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  • QTreeView memory consumption

    - by Eye of Hell
    Hello. I'm testing QTreeView functionality right now, and i was amazed by one thing. It seems that QTreeView memory consumption depends on items count O_O. This is highly unusual, since model-view containers of such type only keeps track for items being displayed, and rest of items are in the model. I have written a following code with a simple model that holds no data and just reports that it has 10 millions items. With MFC, Windows API or .NET tree / list with such model will take no memory, since it will display only 10-20 visible elements and will request model for more upon scrolling / expanding items. But with Qt, such simple model results in ~300Mb memory consumtion. Increasing number of items will increase memory consumption. Maybe anyone can hint me what i'm doing wrong? :) #include <QtGui/QApplication> #include <QTreeView> #include <QAbstractItemModel> class CModel : public QAbstractItemModel { public: QModelIndex index ( int i_nRow, int i_nCol, const QModelIndex& i_oParent = QModelIndex() ) const { return createIndex( i_nRow, i_nCol, 0 ); } public: QModelIndex parent ( const QModelIndex& i_oInex ) const { return QModelIndex(); } public: int rowCount ( const QModelIndex& i_oParent = QModelIndex() ) const { return i_oParent.isValid() ? 0 : 1000 * 1000 * 10; } public: int columnCount ( const QModelIndex& i_oParent = QModelIndex() ) const { return 1; } public: QVariant data ( const QModelIndex& i_oIndex, int i_nRole = Qt::DisplayRole ) const { return Qt::DisplayRole == i_nRole ? QVariant( "1" ) : QVariant(); } }; int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { QApplication a(argc, argv); QTreeView oWnd; CModel oModel; oWnd.setUniformRowHeights( true ); oWnd.setModel( & oModel ); oWnd.show(); return a.exec(); }

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  • ASP.net: Radio Button Not Maintaining Selection After Postback, Inside DIV/Thickbox

    - by jlrolin
    I have a set of radio buttons inside a hidden DIV. <div id="reports" style="display:none;"> <center> <br /> <table cellpadding="4" cellspacing="0"> <tr> <td class="label"> Report Type::&nbsp; </td> <td class="value"> <asp:RadioButton ID="rbReportTypeCust" runat="server" Text="By Customer" Enabled="True" Checked="True" GroupName="rbType" />&nbsp;<asp:RadioButton ID="rbReportTypeProg" runat="server" Text="By Program" Enabled="True" GroupName="rbType" /> </td> </tr> <tr> <td class="label"> Customer:&nbsp; </td> <td class="value"> <asp:DropDownList ID="ddlCustomer" runat="server" /> </td> </tr> <tr> <td class="label"> Program Group::&nbsp; </td> <td class="value"> <asp:DropDownList ID="ddlProgramGroups" runat="server" /> </td> </tr> </table> <br /> <asp:Button ID="btnSubmit" runat="server" Text="Submit" OnClientClick="doPostBack(this);" /> </center> </div> The DIV is displayed using Thickbox as a modal popup. The doPostback javascript function posts the button click back, and hits btnSubmit_Click where a report is then generated. If I see if a radio button is checked, it's always rbReportTypeCust.checked = True, never the rbReportTypeProg.checked = True even if I click it. Any suggestions?

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  • iPhone Image Resources, ICO vs PNG, app bundle filesize

    - by Jasarien
    My application has a collection of around 1940 icons that are used throughout. They're currently in ICO and new images provided to me come in ICO format too. I have noticed that they contain a 16x16 and 32x32 representation of each icon in one file. Each file is roughly 4KB in filesize (as reported by finder, but ls reports that they vary from being ~1000 bytes to 5000 bytes) A very small number of these icons only contain the 32x32 representation, and as a result are only around 700 bytes in size. Currently I am bundling these icons with my application and they are inflating the size of the app a bit more than I would like. Altogether, the images total just about 25.5MB. Xcode must do some kind of compression because the resulting app bundle is about 12.4MB. Compressing this further into a ZIP (as it would be when submitted to the App Store), results in a final file of 5.8MB. I'm aware that the maximum limit for over the air App Store downloads has been raised to 20MB since the introduction of the iPad (I'm not sure if that extends to iPhone apps as well as iPad apps though, if not the limit would be 10MB). My worry is that new icons are going to be added (sometimes up to 10 icons per week), and will continue to inflate the app bundle over time. What is the best way to distribute these icons with my app? Things I've tried and not had much success with: Converting the icons from ICO to PNG: I tried this in the hopes that the pngcrush utility would help out with the filesize. But it appears that it doesn't make much of a difference between a normal PNG and a crushed png (I believe it just optimises the image for display on the iPhone's GPU rather than compress it's size). Also in going from ICO to PNG actually increased the size of the icon file... Zipping the images, and then uncompressing them on first run. While this did reduce the overall image sizes, I found that the effort needed to unzip them, copy them to the documents folder and ensure that duplication doesn't happen on upgrades was too much hassle to be worth the benefit. Also, on original and 3G iPhones unzipping and copying around 25MB of images takes too long and creates a bad experience... Things I've considered but not yet tried: Instead of distributing the icons within the app bundle, host them online, and download each icon on demand (it depends on the user's data as to which icons will actually be displayed and when). Issues with this is that bandwidth costs money, and image downloads will be bandwidth intensive. However, my app currently has a small userbase of around 5,500 users (of which I estimate around 1500 to be active based on Flurry stats), and I have a huge unused bandwidth allowance with my current hosting package. So I'm open to thoughts on how to solve this tricky issue.

