workers, proxied by a venerable nginx server which deals with load balancing. This has been working quite well for the past year and the app now serves between 400 and 800 requests per second at any point during the day. We're soon releasing 2 new APIs, which are both served by a Node application : a websocket one, as well as a long polling HTTP one. (the fancy thing like the Twitter streaming API where HTTP connections never end). They both use the same port on node and since the node app is stateless, we can certainly deploy a few of them to handle the traffic. The app (node) is now deployed in 5 instances and are now listening on 5 different 'private' ports on the same host. We need to put something in front of them to load balance, but also something that is able to deal with sockets (either websocket or HTTP streaming) which are intended to stay 'up' for days. The question is then : what? I read somewhere that HAProxy does a better job than Nginx at this. What do you recommend?

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  • What was your biggest waste of money, and what should you have bought instead? [closed]

    - by rob
    I waste a lot of money on computer equipment and other electronics that I don't really need. I've also bought software that I've never really used, or which as been replaced by better free software. As I'm buying things, it doesn't seem like much--fifty bucks here, a hundred dollars there. But when I go back and look at how much I've spent over my past few electronics purchases, I usually start to think of the other things I could have bought with that money instead. Most of the computer hardware and electronics don't usually improve my life by much, if at all. Case in point: back when I was in college, I prided myself on getting the best deals for computer hardware, but when I went back and added up all the money I had spent, I had probably wasted close to a thousand dollars on "cheap" $100 hard drives that eventually all went bad (including the warranty replacements). Even if they did still work, it would not be worth the effort to use them, because they're too small and too noisy by today's standards. I've also spent thousands more on other junk, such as RAM and CPU upgrades that only gave modest performance jumps, and wireless audio transmitters that I used for a short time to stream music from the now-defunct Yahoo! Music service. Every time I see a really great deal on RAM or video cards, I come one click away from buying them, but these days I'm usually able to resist. I've been wanting to get into woodworking ever since I moved into my house, and five years later I'm finally saving up for a $600 table saw. Sure, I've already got a toolbox and a couple of the essential power tools like a drill and a jigsaw, but I can't help but think that I'd have an entire shop full of woodworking tools and a lot of nice wood furniture if I hadn't wasted all that money back in college. What has been your biggest waste of money on computer stuff and technology? If you had all that money back, would you make the same mistake again and buy the same types of things, or would you spend it on something else?

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  • New Static Website with Hosted DNS alternating 502, 503 and Page Does Not Exist Errors

    - by Dave
    This has become an increasingly frustrating ordeal. I'm mostly a web developer, so forgive me if I am using improper terminology here. I have a client that had purchased a domain at JustHost. We built him a website and have it on our own server space. Now, I'm mostly used to dealing with godaddy and it is simple enough to manage dns records and point the A record to our server IP, where Apache on our end deals with the domains via name-based virtual hosts. But for some reason, in setting this up with JustHost, when attempting to go to the domain name, I either get a 502 or 503 error or "webpage does not exist". Now, I know that the basic functionality of the webpage must be working because I can access the the index etc straight through my servers www data (IE [server-ip]/website_folder). I was on the phone with technical support for over three hours yesterday with justhost and the best I could get was "That's really weird..." I've checked my logs and there doesn't seem to be anything coming through to my end. Does anybody have an idea of whats going on here? I would love for it to be a problem on my end, because justhost doesn't seem capable of helping further. Any help is greatly appreciated, thanks. I forgot to mention that we have several other sites up and running and completely accessible.

