Search Results

Search found 39440 results on 1578 pages for 'possible homework'.

Page 160/1578 | < Previous Page | 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167  | Next Page >

  • Is it possible to dynamically insert rows in an existing DataTable (No DataSource used)?

    - by aparnakarthik
    Hi... I have created a datatable with three fields namely TimeTask, TaskItem and Count (count of user) eg; {"12:30AM-01:00AM" , T1 , 3}. dataTable.Columns.Add("Task Time", typeof(string)); dataTable.Columns.Add("Task", typeof(string)); dataTable.Columns.Add("Count", typeof(int)); dataTable.Rows.Add("12:00AM-12:15AM", "T1", 6); dataTable.Rows.Add("12:45AM-01:00AM", "T1", 5); dataTable.Rows.Add("01:00AM-01:15AM", "T1", 1); dataTable.Rows.Add("01:15AM-01:30AM", "T2", 4); dataTable.Rows.Add("01:30AM-01:45AM", "T2", 9); GridView1.DataSource = dataTable; GridView1.DataBind(); In this there is no task for the TimeTask "12:15AM-12:30AM" and "12:30AM-12:45AM" yet the TimeTask should be inserted as, TimeTask TaskItem Count 12:00AM-12:15AM T1 6 12:15AM-12:30AM - - 12:30AM-12:45AM - - 12:45AM-01:00AM T1 5 01:00AM-01:15AM T1 1 01:15AM-01:30AM T2 4 01:30AM-01:45AM T2 9 How to chk for the missing rows? Is it possible to dynamically insert rows in an existing DataTable (No DataSource used) in this scenario.pls help.Thanks :-)

    Read the article

  • How can I map to a field that is joined in via one of three possible tables

    - by Mongus Pong
    I have this object : public class Ledger { public virtual Person Client { get; set; } // .... } The Ledger table joins to the Person table via one of three possible tables : Bill, Receipt or Payment. So we have the following tables : Ledger LedgerID PK Bill BillID PK, LedgerID, ClientID Receipt ReceiptID PK, LedgerID, ClientID Payment PaymentID PK, LedgerID, ClientID If it was just the one table, I could map this as : Join ( "Bill", x => { x.ManyToOne ( ledger => ledger.Client, mapping => mapping.Column ( "ClientID" ) ); x.Key ( l => l.Column ( "LedgerID" ) ); } ); This won't work for three tables. For a start the Join performs an inner join. Since there will only ever be one of Bill, Receipt or Payment - an inner join on these tables will always return zero rows. Then it would need to know to do a Coalesce on the ClientID of each of these tables to know the ClientID to grab the data from. Is there a way to do this? Or am I asking too much of the mappings here?

    Read the article

  • In ASP.NET, is it possible to output cache by host name? ie varybyhost or varbyhostheader?

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, I've got a website that has a number of host headers. Depending on the host header, the results are different - both visually (theme'd) and data. So lets imagine i have a website called 'Foo' - that returns search results (original, eh?). Now, the same code runs both sites. It is physically the same server/website (using Host Headers) :- www.foo.com www.foo.com.au Now, if i goto '.com', the site is theme'd in blue. if i goto the '.com.au' site, it's theme'd in red. And the data is different for the same search result, based on the host name (ie. us results for .com, au results for .com.au) SO .. if i wish to use OutputCaching .. can this be handled / differ by the host name? I don't want to have the first person goto the .com site .. grab the results ... and the a second person goto my .com.au .. same search data .. and get the theme and results for the .com site. Possible?

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to wrap an asynchronous event and its callback in a function that returns a boolean?

    - by Rob Flaherty
    I'm trying to write a simple test that creates an image element, checks the image attributes, and then returns true/false. The problem is that using the onload event makes the test asynchronous. On it own this isn't a problem (using a callback as I've done in the code below is easy), but what I can't figure out is how to encapsulate this into a single function that returns a boolean. I've tried various combinations of closures, recursion, and self-executing functions but have had no luck. So my question: am I being dense and overlooking something simple, or is this in fact not possible, because, no matter what, I'm still trying to wrap an asynchronous function in synchronous expectations? Here's the code: var supportsImage = function(callback) { var img = new Image(); img.onload = function() { //Check attributes and pass true or false to callback callback(true); }; img.src = 'data:image/gif;base64,R0lGODlhAQABAAD/ACwAAAAAAQABAAACADs='; }; supportsImage(function(status){ console.log(status); }); To be clear, what I want is to be able to wrap this in something such that it can be used like: if (supportsImage) { //Do some crazy stuff } Thanks! (Btw, I know there are a ton of SO questions regarding confusion about synchronous vs. asynchronous. Apologies if this can be reduced to something previously answered.)