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  • Is "Systems Designer" the job title that best describes what I do? [closed]

    - by ivo-rossi
    After having worked as Java developer for almost 3 years in the same company that I currently work at, I moved to a new position associated with the development of the same application. I’m in this new position for more than 1 year now. My official job title is Systems Designer, but I’m not sure this is a title that expresses well what I do. So my question here is what would be the most appropriate job title for me? I see this question as important for my career development. After all, I should be able to explain in one word what I do. And it’s no longer “Java Developer”. Well, in more than one word, this is what I do: The business analysts gather requirements / business problems to be solved with the clients and then discuss these requirements with me. Given the requirements, I design the high level solutions to be implemented in our system (e.g. a new screen on the client application, modifications to existing reports, extension to the XML export format of some objects, etc). I base my decision on the current capabilities of the system, the overall impact that the solutions would have on the system and the estimated effort to implement them (as I was a developer of this same application for almost 3 years before I moved to this position, I’m confident in my estimates). The solutions are discussed iteratively with the business analysts until we agree that they are good. The outcome of this analysis is what we call the “requirements design” document, which is written by me, shared with clients for approval and then also with the team that is going to implement the solutions and test them. Note that there are a few problems that I need to find a solution for that are non-functional. If the users are unhappy with the performance of a certain tool, I will investigate what can be done to speed it up. I will do some research – often based in the Java code itself - to identify possibilities of optimizations. But in this new position I no longer code, the main outcome of my work is really the “requirements design”. Is “Systems Designer” really the most appropriate job title?

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  • can we include maven pmd plugin execution within build goal ?

    - by RN
    Guys, I wanted generate the pmd report while building the project so I have added plugin to build section of my pom.xml but still it don't execute until I explicitly call mvn clean install pmd:pmd. I want to execute it with mvn clean install itself. is it possible ? my pom entries are as under: <build> <plugins> <plugin> <artifactId>maven-pmd-plugin</artifactId> <version>2.4</version> <configuration> <skip>false</skip> <targetJdk>${compile.source}</targetJdk> <rulesets> <ruleset>./current.pmd.rules.xml</ruleset> </rulesets> <excludes> <exclude>com/cm/**/*.java</exclude> <exclude>com/sm/**/*.java</exclude> </excludes> <linkXref>true</linkXref> <failOnViolation>true</failOnViolation> <executions> <execution> <goals> <goal>check</goal> <goal>cpd-check</goal> </goals> </execution> </executions> </configuration> </plugin> <plugin> <groupId>org.apache.maven.plugins</groupId> <artifactId>maven-jxr-plugin</artifactId> </plugin> <plugin> <artifactId>maven-project-info-reports-plugin</artifactId> <version>2.0.1</version> </plugin> </plugins> </build> Thanks in advance.

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  • Call phpexcel from joomla

    - by Oscar Calderon
    i have a problem about phpexcel and joomla. I'm developing some filter form to load excel reports, so i used phpexcel library to do this. Right now i have only a report, it works fine, but after that i upload inside joomla using PHP pages component that allows me to put php files inside joomla and call it. When i put them, i change a little bit the form that calls the php that generates the excel report, i call the php using a link like this: h**p://www.whiblix.com/index.php?option=com_php&Itemid=24 That is, calling it from Joomla, not directly the php. If i wanna call the php directly i could use this path: h**p://www.whiblix.com/components/com_php/files/repImportaciones.php What's the problem? The problem is, when i call the php that generates the excel through joomla, the excel that is downloaded is corrupt and only shows symbols in one cell when i open it. But if i call the php directly the report is generated fine. I could call the php directly, the problem is that if i call it directly i can't use this line of code: defined( '_JEXEC' ) or die( 'Restricted access' ); That is used to deny the direct access to php from call it directly, because it doesn' work because the security. Where's the problem? This is the code of php that generates the report (ommiting the code where generates the rows and cells): <?php //defined( '_JEXEC' ) or die( 'Restricted access' ); /** Error reporting */ error_reporting(E_ALL); date_default_timezone_set('Europe/London'); require_once 'Classes/PHPExcel.php'; // Create new PHPExcel object $objPHPExcel = new PHPExcel(); // Set properties $objPHPExcel->getProperties()->setCreator("Maarten Balliauw") ->setLastModifiedBy("Maarten Balliauw") ->setTitle("Office 2007 XLSX Test Document") ->setSubject("Office 2007 XLSX Test Document") ->setDescription("Test document for Office 2007 XLSX, generated using PHP classes.") ->setKeywords("office 2007 openxml php") ->setCategory("Test result file"); // Rename sheet $objPHPExcel->getActiveSheet()->setTitle('Reporte de Importaciones'); // Set active sheet index to the first sheet, so Excel opens this as the first sheet $objPHPExcel->setActiveSheetIndex(0); // Redirect output to a client’s web browser (Excel5) header('Content-Type: application/vnd.ms-excel'); header('Content-Disposition: attachment;filename="repPrueba.xls"'); header('Cache-Control: max-age=0'); $objWriter = PHPExcel_IOFactory::createWriter($objPHPExcel, 'Excel5'); $objWriter->save('php://output'); exit;

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  • Trouble passing a string as a SQLite ExecSQL command

    - by Hackbrew
    I keep getting the ERROR: near "PassWord": syntax error when trying to execute the ExecSQL() statement. The command looks good in the output of the text file. In fact, I copied & pasted the command directly into SQLite Database Browser and the commend executed properly. Here's the code that's producing the error: procedure TForm1.Button1Click(Sender: TObject); var i, iFieldSize: integer; sFieldName, sFieldType, sFieldList, sExecSQL: String; names: TStringList; f1: Textfile; begin //Open Source table - Table1 has 8 fields but has only two different field types ftString and Boolean Table1.TableName:= 'PWFile'; Table1.Open; //FDConnection1.ExecSQL('drop table PWFile'); sFieldList := ''; names := TStringList.Create; for i := 0 to Table1.FieldCount - 1 do begin sFieldName := Table1.FieldDefList.FieldDefs[i].Name; sFieldType := GetEnumName(TypeInfo(TFieldType),ord(Table1.FieldDefList.FieldDefs[i].DataType)); iFieldSize := Table1.FieldDefList.FieldDefs[i].Size; if sFieldType = 'ftString' then sFieldType := 'NVARCHAR' + '(' + IntToStr(iFieldSize) + ')'; if sFieldType = 'ftBoolean' then sFieldType := 'INTEGER'; names.Add(sFieldName + ' ' + sFieldType); if sFieldList = '' then sFieldList := sFieldName + ' ' + sFieldType else sFieldList := sFieldList + ', ' + sFieldName + ' ' + sFieldType; end; ListBox1.Items.Add(sFieldList); sExecSQL := 'create table IF NOT EXISTS PWFile (' + sFieldList + ')'; // 08/18/2014 - Entered this to log the SQLite FDConnection1.ExecSQL Command to a file AssignFile(f1, 'C:\Users\Test User\Documents\SQLite_Command.txt'); Rewrite(f1); Writeln(f1, sExecSQL); { insert code here that would require a Flush before closing the file } Flush(f1); { ensures that the text was actually written to file } CloseFile(f1); FDConnection1.ExecSQL(sFieldList); Table1.Close; end; Here's the actual command that gets executed: create table IF NOT EXISTS PWFile (PassWord NVARCHAR(10), PassName NVARCHAR(10), Dept NVARCHAR(10), Active NVARCHAR(1), Admin INTEGER, Shred INTEGER, Reports INTEGER, Maintain INTEGER)

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  • Running out of memory.. How?

