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  • Is it feasible and useful to auto-generate some code of unit tests?

    - by skiwi
    Earlier today I have come up with an idea, based upon a particular real use case, which I would want to have checked for feasability and usefulness. This question will feature a fair chunk of Java code, but can be applied to all languages running inside a VM, and maybe even outside. While there is real code, it uses nothing language-specific, so please read it mostly as pseudo code. The idea Make unit testing less cumbersome by adding in some ways to autogenerate code based on human interaction with the codebase. I understand this goes against the principle of TDD, but I don't think anyone ever proved that doing TDD is better over first creating code and then immediatly therafter the tests. This may even be adapted to be fit into TDD, but that is not my current goal. To show how it is intended to be used, I'll copy one of my classes here, for which I need to make unit tests. public class PutMonsterOnFieldAction implements PlayerAction { private final int handCardIndex; private final int fieldMonsterIndex; public PutMonsterOnFieldAction(final int handCardIndex, final int fieldMonsterIndex) { this.handCardIndex = Arguments.requirePositiveOrZero(handCardIndex, "handCardIndex"); this.fieldMonsterIndex = Arguments.requirePositiveOrZero(fieldMonsterIndex, "fieldCardIndex"); } @Override public boolean isActionAllowed(final Player player) { Objects.requireNonNull(player, "player"); Hand hand = player.getHand(); Field field = player.getField(); if (handCardIndex >= hand.getCapacity()) { return false; } if (fieldMonsterIndex >= field.getMonsterCapacity()) { return false; } if (field.hasMonster(fieldMonsterIndex)) { return false; } if (!(hand.get(handCardIndex) instanceof MonsterCard)) { return false; } return true; } @Override public void performAction(final Player player) { Objects.requireNonNull(player); if (!isActionAllowed(player)) { throw new PlayerActionNotAllowedException(); } Hand hand = player.getHand(); Field field = player.getField(); field.setMonster(fieldMonsterIndex, (MonsterCard)hand.play(handCardIndex)); } } We can observe the need for the following tests: Constructor test with valid input Constructor test with invalid inputs isActionAllowed test with valid input isActionAllowed test with invalid inputs performAction test with valid input performAction test with invalid inputs My idea mainly focuses on the isActionAllowed test with invalid inputs. Writing these tests is not fun, you need to ensure a number of conditions and you check whether it really returns false, this can be extended to performAction, where an exception needs to be thrown in that case. The goal of my idea is to generate those tests, by indicating (through GUI of IDE hopefully) that you want to generate tests based on a specific branch. The implementation by example User clicks on "Generate code for branch if (handCardIndex >= hand.getCapacity())". Now the tool needs to find a case where that holds. (I haven't added the relevant code as that may clutter the post ultimately) To invalidate the branch, the tool needs to find a handCardIndex and hand.getCapacity() such that the condition >= holds. It needs to construct a Player with a Hand that has a capacity of at least 1. It notices that the capacity private int of Hand needs to be at least 1. It searches for ways to set it to 1. Fortunately it finds a constructor that takes the capacity as an argument. It uses 1 for this. Some more work needs to be done to succesfully construct a Player instance, involving the creation of objects that have constraints that can be seen by inspecting the source code. It has found the hand with the least capacity possible and is able to construct it. Now to invalidate the test it will need to set handCardIndex = 1. It constructs the test and asserts it to be false (the returned value of the branch) What does the tool need to work? In order to function properly, it will need the ability to scan through all source code (including JDK code) to figure out all constraints. Optionally this could be done through the javadoc, but that is not always used to indicate all constraints. It could also do some trial and error, but it pretty much stops if you cannot attach source code to compiled classes. Then it needs some basic knowledge of what the primitive types are, including arrays. And it needs to be able to construct some form of "modification trees". The tool knows that it needs to change a certain variable to a different value in order to get the correct testcase. Hence it will need to list all possible ways to change it, without using reflection obviously. What this tool will not replace is the need to create tailored unit tests that tests all kinds of conditions when a certain method actually works. It is purely to be used to test methods when they invalidate constraints. My questions: Is creating such a tool feasible? Would it ever work, or are there some obvious problems? Would such a tool be useful? Is it even useful to automatically generate these testcases at all? Could it be extended to do even more useful things? Does, by chance, such a project already exist and would I be reinventing the wheel? If not proven useful, but still possible to make such thing, I will still consider it for fun. If it's considered useful, then I might make an open source project for it depending on the time. For people searching more background information about the used Player and Hand classes in my example, please refer to this repository. At the time of writing the PutMonsterOnFieldAction has not been uploaded to the repo yet, but this will be done once I'm done with the unit tests.

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  • Are there Negative Impact of opensource on commercial environment?

    - by Lostsoul
    I know this is not a good fit for Stack Overflow but wasn't sure if it was good for this site also so let me know if its not and I'll delete it. I love programming for fun but my role in my company is not technical. I have always loved the hacker culture and have been trying to drive that openness within my company from day one. My company has a very broad range of products and there are a few that are not strategic to us so I wanted to open source them (so we can focus on what makes us unique and open source the products that every firm has). Our industry does not open source(we would be the first firm to try this) and the feedback I'm getting from my management team is either 1) we'll destroy the industry or 2) all competitive commercial firms will unite against us and we'll be wiped out either way. I disagreed on both points because I think transparency will only grow our industry and our firm (think of McDonalds/KFC sharing their recipe openly, people may copy you, competitors may target you, but customers also may feel more comfortable buying your product. The value add, I believe, is in the delivery and experience not in hoarding the recipe). It's a big battle in my firm right now between the IT people who have seen the positive effects of sharing and the business people who think we'll be giving up everything (they prefer we sell parts we want to opensource, but in their defense this is standard when divesting something). Our industry is very secretive and I don't want to put anyone(even my competitors employees) out of a job yet I don't want to protect inefficient people by not being open with everyone. Yet I've seen so many amazing technologies created in interesting ways just by giving people freedom to take apart code and put it back together. I'm interested in hearing people's thoughts(doesn't have to be to my specific situation, I'm looking for the general lessons). Its a very stressful decision(but one I feel I must make) because if we go the open source route then there will be no going back. So what are your thoughts? Does open sourcing apply generally or is it only really applicable to software? Is it overall good for people in the industry and outside? I'm actually more interested in the negativeness effects(although positive are welcomed as well) Update: Long story short, although code is involved this is not so much about code as it is more about the idea of open sourcing. We are a mid sized quant hedge fund. We have some unique strategies but also have the standard long/short, arbitrage, global macro, etc.. funds. We are keeping the unique funds we have but the other stuff that everyone else has we are considering open sourcing (We have put in years of work & millions of dollars into. Our funds is pretty popular and our performance is either in first or second quartile so I suspect there will be interest but I don't know to what extent). The goal is not to get a community to work for us or anything, the goal is to let anyone who wants to tinker with it do so and create anything they want (it will not be part of our product line although I may unofficially allocate some our of staff's time to assist any community that grows). Although the code base is quite large, the value in this is the industry knowledge and approaches we have acquired (there are many books on artificial intelligence and quant trading but they are often years behind what's really going on as most firms forbid their staff from discussing what they are doing). We are also considering after we move our clients out to let the software still run and output the resulting portfolios for free as well so people can at least see the results(as long as we have avail. infrastructure). I think our main choices are, we can continue to fight for market share in a products that are becoming commoditized, we can shut the funds/products down(and keep the code but no one outside of our firm will ever learn from it) or we can open source it and let people do what they want. By open sourcing it, my idea is that the talent pool in the industry will grow because right now most of our hires have the same background (CFA, MBA, similar school, same experience,etc.. because we can't spend time training people so the industry 'standardizes' most people and thus the firms themselves start to look/act similar) but this may allow us to identify talent that has never been in the industry before (if we put a GPU license then as people learn from what we did, we can learn from what they do as well and maybe apply it to other areas of our firm). I see a lot of benefits but not many negatives while my peers at the company see the opposite.

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  • The architecture and technologies to use for a secure, fast, reliable and easily scalable web application