    Read the article

  • MySQL running on an EC2 m1.small instance has high load but low memory usage, possible resolutions?

    - by Tosh
    I have a MySQL server 5.0.75 Ubuntu, on an m1.small instance running on Amazon's EC2 as part of an application. During peak usage the server load will rise very high, while the memory usage stays low and the application server is no longer responsive since it's waiting for query results. The application server has only 5-8 apache processes running (mod_perl processes). The data directory uses only 140MB of data so the MyIsam tables aren't very big. The queries are pretty complicated with some big joins being performed, and the application makes a lot of queries. mysqltuner reports everything OK except "Maximum possible memory usage: 1.7G (99% of installed RAM)" but I'm nowhere close to using that. My question is, where should I be looking to fix this? Is this something that can be tuned away, or do I just need a larger instance/server? Googling indicates either or also upgrading MySQL server. Any pointers in the right direction would be greatly appreciated, thanks! EDIT: I just discovered this in my slow queries log: # Time: 101116 11:17:00 # User@Host: user[pass] @ [host] # Query_time: 4063 Lock_time: 1035 Rows_sent: 0 Rows_examined: 19960174 SELECT * FROM contacts WHERE contacts.contact_id IN (SELECT external_id FROM contact_relations WHERE external_table = 'contacts' AND contact_id IN (SELECT contact_id FROM contacts WHERE (company_name like '%%butan%%%' OR country like '%%butan%%%' OR city like '%%butan%%%' OR email1 like '%%butan%%%') AND (company_name is not null and company_name != ''))); Which actually brings up a different but related question: If I have a contact table containing: John Smith,The Fun Factory,555-1212,[email protected] What's the best way to search for that record using "factory" as a search key? Fulltext rarely seems to find items in the middle of a word, for example "actor" should bring up "Factory"

    Read the article

  • Is it possible, in ASP .net, to reference private assembly in a non-virtual subdirectory?

    - by Bago
    Is it possible to reference a private assembly in asp .net from a sub-folder that is not setup as a virtual directory? In other words, my page is setup in ~/subdir, I don't have access to ~/, and I am not an IIS admin. Can I reference a private assembly? How would I do this? I've tried <%@ Assembly Src="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll % and <%@ Assembly Src="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll % , but I get the messages "There is no build provider to match the extension .dll" or "Failed to map to path" respectively. Here is my folder structure: / | -subdir | | - Bin | | | *Assembly.dll | | *Default.aspx I've heard that in web.config might do the trick, but when I've tried it, it doesn't seem to work. Furthermore, I've read that only works in the application .config file. (i.e., the one in ~/). Anyhow, I already tried adding the following to web.config: <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <probing privatePath="/subdir/bin" /> <dependentAssembly> <codeBase href="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll"/> </dependentAssembly> </assemblyBinding> For more background on my problem, I am simply using a shared host, all I have is access to is that subdirectory, and I am trying to use fckeditor.

    Read the article

  • Is it possible, in ASP.net, to reference private assembly in a non-virtual subdirectory?

    - by Bago
    Is it possible to reference a private assembly in asp .net from a sub-folder that is not setup as a virtual directory? In other words, my page is setup in ~/subdir, I don't have access to ~/, and I am not an IIS admin. Can I reference a private assembly? How would I do this? I've tried <%@ Assembly Src="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll % and <%@ Assembly Src="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll % , but I get the messages "There is no build provider to match the extension .dll" or "Failed to map to path" respectively. Here is my folder structure: / | -subdir | | - Bin | | | *Assembly.dll | | *Default.aspx I've heard that in web.config might do the trick, but when I've tried it, it doesn't seem to work. Furthermore, I've read that only works in the application .config file. (i.e., the one in ~/). Anyhow, I already tried adding the following to web.config: <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <probing privatePath="/subdir/bin" /> <dependentAssembly> <codeBase href="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll"/> </dependentAssembly> </assemblyBinding> For more background on my problem, I am simply using a shared host, all I have is access to is that subdirectory, and I am trying to use fckeditor.