    - by maxdj
    I'm attempting to write a solver for a particular puzzle. It tries to find a solution by trying every possible move one at a time until it finds a solution. The first version tried to solve it depth-first by continually trying moves until it failed, then backtracking, but this turned out to be too slow. I have rewritten it to be breadth-first using a queue structure, but I'm having problems with memory management. Here are the relevant parts: int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { ... int solved = 0; do { solved = solver(queue); } while (!solved && !pblListIsEmpty(queue)); ... } int solver(PblList *queue) { state_t *state = (state_t *) pblListPoll(queue); if (is_solution(state->pucks)) { print_solution(state); return 1; } state_t *state_cp; puck new_location; for (int p = 0; p < puck_count; p++) { for (dir i = NORTH; i <= WEST; i++) { if (!rules(state->pucks, p, i)) continue; new_location = in_dir(state->pucks, p, i); if (new_location.x != -1) { state_cp = (state_t *) malloc(sizeof(state_t)); state_cp->move.from = state->pucks[p]; state_cp->move.direction = i; state_cp->prev = state; state_cp->pucks = (puck *) malloc (puck_count * sizeof(puck)); memcpy(state_cp->pucks, state->pucks, puck_count * sizeof(puck)); /*CRASH*/ state_cp->pucks[p] = new_location; pblListPush(queue, state_cp); } } } return 0; } When I run it I get the error: ice(90175) malloc: *** mmap(size=2097152) failed (error code=12) *** error: can't allocate region *** set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug Bus error The error happens around iteration 93,000. From what I can tell, the error message is from malloc failing, and the bus error is from the memcpy after it. I have a hard time believing that I'm running out of memory, since each game state is only ~400 bytes. Yet that does seem to be what's happening, seeing as the activity monitor reports that it is using 3.99GB before it crashes. I'm using http://www.mission-base.com/peter/source/ for the queue structure (it's a linked list). Clearly I'm doing something dumb. Any suggestions?

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  • Debugging a basic OpenGL texture fail? (iphone)

    - by Ben
    Hey all, I have a very basic texture map problem in GL on iPhone, and I'm wondering what strategies there are for debugging this kind of thing. (Frankly, just staring at state machine calls and wondering if any of them is wrong or misordered is no way to live-- are there tools for this?) I have a 512x512 PNG file that I'm loading up from disk (not specially packed), creating a CGBitmapContext, then calling CGContextDrawImage to get bytes out of it. (This code is essentially stolen from an Apple sample.) I'm trying to map the texture to a "quad", with code that looks essentially like this-- all flat 2D stuff, nothing fancy: glEnable(GL_TEXTURE_2D); glTexEnvf(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_TEXTURE_ENV_MODE, GL_MODULATE); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_S, GL_REPEAT); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_T, GL_REPEAT); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_MAG_FILTER, GL_LINEAR); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_MIN_FILTER, GL_LINEAR); glEnableClientState(GL_TEXTURE_COORD_ARRAY); GLfloat vertices[8] = { viewRect.origin.x, viewRect.size.height, viewRect.origin.x, viewRect.origin.y, viewRect.size.width, viewRect.origin.y, viewRect.size.width, viewRect.size.height }; GLfloat texCoords[8] = { 0, 1.0, 0, 0, 1.0, 0, 1.0, 1.0 }; glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, myTextureRef); // This was previously bound to glVertexPointer(2, GL_FLOAT , 0, vertices); glTexCoordPointer(2, GL_FLOAT, 0, texCoords); glDrawArrays(GL_TRIANGLE_FAN, 0, 4); glDisableClientState(GL_TEXTURE_COORD_ARRAY); glDisable(GL_TEXTURE_2D); My supposedly textured area comes out just black. I see no debug output from the CG calls to set up the texture. glGetError reports nothing. If I simplify this code block to just draw the verts, but set up a pure color, the quad area lights up exactly as expected. If I clear the whole context immediately beforehand to red, I don't see the red-- which means something is being rendered there, but not the contents of my PNG. What could I be doing wrong? And more importantly, what are the right tools and techniques for debugging this sort of thing, because running into this kind of problem and not being able to "step through it" in a debugger in any meaningful way is a bummer. Thanks!

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  • Rails send mail with GMail