    - by DSoul
    ^ For actual questions, skip to the lists down below I understand, that his is a vague topic, but please, before you turn the other way and disregard me, hear me out. I am currently doing research for a web application(I don't know if application is the correct word for it, but I will proceed w/ that for now), that one day might need to be everything mentioned in the title. I am bound by nothing. That means that every language, OS and framework is acceptable, but only if it proves it's usefulness. And if you are going to say, that scalability and speed depend on the code I write for this application, then I agree, but I am just trying to find something, that wouldn't stand in my way later on. I have done quite a bit reading on this subject, but I still don't have a clear picture, to what suits my needs, so I come to you, StackOverflow, to give me directions. I know you all must be wondering what I'm building, but I assure you, that it doesn't matter. I have heard of 12 factor app though, if you have any similar guidelines or what is, to suggest the please, go ahead. For the sake of keeping your answers as open as possible, I'm not gonna provide you my experience regarding anything written in this question. ^ Skippers, start here First off - the weights of the requirements are probably something like that (on a scale of 10): Security - 10 Speed - 5 Reliability (concurrency) - 7.5 Scalability - 10 Speed and concurrency are not a top priority, in the sense, that the program can be CPU intensive, and therefore slow, and only accept a not-that-high number of concurrent users, but both of these factors must be improvable by scaling the system Anyway, here are my questions: How many layers should the application have, so it would be future-proof and could best fulfill the aforementioned requirements? For now, what I have in mind is the most common version: Completely separated front end, that might be a web page or an MMI application or even both. Some middle-ware handling communication between the front and the back end. This is probably a server that communicates w/ the front end via HTTP. How the communication w/ the back end should be handled is probably dependent on the back end. The back end. Something that handles data through resources like DB and etc. and does various computations w/ the data. This, as the highest priority part of the software, must be easily spread to multiple computers later on and have no known security holes. I think ideally the middle-ware should send a request to a queue from where one of the back end processes takes this request, chops it up to smaller parts and buts these parts of the request back onto the same queue as the initial request, after what these parts will be then handled by other back end processes. Something *map-reduce*y, so to say. What frameworks, languages and etc. should these layers use? The technologies used here are not that important at this moment, you can ignore this part for now I've been pointed to node.js for this part. Do you guys know any better alternatives, or have any reasons why I should (not) use node.js for this particular job. I actually have no good idea, what to use for this job, there are too many options out there, so please direct me. This part (and the 2. one also, I think) depend a lot on the OS, so suggest any OSs alongside w/ the technologies/frameworks. Initially, all computers (or 1 for starters) hosting the back end are going to be virtual machines. Please do give suggestions to any part of the question, that you feel you have comprehensive knowledge and/or experience of. And also, point out if you feel that any part of the current set-up means an instant (or even distant) failure or if I missed a very important aspect to consider. I'm not looking for a definitive answer for how to achieve my goals, because there certainly isn't one, for I haven't provided you w/ all the required information. I'm just looking for recommendations and directions on what to look into. Also, bare in mind, that this isn't something that I have to get done quickly, to sell and let it be re-written by the new owner (which, I've been told for multiple times, is what I should aim for). I have all the time in the world and I really just want to learn doing something really high-end. Also, excuse me if my language isn't the best, I'm not a native. Anyway. Thanks in advance to anyone, who takes the time to help me out here. PS. When I do seem to come up w/ a good architecture/design for this project, I will certainly make it an open project and keep you guys up to date w/ it's development. As in what you could have told me earlier and etc. For obvious reasons the very same question got closed on SO, but could you guys still help me?.

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  • Weird networking problem ( Linksys, Windows 7 )

    - by Rohit Nair
    Okay it's a bit tough to figure out where to start from, but here is the basic summary of the issue: During general internet usage, there are times when any attempt to visit a website stalls at "Waiting for somedomain.com". This problem occurs in Firefox, IE and Chrome. No website will load, INCLUDING the router configuration page at 192.168.1.1. Curiously, ping works fine, and other network apps such as MSN Messenger continue to work and I can send and receive messages. Disconnecting and reconnecting to the wireless network seems to fix the problem for a bit, but there are times when it relapses into not loading after every 2-3 http requests. Restarting the router seems to fix the issue, but it can crop up hours or days later. I have a CCNA cert and I know my way around the Windows family of operating systems, so I'm going to list all the things I've tried here. Other computers on the network seem to suffer the same problem, which makes me think it might be a specific problem with something in Win7. The random nature of this issue makes it a bit difficult to confirm, but I can definitely say that I have experienced this on the following systems: Windows 7 64-bit on my desktop Windows Vista 32-bit on my desktop ( the desktop has 2 wireless NICs and the problem existed on both ) Windows Vista 32-bit on my laptop ( both with wireless and wired ) Windows XP SP3 on another laptop ( both wireless and wired ) Using Wireshark to sniff packets seemed to indicate that although HTTP requests were being SENT out, no packets were coming in to respond to the HTTP request. However, other network apps continued to work i.e I would still receive IMs on Windows Live Messenger. Disabling IPV6 had no effect. Updating router firmware to the latest stock firmware by Linksys had no effect. Switching to dd-wrt firmware had no effect. By "no effect" I mean that although the restart required by firmware updates fixed the problem at the time, it still came back. A couple of weeks back, after a LOT of googling and flipping of various options, I figured it might be a case of router slowdown ( http://www.dd-wrt.com/wiki/index.php/Router%5FSlowdown ) caused by the fact that I occasionally run a torrent client. I tried changing the configuration as suggested in that router slowdown link, and restarted the router. However I have not run the torrent client for 12 days now, and yet I still randomly experience this problem. Currently the computer I am using is running Windows 7 64-bit. I would just like to reiterate some of the reasons that I was confused by the issue. Even the router config page at 192.168.1.1 would not load, indicating that it's not a problem with the WAN link, but probably a router issue or a local computer issue. For some reason, disconnecting and reconnecting to the wireless network immediately seems to fix the problem. Updating the router firmware, even switching to open source firmware did nothing. So it seemed to be a computer issue. On the other hand, I have not seen any mass outrage of people having networking problems with Windows 7 and Linksys routers, especially a problem of this sort, and I have tweaked every network setting I could think of. Although HTTP seems to have trouble, ping works fine, DNS lookups work fine, other networking apps work fine. However if I disconnect from Windows Live Messenger and try to reconnect, it fails to reconnect. So although it could receive data over the existing TCP/IP connection, trying to start a new one failed? Does anyone have any further ideas on debugging or fixing this issue? I am reasonably certain there are no viruses or other malicious apps on my network, and I am also reasonably certain that nobody is accessing my router without my consent. Router: Linksys WRT54G2 1.0 running dd-wrt firmware Wireless Card: Alfa AWUS036H OS: Windows 7 64-bit EDIT: I tried switching to a clean wireless channel free from interference, but the problem still persisted. I tried connecting directly with a cable, but the problem still persisted. Signed A very confused and bewildered geek whose knowledge seems to be useless in the face of this frustrating network issue.

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  • Ubuntu: Failure to login with multiple video adapters

    - by tsilb
    Forgive my ignorance, for I am a complete linux noob. I have a computer with three video cards and six monitors. Works great on Windows. Trying to get it to run Ubuntu as well. It loads fine when I have it configured to run on one adapter; detects both screens, runs ok. But I want to turn the other 4 monitors on and run the whole thing as one extended desktop (one session, etc). So I downloaded and installed the newest ATI driver for Linux, which seems to work, kinda. I ran this to set up the screens: aticonfig --adapter=all --initial -f Now when I boot, Ubuntu seems to turn on all the screens (3 viewports, each with two cloned displays from what I can tell). When I enter my login info OR move the mouse off the main screen, the screens freeze and the kbd/ms become unresponsive. aticonfig generated xorg.conf included below. Have tried the following: aticonfig -initial -f - works, but only detects the primary adapter and 2 screens aticccle - Tells me I have to reboot after enabling the other cards. Then goes into above described freezing state. aticonfig --adapter=all --initial -f - see above Manually editing xorg.conf file with my limited knowledge - Was able to get two adapters running, but only the second adapter initialized while the primary stopped at the Ubuntu boot screen. Was unable to see the login prompt. Froze after I logged in blindly (was able to hear the login sound). Using generic "radeon" driver instead of ATI Proprietary driver with the above init attempts Toggling xinerama Various combinations of the above Hardware: Intel Core 2 Quad q6600 8GB DDR2 (3x) ATI Radeon HD 4680 5 monitors (21W, 21W, 22W Portrait, 22W Portrait, 19")and an HDTV (26"W, HDMI) in a horizontal arrangement I know next to nothing about Linux/Ubuntu aside from basic filesystem navigation, editing text files, and accessing my local and networked Windows stores and shares. Basically this is the most advanced thing I've had to do. I installed today. Please advise how to make this configuration work. my xorg.conf: Section "ServerLayout" Identifier "Layout0" Screen 0 "aticonfig-Screen[0]-0" 0 0 Screen "aticonfig-Screen[1]-0" RightOf "aticonfig-Screen[0]-0" Screen "aticonfig-Screen[2]-0" RightOf "aticonfig-Screen[1]-0" Option "RenderAccel" "true" Option "AllowGLXWithComposite" "true" EndSection Section "Files" EndSection Section "Module" EndSection Section "ServerFlags" Option "Xinerama" "0" EndSection Section "Monitor" Identifier "aticonfig-Monitor[0]-0" Option "VendorName" "ATI Proprietary Driver" Option "ModelName" "Generic Autodetecting Monitor" Option "DPMS" "true" EndSection Section "Monitor" Identifier "aticonfig-Monitor[1]-0" Option "VendorName" "ATI Proprietary Driver" Option "ModelName" "Generic Autodetecting Monitor" Option "DPMS" "true" EndSection Section "Monitor" Identifier "aticonfig-Monitor[2]-0" Option "VendorName" "ATI Proprietary Driver" Option "ModelName" "Generic Autodetecting Monitor" Option "DPMS" "true" EndSection Section "Device" Identifier "aticonfig-Device[0]-0" Driver "fglrx" BusID "PCI:1:0:0" EndSection Section "Device" Identifier "aticonfig-Device[1]-0" Driver "fglrx" BusID "PCI:3:0:0" EndSection Section "Device" Identifier "aticonfig-Device[2]-0" Driver "fglrx" BusID "PCI:4:0:0" EndSection Section "Screen" Identifier "aticonfig-Screen[0]-0" Device "aticonfig-Device[0]-0" Monitor "aticonfig-Monitor[0]-0" DefaultDepth 24 SubSection "Display" Viewport 0 0 Depth 24 EndSubSection EndSection Section "Screen" Identifier "aticonfig-Screen[1]-0" Device "aticonfig-Device[1]-0" Monitor "aticonfig-Monitor[1]-0" DefaultDepth 24 SubSection "Display" Viewport 0 0 Depth 24 EndSubSection EndSection Section "Screen" Identifier "aticonfig-Screen[2]-0" Device "aticonfig-Device[2]-0" Monitor "aticonfig-Monitor[2]-0" DefaultDepth 24 SubSection "Display" Viewport 0 0 Depth 24 EndSubSection EndSection

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  • Server 2003 R2 doesn't allow logon after a few days of uptime