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to limit outside connections to a subdomain with .htaccess or similar?

    - by digidave0205
    I host a web application. This application serves static html pages that are refreshed at various intervals. Some as often as every 30 secs. At this time I have about 300 unique pages that are accessed via 300 unique subdomains. Some clients have at most 50 visitors to their unique page and it refreshes every 30 secs, no problem. Other clients have up to 1000 or more visitors to their page. These clients are killing my server. There was no predefined limit upon signup but now I have to impose such a limit to remain afloat financially. I would like to define a finite number of connections allowed for each individual subdomain in my hosting account. Connections attempted out of range of this finite value would either be rejected or redirected. I have access to .htaccess and php.ini. Is something of this nature possible? Oh, I have a dedicated/managed server at 1and1.

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to load an entire SQL Server CE database into RAM?

    - by DanM
    I'm using LinqToSql to query a small SQL Server CE database. I've noticed that any operations involving sub-properties are disappointingly slow. For example, if I have a Customer table that is referenced by an Order table via a foreign key, LinqToSql will automatically create an EntitySet<Order> property. This is a nice convenience, allowing me to do things like Customer.Order.Where(o => o.ProductName = "Stopwatch"), but for some reason, SQL Server CE hangs up pretty bad when I try to do stuff like this. One of my queries, which isn't really that complicated takes 3-4 seconds to complete. I can get the speed up to acceptable, even fast, if I just grab the two tables individually and convert them to List<Customer> and List<Order>, then join then manually with my own query, but this is throwing out a lot of the appeal of LinqToSql. So, I'm wondering if I can somehow get the whole database into RAM and just query that way, then occasionally save it. Is this possible? How? If not, is there anything else I can do to boost the performance? Note: My database in its initial state is about 250K and I don't expect it to grow to more than 1-2Mb. So, loading the data into RAM certainly wouldn't be a problem from a memory point of view.

    Read the article

  • Cross-platform build UNC share (Windows->Linux) - possible to be case-sensitive on CIFS share?

    - by holtavolt
    To optimize builds between Windows and Linux (Ubuntu 10.04), I've got a UNC share of the source tree that is shared between systems, and all build output goes to local disk on each system. This mostly works great, as source updates and changes can quickly be tested on both systems, but there's one annoying limitation I can't find a way around, which is that the Linux CIFS mount is case-insensitive. Consequently, a test compile of code that has an error like: #include "Foo.h" for a file foo.h, will not be caught by a test build (until a local compile is done on the Linux box, e.g. nightly builds) Is it possible to have case-sensitivity of the Windows UNC share on the Linux box? I've tried a variety of fstab and mount combinations with no success, as well as editing the smb.config to set "case sensitive = yes" Given what the Ubuntu man page info states on this: nocase Request case insensitive path name matching (case sensitive is the default if the server suports it). I suspect that this is a limitation from the Windows UNC side, and there's nothing to be done short of switching to some other mechanism (is NFS still viable anywhere?) If anyone has already solved this to support optimized cross-platform build environments, I'd appreciate hearing about it!

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to create a null function that will not produce warnings?

    - by bbazso
    I have a logger in a c++ application that uses defines as follows: #define FINEST(...) Logger::Log(FINEST, _FILE, __LINE, __func, __VA_ARGS_) However what I would like to do is to be able to switch off these logs since they have a serious performance impact on my system. And, it's not sufficient to simply have my Logger not write to the system log. I really need to get rid of the code produced by the logs. In order to do this, I changed the define to: #define FINEST(...) Which works, but this produces a whole bunch of warning in my code since variables are unused now. So what I would like to have is a sort of NULL FUNCTION that would not actually exist, but would not produce warnings for the unused variables. So, said another way, I would like it to compile with no warnings (i.e. the compiler thinks that the variables are used for a function) but the function does not actually exist in the application (i.e. produces no performance hit). Is this possible? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Is it theoretically possible to emulate a human brain on a computer?