    - by Danny McClelland
    Hi Everyone, I am on rails 2.3.5 and have the latest Ruby installed and my application is running well, except, GMail emails. I am trying to setup my gmail imap connection which has worked previously but now doesnt want to know. This is my code: # Be sure to restart your server when you modify this file # Uncomment below to force Rails into production mode when # you don't control web/app server and can't set it the proper way # ENV['RAILS_ENV'] ||= 'production' # Specifies gem version of Rails to use when vendor/rails is not present RAILS_GEM_VERSION = '2.3.5' unless defined? RAILS_GEM_VERSION # Bootstrap the Rails environment, frameworks, and default configuration require File.join(File.dirname(__FILE__), 'boot') Rails::Initializer.run do |config| # Gems config.gem "capistrano-ext", :lib => "capistrano" config.gem "configatron" # Make Time.zone default to the specified zone, and make Active Record store time values # in the database in UTC, and return them converted to the specified local zone. config.time_zone = "London" # The internationalization framework can be changed to have another default locale (standard is :en) or more load paths. # All files from config/locales/*.rb,yml are added automatically. # config.i18n.load_path << Dir[File.join(RAILS_ROOT, 'my', 'locales', '*.{rb,yml}')] #config.i18n.default_locale = :de # Your secret key for verifying cookie session data integrity. # If you change this key, all old sessions will become invalid! # Make sure the secret is at least 30 characters and all random, # no regular words or you'll be exposed to dictionary attacks. config.action_controller.session = { :session_key => '_base_session', :secret => '7389ea9180b15f1495a5e73a69a893311f859ccff1ffd0fa2d7ea25fdf1fa324f280e6ba06e3e5ba612e71298d8fbe7f15fd7da2929c45a9c87fe226d2f77347' } config.active_record.observers = :user_observer end ActiveSupport::CoreExtensions::Date::Conversions::DATE_FORMATS.merge!(:default => '%d/%m/%Y') ActiveSupport::CoreExtensions::Time::Conversions::DATE_FORMATS.merge!(:default => '%d/%m/%Y') require "will_paginate" ActionMailer::Base.delivery_method = :smtp ActionMailer::Base.smtp_settings = { :enable_starttls_auto => true, :address => "smtp.gmail.com", :port => 587, :domain => "XXXXXXXX.XXX", :authentication => :plain, :user_name => "XXXXXXXXXX.XXXXXXXXXX.XXX", :password => "XXXXX" } But the above just results in an SMTP auth error in the production log. I have read varied reports of this not working in Rails 2.2.2 but nothing for 2.3.5, anyone got any ideas? Thanks, Danny

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  • What classes should I map against with NHibernate?

    - by apollodude217
    Currently, we use NHibernate to map business objects to database tables. Said business objects enforce business rules: The set accessors will throw an exception on the spot if the contract for that property is violated. Also, the properties enforce relationships with other objects (sometimes bidirectional!). Well, whenever NHibernate loads an object from the database (e.g. when ISession.Get(id) is called), the set accessors of the mapped properties are used to put the data into the object. What's good is that the middle tier of the application enforces business logic. What's bad is that the database does not. Sometimes crap finds its way into the database. If crap is loaded into the application, it bails (throws an exception). Sometimes it clearly should bail because it cannot do anything, but what if it can continue working? E.g., an admin tool that gathers real-time reports runs a high risk of failing unnecessarily instead of allowing an admin to even fix a (potential) problem. I don't have an example on me right now, but in some instances, letting NHibernate use the "front door" properties that also enforce relationships (especially bidi) leads to bugs. What are the best solutions? Currently, I will, on a per-property basis, create a "back door" just for NHibernate: public virtual int Blah {get {return _Blah;} set {/*enforces BR's*/}} protected virtual int _Blah {get {return blah;} set {blah = value;}} private int blah; I showed the above in C# 2 (no default properties) to demonstrate how this gets us basically 3 layers of, or views, to blah!!! While this certainly works, it does not seem ideal as it requires the BL to provide one (public) interface for the app-at-large, and another (protected) interface for the data access layer. There is an additional problem: To my knowledge, NHibernate does not give you a way to distinguish between the name of the property in the BL and the name of the property in the entity model (i.e. the name you use when you query, e.g. via HQL--whenever you give NHibernate the name (string) of a property). This becomes a problem when, at first, the BR's for some property Blah are no problem, so you refer to it in your O/R mapping... but then later, you have to add some BR's that do become a problem, so then you have to change your O/R mapping to use a new _Blah property, which breaks all existing queries using "Blah" (common problem with programming against strings). Has anyone solved these problems?!

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  • CTE Join query issues

    - by Lee_McIntosh
    Hi everyone, this problem has me head going round in circles at the moment and i wondering if anyone could give any pointers as to where im going wrong. Im trying to produce a SPROC that produces a dataset to be called by SSRS for graphs spanning the last 6 months. The data for example purposes uses three tables (theres more but the it wont change the issue at hand) and are as follows: tbl_ReportList: Report Site ---------------- North abc North def East bbb East ccc East ddd South poa South pob South poc South pod West xyz tbl_TicketsRaisedThisMonth: Date Site Type NoOfTickets --------------------------------------------------------- 2010-07-01 00:00:00.000 abc Support 101 2010-07-01 00:00:00.000 abc Complaint 21 2010-07-01 00:00:00.000 def Support 6 ... 2010-12-01 00:00:00.000 abc Support 93 2010-12-01 00:00:00.000 xyz Support 5 tbl_FeedBackRequests: Date Site NoOfFeedBackR ---------------------------------------------------------------- 2010-07-01 00:00:00.000 abc 101 2010-07-01 00:00:00.000 def 11 ... 2010-12-01 00:00:00.000 abc 63 2010-12-01 00:00:00.000 xyz 4 I'm using CTE's to simplify the code, which is as follows: DECLARE @ReportName VarChar(200) SET @ReportName = 'North'; WITH TicketsRaisedThisMonth AS ( SELECT [Date], Site, SUM(NoOfTickets) AS NoOfTickets FROM tbl_TicketsRaisedThisMonth WHERE [Date] >= DATEADD(mm, DATEDIFF(m,0,GETDATE())-6,0) GROUP BY [Date], Site ), FeedBackRequests AS ( SELECT [Date], Site, SUM(NoOfFeedBackR) AS NoOfFeedBackR FROM tbl_FeedBackRequests WHERE [Date] >= DATEADD(mm, DATEDIFF(m,0,GETDATE())-6,0) GROUP BY [Date], Site ), SELECT trtm.[Date] SUM(trtm.NoOfTickets) AS NoOfTickets, SUM(fbr.NoOfFeedBackR) AS NoOfFeedBackR, FROM Reports rpts LEFT OUTER JOIN TotalIncidentsDuringMonth trtm ON rpts.Site = trtm.Site LEFT OUTER JOIN LoggedComplaints fbr ON rpts.Site = fbr.Site WHERE rpts.report = @ReportName GROUP BY trtm.[Date] And the output when the sproc is pass a parameter such as 'North' to be as follows: Date NoOfTickets NoOfFeedBackR ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 2010-07-01 00:00:00.000 128 112 2010-08-01 00:00:00.000 <data for that month> <data for that month> 2010-09-01 00:00:00.000 <data for that month> <data for that month> 2010-10-01 00:00:00.000 <data for that month> <data for that month> 2010-11-01 00:00:00.000 <data for that month> <data for that month> 2010-12-01 00:00:00.000 122 63 The issue I'm having is that when i execute the query I'm given a repeated list of values of each month, such as 128 will repeat 6 times then another value for the next months value repeated 6 times, etc. argh!