    - by Bryan
    We have a server 2003 R2 standard (which I'll refer to as SRV01) that's knocking on a bit now, but it still acts as a file, print and SQL server on our company's network. SRV01 hosts user profiles, home directories and pretty much all our business data. Note our AD is currently at 2008 R2 level. This server is due to be upgraded in the next 12 months, but I've no budget to spend on it just yet. A bit of history of this server follows: When SRV01 was first commissioned, it acted as a domain controller (with the same 2003 R2 install it has today), paired with another server that ran Server 2003 R2 SBS. A few years ago, we purchased a pair of dedicated DCs (2008 R2) and at this point we decommissioned the 2003 SBS server, and SRV01 was DCPROMOed out of the AD. Up until very recently, SRV01 used to run Exchange 2003, however we've recently purchased a dedicated server for Exchange 2010 and upgraded (following Microsoft recommended upgrade path). Exchange 2003 was recently uninstalled. - Cleanly to the best of my knowledge. Ever since Exchange was removed from SRV01, I'm finding that after a few days of uptime, when I attempt to logon, pressing CTRL-ALT-DEL just hides the Welcome to Windows Server 2003 banner, and never presents the logon dialog. All I see is a moveable mouse pointer and a blank background. It's a similar story with an admin TS session, the RDP client connects and gives me a blank background, but no logon dialog is presented. The RDP session indefinitely hangs until I give up and close it. The only way I've been able to gain access to the server is to pull the plug on it. Whilst the server does have a battery backed up RAID 5 controller, I'm unhappy about having to do this, so as a temporary measure, I've created a scheduled job to reboot SRV01 each night. Not only do I not like the idea of scheduling a reboot of a server like this, but it is also causing problems for users that leave desktop PCs left logged on overnight. Users complain of 'Delayed Write Failures', and there has also been a number of users that have started to complain about account lockout problems, as well as users not able to connect to shares on SRV01 until they reboot their desktop PCs. I've examined event logs on SRV01 and on the DCs looking for clues as to what the problem is, but there really is nothing untoward being logged. How could I being to investigate this problem when nothing of any relevance is being logged? Is there some additional logging that can be enabled that might give some clues as to what could be causing this problem? Could performance monitor help me out here, and if so, what counters would you consider monitoring? It's worth mentioning that whilst the server is unresponsive via the console and TS, it does still respond to clients connecting to shares without problems for several days, but after about a week I then start to hear users reporting problems accessing shares, but this seems quite sporadic. I've also tried leaving the console logged on (and locked), when I notice I can no longer logon via TS, I can unlock the server console without problem, but it refuses to reboot/shutdown, and subsequent attempts to reboot report that a system shutdown is already in progress and the system then completely hangs. I've tried playing the waiting game for several hours thinking that a timeout might allow the shutdown to continue, but to no avail.

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  • SQL Server Issue: Could not allocate space for object ... primary filegroup is full

    - by Luke
    Trying to figure out a problem at an office that has SQL Server 2005 installed on Windows SBS Server 2008. Here's the setup: It's an office, and the person who set this all up is nowhere to be found. I'm the best hope they have... One of the programs they use on a workstation gives them an error of "Could not allocate space for object 'Billing' in database "MyDatabase" because primary filegroup is full" when trying to save an entry in their software. I searched around for hours, looking for possible solutions. One was to check for available disk space, and another was to defrag. I checked the hard drives on the server, and there is plenty of space free. I also defragged, which may have helped the problem somewhat. It's hard to say, because it seems like with the nature of the error, if you try over and over you might get it to actually save. My next step was to try to see if autogrowth was enabled on the database. This would seem to be a likely / possible solution, but I can't access the database! If I run the SQL Management Studio, I can log in as my Windows user and view the list of databases. However, if I try to do anything (actually view the database, view the properties, add or edit users), I get errors that I don't have permission. For what it's worth, I also tried runing Management Studio as Administrator, in case that would help. No difference, though. Now, what I'm guessing is going on -- from my limited knowledge of SQL and from reading online -- is that though I'm logged in as a Windows administrator, that account does NOT have SQL access. I do see a list of SQL users, including SA, but I again don't have permission to add one or to change the password on an existing one. And nobody at the office has any idea what the SQL passwords could be. So... here's my thinking thus far: 1 - The "Could not allocate" error likely points to a database that needs to be allowed to autogrow. Especially since I verified there is plenty of free space and the HD has been defragmented. 2 - Enabling autogrow would be very easy to do if I had the proper access within SQL Management Stuido. That leads me to this link: http://blogs.technet.com/b/sqlman/archive/2011/06/14/tips-amp-tricks-you-have-lost-access-to-sql-server-now-what.aspx It sounds like it's a step-by-step guide for giving me the access I need to SQL. I'm guessing that if I followed this guide, I would be able to then log in to the SQL server via Management Studio with the proper permissions, and would be able to enable autogrow (or simply view the status of the existing database), and hopefully solve the "Could not allocate space" problem! So I guess I have a few questions: 1 - Would you guys agree with my "diagnosis"? Think I'm barking up the right tree? 2 - Is there any risk at all in hurting / disabling / wrecking the current SQL database or setup with me going through the guide to regain SQL access? I understand that per the guide, I would have to temporarily shut down SQL, so obviously it wouldn't be accessible during that time. But it wouldn't be worth the risk if there's a chance I could mess anything up... Like I said, the workstations ARE currently accessing the database somehow, but nobody knows with what login info or anything. Basically, it's set up, it works (usually), but if they had to reload the software, nobody would know how. Any feedback would be appreciated!! The problem is such that it's not an emergency for them, but an annoyance. If I could fix it, it would be wonderful. But if not, I think they'll manage, especially as they are going to eventually stop using this software. Thank you so much for your time! Luke

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  • Making sense of S.M.A.R.T

    - by James
    First of all, I think everyone knows that hard drives fail a lot more than the manufacturers would like to admit. Google did a study that indicates that certain raw data attributes that the S.M.A.R.T status of hard drives reports can have a strong correlation with the future failure of the drive. We find, for example, that after their first scan error, drives are 39 times more likely to fail within 60 days than drives with no such errors. First errors in re- allocations, offline reallocations, and probational counts are also strongly correlated to higher failure probabil- ities. Despite those strong correlations, we find that failure prediction models based on SMART parameters alone are likely to be severely limited in their prediction accuracy, given that a large fraction of our failed drives have shown no SMART error signals whatsoever. Seagate seems like it is trying to obscure this information about their drives by claiming that only their software can accurately determine the accurate status of their drive and by the way their software will not tell you the raw data values for the S.M.A.R.T attributes. Western digital has made no such claim to my knowledge but their status reporting tool does not appear to report raw data values either. I've been using HDtune and smartctl from smartmontools in order to gather the raw data values for each attribute. I've found that indeed... I am comparing apples to oranges when it comes to certain attributes. I've found for example that most Seagate drives will report that they have many millions of read errors while western digital 99% of the time shows 0 for read errors. I've also found that Seagate will report many millions of seek errors while Western Digital always seems to report 0. Now for my question. How do I normalize this data? Is Seagate producing millions of errors while Western digital is producing none? Wikipedia's article on S.M.A.R.T status says that manufacturers have different ways of reporting this data. Here is my hypothesis: I think I found a way to normalize (is that the right term?) the data. Seagate drives have an additional attribute that Western Digital drives do not have (Hardware ECC Recovered). When you subtract the Read error count from the ECC Recovered count, you'll probably end up with 0. This seems to be equivalent to Western Digitals reported "Read Error" count. This means that Western Digital only reports read errors that it cannot correct while Seagate counts up all read errors and tells you how many of those it was able to fix. I had a Seagate drive where the ECC Recovered count was less than the Read error count and I noticed that many of my files were becoming corrupt. This is how I came up with my hypothesis. The millions of seek errors that Seagate produces are still a mystery to me. Please confirm or correct my hypothesis if you have additional information. Here is the smart status of my western digital drive just so you can see what I'm talking about: james@ubuntu:~$ sudo smartctl -a /dev/sda smartctl version 5.38 [x86_64-unknown-linux-gnu] Copyright (C) 2002-8 Bruce Allen Home page is http://smartmontools.sourceforge.net/ === START OF INFORMATION SECTION === Device Model: WDC WD1001FALS-00E3A0 Serial Number: WD-WCATR0258512 Firmware Version: 05.01D05 User Capacity: 1,000,204,886,016 bytes Device is: Not in smartctl database [for details use: -P showall] ATA Version is: 8 ATA Standard is: Exact ATA specification draft version not indicated Local Time is: Thu Jun 10 19:52:28 2010 PDT SMART support is: Available - device has SMART capability. SMART support is: Enabled === START OF READ SMART DATA SECTION === SMART overall-health self-assessment test result: PASSED SMART Attributes Data Structure revision number: 16 Vendor Specific SMART Attributes with Thresholds: ID# ATTRIBUTE_NAME FLAG VALUE WORST THRESH TYPE UPDATED WHEN_FAILED RAW_VALUE 1 Raw_Read_Error_Rate 0x002f 200 200 051 Pre-fail Always - 0 3 Spin_Up_Time 0x0027 179 175 021 Pre-fail Always - 4033 4 Start_Stop_Count 0x0032 100 100 000 Old_age Always - 270 5 Reallocated_Sector_Ct 0x0033 200 200 140 Pre-fail Always - 0 7 Seek_Error_Rate 0x002e 200 200 000 Old_age Always - 0 9 Power_On_Hours 0x0032 098 098 000 Old_age Always - 1468 10 Spin_Retry_Count 0x0032 100 100 000 Old_age Always - 0 11 Calibration_Retry_Count 0x0032 100 100 000 Old_age Always - 0 12 Power_Cycle_Count 0x0032 100 100 000 Old_age Always - 262 192 Power-Off_Retract_Count 0x0032 200 200 000 Old_age Always - 46 193 Load_Cycle_Count 0x0032 200 200 000 Old_age Always - 223 194 Temperature_Celsius 0x0022 105 102 000 Old_age Always - 42 196 Reallocated_Event_Count 0x0032 200 200 000 Old_age Always - 0 197 Current_Pending_Sector 0x0032 200 200 000 Old_age Always - 0 198 Offline_Uncorrectable 0x0030 200 200 000 Old_age Offline - 0 199 UDMA_CRC_Error_Count 0x0032 200 200 000 Old_age Always - 0 200 Multi_Zone_Error_Rate 0x0008 200 200 000 Old_age Offline - 0