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  • Bouncing between a 502 and 503 error

    - by Dave
    This has become an increasingly frustrating ordeal. I'm mostly a web developer, so forgive me if I am using improper terminology here. I have a client that had purchased a domain at JustHost. We built him a website and have it on our own server space. Now, I'm mostly used to dealing with godaddy and it is simple enough to manage dns records and point the A record to our server IP, where Apache on our end deals with the domains via name-based virtual hosts. But for some reason, in setting this up with JustHost, when attempting to go to the domain name, I either get a 502 or 503 error or "webpage does not exist". Now, I know that the basic functionality of the webpage must be working because I can access the the index etc straight through my servers www data (IE [server-ip]/website_folder). I was on the phone with technical support for over three hours yesterday with justhost and the best I could get was "That's really weird..." I've checked my logs and there doesn't seem to be anything coming through to my end. Does anybody have an idea of whats going on here? I would love for it to be a problem on my end, because justhost doesn't seem capable of helping further. Any help is greatly appreciated, thanks. I forgot to mention that we have several other sites up and running and completely accessible.

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  • IP queue buffer

    - by summerbulb
    I seem to have an issue with IP queue. I have a linux machine that I am using to run some experiments. The linux machine is configured to be a router, having two NICs, connecting two other computers, and managing their network traffic. All incoming packages are captured, using iptables, and analyzed by a C application. The application analyzing the packets has a built-in delay, as part of the experiment. So I have one very fast computer sending packets through my linux-router and a (relatively) slow linux-router that analyses and deals with the packets, one by one. This situation leads to the fact that when I fire up a sender application on one of the computers connected to the linux-router, my IP queue on the linux-router gets filled up (almost) instantaneously. The IP queue's max length is currently set to 1024, and if it overflows, the packets are dropped. This is expected and i'm OK with it. But, (and this is where it gets interesting), every now and then I get the following error: "Failed to receive netlink message: No buffer space available" At start, I thought this was due to the IP queue overflow, but after some analysis i found that sometimes I get the error even if the IP queue buffer did not overflow, and sometime I DON'T get the message even though the buffer DID overflow. When I run > cat /proc/net/ip_queue, I get the following table (also used to monitor the IP queue overflow): Peer PID : 27389 Copy mode : 2 Copy range : 65535 Queue length : 0 Queue max. length : 1024 Queue dropped : 1166875 Netlink dropped : 2916 Looking at the last two values, Queue dropped seems to refer to packets that did not manage to get into the IP queue because the buffer was full. I can see this value rise as I bombard the linux-router. Netlink dropped ( as it's name implies :) ) seems to have to do with the error i'm getting. I did my best to search for material on this error, but wasn't able to find anything that seemed to point me in the required direction. Bottom line: Why am I getting this error and what can I do to avoid it?

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  • Group Policy for DNS Server Addresses

    - by John
    This question deals strictly with the methodology of using Active Directory to publish DNS settings and controlling the DNS server address order to domain attached clients. This is not asking about if this is the right function, role, or best use of group policy; but rather, how to make it work. I would like to be able to publish in group policy DNS addresses and possibly control the order in which the client consumes the addresses. I have tried following the information from this site without success. I set the following setting within group policy, but the client never shows the settings within the TCP/IP properties. Computer Configuration/Administrative Templates/Network/DNS Client/DNS Servers I did list them as a single space separated list. For example, the following: 192.168.0.1 192.168.10.3 192.168.34.2 192.168.2.67 192.168.56.99 192.168.99.23 This would be for Windows 7, Windows Server 2003, and Windows Server 2008 clients. I am not sure what I am doing wrong or how to get this to work. Am I missing a setting? Do I need to set something differently?

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  • How to create a mysql database that can contain any character, also different languages

    - by Jakke
    I'm trying to create a database that has to contain articles in different languages. I'm using Mariadb as my server and I know bits of SQL. My knowledge doesn't really cover details like the differences between engines like MyISAM, InnoDB etc or character sets like utf8/16/32, latin 5/7/etc. I do know that the character set has importance, I guess what I'm looking for is an all-encompassing character set and an engine that best deals with this type of content. Also, is there an advantage in storing articles in multiple data rows (equivalent of different pages) to make things a little faster, or would you store a whole article in a single data row. Or does that depend on the size of the articles? Sorry for my noobish question, I know the information is all out on the internet but it would take me quite a long time to research and get a grip on everything. Would be cool if someone with experience could give me a little head start and point me in the right direction. This is for a intranet site, consider the content to be somewhat like a blog (and no, I don't want wordpress or something similar at this point). Not sure if it matters, but I tend to create and manipulate my tables with phpmyadmin, I use apache as web server and it all runs on Linux.