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  • How to compute a unicode string which bidirectional representation is specified?

    - by valdo
    Hello, fellows. I have a rather pervert question. Please forgive me :) There's an official algorithm that describes how bidirectional unicode text should be presented. http://www.unicode.org/reports/tr9/tr9-15.html I receive a string (from some 3rd-party source), which contains latin/hebrew characters, as well as digits, white-spaces, punctuation symbols and etc. The problem is that the string that I receive is already in the representation form. I.e. - the sequence of characters that I receive should just be presented from left to right. Now, my goal is to find the unicode string which representation is exactly the same. Means - I need to pass that string to another entity; it would then render this string according to the official algorithm, and the result should be the same. Assuming the following: The default text direction (of the rendering entity) is RTL. I don't want to inject "special unicode characters" that explicitly override the text direction (such as RLO, RLE, etc.) I suspect there may exist several solutions. If so - I'd like to preserve the RTL-looking of the string as much as possible. The string usually consists of hebrew words mostly. I'd like to preserve the correct order of those words, and characters inside those words. Whereas other character sequences may (and should) be transposed. One naive way to solve this is just to swap the whole string (this takes care of the hebrew words), and then swap inside it sequences of non-hebrew characters. This however doesn't always produce correct results, because actual rules of representation are rather complex. The only comprehensive algorithm that I see so far is brute-force check. The string can be divided into sequences of same-class characters. Those sequences may be joined in random order, plus any of them may be reversed. I can check all those combinations to obtain the correct result. Plus this technique may be optimized. For instance the order of hebrew words is known, so we only have to check different combinations of their "joining" sequences. Any better ideas? If you have an idea, not necessarily the whole solution - it's ok. I'll appreciate any idea. Thanks in advance.

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  • Memory leaks getting sub-images from video (cvGetSubRect)

    - by dnul
    Hi, i'm trying to do video windowing that is: show all frames from a video and also some sub-image from each frame. This sub-image can change size and be taken from a different position of the original frame. So , the code i've written does basically this: cvQueryFrame to get a new image from the video Create a new IplImage (img) with sub-image dimensions ( window.height,window.width) Create a new Cvmat (mat) with sub-image dimensions ( window.height,window.width) CvGetSubRect(originalImage,mat,window) seizes the sub-image transform Mat (cvMat) to img (IplImage) using cvGetImage my problem is that for each frame i create new IplImage and cvMat which take a lot of memory and when i try to free the allocated memory I get a segmentation fault or in the case of the CvMat the allocated space does not get free (valgrind keeps telling me its definetly lost space). the following code does it: int main(void){ CvCapture* capture; CvRect window; CvMat * tmp; //window size window.x=0;window.y=0;window.height=100;window.width=100; IplImage * src=NULL,*bk=NULL,* sub=NULL; capture=cvCreateFileCapture( "somevideo.wmv"); while((src=cvQueryFrame(capture))!=NULL){ cvShowImage("common",src); //get sub-image sub=cvCreateImage(cvSize(window.height,window.width),8,3); tmp =cvCreateMat(window.height, window.width,CV_8UC1); cvGetSubRect(src, tmp , window); sub=cvGetImage(tmp, sub); cvShowImage("Window",sub); //free space if(bk!=NULL) cvReleaseImage(&bk); bk=sub; cvReleaseMat(&tmp); cvWaitKey(20); //window dimensions changes window.width++; window.height++; } } cvReleaseMat(&tmp); does not seem to have any effect on the total amount of lost memory, valgrind reports the same amount of "definetly lost" memory if i comment or uncomment this line. cvReleaseImage(&bk); produces a segmentation fault. notice i'm trying to free the previous sub-frame which i'm backing up in the bk variable. If i comment this line the program runs smoothly but with lots of memory leaks I really need to get rid of memory leaks, can anyone explain me how to correct this or even better how to correctly perform image windowing? Thank you

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  • Database schema for simple stats project

    - by Bubnoff
    Backdrop: I have a file hierarchy of cvs files for multiple locations named by dates they cover ...by month specifically. Each cvs file in the folder is named after the location. eg', folder name: 2010-feb contains: location1.csv location2.csv Each CSV file holds records like this: 2010-06-28, 20:30:00 , 0 2010-06-29, 08:30:00 , 0 2010-06-29, 09:30:00 , 0 2010-06-29, 10:30:00 , 0 2010-06-29, 11:30:00 , 0 meaning of record columns ( column names ): Date, time, # of sessions I have a perl script that pulls the data from this mess and originally I was going to store it as json files, but am thinking a database might be more appropriate long term ...comparing year to year trends ...fun stuff like that. Pt 2 - My question/problem: So I now have a REST service that coughs up json with a test database. My question is [ I suck at db design ], how best to design a database backend for this? I am thinking the following tables would suffice and keep it simple: Location: (PK)location_code, name session: (PK)id, (FK)location_code, month, hour, num_sessions I need to be able to average sessions (plus min and max) for each hour across days of week in addition to days of week in a given month or months. I've been using perl hashes to do this and am trying to decide how best to implement this with a database. Do you think stored procedures should be used? As to the database, depending on info gathered here, it will be postgresql or sqlite. If there is no compelling reason for postgresql I'll stick with sqlite. How and where should I compare the data to hours of operation. I am storing the hours of operation in a yaml file. I currently 'match' the hour in the data to a hash from the yaml to do this. Would a database open simpler methods? I am thinking I would do this comparison as I do now then insert the data. Can be recalled with: SELECT hour, num_sessions FROM session WHERE location_code=LOC1 Since only hours of operation are present, I do not need to worry about it. Should I calculate all results as I do now then store as a stats table for different 'reports'? This, rather than processing on demand? How would this look? Anyway ...I ramble. Thanks for reading! Bubnoff