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  • Active Directory Time Synchronisation - Time-Service Event ID 50

    - by George
    I have an Active Directory domain with two DCs. The first DC in the forest/domain is Server 2012, the second is 2008 R2. The first DC holds the PDC Emulator role. I sporadically receive a warning from the Time-Service source, event ID 50: The time service detected a time difference of greater than %1 milliseconds for %2 seconds. The time difference might be caused by synchronization with low-accuracy time sources or by suboptimal network conditions. The time service is no longer synchronized and cannot provide the time to other clients or update the system clock. When a valid time stamp is received from a time service provider, the time service will correct itself. Time sync in the domain is configured with the second DC to synchronise using the /syncfromflags:DOMHIER flag. The first DC is configured to sync time using a /syncfromflags:MANUAL /reliable:YES, from a peerlist consisting of a number of UK based stratum 2 servers, such as ntp2d.mcc.ac.uk. I'm confused why I receive this event warning. It implies that my PDC emulator cannot synchronise time with a supposedly reliable external time source, and it quotes a time difference of 5 seconds for 900 seconds. It's worth also mentioning that I used to use a UK pool from ntp.org but I would receive the warning much more often. Since updating to a number of UK based academic time servers, it seems to be more reliable. Can someone with more experience shed some light on this - perhaps it is purely transient? Should I disregard the warning? Is my configuration sound? EDIT: I should add that the DCs are virtual, and installed on two separate VMware ESXi/vSphere physical hosts. I can also confirm that as per MDMarra's comment and best practice, VMware timesync is disabled, since: c:\Program Files\VMware\VMware Tools\VMwareToolboxCmd.exe timesync status returns Disabled. EDIT 2 Some strange new issue has cropped up. I've noticed a pattern. Originally, the event ID 50 warnings would occur at about 1230pm each day. This is interesting since our veeam backup happens at 12 midday. Since I made the changes discussed here, I now receive an event ID 51 instead of 50. The new warning says that: The time sample received from peer server.ac.uk differs from the local time by -40 seconds (Or approximately 40 seconds). This has happened two days in a row. Now I'm even more confused. Obviously the time never updates until I manually intervene. The issue seems to be related to virtualisation and veeam. Something may be occuring when veeam is backing up the PDCe. Any suggestions? UPDATE & SUMMARY msemack's excellent list of resources below (the accepted answer) provided enough information to correctly configure the time service in the domain. This should be the first port of call for any future people looking to verify their configuration. The final "40 second jump" issue I have resolved (there are no more warnings) through adjusting the VMware time sync settings as noted in the veeam knowledge base article here: http://www.veeam.com/kb1202 In any case, should any future reader use ESXi, veeam or not, the resources here are an excellent source of information on the time sync topic and msemack's answer is particularly invaluable.

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  • apache2 namevirtualhost resolving wrong site

    - by joe
    Running apache 2.2.6. I'm setting up a development environment. dev and production will be hosted on the same machine, same IP address. DNS entries like prod.domain.com and dev.domain.com point to the same IP. * Imprortant: it is required that dev and prod are otherwise completely separate. Each will run it's own apache instance. Each will use it's own apache configuration. Each, prod and dev, will host http and https. I have this set up and working, but not as restrictive as I'd like. For instance, the production config: NameVirtualHost *:80 NameVirtualHost *:443 <VirtualHost *:80 > ServerName prod.domain.com # ... etc </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost *:443 > ServerName prod.domain.com # ... etc </VirtualHost> The dev site is set up similarly, using ports 8080 and 4443. Each site works fine. But assuming both apaches are running, one can also hit "cross-site" by mistake. So, inadvertently hitting prod.domain.com:8080 successfully returns a page from the dev site. It would be much better if this failed completely. This is a bit more difficult to solve (for me) because of the need for two apache configs. If all in one, the single process would have full knowledge of everything. So, I tried to solve this with brute force, including virtual hosts for the "other" site, with something that would fail, like no access to documentroot. But apache then inexplicably finds the "wrong" virtual host. Here's the full config for production, with the dummy dev configs. NameVirtualHost *:80 NameVirtualHost *:443 # ---------------------------------------------- # DUMMY HOSTS <VirtualHost *:8080 > ServerName dev.domain.com:8080 DocumentRoot /tmp/ <Directory /tmp/ > Order deny,allow Deny from all </Directory> </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost *:4443 > ServerName dev.domain.com:4443 DocumentRoot /tmp/ <Directory /tmp/ > Order deny,allow Deny from all </Directory> </VirtualHost> # ---------------------------------------------- # REAL PRODUCTION HOSTS <VirtualHost *:80 > ServerName prod.domain.com:80 DocumentRoot /something/valid/ <Directory /something/valid/> Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost *:443 > ServerName prod.domain.com:443 DocumentRoot /something/valid/ <Directory /something/valid/> Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> # .... other valid ssl setup </VirtualHost> Here's the strange thing. With this configuration, a prod.domain.com:80 hit succeeds. But a prod.domain.com:443 hit fails, because it finds the dev.domain.com:4443 instead. I've also tried removing the port from the ServerName, but it still doesn't work. Sorry for the long question. Hopefully this is enough information. Thanks in advance for any help.

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  • Ubuntu 12 crashed and took down network

    - by Leopd
    We recently set up a new Ubuntu 12.04LTS server on our network. It's not fully configured so it's not doing much beyond sshd and a default apache2 install. But this evening it appears to have crashed. It wasn't responding to the network or the keyboard. But the worst part is, it took down the entire network. My knowledge of the network stack below OSI layer 3 is very limited, so the rest confuses me. When this machine was physically connected to the network, no other machine could connect to the outside internet. When things were broken, running arp showed that our gateway's IP address (10.0.1.1) was listed as "invalid." Unplugging the server from the network fixed the problem, and plugging it back in broke it again. So the crashed server was advertising itself as owning the gateway's IP address? There's nothing at all in syslog during the time when it was causing problems. Any ideas about how to figure out what went wrong or what we can do to prevent it from happening again? I'm hesitant to even put the machine back on the network right now. Update ** It crashed again, and I ran tcpdump -penn arp (thanks bahamat!) for several minutes and got this... (timestamps and duplicate lines removed) 00:1e:65:f8:dc:24 > ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff, ethertype ARP (0x0806), length 60: Request who-has 10.0.1.1 tell 10.0.2.191, length 46 00:1e:65:f8:dc:24 > ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff, ethertype ARP (0x0806), length 60: Request who-has 10.0.1.44 tell 10.0.2.191, length 46 60:d8:19:d4:71:d6 > ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff, ethertype ARP (0x0806), length 60: Request who-has 10.0.1.1 tell 10.0.2.125, length 46 d4:9a:20:04:e9:78 > ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff, ethertype ARP (0x0806), length 42: Request who-has 192.168.1.1 tell 192.168.1.100, length 28 Update 2 ** When the network is functioning properly, arping -c4 10.0.1.1 returns this: ARPING 10.0.1.1 60 bytes from c0:c1:c0:77:25:8e (10.0.1.1): index=0 time=267.982 usec 60 bytes from c0:c1:c0:77:25:8e (10.0.1.1): index=1 time=422.955 usec 60 bytes from c0:c1:c0:77:25:8e (10.0.1.1): index=2 time=299.215 usec 60 bytes from c0:c1:c0:77:25:8e (10.0.1.1): index=3 time=366.926 usec --- 10.0.1.1 statistics --- 4 packets transmitted, 4 packets received, 0% unanswered (0 extra) When the bad server is plugged in, arping -c4 10.0.1.1 returns: ARPING 10.0.1.1 --- 10.0.1.1 statistics --- 4 packets transmitted, 0 packets received, 100% unanswered (0 extra) Context ** 10.0.x.x is the main subnet. 10.0.1.1 is the main internet gateway 10.0.1.44 is a printer 10.0.2.* devices are all laptops / workstations I have no idea what's using the 192.168.x.x subnet -- your guesses are at least as good as mine. A VM on a workstation? A misconfigured WAP? Somebody re-sharing wifi? A machine that failed to DHCP? The offending ubuntu server's MAC address ends in cd:80 so isn't listed in the dump. It should DHCP to 10.0.3.3 Thanks for any help. This ARP stuff is all voodoo to me. Packets just go to IP addresses, right? ;)

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  • Why do we need different CPU architecture for server & mini/mainframe & mixed-core?