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  • Changing time intervals for vSphere performance monitoring, and is there a better way?

    - by user991710
    I have a set of experiments running on a cluster node which is running ESXi 5.1, and I want to monitor the resource consumption on the node itself. Specifically, I am currently running experiments on a subset of the VMs on the ESXi host and wish to monitor resource consumption on those specific VMs. Right now, since I'm using only a single ESXi host, I am using vSphere to access it and the performance reports. Ideally, I would like to get these reports for different time intervals. I can already get the charts for a time interval of 1h, but these are rather long-running experiments and something like 2h, 3h,... would be preferable. However, I cannot seem to change the time interval. Here is an example of what my Customize Performance Chart dialog shows: I am also running on a trial key at the moment. How can I change this interval? Do I need a standard license, or do I just need to turn off the VM (unlikely, but I haven't attempted it yet as these are long-running experiments)? Any help (or pointers to documentation which deals with the above -- I've already looked but did not find much) would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Linux CentOS strange memory readings

    - by user2008937
    I am actually a young junior sys admin. I have a question - i am trying to understand how linux deals with memory... while playing around different monitoring programs I found some strange thing. When I run top on my laptop it shows me that FIREFOX process with pid 8778 takes 18,3% of memory (%MEM column). grep "MemTotal" /proc/meminfo Above command give me 1848336kb/1024 = 1805megs of memory (its ok - i have 2 gigs of ram). So if the firefox process takes 18,3% of MEM(according to tops %MEM column) then it takes 0.183 * 1805 which is approximately 325mb of memory. Quite a lot as for firefox... But well, in Linux there are lots of shared libraries that programs commonly uses (like famous libc). And those libraries are added to memory utilization of every process that uses it in the system, despite they are actually reading same file(single object in memory). So top may show too big mem utilization because of those shared libraries. Well, it is time to use PMAP which should show us the real mem utilization of process. But.. pmap -d $(pidof firefox) mapped: 983460K writeable/private: 757164K shared: 66416K so pmap shows that 983460/1024=993MB of memory is mapped to this process. It is in fact much bigger than mem utilization showed by top. Whats wrong here? How pmap can show more than top? even when top adds also the shared libraries (which in fact are single objects in memory) for each process that uses it? and pmap omits it? Regards Krzysztof

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  • apache chokes after 300 connections

    - by john titus
    We have an apache webserver in front of Tomcat hosted on EC2, instance type is extra large with 34GB memory. Our application deals with lot of external webservices and we have a very lousy external webservice which takes almost 300 seconds to respond to requests during peak hours. During peak hours the server chokes at just about 300 httpd processes. ps -ef | grep httpd | wc -l =300 I have googled and found numerous suggestions but nothing seems to work.. following are some configuration i have done which are directly taken from online resources. I have increased the limits of max connection and max clients in both apache and tomcat. here are the configuration details: //apache <IfModule prefork.c> StartServers 100 MinSpareServers 10 MaxSpareServers 10 ServerLimit 50000 MaxClients 50000 MaxRequestsPerChild 2000 </IfModule> //tomcat <Connector port="8080" protocol="org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11NioProtocol" connectionTimeout="600000" redirectPort="8443" enableLookups="false" maxThreads="1500" compressableMimeType="text/html,text/xml,text/plain,text/css,application/x-javascript,text/vnd.wap.wml,text/vnd.wap.wmlscript,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml-dtd,application/xslt+xml" compression="on"/> //Sysctl.conf net.ipv4.tcp_tw_reuse=1 net.ipv4.tcp_tw_recycle=1 fs.file-max = 5049800 vm.min_free_kbytes = 204800 vm.page-cluster = 20 vm.swappiness = 90 net.ipv4.tcp_rfc1337=1 net.ipv4.tcp_max_orphans = 65536 net.ipv4.ip_local_port_range = 5000 65000 net.core.somaxconn = 1024 I have been trying numerous suggestions but in vain.. how to fix this? I'm sure m2xlarge server should serve more requests than 300, probably i might be going wrong with my configuration.. The server chokes only during peak hours and when there are 300 concurrent requests waiting for the [300 second delayed] webservice to respond. Please help..