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  • jQuery ajax multiline "script" response

    - by Rendrik
    I'm designing a template creation tool, which uses a jQuery Ajax request that posts parameters to a PHP file. The PHP does the actual generation of the template's HTML. // Send for processing. Expect JS back to execute. function generate() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "generate.php", data: $('#genform :input').serialize(), dataType: "script", beforeSend: function() { $("#loading").html("<img src='images/loadbar.gif' />"); $("#loading") .dialog({ height: 80, width: 256, autoOpen: true, modal: true }); }, success: function(data) { $("#loading").dialog('close'); } }); } My trouble is that I have the ajax dataType: set to "script". Using this, the PHP file generates some jQuery dialogs for any errors which works nicely. However, after I generate the HTML, i'm having trouble passing it back. So I have probably 100 lines of generated HTML and javascript which i'd like to work with. In the PHP file, i've tried: echo('$("#result").html("'.$html.'");'); This does actually work if there are NO line breaks in $html. As soon as there are any line breaks, the Chrome debugger reports "gen.html:1 Uncaught SyntaxError: Unexpected token ILLEGAL". It's obvious that it's trying to eval the returned response headers, but is stopping at any line break. So, to be clear, when I pass $html back, if the contents are this: $html = "<div>hi there</div>"; It works fine (all of my error message dialogs are one line). But if it's: $html = "<div> hi there </div>"; It blows up. I'm really not sure how to get around this, or if there's a better way to go about it. It's important to me to keep the formatting so people can copy the HTML template. I may just break down and display the template file on the PHP page if I can't solve this, but I was really hoping to keep everything within the confines of the HTML page.

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  • Linux, GNU GCC, ld, version scripts and the ELF binary format -- How does it work??

    - by themoondothshine
    Hey all, I'm trying to learn more about library versioning in Linux and how to put it all to work. Here's the context: -- I have two versions of a dynamic library which expose the same set of interfaces, say libsome1.so and libsome2.so. -- An application is linked against libsome1.so. -- This application uses libdl.so to dynamically load another module, say libmagic.so. -- Now libmagic.so is linked against libsome2.so. Obviously, without using linker scripts to hide symbols in libmagic.so, at run-time all calls to interfaces in libsome2.so are resolved to libsome1.so. This can be confirmed by checking the value returned by libVersion() against the value of the macro LIB_VERSION. -- So I try next to compile and link libmagic.so with a linker script which hides all symbols except 3 which are defined in libmagic.so and are exported by it. This works... Or at least libVersion() and LIB_VERSION values match (and it reports version 2 not 1). -- However, when some data structures are serialized to disk, I noticed some corruption. In the application's directory if I delete libsome1.so and create a soft link in its place to point to libsome2.so, everything works as expected and the same corruption does not happen. I can't help but think that this may be caused due to some conflict in the run-time linker's resolution of symbols. I've tried many things, like trying to link libsome2.so so that all symbols are alised to symbol@@VER_2 (which I am still confused about because the command nm -CD libsome2.so still lists symbols as symbol and not symbol@@VER_2)... Nothing seems to work!!! Help!!!!!! Edit: I should have mentioned it earlier, but the app in question is Firefox, and libsome1.so is libsqlite3.so shipped with it. I don't quite have the option of recompiling them. Also, using version scripts to hide symbols seems to be the only solution right now. So what really happens when symbols are hidden? Do they become 'local' to the SO? Does rtld have no knowledge of their existence? What happens when an exported function refers to a hidden symbol?

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  • How do I map a one-to-one value type association in an joined-subclass?

    - by David Rubin
    I've got a class hierarchy mapped using table-per-subclass, and it's been working out great: class BasicReport { ... } class SpecificReport : BasicReport { ... } With mappings: <class name="BasicReport" table="reports"> <id name="Id" column="id">...</id> <!-- some common properties --> </class> <joined-subclass name="SpecificReport" table="specificReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <!-- some special properties --> </joined-subclass> So far, so good. The problem I'm struggling with is how to add a property to one of my subclasses that's both a value type for which I have an IUserType implemented and also mapped via an association: class OtherReport : BasicReport { public SpecialValue V { get; set; } } class SpecialValueUserType : IUserType { ... } What I'd like to do is: <joined-subclass name="OtherReport" table="otherReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <join table="rptValues" fetch="join"> <key column="rptId"/> <property name="V" column="value" type="SpecialValueUserType"/> </join> </joined-subclass> This accurately reflects the intent, and the pre-existing database schema I'm tied to: the SpecialValue instance is a property of the OtherReport, but is stored in a separate table ("rptValues"). Unfortunately, it seems as though I can't do this, because <join> elements can't be used in <joined-subclass> mappings. <one-to-one> would require creating a class mapping for SpecialValue, which doesn't make any sense given that SpecialValue is just a meaningful scalar. So what can I do? Do I have any options? Right now I'm playing a game with sets: class OtherReport : BasicReport { public SpecialValue V { get { return _values.Count() > 0 ? _values.First() : null; } set { _values.Clear(); _values.Add(value); } } private ICollection<SpecialValue> _values; } With mapping: <joined-subclass name="OtherReport" table="otherReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <set name="_values" access="field" table="rptValues" cascade="all-delete-orphan"> <key column="rptId" /> <element column="value" type="SpecialValueUserType"/> </set> </joined-subclass> Thanks in advance for the help! I've been banging my head into my desk for several days now.