    - by JoelK
    Our brain consists of billions of neurons which basically work with all the incoming data from our senses, handle our consciousness, emotions and creativity as well as our hormone system, etc. So I'm completely new to this topic but doesn't each neuron have a fixed function? E.g.: If a signal of strength x enters, if the last signal was x ms ago, redirect it. From what I've learned in biology about our nerves system which includes our brain because both consist of simple neurons, it seems to me as our brain is one big, complicated computer. Maybe so complicated that things such as intelligence and cognition become possible? As the most complicated things about a neuron pretty much are the chemical aspects on generating an electric singal, keeping itself alive, and eventually segmenting itself, it should be pretty easy emulating some on a computer, or? You won't have to worry about keeping your virtual neuron alive, or? If you can emulate a single neuron on a computer, which shouldn't be too hard, could you theoretically emulate more than 1000 billions of them, recreating intelligence, cognition and maybe even creativity? In my question I'm leaving out the following aspects: Speed of our current (super) computers Actually writing a program for emulating neurons I don't know much about this topic, please tell me if I got anything wrong :) (My secret goal: Make a copy of my brain and store it on some 10 million TB HDD and make someone start it up in the future)

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to have a mysql table accept a null value for a primary_key column referencing a diff

    - by Dr.Dredel
    I have a table that has a column which holds the id of a row in another table. However, when table A is being populated, table B may or may not have a row ready for table A. My question is, is it possible to have mysql prevent an invalid value from being entered but be ok with a NULL? or does a foreign key necessitate a valid related value? So... what I'm looking for (in pseudo code) is this: Table "person" id | name Table "people" id | group_name | person_id (foreign key id from table person) insert into person (1, 'joe'); insert into people (1, 'foo', 1)//kosher insert into people (1, 'foo', NULL)//also kosher insert into people(1, 'foo', 7)// should fail since there is no id 7 in the person table. The reason I need this is that I'm having a chicken and egg issue where it makes perfect sense for the rows in the people table to be created before hand (in this example, I'm creating the groups and would like them to pre-exist the people who join them). And I realize that THIS example is silly and I would just put the group id in the person table rather than vice-versa, but in my real-world problem that is not workable. Just curious if I need to allow any and all values in order to make this work, or if there's some way to allow for null.

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to use a serial port like session in c#?

    - by Pandiya Chendur
    I am using serial port communication in my asp.net webform application... private bool sendSMS(int portNo, string mobNo, string details) { try { SerialPort SerialPort1 = new SerialPort(); SerialPort1.PortName = "COM" + portNo.ToString(); SerialPort1.BaudRate = 9600; SerialPort1.Parity = Parity.None; SerialPort1.DataBits = 8; SerialPort1.StopBits = StopBits.One; SerialPort1.RtsEnable = true; SerialPort1.DtrEnable = true; SerialPort1.Encoding.GetEncoder(); SerialPort1.ReceivedBytesThreshold = 1; SerialPort1.NewLine = Environment.NewLine; SerialPort1.Open(); SerialPort1.Write("AT" + SerialPort1.NewLine); Sleep(500); SerialPort1.Write("AT+CMGF=1" + SerialPort1.NewLine); Sleep(500); SerialPort1.Write("AT+CMGS=" + (char)34 + mobNo + (char)34 + SerialPort1.NewLine); Sleep(1000); SerialPort1.Write(details + (char)26); Sleep(2000); SerialPort1.Close(); } catch { } return true; } This method works when i send i single message... But when want to send sms in bulk opening and closing port everytime is not a good idea... So my question is it possible to use a serial port like session in c#?... When i open a port i want it to be open for 1 hour and then if my time expires i want to close the port and open it the next time... Any suggestion...

