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• Windows Media Player won't launch on Vista - how to repair or reinstall it?

  - by rpm1200

  My friend asked me to look at her Acer Aspire laptop with Vista Home Premium as it is no longer playing DVDs. I found that Windows Media Player would not launch. I found this thread, which contained a number of suggestions, none of which solved the problem. Here is what I tried: Tried running WMP via desktop shortcut, QuickLaunch bar or going to Program Files\Windows Media Player\wmplayer.exe. In all cases, wmplayer would launch then terminate immediately (verified through the Processes tab in Task Manager). Tried running wmplayer.exe as Administrator. The UAC dialog would come up, I'd approve, then wmplayer would launch and terminate immediately. Uninstalled all non-Microsoft media programs except RealPlayer, iTunes, QuickTime, Acer Arcade (the laptop owner uses all those apps). Tried running Program Files\Windows Media Player\setup_wm.exe as Administrator, it launched but said that a newer version of WMP was already installed. Deleted the "Windows Media" folder located under %userprofile%\appdata\local\Microsoft then tried starting WMP - wmplayer would launch and terminate immediately. Register wmp.dll by typing "regsvr32 wmp.dll" in an Administrator cmd window then tried starting WMP - wmplayer would launch and terminate immediately. Run "SFC /SCANFILE" in an Administrator cmd window - get an error message that it found invalid system files and could not fix them, so look at the log file cbs.log. The log file shows that there are broken files associated with Windows Sidebar (which the user does not use) but none relating to WMP. Log off to safe mode and run "SFC /SCANFILE" in an Administrator cmd window again - same results. Try to download and install XP WMP - the microsoft.com site recognizes the OS as Genuine and allows the download, but when I launch the installer it says the system is not Genuine. Clicking the link directs me back to IE where I can authenticate the system as Genuine. The installer still fails to recognize the system as Genuine. It is a Genuine Vista installation. Try to run this update (KB931621). The installer said it did not apply to the system. Set Windows Media Player as default in Program Access and Defaults. Same results. Tried running "for %a in (%systemroot%\system32\wm*.dll) do regsvr32 /s %a" in an Administrator cmd window - same results. Went to this Knowledge Base article (947541) and ran the Microsoft Fix It. The Fix It ran successfully, but WMP would still launch and terminate immediately. Multiple reboots in the process of doing all of these steps. After all this, looked in the Application and Security logs. No events pertaining to WMP were logged. The computer was preinstalled with Vista Home Premium and I have the Acer backup DVDs which will reimage the drive. I do not have Vista install DVDs. Reimaging the system is not an option. I'd also rather not restore the system to an earlier point unless it's absolutely necessary. What else can I do to repair or reinstall WMP?

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• How to stop windows resizing when the monitor display channel is turned off / switched to different source

  - by Heartspeace

  Have a new 6870 ati radeon adapter with its drivers set to 1080p 60hz resolution hooked up to a 2008 47" high end Samsung HDMI based TV. However, when the tv is turned to a different hdmi input -(when I come back into windows) somehow Windows decides to resize all the open apps to a lower resolution - including some of the side docked hidden pop-outs. When it resizes those though - it just sticked the pop-outs in the middle of the screen and all the resized windows from the open applications in the top left corner - all of them stacked on top of each other and resized to the smaller resolution. The things that seem to be ok after returning are the icons on the desktop, the taskbar, and the sidebar. Anyone have any knowledge of 1) how this happens 2) why it happens 3) how to stop it from resizing the applications and some of the docked pop-outs (they are not really resized after returning - they are just stuck in the middle of the screen approximately where they would be if the right or bottom sidebar should be if the screen was resized to that lower resolution). My hypothesis is that upon losing HDMI signal - that Windows is told by something (driver, or windows itself) that the resolution to be without a signal being present (noting that HDMI signals and handshakes are two way on HDMI devices. If it loses the signal or the tv is switched to another device - then the display adapter must figure that out and tell Windows or figures it out and designs randomly to change the display size). Any and all help is most appreciated. I asked AMD/ATI - but they said they don't know why or how this is happening. I was hoping that maybe this is THE place that the super users truly go to - those that develop display adapter drivers, or that dive deeply into these areas of windows. If there is better sites or just competing sites - please advise - noting I have already written AMD/ATI. HP Response / Additions 4/7/2011 It is really nice to get your reply Shinrai. (BTW is it proper etiquette on these forums to have a discussion?) Yet 'only one issue' - I am using a single display in this case - so Windows doesn't move application windows to another desktop. Windows (or something) decides to shrink the desktop it currently has and resize all windows to the maximum size of the desktop. As such I would be glad if Windows would just keep the current size of the one desktop that is in operation. I also know that this does NOT happen on monitors connected with DVI. There I have had one and two monitors setup and it doesn't resize those screens at all when disconnecting monitors, turning them off, whatever... they stay solid - everything in place - to such an extent that if you forgot the other monitor is off - you will have troubles finding some windows without using one of the control app utilities. So if I could even get the HDMI handling by Windows (or the display driver) ( 1] which is doing this anyway the display driver or Windows - and 2] where is that other resolution size (1024x768) coming from - its not the smallest and its not the largest?) to be having like DVI - Life would be golden (for this aspect anyway). ** found others with same problem in this thread: http://hardforum.com/showthread.php?t=1507324 Thanks, HP