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  • Remove specific definitions from a variable in PHP

    - by Amit
    Hi everyone, I have a PHP mail script that validates name, email address, and phone number before sending the mail. This then means that the Name, Email address, and Phone fields are Required Fields. I want to have it so that the Name and EITHER Email or Phone are required. Such that if a name and phone are inputted, it sends the mail, or if a name and an email are inputted, it also sends the email. The way the script works right now is it has several IF statements that check for (1) name, (2) email and (3) phone. Here's an example of an if statement of the code: if ( ($email == "") ) { $errors .= $emailError; // no email address entered $email_error = true; } if ( !(preg_match($match,$email)) ) { $errors .= $invalidEmailError; // checks validity of email $email_error = true; } And here's how it sends the mail: if ( !($errors) ) { mail ($to, $subject, $message, $headers); echo "<p id='correct'>"; echo "?????? ????? ??????!"; echo "</p>"; } else { if (($email_error == true)) { $errors != $phoneError; /*echo "<p id='errors'>"; echo $errors; echo "</p>";*/ } if (($phone_error == true)) { $errors != $emailError; $errors != $invalidEmailError; /*echo "<p id='errors'>"; echo $errors; echo "</p>";*/ } echo "<p id='errors'>"; echo $errors; echo "</p>"; } This doesn't work though. Basically this is what I want to do: If no email address was entered or if it was entered incorrectly, set a variable called $email_error to be true. Then check for that variable, and if it's true, then remove the $phoneError part of the $errors variable. Man I hope I'm making some sense here. Does anyone know why this doesn't work? It reports all errors if all fields are left empty :( Thanks! Amit

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  • SQL not yielding expected results

    - by AnonJr
    I have three tables related to this particular query: Lawson_Employees: LawsonID (pk), LastName, FirstName, AccCode (numeric) Lawson_DeptInfo: AccCode (pk), AccCode2 (don't ask, HR set up), DisplayName tblExpirationDates: EmpID (pk), ACLS (date), EP (date), CPR (date), CPR_Imported (date), PALS (date), Note The goal is to get the data I need to report on all those who have already expired in one or more certification, or are going to expire in the next 90 days. Some important notes: This is being run as part of a vbScript, so the 90-day date is being calculated when the script is run. I'm using 2010-08-31 as a placeholder since its the result at the time this question is being posted. All cards expire at the end of the month. (which is why the above date is for the end of August and not 90 days on the dot) A valid EP card supersedes ACLS certification, but only the latter is required of some employees. (wasn't going to worry about it until I got this question answered, but if I can get the help I'll take it) The CPR column contains the expiration date for the last class they took with us. (NULL if they didn't take any classes with us) The CPR_Imported column contains the expiration date for the last class they took somewhere else. (NULL if they didn't take it elsewhere, and bravo for following policy) The distinction between CPR classes is important for other reports. For purposes of this report, all we really care about is which one is the most current - or at least is currently current. If I have to, I'll ignore ACLS and PALS for the time being as it is non-compliance with CPR training that is the big issue at the moment. (not that the others won't be, but they weren't mentioned in the last meeting...) Here's the query I have so far, which is giving me good data: SELECT iEmp.LawsonID, iEmp.LastName, iEmp.FirstName, dept.AccCode2, dept.DisplayName, Exp.ACLS, Exp.EP, Exp.CPR, Exp.CPR_Imported, Exp.PALS, Exp.Note FROM (Lawson_Employees AS iEmp LEFT JOIN Lawson_DeptInfo AS dept ON dept.AccCode = iEmp.AccCode) LEFT JOIN tblExpirationDates AS Exp ON iEmp.LawsonID = Exp.EmpID WHERE iEmp.CurrentEmp = 1 AND ((Exp.ACLS <= #2010-08-31# AND Exp.ACLS IS NOT NULL) OR (Exp.CPR <= #2010-08-31# AND Exp.CPR_Imported <= #2010-08-31#) OR (Exp.PALS <= #2010-08-31# AND Exp.PALS IS NOT NULL)) ORDER BY dept.AccCode2, iEmp.LastName, iEmp.FirstName; After perusing the result set, I think I'm missing some expiration dates that should be in the result set. Am I missing something? This is the sucky part of being the only developer in the department... no one to ask for a little help.

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  • How to use jaxb_commons plugins from maven

    - by user243155
    I'm trying to use a jaxb plugin to insert a interface into a choice element generating the classes from maven. The problem is that I can't seem to figure out how to do so from maven, the repository isn't clear from the documentation and the only example (bellow) doesn't work, it seems to ignore the plugin (maven reports no error about not finding it) or the plugin doesn't have all the adds-ons currently listed in the project documentation: <plugin> <groupId>org.jvnet.jaxb2.maven2</groupId> <artifactId>maven-jaxb2-plugin</artifactId> <version>0.6.1</version> <executions> <execution> <goals> <goal>generate</goal> </goals> </execution> </executions> <configuration> <generatePackage>br.com.wonder.nfe.xml</generatePackage> <args> <arg>-Xifins</arg> </args> <plugins> <plugin> <groupId>org.jvnet.jaxb2_commons</groupId> <artifactId>basic</artifactId> <version>0.4.1.5</version> </plugin> </plugins> </configuration> </plugin> I have these in the root pom: <pluginRepositories> <pluginRepository> <id>maven2-repository.dev.java.net</id> <url>http://download.java.net/maven/2</url> </pluginRepository> <pluginRepository> <id>maven-repository.dev.java.net</id> <name>Java.net Maven 1 Repository (legacy)</name> <url>http://download.java.net/maven/1</url> <layout>legacy</layout> </pluginRepository> </pluginRepositories> Running that gives: Error while setting CmdLine options '[-Xifins, -episode, /home/administrador/JavaApp/wnfe3/wnfe-ejb/target/generated-sources/xjc/META-INF/sun-jaxb.episode]'! Embedded error: unrecognized parameter -Xifins

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  • Architecture Suggestions/Recommendations for a Web Application with Sub-Apps

    - by user579218
    Hello. I’m starting to plan an architecture for a big web application, and I wanted to get suggestions and/or recommendations on where to begin and which technologies and/or frameworks to use. The application will be an Intranet-based web site using Windows authentication, running on IIS and using SQL Server and ASP.NET. It’ll need to be structured as a main/shell application with sub-applications that are “pluggable” based on some configuration settings. The main or shell application is to provide the overall user interface structure – header/footer, dynamically built tabs for each available sub-app, and a content area in which the sub-application will be loaded when the user clicks on the sub-application’s tab. So, on start-up of the main/shell application, configuration information will be queried from a database, and, based on the user and which of the sub-apps are available, the main or shell app would dynamically build tabs (or buttons or something) as a way to access each individual application. On start-up, the content area will be populated with the “home” sub-app. But, clicking on an sub-app tab will cause the content area to be populated with the sub-app corresponding to the tab. For example, we’re going to have a reports application, a display application, and probably a couple other distinct applications. On startup of the main/shell application, after determining who the user is, the main app will query the database to determine which sub-apps the user can use and build out the UI. Then the user can navigate between available sub-apps and do their work in each. Finally, the entire app and all sub-apps need to be a layered design with presentation, service, business, and data access layers, as well as cross-cutting objects for things such as logging, exception handling, etc. Anyway, my questions revolve around where to begin to plan something like this application. What technologies/frameworks would work best in developing a solution for this application? MVC? MVP? WCSF? EF? NHibernate? Enterprise Library? Repository Pattern? Others???? I know all these technologies/frameworks are not used for the same purpose, but knowing which ones to focus on is a little overwhelming. Which ones would be the best choice(s) for a solution? Which ones work well together for an end-to-end design? How would one structure the VS project for something like this? Thanks!