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to auto update only selected properties on an existent entity object without touching the others

    - by LaserBeak
    Say I have a bunch of boolean properties on my entity class public bool isActive etc. Values which will be manipulated by setting check boxes in a web application. I will ONLY be posting back the one changed name/value pair and the primary key at a time, say { isActive : true , NewsPageID: 34 } and the default model binder will create a NewsPage object with only those two properties set. Now if I run the below code it will not only update the values for the properties that have been set on the NewsPage object created by the model binder but of course also attempt to null all the other non set values for the existent entity object because they are not set on NewsPage object created by the model binder. Is it possible to somehow tell entity framework not to look at the properties that are set to null and attempt to persist those changes back to the retrieved entity object and hence database ? Perhaps there's some code I can write that will only utilize the non-null values and their property names on the NewsPage object created by model binder and only attempt to update those particular properties ? [HttpPost] public PartialViewResult SaveNews(NewsPage Np) { Np.ModifyDate = DateTime.Now; _db.NewsPages.Attach(Np); _db.ObjectStateManager.ChangeObjectState(Np, System.Data.EntityState.Modified); _db.SaveChanges(); _db.Dispose(); return PartialView("MonthNewsData"); } I can of course do something like below, but I have a feeling it's not the optimal solution. Especially considering that I have like 6 boolean properties that I need to set. [HttpPost] public PartialViewResult SaveNews(int NewsPageID, bool isActive, bool isOnFrontPage) { if (isActive != null) { //Get entity and update this property } if (isOnFontPage != null) { //Get entity and update this property } }

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to anti alias using Copy swap effect?

    - by Nor
    I'm developing an application in VB.Net using Managed DirectX that runs in windowed mode and renders onto a picture box that is smaller than the form. Whenever I resize the form, the back buffer is streched to fit the picture box. This is not what I would like. The backbuffer size is the same as screen size, however, I only want to render a part of the back buffer, whose size is controlled by the size of the picture box into which I'm rendering. Resetting the device with new presentation parameters is something I would like to avoid. I'm aware that I can use an overload of Device.Present if I set the swap effect to copy, but this doesn't allow me to use Multi Sample Anti Alias (which requires the Discard swap effect). It seems to me that the overload Device.Present is not usable with any other swap effect than copy, and throws an exception. An other alternative I considered is the PresentFlags.DeviceClip, however it seems that it works only for Windows XP. I'm using Windows 7 and it doesn't seem to be doing anything. So, is it even possible that I use anti-aliasing in this situation?

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to cache all the data in a SQL Server CE database using LinqToSql?

    - by DanM
    I'm using LinqToSql to query a small, simple SQL Server CE database. I've noticed that any operations involving sub-properties are disappointingly slow. For example, if I have a Customer table that is referenced by an Order table, LinqToSql will automatically create an EntitySet<Order> property. This is a nice convenience, allowing me to do things like Customer.Order.Where(o => o.ProductName = "Stopwatch"), but for some reason, SQL Server CE hangs up pretty bad when I try to do stuff like this. One of my queries, which isn't really that complicated takes 3-4 seconds to complete. I can get the speed up to acceptable, even fast, if I just grab the two tables individually and convert them to List<Customer> and List<Order>, then join then manually with my own query, but this is throwing out a lot of what makes LinqToSql so appealing. So, I'm wondering if I can somehow get the whole database into RAM and just query that way, then occasionally save it. Is this possible? How? If not, is there anything else I can do to boost the performance besides resorting to doing all the joins manually? Note: My database in its initial state is about 250K and I don't expect it to grow to more than 1-2Mb. So, loading the data into RAM certainly wouldn't be a problem from a memory point of view. Update Here are the table definitions for the example I used in my question: create table Order ( Id int identity(1, 1) primary key, ProductName ntext null ) create table Customer ( Id int identity(1, 1) primary key, OrderId int null references Order (Id) )

    Read the article

  • Is is possible to stringstream this way? to convert from string to int?

    - by John
    Is it possible to stringstream like this? I am trying to read with ifstream and convert it. string things = "10 11 12 -10"; int i1; int i2; int i3; int i4; stringstream into; into << things; into >> i1; into >> i2; into >> i3; into >> i4; I expect it to be : i1 = 10 i2 = 11 i3 = 12 i4 = -10 is that correct? Can the same stringstream variable be used multiple times? When I tried, the first time was ok but everything else later on is just 0.