    - by claws
    Hello, I was just wondering what other CPU architectures are available other than INTEL & AMD. So, found List of CPU architectures on Wikipedia. It categorizes notable CPU architectures into following categories. Embedded CPU architectures Microcomputer CPU architectures Workstation/Server CPU architectures Mini/Mainframe CPU architectures Mixed core CPU architectures I was analyzing the purposes and have few doubts. I taking Microcomputer CPU (PC) architecture as reference and comparing others. Embedded CPU architecture: They are a completely new world. Embedded systems are small & do very specific task mostly real time & low power consuming so we do not need so many & such wide registers available in a microcomputer CPU (typical PC). In other words we do need a new small & tiny architecture. Hence new architecture & new instruction RISC. The above point also clarifies why do we need a separate operating system (RTOS). Workstation/Server CPU architectures I don't know what is a workstation. Someone clarify regarding the workstation. As of the server. It is dedicated to run a specific software (server software like httpd, mysql etc.). Even if other processes run we need to give server process priority therefore there is a need for new scheduling scheme and thus we need operating system different than general purpose one. If you have any more points for the need of server OS please mention. But I don't get why do we need a new CPU Architecture. Why cant Microcomputer CPU architecture do the job. Can someone please clarify? Mini/Mainframe CPU architectures Again I don't know what are these & what miniframes or mainframes used for? I just know they are very big and occupy complete floor. But I never read about some real world problems they are trying to solve. If any one working on one of these. Share your knowledge. Can some one clarify its purpose & why is it that microcomputer CPU archicture not suitable for it? Is there a new kind of operating system for this too? Why? Mixed core CPU architectures Never heard of these. If possible please keep your answer in this format: XYZ CPU architectures Purpose of XYZ Need for a new architecture. why can't current microcomputer CPU architecture work? They go upto 3GHZ & have upto 8 cores. Need for a new Operating System Why do we need a new kind of operating system for this kind of archictures?

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  • Where should I go with hosting my site: VPS, GAE, another option?

    - by Jonathan Hayward
    My website, http://JonathansCorner.com/, began life before 1994 as www.imsa.edu/~jhayward/ and has been through various iterations and improvements to content, HTML, and the like, but remains a literature site that is from a web administrator's perspective fairly simple and primitive: a fair amount of static HTML and supporting files, a little bit of CGI and URI rewriting, .htaccess files providing Expires: headers and the like. An associated site demoes various CGI scripts that fall under the category of "and other creations"; the site as a whole has the purpose of sharing my creative works, and so far a fairly rudimentary use of Apache functionality, supported by Unix tools to, for instance, update RSS feed and the "starting point" link on the home page, has served that purpose fairly well. I looked around here on web hosting, and found the note on web host reccommendations as a good note for "What are some of people's favorite web hosts overall," but I wanted to ask a more focused question of "What are the best web hosts for criteria XYZ:" I am looking at a VPS so I will have root, be able to install stuff and edit Apache's config files etc., running Gentoo or other Linux, BSD, or the like. I would like a system that is secure enough that the host's vulnerabilities are mostly the ones that come along with what I am trying to do: that is, I won't be trying to administer and secure an ancient Linux like some have complained about at 1and1. I would like good uptime/reliability and competent support staff: if the level 1 help desk is going to tell me to go to "My Computer" on a Linux box, I'd like to be able to get past them. Ideally I would like a site hosted within some place that will have low latency for U.S. visitors in particular. I would like a hosting solution that will be with a stable business, one that will probably be around, and one unlikely to vanish without warning. With those things specified, I would be interested in knowing what are the less expensive options. (I expect that some of the things I've specified will knock out all of the cheapest options, but I'm still interested in price.) With all that stated, I'd like to back up a bit and look at whether I am asking the right question. I am concerned that the above is a very good way of asking, "How can I keep my site in line with the wave of the past?" I am wondering if it might be specifically wiser to look to adapt my site to newer technologies instead of trying to keep it on older technologies. For instance, while I would hardly portray my site as a way to show off the full power of Google App Engine, the main site at least should be a straightforward port if I were to do that. And beyond Google App Engine, my knowledge of cloud solutions is basic. If it is a better and more future-proof solution to port my site to another kind of solution, I would be interested in knowing where those future-proof solutions lie. So I would be interested in wisdom. If the question I asked in detail is still a good question to be asking, what would people suggest? Or if I should seriously consider porting my site to a newer basic option, what should I try there? Any thoughts would be appreciated.

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  • Issues configuring Exchange 2010 as well as SSL problems.

    - by Eric Smith
    Possibly-Relevant Background Info: I've recently moved up from icky shared hosting to a glorious, Remote Desktop-administrated VPS server running Windows Server 2008 R2. Even though I'm only 21 now and a computer science major, I've tried to play with every Windows Server release since '03, just to learn new things. What usually happens is inevitably I'll do something wrong and pretty much ruin the install. You're dealing with an amateur here :) Through the past few months of working with my new server, I've mastered DNS, IIS, got Team Foundation Server running (yay!), and can install all of the other basics like SQL Server and Active Directory. The Problem: Now, these last few weeks I've been trying to install Exchange Server 2010 (SP1). To make a long story short, it took me several attempts, and I even had to get my server wiped just so I could start fresh since Exchange decided uninstalling properly was for sissies (cost me $20, bah). Today, at long last, I got Exchange mostly working. There were two main problems left, however, that left me unsatisfied: Exchange installed itself and all of its child sites into Default Web Site. I wanted to access Exchange via mail.domain.com, but instead everything was configured to domain.com. My limited server admin knowledge was not enough to configure IIS or Exchange to move itself over to the website I had set up for it, appropriately titled 'mail.domain.com', which I had bound to a dedicated IP address (I was told this was necessary, but he may have been wrong). I have two SSL certificates: one for my main domain and one for my mail subdomain. For whatever reason, I had issues geting Exchange to use my mail certificate, even though I had assigned the proper roles in the MMC. I did, at one point, get it to work (or mostly work, anyways. Frankly, my memory of today is clouded by intense frustration). Additionally, I was confused which type of SSL certificate I should be using for Exchange. My SSL provider, GoDaddy, allows me to request a new certificate whenever, so I can use either the certificate request provided by IIS or the more complicated and specific request you can create with Exchange. Which type should I be using, the IIS or Exchange certificate? If I must use the Exchange certificate, will that 1) cause issues when I bind that certificate to my mail.domain.com subdomain or 2) is that an unnecessary step? The SSL Certificate Strikes Back When I thought I had the proper SSL certificate assigned for those brief, sweet moments, Google Chrome reported the correct mail.domain.com certificate when browsing https://mail.domain.com. However, Outlook 2010 threw up an error when trying to configure my email account claiming that the certificate didn't match the domain of "mail.domain.com". Is this an issue that will be resolved by problem #2 or is it a separate one entirely? Apologies for the massive wall of text, but I wanted to provide as much info as I possibly could. Exchange is the last thing I'd like installed on my server, and naturally it's turning out to be the hardest. Thanks for any info at all. Even a point in a vague direction would be a huge help at this point. Thanks! -Eric P.S.: The reason I keep ruining my install is that when I attempt to uninstall Exchange, something invariably goes wrong. The last time the uninstaller complained that there was still a mailbox active and it couldn't proceed until I deleted it. ... The only mailbox left was the Administrator account, the built-in one I couldn't delete. So I attempted to manually uninstall it following several guides online only to now be stuck unable to launch the installer and have to get my system wiped AGAIN for the second time today ($40 down the drain, bah!). I do not understand at all why "uninstall" just can't mean "hey, you, delete everything and go away". There's not even a force uninstall option, only a "recover system" option that just fails to fix anything and makes it so I can't even use the GUI uninstaller. </rant>

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  • Has this server been compromised?

    - by Griffo
    A friend is running a VPS (CentOS) His business partner was the sysadmin but has left him high and dry to look after the system. So, I've been asked to help out in fixing an apparent spam problem. His IP address got blacklisted for unsolicited mail. I'm not sure where to look for a problem, but I started with netstat to see what open connections were running. It looks to me like he has remote hosts connected to his SMTP server. Here's the output: Active Internet connections (w/o servers) Proto Recv-Q Send-Q Local Address Foreign Address State tcp 0 0 78.153.208.195:imap 86-40-60-183-dynamic.:10029 ESTABLISHED tcp 0 0 78.153.208.195:imap 86-40-60-183-dynamic.:10010 ESTABLISHED tcp 0 1 78.153.208.195:35563 news.avanport.pt:smtp SYN_SENT tcp 0 0 78.153.208.195:35559 vip-us-br-mx.terra.com:smtp TIME_WAIT tcp 0 0 78.153.208.195:35560 vip-us-br-mx.terra.com:smtp TIME_WAIT tcp 1 1 78.153.208.195:imaps 86-40-60-183-dynamic.:11647 CLOSING tcp 1 1 78.153.208.195:imaps 86-40-60-183-dynamic.:11645 CLOSING tcp 0 0 78.153.208.195:35562 mx.a.locaweb.com.br:smtp TIME_WAIT tcp 0 0 78.153.208.195:35561 mx.a.locaweb.com.br:smtp TIME_WAIT tcp 0 0 78.153.208.195:imap 86-41-8-64-dynamic.b-:49446 ESTABLISHED Does this indicate that his server may be acting as an open relay? Mail should only be outgoing from localhost. Apologies for my lack of knowledge but I don't work on linux in my day job. EDIT: Here's some output from /var/log/maillog which looks like it may be the result of spam. If it appears to be the case to others, where should I look next to investigate a root cause? I put the server IP through www.checkor.com and it came back clean. Jun 29 00:02:13 vps-1001108-595 qmail: 1309302133.721674 status: local 0/10 remote 9/20 Jun 29 00:02:13 vps-1001108-595 qmail: 1309302133.886182 delivery 74116: deferral: 200.147.36.15_does_not_like_recipient./Remote_host_said:_450_4.7.1_Client_host_rejected:_cannot_find_your_hostname,_[78.153.208.195]/Giving_up_on_200.147.36.15./ Jun 29 00:02:13 vps-1001108-595 qmail: 1309302133.886255 status: local 0/10 remote 8/20 Jun 29 00:02:13 vps-1001108-595 qmail: 1309302133.898266 delivery 74115: deferral: 187.31.0.11_does_not_like_recipient./Remote_host_said:_450_4.7.1_Client_host_rejected:_cannot_find_your_hostname,_[78.153.208.195]/Giving_up_on_187.31.0.11./ Jun 29 00:02:13 vps-1001108-595 qmail: 1309302133.898327 status: local 0/10 remote 7/20 Jun 29 00:02:14 vps-1001108-595 qmail: 1309302134.137833 delivery 74111: deferral: Sorry,_I_wasn't_able_to_establish_an_SMTP_connection._(#4.4.1)/ Jun 29 00:02:14 vps-1001108-595 qmail: 1309302134.137914 status: local 0/10 remote 6/20 Jun 29 00:02:19 vps-1001108-595 qmail: 1309302139.903536 delivery 74000: failure: 209.85.143.27_failed_after_I_sent_the_message./Remote_host_said:_550-5.7.1_[78.153.208.195_______1]_Our_system_has_detected_an_unusual_rate_of/550-5.7.1_unsolicited_mail_originating_from_your_IP_address._To_protect_our/550-5.7.1_users_from_spam,_mail_sent_from_your_IP_address_has_been_blocked./550-5.7.1_Please_visit_http://www.google.com/mail/help/bulk_mail.html_to_review/550_5.7.1_our_Bulk_Email_Senders_Guidelines._e25si1385223wes.137/ Jun 29 00:02:19 vps-1001108-595 qmail: 1309302139.903606 status: local 0/10 remote 5/20 Jun 29 00:02:19 vps-1001108-595 qmail-queue-handlers[15501]: Handlers Filter before-queue for qmail started ... EDIT #2 Here's the output of netstat -p with the imap and imaps lines removed. I also removed my own ssh session Active Internet connections (w/o servers) Proto Recv-Q Send-Q Local Address Foreign Address State PID/Program name tcp 0 1 78.153.208.195:40076 any-in-2015.1e100.net:smtp SYN_SENT 24096/qmail-remote. tcp 0 1 78.153.208.195:40077 any-in-2015.1e100.net:smtp SYN_SENT 24097/qmail-remote. udp 0 0 78.153.208.195:48515 125.64.11.158:4225 ESTABLISHED 20435/httpd