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  • Constructor and Destructor of a singleton object called twice

    - by Bikram990
    I'm facing a problem in singleton object in c++. Here is the explanation: Problem info: I have a 4 shared libraries (say libA.so, libB.so, libC.so, libD.so) and 2 executable binary files each using one another shared library( say libE.so) which deals with files. The purpose of libE.so is to write data into a file and if the executable restarts or size of file exceeds a certain limit it is zipped and a new file is created with time stamp in name. It is using singleton object. It exports a handler class for getting and using singleton. Compressing only happens in the above said two cases. The user/loader executable can specify the starting name of file only no other control is provided by handler class. libA.so, libB.so, libC.so and libD.so have almost same behavior. They all have a class and declare and object of an handler which gets the instance of the singleton in libE.so and uses it for further purpose. All these libraries are linked to two executable binary files. If only one of the two executable runs then its fine, But if both executable runs one after other then the file of the first started executable gets compressed. Debug info: The constructor and destructor of the singleton object is called twice.(for each executable) The object of singleton is a static object and never deleted. The executable is not able to exit/return gives: glibc detected * (exe1 or exe2): double free or corruption (!prev): some_addr * Running with binaries valgrind gives that the above error is due to the destructor of the singleton object. Thanks

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  • Difference between "bit-number" in filesystem and that in OS (like 32,64 bit)?

    - by learner
    I encountered 2 terms ,"FAT32", a file system and "Windows Vista 32 bit". I found that the meaning of a 32 bit OS is that that the OS deals with data in chunks of minimum size 32 bits. I don't quite understand the depth of that, but I figure ,every file in that system with that OS should have a minimum size of 32 bits. I also read that these 32 bits are used to hold data of files' location(reference) and details. Which of it is it? I have also read that 4 GB of RAM is all that is needed at the most if you're on a 32 bit OS. But I don't understand why. If there are 32 bits to hold info about files and their locations,there can be 2^32 possible combinations of it. But I have found in many places,2^32 is divided by 1024 thrice to get 4GB. Why? Did that 2^32 become equal to 2^32 bytes? And about filesystems I read a similar explanation for what 32 means in FAT32. It is supposed to mean that 32 bits are used to number file system block. Now how is different from the number before the OS?

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  • mod_rewrite and Apache questions

    - by John
    We have an interesting situation in relation to some help desk software that we are trying to setup. This is a web based software application that allows customers and staff to log into it and access tickets and supply updates, etc. The challenge we are having deals with the two different domains that we use and the mod_rewrite rules to make it all work with our SSL certificate that is only bound to one of the domains. I will list the use case scenarios below and the challenges that we are having. If you access http://support.domain1.com/support then it redirects fine to https://support.domain2.com/support If you access http://support.domain2.com/support then it redirects fine to https://support.domain2.com/support If you access https://support.domain1.com/support then it throws an error of "server cannot be found" If you access https://support.domain1.com/support/ after having visited https://support.domain2.com/support then you are presented with a "this connection is untrusted" error about the certificate only being valid for the domain2 domain instead of the domain1 domain name I have tried just about every mod_rewrite rule that I can think of to help make this work and I have not been able to locate the correct combination. I was curious if anyone had some ideas on how to make the redirects work correctly. In the end, we are needing all customers and staff to land at https://support.domain2.com/support regardless of the previous URL combinations that they enter, like listed above. Thanks in advance for your help with this.