    Read the article

  • git + partly shared files between branches/repositories. Is it possible?

    - by Maxym
    One team in company I work for has the following problem. They develop an application, which will have different builds (e.g. different design depending on customer). so they have some code shared between builds, and some specific to build. E.g. first build has (example is meaningless about files, it is just to understand the problem; I don't know exactly which code differs) /src/class1.java /src/class2.java /res/image1.png /res/image2.png second project contains /src/class1.java /src/class3.java /res/image1.png /res/image3.png as you see, both have class1.java and image1.png. Evething else is different. The project is much more complex of course, so to contain everything in one project is not comfortable... But also to make different branches and commit the same code to all of them is not comfortable... probably I picked wrong direction thinking about this problem, but I just took a look at git (we use svn), and it allows separated repositories. The question is: is it possible to make different branches in git, but tell it that "these files should be shared between them" and other files should be only in those branches. Then when developer commits class1.java git synchronizes it in all branches/repositorias etc. Maybe there is another solution which can be easy taken?

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to aggregate over differing where clauses?

    - by BenAlabaster
    Is it possible to calculate multiple aggregates based on differing where clauses? For instance: Let's say I have two tables, one for Invoice and one for InvoiceLineItems. The invoice table has a total field for the invoice total, and each of the invoice line item records in the InvoiceLineItems table contains a field that denotes whether the line item is discountable or not. I want three sum totals, one where Discountable = 0 and one where Discountable = 1 and one where Discountable is irrelevant. Such that my output would be: InvoiceNumber Total DiscountableTotal NonDiscountableTotal ------------- ----- ----------------- -------------------- 1 53.27 27.27 16.00 2 38.94 4.76 34.18 3... The only way I've found so far is by using something like: Select i.InvoiceNumber, i.Total, t0.Total As DiscountableTotal, t1.Total As NonDiscountableTotal From Invoices i Left Join ( Select InvoiceNumber, Sum(Amount), From InvoiceLineItems Where Discountable = 0 Group By InvoiceNumber ) As t0 On i.InvoiceNumber = t0.InvoiceNumber Left Join ( Select InvoiceNumber, Sum(Amount) From InvoiceLineItems Where Discountable = 1 Group By InvoiceNumber ) As t1 On i.InvoiceNumber = t1.InvoiceNumber This seems somewhat cumbersome, it would be nice if I could do something like: Select InvoiceNumber, Sum(Amount) Where Discountable = 1 As Discountable Sum(Amount) Where Discountable = 0 As NonDiscountable Group By InvoiceNumber I realize that SQL is completely invalid, but it logically portrays what I'm trying to do... TIA P.S. I need this to run on a SQL Server 2000 instance, but I am also interested (for future reference) if/how I would achieve this on SQL Server 2005/2008.

    Read the article

  • What are the possible tags inside the "global" tag in Magento "config.xml" file?

    - by Knowledge Craving
    Can someone professional experienced Magento developer tell me how to accomplish the following in Magento? I want to know what are the possible tags that can fit in the "global" tag of the "config.xml" page of every module's etc folder? I have tried searching for this answer at many places in Internet but in vain. Please provide the full details along with it for Magento version = 1.4.0.0, because I want at least the users accessing this website find it useful enough, instead of scratching their heads. I really want a detailed explanation, because every newbie like me gets totally confused at this point. From what I know till now, is that in this page, you can set routers, rewrites, cron jobs, admin html, front-end html and many more. But without any strong concepts, none can go ahead with the belief that his code is 100% correct w.r.t. the Magento MVC architecture. So please I want that strong fundamental concept, getting underlined here, with a detailed explanation about it, so that no one gets into this pitfall ever again. Many many thanks to those who can answer only upon knowing the total concept clearly.

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to access the SMIL timer from javascript?