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  • Bind9 Debian Not responding

    - by Marc
    Im trying to set up a webserver with Bind9, apache2 on Debian 6. I am trying to learn to do it manualy so I do not have any control panels or anything just the command line. I have a domain name lets call it www.example.com I want a virtual host setup so that I can have multiple websites with different names on my server. I have ns1.example.com and ns2.example.com registered at my servers IP (123.456.789.12). Below is my Bind9 named.conf.options options { directory "/var/cache/bind"; // If there is a firewall between you and nameservers you want // to talk to, you may need to fix the firewall to allow multiple // ports to talk. See http://www.kb.cert.org/vuls/id/800113 // If your ISP provided one or more IP addresses for stable // nameservers, you probably want to use them as forwarders. // Uncomment the following block, and insert the addresses replacing // the all-0's placeholder. // forwarders { // 0.0.0.0; // }; auth-nxdomain no; # conform to RFC1035 listen-on-v6 { any; }; }; This is the default I'm not sure if i was supposed to edit it. I didn't. Here is my named.conf.default-zones: // prime the server with knowledge of the root servers zone "." { type hint; file "/etc/bind/db.root"; }; // be authoritative for the localhost forward and reverse zones, and for // broadcast zones as per RFC 1912 zone "localhost" { type master; file "/etc/bind/db.local"; }; zone "127.in-addr.arpa" { type master; file "/etc/bind/db.127"; }; zone "0.in-addr.arpa" { type master; file "/etc/bind/db.0"; }; zone "255.in-addr.arpa" { type master; file "/etc/bind/db.255"; }; zone "example.com.com" { type master; file "etc/bind/example.com.db"; }; named.conf.local Is an empty file with a comment saying to do local configuration here. example.com.db looks like this: ; BIND data file for mywebsite.com ; $ORIGIN example.com. $TTL 604800 @ IN SOA ns1.example.com. [email protected]. ( 2009120101 ; Serial 604800 ; Refresh 86400 ; Retry 2419200 ; Expire 604800 ) ; Negative Cache TTL ; IN NS ns1.example.com. IN NS ns2.example.com. IN MX 10 mail.example.com. localhost IN A 127.0.0.1 example.com. IN A 123.456.789.12 ns1 IN A 123.456.789.12 ns2 IN A 123.456.789.12 www IN A 123.456.789.12 ftp IN A 123.456.789.12 mail IN A 123.456.789.12 boards IN CNAME www These are all settings I've found from various tutorials. Now when i go to intodns I get: You should already know that your NS records at your nameservers are missing, so here it is again: ns1.example.com ns2.example.com Can someone help me? I'm not sure what Im doing wrong.

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  • How to use Public IP in case of two ISP when two differs from each other

    - by user1471995
    Please bare with my long explanation but this is important to explain the actual problem. Please also pardon my knowledge with PFsense as i am new to this. I have single PFSense box with 3 Ethernet adapter. Before moving to configuration for these, i want to let you know i have two Ethernet based Internet Leased Line Connectivity let's call them ISP A and ISP B. Then last inetrface is LAN which is connected to network switch. Typical network diagram ISP A ----- PFSense ----> Switch ---- > Servers ISP B ----- ISP A (Initially Purchased) WAN IP:- 113.193.X.X /29 Gateway IP :- 113.193.X.A and other 4 usable public IP in same subnet(So the gateway for those IP are also same). ISP B (Recently Purchased) WAN IP:- 115.115.X.X /30 Gateway IP :- 115.115.X.B and other 5 usable public IP in different subnet(So the gateway for those IP is different), for example if 115.119.X.X2 is one of the IP from that list then the gateway for this IP is 115.119.X.X1. Configuration for 3 Interfaces Interface : WAN Network Port : nfe0 Type : Static IP Address : 113.193.X.X /29 Gateway : 113.193.X.A Interface : LAN Network Port : vr0 Type : Static IP Address : 192.168.1.1 /24 Gateway : None Interface : RELWAN Network Port : rl0 Type : Static IP Address : 115.115.X.X /30 (I am not sure of the subnet) Gateway : 115.115.X.B To use Public IP from ISP A i have done following steps a) Created Virtual IP using either ARP or IP Alias. b) Using Firewall: NAT: Port Forward i have created specific natting from one public IP to my internal Lan private IP for example :- WAN TCP/UDP * * 113.193.X.X1 53 (DNS) 192.168.1.5 53 (DNS) WAN TCP/UDP * * 113.193.X.X1 80 (HTTP) 192.168.1.5 80 (HTTP) WAN TCP * * 113.193.X.X2 80 (HTTP) 192.168.1.7 80 (HTTP) etc., c) Current state for Firewall: NAT: Outbound is Manual and whatever default rule are defined for the WAN those are only present. d) If this section in relevant then for Firewall: Rules at WAN tab then following default rule has been generated. * RFC 1918 networks * * * * * Block private networks * Reserved/not assigned by IANA * * * * * * To use Public IP from ISP B i have done following steps a) Created Virtual IP using either ARP or IP Alias. b) Using Firewall: NAT: Port Forward i have created specific natting from one public IP to my internal Lan private IP for example :- RELWAN TCP/UDP * * 115.119.116.X.X1 80 (HTTP) 192.168.1.11 80 (HTTP) c) Current state for Firewall: NAT: Outbound is Manual and whatever default rule are defined for the RELWAN those are only present. d) If this section in relevant then for Firewall: Rules at RELWAN tab then following default rule has been generated. * RFC 1918 networks * * * * * * Reserved/not assigned by IANA * * * * * * Last thing before my actual query is to make you aware that to have multiple Wan setup i have done following steps a) Under System: Gateways at Groups Tab i have created new group as following MultipleGateway WANGW, RELWAN Tier 2,Tier 1 Multiple Gateway Test b) Then Under Firewall: Rules at LAN tab i have created a rule for internal traffic as follows * LAN net * * * MultipleGateway none c) This setup works if unplug first ISP traffic start routing using ISP 2 and vice-versa. Now my main query and problem is i am not able to use public IP address allocated by ISP B, i have tried many small tweaks but not successful in anyone. The notable difference between the two ISP is a) In case of ISP A there Public usable IP address are on same subnet so the gateway used for the WAN ip is same for the other public IP address. b) In case of ISP B there public usable IP address are on different subnet so the obvious the gateway IP for them is different from WAN gateway's IP. Please let me know how to use ISP B public usable IP address, in future also i am going to rely for more IPs from ISP B only.

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  • Windows Media Player won't launch on Vista - how to repair or reinstall it?