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  • Exception on SslStream.AuthenticateAsClient (The message was badly formatted)

    - by Noms
    I have got wierd problem going on. I am trying to connect to Apple server via TCP/SSL. I am using a Client certificate provided by Apple for push notifications. I installed the certificate on my server (Win2k3) in both Local Trusted Root certificates and Local Personal Certificates folder. Now I have a class library that deals with that connection, when i call this class library from a console application running from the server it works absolutely fine, but when i call that class library from an asp.net page or asmx web service I get the following exception. A call to SSPI failed, see inner exception. The message received was unexpected or badly formatted. This is my code: X509Certificate cert = new X509Certificate(certificateLocation, certificatePassword); X509CertificateCollection certCollection = new X509CertificateCollection(new X509Certificate[1] { cert }); // OPEN the new SSL Stream SslStream ssl = new SslStream(client.GetStream(), false, new RemoteCertificateValidationCallback(ValidateServerCertificate), null); ssl.AuthenticateAsClient(ipAddress, certCollection, SslProtocols.Default, false); ssl.AuthenticateAsClient is where the error gets thrown. This is driving me nuts. If the console application can connect fine, there must be some problem with asp.net network layer security that is failing the authentication... not sure, perhaps need to add something or some sort of security policy in the web.config. Also just to point out that i can connect fine on my local development machine both with console and website. Anyone has got any ideas?

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  • Silverlight 4 with WCF RIA architecture applying DDD

    - by doteneter
    Hello, In my ASP.NET MVC applications I use DDD and it works very well. I'm new to Silverlight development and would like to know how could I apply DDD to build a new architecture. I had a look on WCF RIA Services and what is exposed by default it's the simple CRUD methods. I would like to use MVVM pattern. I thought about general architecture and don't know if what I'm thinking about make sense in Silverlight development. I thought about creating Domain Model on the top of SVC. I would than expose by WCF RIA some operation that deals with aggreates in my Domain Model instead of simple CRUD. What I would aloso expose is the ViewModel entieties that could be used by the view. I don't know if it's make sense, if I'm going in a good direction or if applying DDD in Silverlight 4 development is a good practice. I didn't find much informations on Internet. I'll appreciate if you could point me to some interesting links or if you can give me some hints. Thanks for your help.

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  • DRY Validation with MVC2

    - by Matthew
    Hi All, I'm trying to figure out how I can define validation rules for my domain objects in one single location within my application but have run in to a snag... Some background: My location has several parts: - Database - DAL - Business Logic Layer - SOAP API Layer - MVC website The MVC website accesses the database via the SOAP API, just as third parties would. We are using server and and client side validation on the MVC website as well as in the SOAP API Layer. To avoid having to manually write client side validation we are implementing strongly typed views in conjunction with the Html.TextBoxFor and Html.ValidationMessageFor HTML helpers, as shown in Step 3 here. We also create custom models for each form where one form takes input for multiple domain objects. This is where the problem begins, the HTML helpers read from the model for the data annotation validation attributes. In most cases our forms deal with multiple domain objects and you can't specify more than one type in the <%@Page ... Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage" % page directive. So we are forced to create a custom model class, which would mean duplicating validation attributes from the domain objects on to the model class. I've spent quite some time looking for workarounds to this, such has referencing the same MetadataType from both the domain class and the custom MVC models, but that won't work for several reasons: You can only specify one MetadataType attribute per class, so its a problem if a model references multiple domain objects, each with their own metadata type. The data annotation validation code throws an exception if the model class doesn't contain a property that is specified in the referenced MetadataType which is a problem with the model only deals with a subset of the properties for a given domain object. I've looked at other solutions as well but to no avail. If anyone has any ideas on how to achieve a single source for validation logic that would work across MVC client and server side validation functionality and other locations (such as my SOAP API) I would love to hear it! Thanks in advance, Matthew

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  • Using ViewModel in ASP.NET MVC with FluentValidation