    - by Will
    I'm trying to use SMIL to animate the typing of text into a field embedded in a SVG. I tried the following code in both Chrome and a SMIL-enable Firefox nightly, but it has no effect: <svg xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg" xmlns:html="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <foreignObject> <html:input type="text" value=""> <set attributeName="value" to="Hello World" begin="0" dur="10s" fill="freeze" /> </html:input> </foreignObject> </svg> The text field appears, but remains empty. So, I thought I would register for the beginEvent and do the substitution manually. To test the events, I added: <rect id="rect" x="0" y="0" width="10" height="10"> <animate id="dx" attributeName="x" attributeType="XML" begin="0s" dur="1s" fill="freeze" from="0" to="-10" /> </rect> As well as the javascript that made sense from the event model: window.addEventListener( 'load', function() { function listen( id ) { var elem = document.getElementById( id ) elem.addEventListener( 'beginEvent', function() { console.log( 'begin ' + id ) }, false ) elem.addEventListener( 'endEvent', function() { console.log( 'end ' + id ) }, false ) } listen( 'rect' ) listen( 'dx' ) }) But there's no events fired on either the rect or the animate in either browser. The next logical step seems to be to simulate the animation (ala. FakeSmile), but I want to use the browser's animation timer if at all possible.

    Read the article

  • HTML5 Local Storage of audio element source - is it possible?

    - by andrewdotcom
    Hi stackoverflow experts I've been experimenting with the audio and local storage features of html5 of late and have run into something that has me stumped. I'd like to be able to cache or store the source of the audio element locally to enable speedier and offline playback. The problem is I can't see how this is possible with the current implementation. I have tried the following using webkit: Creating a manifest file to set up local caching but the audio file appears not to be a cacheable item maybe due to the way it is stream or something I have also attempted to use javascript to put an audio object into local storage but the size of the mp3 makes this impossible due to memory issues (i think). I have tried to use the data uri and base64 to use the html as a audio transport that can be cached but again the filesize makes this prohibitive. Also the audio element does not seem to like this in webkit (works fine in mozilla) I have tried several methods of putting the data into the local database store. Again suffering the same issues as the other cases. I'd love to hear any other ideas anyone may have as to how I could achieve my goal of offline playback using caching/local storage in webkit.

    Read the article

  • Limit asp:Repeater control - Is it possible without changing sql statement?

    - by ktsixit
    Hi all, I'm trying to apply some kind of limit on an asp:Repeater control, so that I can get only the first 5 results from repeating. The only suggested solution I have found is about limiting the sql statement results. In my case, this is not possible. I need to find some other kind of solution. Are there any other asp controls that I could use which are similar to Repeater? This is the current code I'm using: <asp:Repeater ID="rptrMan" runat="server" OnItemDataBound="rptrMan_ItemDataBound" EnableViewState="false"> <HeaderTemplate> <ul> </HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <li> <div class="picture1"> <asp:HyperLink ID="imageLink" runat="server" /> </div> <div class="title"> <asp:HyperLink ID="manTitle" runat="server" /> </div> </li> </ItemTemplate> <FooterTemplate> </ul> </FooterTemplate> </asp:Repeater>

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to reference remote content from chrome.manifest? (XULRunner)

    - by siemaa
    Hi, I have a xulrunner application and I've been trying to reference remote content from chrome.manifest file. Tt's an application for the company I work in; it's run on a number of computers (most of them are used by other employees as well) as a kind of an internet monitoring service. The problem I'd like to solve is this: updating the code of such application usually requires me to manually copy the modified files to every computer that the application is running on (I've had no luck trying to make automatic updates via xulrunner platform). This process has become very tedious. What I'd like to have is a web server, where all of the xul and js files would be accessible, so that every application could reference them from there. This would require me only to update the code on that server, and the applications (when restarted) would automatically get the latest code. What I managed to do: I can reference js scripts from a xul file using http based urls and everything works fine (I can use local, binary components etc.), although the xul file has to be local - that I'd like to change. But when I write in chrome.manifest a line like: content my_app http://path/to/app/files/ and then use the line in default/preferences/pref.js pref("toolkit.defaultChromeURI", "chrome://my_app/content/my_app.xul"); it just opens a console window (to test I manually run the application with the -console option) and no code gets executed. The file can be downloaded remotely using wget so I guess this isn't the web server issue. The applications work on Windows machines. Is there some kind of security issue causing such behavior or am I doing something wrong? Is it even possible to register remote, http based content as chrome?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167  | Next Page >