    - by rpm1200
    My friend asked me to look at her Acer Aspire laptop with Vista Home Premium as it is no longer playing DVDs. I found that Windows Media Player would not launch. I found this thread, which contained a number of suggestions, none of which solved the problem. Here is what I tried: Tried running WMP via desktop shortcut, QuickLaunch bar or going to Program Files\Windows Media Player\wmplayer.exe. In all cases, wmplayer would launch then terminate immediately (verified through the Processes tab in Task Manager). Tried running wmplayer.exe as Administrator. The UAC dialog would come up, I'd approve, then wmplayer would launch and terminate immediately. Uninstalled all non-Microsoft media programs except RealPlayer, iTunes, QuickTime, Acer Arcade (the laptop owner uses all those apps). Tried running Program Files\Windows Media Player\setup_wm.exe as Administrator, it launched but said that a newer version of WMP was already installed. Deleted the "Windows Media" folder located under %userprofile%\appdata\local\Microsoft then tried starting WMP - wmplayer would launch and terminate immediately. Register wmp.dll by typing "regsvr32 wmp.dll" in an Administrator cmd window then tried starting WMP - wmplayer would launch and terminate immediately. Run "SFC /SCANFILE" in an Administrator cmd window - get an error message that it found invalid system files and could not fix them, so look at the log file cbs.log. The log file shows that there are broken files associated with Windows Sidebar (which the user does not use) but none relating to WMP. Log off to safe mode and run "SFC /SCANFILE" in an Administrator cmd window again - same results. Try to download and install XP WMP - the microsoft.com site recognizes the OS as Genuine and allows the download, but when I launch the installer it says the system is not Genuine. Clicking the link directs me back to IE where I can authenticate the system as Genuine. The installer still fails to recognize the system as Genuine. It is a Genuine Vista installation. Try to run this update (KB931621). The installer said it did not apply to the system. Set Windows Media Player as default in Program Access and Defaults. Same results. Tried running "for %a in (%systemroot%\system32\wm*.dll) do regsvr32 /s %a" in an Administrator cmd window - same results. Went to this Knowledge Base article (947541) and ran the Microsoft Fix It. The Fix It ran successfully, but WMP would still launch and terminate immediately. Multiple reboots in the process of doing all of these steps. After all this, looked in the Application and Security logs. No events pertaining to WMP were logged. The computer was preinstalled with Vista Home Premium and I have the Acer backup DVDs which will reimage the drive. I do not have Vista install DVDs. Reimaging the system is not an option. I'd also rather not restore the system to an earlier point unless it's absolutely necessary. What else can I do to repair or reinstall WMP?

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  • How to stop windows resizing when the monitor display channel is turned off / switched to different source

    - by Heartspeace
    Have a new 6870 ati radeon adapter with its drivers set to 1080p 60hz resolution hooked up to a 2008 47" high end Samsung HDMI based TV. However, when the tv is turned to a different hdmi input -(when I come back into windows) somehow Windows decides to resize all the open apps to a lower resolution - including some of the side docked hidden pop-outs. When it resizes those though - it just sticked the pop-outs in the middle of the screen and all the resized windows from the open applications in the top left corner - all of them stacked on top of each other and resized to the smaller resolution. The things that seem to be ok after returning are the icons on the desktop, the taskbar, and the sidebar. Anyone have any knowledge of 1) how this happens 2) why it happens 3) how to stop it from resizing the applications and some of the docked pop-outs (they are not really resized after returning - they are just stuck in the middle of the screen approximately where they would be if the right or bottom sidebar should be if the screen was resized to that lower resolution). My hypothesis is that upon losing HDMI signal - that Windows is told by something (driver, or windows itself) that the resolution to be without a signal being present (noting that HDMI signals and handshakes are two way on HDMI devices. If it loses the signal or the tv is switched to another device - then the display adapter must figure that out and tell Windows or figures it out and designs randomly to change the display size). Any and all help is most appreciated. I asked AMD/ATI - but they said they don't know why or how this is happening. I was hoping that maybe this is THE place that the super users truly go to - those that develop display adapter drivers, or that dive deeply into these areas of windows. If there is better sites or just competing sites - please advise - noting I have already written AMD/ATI. HP Response / Additions 4/7/2011 It is really nice to get your reply Shinrai. (BTW is it proper etiquette on these forums to have a discussion?) Yet 'only one issue' - I am using a single display in this case - so Windows doesn't move application windows to another desktop. Windows (or something) decides to shrink the desktop it currently has and resize all windows to the maximum size of the desktop. As such I would be glad if Windows would just keep the current size of the one desktop that is in operation. I also know that this does NOT happen on monitors connected with DVI. There I have had one and two monitors setup and it doesn't resize those screens at all when disconnecting monitors, turning them off, whatever... they stay solid - everything in place - to such an extent that if you forgot the other monitor is off - you will have troubles finding some windows without using one of the control app utilities. So if I could even get the HDMI handling by Windows (or the display driver) ( 1] which is doing this anyway the display driver or Windows - and 2] where is that other resolution size (1024x768) coming from - its not the smallest and its not the largest?) to be having like DVI - Life would be golden (for this aspect anyway). ** found others with same problem in this thread: http://hardforum.com/showthread.php?t=1507324 Thanks, HP

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  • Windows Media Player won't launch on Vista - how to repair or reinstall it?

    - by rpm1200
    My friend asked me to look at her Acer Aspire laptop with Vista Home Premium as it is no longer playing DVDs. I found that Windows Media Player would not launch. I found this thread, which contained a number of suggestions, none of which solved the problem. Here is what I tried: Tried running WMP via desktop shortcut, QuickLaunch bar or going to Program Files\Windows Media Player\wmplayer.exe. In all cases, wmplayer would launch then terminate immediately (verified through the Processes tab in Task Manager). Tried running wmplayer.exe as Administrator. The UAC dialog would come up, I'd approve, then wmplayer would launch and terminate immediately. Uninstalled all non-Microsoft media programs except RealPlayer, iTunes, QuickTime, Acer Arcade (the laptop owner uses all those apps). Tried running Program Files\Windows Media Player\setup_wm.exe as Administrator, it launched but said that a newer version of WMP was already installed. Deleted the "Windows Media" folder located under %userprofile%\appdata\local\Microsoft then tried starting WMP - wmplayer would launch and terminate immediately. Register wmp.dll by typing "regsvr32 wmp.dll" in an Administrator cmd window then tried starting WMP - wmplayer would launch and terminate immediately. Run "SFC /SCANFILE" in an Administrator cmd window - get an error message that it found invalid system files and could not fix them, so look at the log file cbs.log. The log file shows that there are broken files associated with Windows Sidebar (which the user does not use) but none relating to WMP. Log off to safe mode and run "SFC /SCANFILE" in an Administrator cmd window again - same results. Try to download and install XP WMP - the microsoft.com site recognizes the OS as Genuine and allows the download, but when I launch the installer it says the system is not Genuine. Clicking the link directs me back to IE where I can authenticate the system as Genuine. The installer still fails to recognize the system as Genuine. It is a Genuine Vista installation. Try to run this update (KB931621). The installer said it did not apply to the system. Set Windows Media Player as default in Program Access and Defaults. Same results. Tried running "for %a in (%systemroot%\system32\wm*.dll) do regsvr32 /s %a" in an Administrator cmd window - same results. Went to this Knowledge Base article (947541) and ran the Microsoft Fix It. The Fix It ran successfully, but WMP would still launch and terminate immediately. Multiple reboots in the process of doing all of these steps. After all this, looked in the Application and Security logs. No events pertaining to WMP were logged. The computer was preinstalled with Vista Home Premium and I have the Acer backup DVDs which will reimage the drive. I do not have Vista install DVDs. Reimaging the system is not an option. I'd also rather not restore the system to an earlier point unless it's absolutely necessary. What else can I do to repair or reinstall WMP?

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  • I am getting a 400 Bad Request error when using Nginx and PHP-FPM, why?

    - by Bob
    I am trying to run a website (that requires PHP - it technically doesn't require MySQL at this time, but it may sometime in the near future as I continue developing it, so I went ahead and installed that as well) using nginx 1.2.4 and PHP-FPM 5.3.3 on Ubuntu 12.04.1 LTS. As far as I know, I haven't done anything wrong, but clearly something is not quite right - I seem to be getting a 400 Bad Request error whenever I try to browse to my website. I've been mostly following one guide, and I've done more or less everything it recommends, except for not setting up PHP-FPM to use a Unix Socket and I used service as opposed to /etc/init.d/ when starting/stopping nginx, PHP, and MySQL. Anyways, here are my relevant configuration files (I have only censored personal/sensitive details, like my domain name - which contains my real name): /etc/nginx/nginx.conf user www-data; worker_processes 4; pid /var/run/nginx.pid; events { worker_connections 768; # multi_accept on; } http { ## # Basic Settings ## sendfile on; tcp_nopush on; tcp_nodelay on; keepalive_timeout 15; types_hash_max_size 2048; # server_tokens off; # server_names_hash_bucket_size 64; # server_name_in_redirect off; include /etc/nginx/mime.types; default_type application/octet-stream; ## # Logging Settings ## access_log /var/log/nginx/access.log; error_log /var/log/nginx/error.log; ## # Gzip Settings ## gzip on; gzip_disable "msie6"; # gzip_vary on; # gzip_proxied any; # gzip_comp_level 6; # gzip_buffers 16 8k; # gzip_http_version 1.1; # gzip_types text/plain text/css application/json application/x-javascript text/xml application/xml application/xml+rss text/javascript; ## # nginx-naxsi config ## # Uncomment it if you installed nginx-naxsi ## #include /etc/nginx/naxsi_core.rules; ## # nginx-passenger config ## # Uncomment it if you installed nginx-passenger ## #passenger_root /usr; #passenger_ruby /usr/bin/ruby; ## # Virtual Host Configs ## include /etc/nginx/conf.d/*.conf; include /etc/nginx/sites-enabled/*; } /etc/nginx/sites-enabled/subdomain.mydomain.net server { listen 80; # listen for IPv4 listen [::]:80; # listen for IPv6 server_name www.subdomain.mydomain.net subdomain.mydomain.net; access_log /srv/www/subdomain.mydomain.net/logs/access.log; error_log /srv/www/subdomain.mydomain.net/logs/error.log; location / { root /srv/www/subdomain.mydomain.net/public; index index.php; } location ~ \.php$ { try_files $uri =400; include fastcgi_params; fastcgi_split_path_info ^(.+\.php)(/.+)$; fastcgi_pass 127.0.0.1:9000; fastcgi_index index.php; fastcgi_param SCRIPT_FILENAME /srv/www/subdomain.mydomain.net/public$fastcgi_script_name; } } All the directories listed in the configuration files above are correct on my server (to the extent of my knowledge). I have not included /etc/php5/fpm/pool.d/www.conf or /etc/php5/fpm/php.ini in this post as they're rather long, but I have posted them on Pastebin: http://pastebin.com/ensErJD8 and http://pastebin.com/T23dt7vM, respectively. Although, the only thing I've changed in either of the two files was in php.ini, where I set expose_php to off so as to hide the .php file extension from users. What can I do to resolve my issue? Please let me know if I need to supply any additional details.