    - by Brian McCord
    I am using ASP.NET MVC with Entity Framework POCO classes and the FluentValidation framework. It is working well, and the validation is happening as it should (as if I were using DataAnnotations). I have even gotten client-side validation working. And I'm pretty pleased with it. Since this is a test application I am writing just to see if I can get new technologies working together (and learn them along the way), I am now ready to experiment with using ViewModels instead of just passing the actual Model to the view. I'm planning on using something like AutoMapper in my service to do the mapping back and forth from Model to ViewModel but I have a question first. How is this going to affect my validation? Should my validation classes (written using FluentValidation) be written against the ViewModel instead of the Model? Or does it need to happen in both places? One of the big deals about DataAnnotations (and FluentValidation) was that you could have validation in one place that would work "everywhere". And it fulfills that promise (mostly), but if I start using ViewModels, don't I lose that ability and have to go back to putting validation in two places? Or am I just thinking about it wrong?

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  • Accessing Request object from custom JSP tags

    - by Byron
    I'm trying to make a set of custom tags that encapsulate form elements (markup and validation). There's a method given to retrieve the "Out" object easily: JspWriter out = getJspContext().getOut(); However I can't figure out how to get the request object. I want to be able to directly access the submitted form values from within the Tag class so that I can validate each field. The documentation is quite sparse, so I thought maybe I could use the JspContext object to somehow get the request attributes. But I don't understand the different scopes. System.out.println(getJspContext().findAttribute("field1")); always prints "null". Enumeration e = getJspContext().getAttributeNamesInScope(1); Looping through and printing out the enumeration just gives me a list of classes that don't exist: javax.servlet.jsp.jspOut javax.servlet.jsp.jspPage javax.servlet.jsp.jspSession javax.servlet.jsp.jspApplication javax.servlet.jsp.jspPageContext javax.servlet.jsp.jspConfig javax.servlet.jsp.jspResponse javax.servlet.jsp.jspRequest So is this even possible? If not, could anyone point me to a tag library that deals with form display and validation? I searched the internet for a couple hours and it seemed every single one was discontinued and I couldn't download them. Either that or suggest a better alternative for handling forms.

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  • Updating Workflow Task without Correlation Token

    - by Khurram Aziz
    I have inhertied a sequential sharepoint workflow which deals with multiple tasks for different people; multi step approval based on certain condition..For each approval new task is created and monitored...For some reason; we have decided to use single task for the whole workflow and the single task will get assigned to required person at different stages...this will help us reduce the cluter in the task list For refactoring it; I am trying to create "CreateOrUpdateTaskAndWaitForCompletition" activity...so that I can use this component multiple times as per given workflow. Create/Wait branch of my activity works fine; as I have the correlation token within the activity. But when I try two instances of this activity; task is created in first activity and it needs to be updated in second instance where I dont have the correlation token. In the second instance; (Update/Wait branch) I have tried updating the task through code activity but its not working and I am getting "This task is currently locked by a running workflow and cannot be edited" exception! Can I use UpdateTask activity without correlation token? Can I programmatically update the workflow task? Can I programmatically unlock the workflow task?

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  • OrientationEventListener not working properly

    - by nixau
    Hi all, I need to handle orientation changes in my Android application. For this purpose I decided to use OrientationEventListener convenience class. But his callback method is given somewhat strange behavior. My application starts in the portrait mode and then eventually switches to the lanscape one. I have some custom code executing in the callback onOrientationChanged method that provides some additional UI handling logic - it has a few calls to findViewById. What is strange is that when switching back from landscape to portrait mode onOrientationChanged callback is called twice, and what's even worse - the second call is dealing with bad Context - findViewById method starts returning null. These calls are made right from the MainThread @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); listener = new OrientationListener(); } @Override protected void onResume() { super.onResume(); // enabling listening listener.enable(); } @Override protected void onPause() { super.onPause(); // disabling listening listener.disable(); } I've replicated the same behavior with a dummy Activity without any logic except for one that deals with orientation hadling. I initiate orientation switch from the Android 2.2 emulator by pressing Ctrl+F11 What could be wrong? Upd: Inner class that implements OrientationEventListener private class OrientationListener extends OrientationEventListener { public OrientationL() { super(getBaseContext()); } @Override public void onOrientationChanged(int orientation) { toString(); } } }