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  • Marionette js itemview not defined: then on browser refresh it is defined and all works well - race condition?

    - by Robert
    Yeah it's just the initial browser load or two after a cache clear. Subsequent refreshes clear the problem up. I'm thinking the item views just aren't fully constructed in time to be used in the collection views on the first load. But then they are on a refresh? Don't know. There must be something about the code sequence or loading or the load time itself. Not sure. I'm loading via require.js. Have two collections - users and messages. Each renders in its own list view. Each works, just not the first time or two the browser loads. The first time you load after clearing browser cache the console reports, for instance: "Uncaught ReferenceError: MessageItemView is not defined" A simple browser refresh clears it up. Same goes for the user collection. It's collection view says it doesn't know anything about its item view. But a simple browser refresh and all is well. My views (item and collection) are in separate files. Is that the problem? For instance, here is my message collection view in its own file: messagelistview.js var MessageListView = Marionette.CollectionView.extend({ itemView: MessageItemView, el: $("#messages") }); And the message item view is in a separate file: messageview.js var MessageItemView = Marionette.ItemView.extend({ tagName: "div", template: Handlebars.compile( '<div>{{fromUserName}}:</div>' + '<div>{{message}}</div>' + ) }); Then in my main module file, which references each of those files, the collection view is constructed and displayed: main.js //Define a model MessageModel = Backbone.Model.extend(); //Make an instance of MessageItemView - code in separate file, messagelistview.js MessageView = new MessageItemView(); //Define a message collection var MessageCollection = Backbone.Collection.extend({ model: MessageModel }); //Make an instance of MessageCollection var collMessages = new MessageCollection(); //Make an instance of a MessageListView - code in separate file, messagelistview.js var messageListView = new MessageListView({ collection: collMessages }); App.messageListRegion.show(messageListView); Do I just have things sequenced wrong? I'm thinking it's some kind of race condition only because over 3G to an iPad the item views are always undefined. They never seem to get constructed in time. PC on a hard wired connection does see success after a browser refresh or two.

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  • Database design advice needed.

    - by user346271
    Hi all, I'm a lone developer for a telecoms company, and am after some database design advice from anyone with a bit of time to answer. I am inserting into one table ~2 million rows each day, these tables then get archived and compressed on a monthly basis. Each monthly table contains ~15,000,000 rows. Although this is increasing month on month. For every insert I do above I am combining the data from rows which belong together and creating another "correlated" table. This table is currently not being archived, as I need to make sure I never miss an update to the correlated table. (Hope that makes sense) Although in general this information should remain fairly static after a couple of days of processing. All of the above is working perfectly. However my company now wishes to perform some stats against this data, and these tables are getting too large to provide the results in what would be deemed a reasonable time. Even with the appropriate indexes set. So I guess after all the above my question is quite simple. Should I write a script which groups the data from my correlated table into smaller tables. Or should I store the queries result sets in something like memcache? I'm already using mysqls cache, but due to having limited control over how long the data is stored for, it's not working ideally. The main advantages I can see of using something like memcache: No blocking on my correlated table after the query has been cashed. Greater flexibility of sharing the collected data between the backend collector and front end processor. (i.e custom reports could be written in the backend and the results of these stored in the cache under a key which then gets shared with anyone who would want to see the data of this report) Redundancy and scalability if we start sharing this data with a large amount of customers. The main disadvantages I can see of using something like memcache: Data is not persistent if machine is rebooted / cache is flushed. The main advantages of using MySql Persistent data. Less code changes (although adding something like memcache is trivial anyway) The main disadvantages of using MySql Have to define table templates every time I want to store provide a new set of grouped data. Have to write a program which loops through the correlated data and fills these new tables. Potentially will still grow slower as the data continues to be filled. Apologies for quite a long question. It's helped me to write down these thoughts here anyway, and any advice/help/experience with dealing with this sort of problem would be greatly appreciated. Many thanks. Alan

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  • Which MS technologies would be suited for a data intensive application?

    - by steve.tse
    I'm a junior VB.net developer with little application design knowledge. I've been reading a lot of material online regarding different design patterns, frameworks, and methodologies. It's become a bit confusing for me. Right now I'm trying to decide on what language would be best suited to convert an existing VB6 application (with SQL server backend.) I need to update the UI and add more user functionality and reporting capabilities. Initially I was thinking of using WPF and attempting the MVVM model for this big project. Reports would be generated from SSRS. A peer suggested using ASP.net and I don't have enough experience to determine what would be better. The senior programmers here are stuck on using VB6 and don't have any input on what to use. They are encouraging me to use the latest technologies. This application would be for ~20 users in a central location. Ideally I would stick to a Microsoft .net language. Current interface is similar to a datagrid table where the user would click in to see the detail of each record. They would need to have multiple records open at any given time. I look forward to all the advice I can get. EDIT 2010/04/22 2:47 PM EST What is your audience? Internal clients within an intranet How complex are the interactions you expect to implement? not very... displaying data from SQL server to UI. Allow user updates to said data. Typically just one user modifying a record. Do you require near real-time data updates? no How often do you expect to update the application after the first release? twice/year Do you expect a well-defined set of client platforms? Yes, windows xp environment, potentially upgrading to Win7. Currently in IE.6 moving to IE7 or 8 within a couple of months. Do users need access from anywhere? No, just from their PC.

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