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  • Network config / gear question

    - by mcgee1234
    I have been tasked with setting up a fairly straightforward rack in a data center (we do not even need a whole rack, but this is the smallest allotment available). In a nutshell, 4 to 6 servers need to be able to reach 2 (maybe 3) vendors. The servers needs to be reachable over the internet. A little more detail - the networks the servers need to reach are inside of the data center, and are "trusted". Connections to these networks will be achieved through intra data center cross connects. It is kind of like a manufacturing line where we receive data from one vendor (burst-able up to 200 Mbits), churn through it on the servers, and then send out data to another vendor (bursts up to 20 Mbits). This series of events is very latency sensitive, so much so that it is common practice not to use NAT or a firewall on these segments (or so I hear). To reach the servers over the internet, I plan to use a site to site VPN. (This part is only relevant as far as hardware selection goes). I have 2 configurations in mind: Cisco 2911 (2921) (with the additional wan ports module) and a layer 2 switch - in this scenario, I would use the router also for VPN. Cisco 3560 layer 3 switch to interconnect the networks inside of the data center and an ASA 5510 (which is total overkill, but the 5505 is not rack mountable) as a firewall for the Wan side (internet) and VPN. I envision the setup to be as follows: Internet - ASA - 3560 Vendors - 3560 - Servers The general idea is that the ASA acts as a firewall and VPN device and the 3560 does all the heavy lifting. The first is a fairly traditional setup but my concern is performance. The second is somewhat unorthodox in that the vendors are directly connected to the layer 3 switch without passing through a firewall. Based on my understanding however, a layer 3 switch will perform substantially better as it will do hardware (ASIC) vs. software switching. (Note that number 2 is a little over the budget, but not unworkable (double negative, ugh)) Since this is my first time dealing with a data center, I am not sure what the IP space is going to look like. I suspect I will retain a block(s) of public IPs, vlan them to individual interfaces for the vendor connections and the servers (which will not reachable from the wan side of course) and setup routing on the switch. So here are my questionss: Is there a substantial performance difference between 1 and 2, i.e. hardware based switching on a layer 3 vs a software base on the 2911? I have trolled the internet and found a lot of Cisco literature, but nothing that I could really use to get a good handle. The vendors we connect to are secure and trusted (famous last words) and as I understand it, it is common practice not to NAT or firewall these connections (because of the aforementioned latency sensitivity). But what what kind of latency are we really talking about if I push the data through a router (or even ASA for that matter)? For our purposes, 5 ms will not kill us, 20 or 30 can be very costly. Others measure in microseconds, but they are out of our league. Is there any issues with using public IPs on a layer 3 switch? I am certainly not married to either of these configs, and I am totally open to any ideas. My knowledge (and I use the term loosely) is largely from books so I welcome any advice / insight. Thanks in advance.

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  • Get Local IP-Address using Boost.Asio

    - by MOnsDaR
    Hey, I'm currently searching for a portable way of getting the local IP-addresses. Because I'm using Boost anyway I thought it would be a good idea to use Boost.Asio for this task. There are serveral examples on the net which should do the trick. Examples: Official Boost.Asio Documentation Some Asian Page I tried both codes with just slight modifications. The Code on Boost.Doc was changed to not resolve "www.boost.org" but "localhost" or my hostname instead. For getting the hostname I used boost::asio::ip::host_name() or typed it directly as a string. Additionally I wrote my own code which was a merge of the above examples and my (little) knowledge I gathered from the Boost Documentation and other examples. All the sources worked, but they did just return the following IP: 127.0.1.1 (Thats not a typo, its .1.1 at the end) I run and compiled the code on Ubuntu 9.10 with GCC 4.4.1 A colleague tried the same code on his machine and got 127.0.0.2 (Not a typo too...) He compiled and run on Suse 11.0 with GCC 4.4.1 (I'm not 100% sure) I don't know if it is possible to change the localhost (127.0.0.1), but I know that neither me or my colleague did it. ifconfig says loopback uses 127.0.0.1. ifconfig also finds the public IP I am searching for (141.200.182.30 in my case, subnet is 255.255.0.0) So is this a Linux-issue and the code is not as portable as I thought? Do I have to change something else or is Boost.Asio not working as a solution for my problem at all? I know there are much questions about similar topics on Stackoverflow and other pages, but I cannot find information which is useful in my case. If you got useful links, it would be nice if you could point me to it. Thanks in advance, MOnsDaR PS: Here is the modified code I used from Boost.Doc: #include <boost/asio.hpp> using boost::asio::ip::tcp; boost::asio::io_service io_service; tcp::resolver resolver(io_service); tcp::resolver::query query(boost::asio::ip::host_name(), ""); tcp::resolver::iterator iter = resolver.resolve(query); tcp::resolver::iterator end; // End marker. while (iter != end) { tcp::endpoint ep = *iter++; std::cout << ep << std::endl; }

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  • Debugging XSLT with extension objects in Visual Studio 2010

    - by Alex Ciminian
    I'm currently working on a project that involves a lot of XSLT transformations and I really need a debugger (I have XSLTs that are 1000+ lines long and I didn't write them :-). The project is written in C# and makes use of extension objects: xslArg.AddExtensionObject("urn:<obj>", new <Obj>()); From my knowledge, in this situation Visual Studio is the only tool that can help me debug the transformations step-by-step. The static debugger is no use because of the extension objects (it throws an error when it reaches elements that reference their namespace). Fortunately, I've found this thread which gave me a starting point (at least I know it can be done). After searching MSDN, I found the criteria that makes stepping into the transform possible. They are listed here. In short: the XML and the XSLT must be loaded via a class that has the IXmlLineInfo interface (XmlReader & co.) the XML resolver used in the XSLTCompiledTransform constructor is file-based (XmlUriResolver should work). the stylesheet should be on the local machine or on the intranet (?) From what I can tell, I fit all these criteria, but it still doesn't work. The relevant code samples are posted below: // [...] xslTransform = new XslCompiledTransform(true); xslTransform.Load(XmlReader.Create(new StringReader(contents)), null, new BaseUriXmlResolver(xslLocalPath)); // [...] // I already had the xml loaded in an xmlDocument // so I have to convert to an XmlReader XmlTextReader r = new XmlTextReader(new StringReader(xmlDoc.OuterXml)); XsltArgumentList xslArg = new XsltArgumentList(); xslArg.AddExtensionObject("urn:[...]", new [...]()); xslTransform.Transform(r, xslArg, context.Response.Output); I really don't get what I'm doing wrong. I've checked the interfaces on both XmlReader objects and they implement the required one. Also, BaseUriXmlResolver inherits from XmlUriResolver and the stylesheet is stored locally. The screenshot below is what I get when stepping into the Transform function. First I can see the stylesheet code after stepping through the parameters (on template-match), I get this: If anyone has any idea why it doesn't work or has an alternative way of getting it to work I'd be much obliged :). Thanks, Alex

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  • MKMapView memory usage grows out of control with setRegion: calls

    - by Kurt
    Hi, I have a single MKMapView instance that I have programmatically added to a UIView. As part of the UI, the user can cycle through a list of addresses and the map view is updated to show the correct map for each address as the user goes through them. I create the map view once, and simply change what it displays with setRegion:animated:. The problem is that each time the map is changed to show a new address, the memory usage of my program increases by 200K-500K (as reported by Memory Monitor in Instruments). According to Object Allocations, it appears that a lot of 1.0K Mallocs are happening each time, and the Extended Detail pane for these 1.0K allocations shows that the Responsible Caller is convert_image_data and the Extended Detail pane shows that this is the result of [MKMapTileView drawLayer:inContext:]. So, seems likely to me that the memory usage is due to MKMapView not freeing memory it uses to redraw the map each time. In fact, when I don't display the map at all (by not even adding it as a subview of my main UIView) but still cycle through the addresses (which changes various UILabels and other displayed info) the memory usage for the app does NOT increase. If I add the map view but never update it with setRegion:, the memory also does NOT increase when changing to a new address. One more bit of info: if I go to a new address (and therefore ask the map to display the new address) the memory jumps as described above. However, if I go back to an address that was already displayed, the memory does not jump when the map redraws with the old address. Also, this happens on iPad (real device) with 3.2 and on iPhone (again, real device) with 3.1.2. Here's how I initialize the MKMapView (I only do this once): CGRect mapFrame; mapFrame.origin.y = 460; // yes, magic numbers. just for testing. mapFrame.origin.x = 0; mapFrame.size.height = 500; mapFrame.size.width = 768; mapView = [[MKMapView alloc] initWithFrame:mapFrame]; mapView.delegate = self; [self.view insertSubview:mapView atIndex:0]; And in response to the user selecting an address, I set the map like so: MKCoordinateRegion region; MKCoordinateSpan span; span.latitudeDelta=kStreetMapSpan; // 0.003 span.longitudeDelta=kStreetMapSpan; // 0.003 region.center = address.coords; // coords is CLLocationCoordinate2D region.span = span; mapView.region.span = span; [mapView setRegion:region animated:NO]; Any thoughts? I've scoured the net but haven't seen mention of this problem, and I've reached the limits of my Instruments knowledge. Thanks for any ideas.

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