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  • WPF Style Override breaks Validation Error event propagation

    - by Ben McMillan
    I have a custom control that overrides Window: public class Window : System.Windows.Window { static Window() { DefaultStyleKeyProperty.OverrideMetadata(typeof(Window), new System.Windows.FrameworkPropertyMetadata(typeof(Window))); } ... } It also has a style: <Style TargetType="{x:Type Controls:Window}" BasedOn="{StaticResource {x:Type Window}}"> <Setter Property="WindowStyle" Value="None" /> <Setter Property="Padding" Value="5" /> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type Controls:Window}"> ... Unfortunately, this breaks the propagation of the Validation.ErrorEvent for my window's contents. That is, my window can receive the event just fine, but I don't know what to do with it to mimic how a standard Window (or whoever) deals with it. If the validating controls are placed in a standard window, they work. They also work if I just take out the OverrideMetadata call (leaving them inside my custom window). Why is this happening, and how can I get the stock functionality for handling these validation error events working again? Thanks!

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  • Using NSNumberFormatter to get a decimal value from an international currency string

    - by Duncan A
    It seems that the NSNumberFormatter can't parse Euro (and probably other) currency strings into a numerical type. Can someone please prove me wrong. I'm attempting to use the following to get a numeric amount from a currency string: NSNumberFormatter *currencyFormatter = [[[NSNumberFormatter alloc] init] autorelease]; [currencyFormatter setNumberStyle:NSNumberFormatterCurrencyStyle]; NSNumber *currencyNumber = [currencyFormatter numberFromString:currencyString]; This works fine for UK and US currency amounts. It even deals with $ and £ and thousands separators with no problems. However, when I use it with euro currency amounts (with the Region Format set to France or Germany in the settings app) it returns an empty string. All of the following strings fail: 12,34 € 12,34 12.345,67 € 12.345,67 It's worth noting that these strings match exactly what comes out of the NSNumberFormatter's stringFromNumber method when using the corresponding locale. Setting the Region Format to France in the settings app, then setting currencyNumber to 12.34 in the following code, results in currencyString being set to '12,34 €' : NSNumberFormatter *currencyFormatter = [[[NSNumberFormatter alloc] init] autorelease]; [currencyFormatter setNumberStyle:NSNumberFormatterCurrencyStyle]; NSString *currencyString = [currencyFormatter stringFromNumber:currencyNumber]; It would obviously be fairly easy to hack around this problem specifically for the Euro but I'm hoping to sell this app in as many countries as possible and I'm thinking that a similar situation is bound to occur with other locales. Does anyone have an answer? TIA, Duncan

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  • Indy Write Buffering / Efficient TCP communication

    - by Smasher
    I know, I'm asking a lot of questions...but as a new delphi developer I keep falling over all these questions :) This one deals with TCP communication using indy 10. To make communication efficient, I code a client operation request as a single byte (in most scenarios followed by other data bytes of course, but in this case only one single byte). Problem is that var Bytes : TBytes; ... SetLength (Bytes, 1); Bytes [0] := OpCode; FConnection.IOHandler.Write (Bytes, 1); ErrorCode := Connection.IOHandler.ReadByte; does not send that byte immediately (at least the servers execute handler is not invoked). If I change the '1' to a '9' for example everything works fine. I assumed that Indy buffers the outgoing bytes and tried to disable write buffering with FConnection.IOHandler.WriteBufferClose; but it did not help. How can I send a single byte and make sure that it is immediatly sent? And - I add another little question here - what is the best way to send an integer using indy? Unfortunately I can't find function like WriteInteger in the IOHandler of TIdTCPServer...and WriteLn (IntToStr (SomeIntVal)) seems not very efficient to me. Does it make a difference whether I use multiple write commands in a row or pack things together in a byte array and send that once? Thanks for any answers! EDIT: I added a hint that I'm using Indy 10 since there seem to be major changes concerning the read and write procedures.

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