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• Windows Media Player won't launch on Vista - how to repair or reinstall it?

  - by rpm1200

  My friend asked me to look at her Acer Aspire laptop with Vista Home Premium as it is no longer playing DVDs. I found that Windows Media Player would not launch. I found this thread, which contained a number of suggestions, none of which solved the problem. Here is what I tried: Tried running WMP via desktop shortcut, QuickLaunch bar or going to Program Files\Windows Media Player\wmplayer.exe. In all cases, wmplayer would launch then terminate immediately (verified through the Processes tab in Task Manager). Tried running wmplayer.exe as Administrator. The UAC dialog would come up, I'd approve, then wmplayer would launch and terminate immediately. Uninstalled all non-Microsoft media programs except RealPlayer, iTunes, QuickTime, Acer Arcade (the laptop owner uses all those apps). Tried running Program Files\Windows Media Player\setup_wm.exe as Administrator, it launched but said that a newer version of WMP was already installed. Deleted the "Windows Media" folder located under %userprofile%\appdata\local\Microsoft then tried starting WMP - wmplayer would launch and terminate immediately. Register wmp.dll by typing "regsvr32 wmp.dll" in an Administrator cmd window then tried starting WMP - wmplayer would launch and terminate immediately. Run "SFC /SCANFILE" in an Administrator cmd window - get an error message that it found invalid system files and could not fix them, so look at the log file cbs.log. The log file shows that there are broken files associated with Windows Sidebar (which the user does not use) but none relating to WMP. Log off to safe mode and run "SFC /SCANFILE" in an Administrator cmd window again - same results. Try to download and install XP WMP - the microsoft.com site recognizes the OS as Genuine and allows the download, but when I launch the installer it says the system is not Genuine. Clicking the link directs me back to IE where I can authenticate the system as Genuine. The installer still fails to recognize the system as Genuine. It is a Genuine Vista installation. Try to run this update (KB931621). The installer said it did not apply to the system. Set Windows Media Player as default in Program Access and Defaults. Same results. Tried running "for %a in (%systemroot%\system32\wm*.dll) do regsvr32 /s %a" in an Administrator cmd window - same results. Went to this Knowledge Base article (947541) and ran the Microsoft Fix It. The Fix It ran successfully, but WMP would still launch and terminate immediately. Multiple reboots in the process of doing all of these steps. After all this, looked in the Application and Security logs. No events pertaining to WMP were logged. The computer was preinstalled with Vista Home Premium and I have the Acer backup DVDs which will reimage the drive. I do not have Vista install DVDs. Reimaging the system is not an option. I'd also rather not restore the system to an earlier point unless it's absolutely necessary. What else can I do to repair or reinstall WMP?

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• I am getting a 400 Bad Request error when using Nginx and PHP-FPM, why?

  - by Bob

  I am trying to run a website (that requires PHP - it technically doesn't require MySQL at this time, but it may sometime in the near future as I continue developing it, so I went ahead and installed that as well) using nginx 1.2.4 and PHP-FPM 5.3.3 on Ubuntu 12.04.1 LTS. As far as I know, I haven't done anything wrong, but clearly something is not quite right - I seem to be getting a 400 Bad Request error whenever I try to browse to my website. I've been mostly following one guide, and I've done more or less everything it recommends, except for not setting up PHP-FPM to use a Unix Socket and I used service as opposed to /etc/init.d/ when starting/stopping nginx, PHP, and MySQL. Anyways, here are my relevant configuration files (I have only censored personal/sensitive details, like my domain name - which contains my real name): /etc/nginx/nginx.conf user www-data; worker_processes 4; pid /var/run/nginx.pid; events { worker_connections 768; # multi_accept on; } http { ## # Basic Settings ## sendfile on; tcp_nopush on; tcp_nodelay on; keepalive_timeout 15; types_hash_max_size 2048; # server_tokens off; # server_names_hash_bucket_size 64; # server_name_in_redirect off; include /etc/nginx/mime.types; default_type application/octet-stream; ## # Logging Settings ## access_log /var/log/nginx/access.log; error_log /var/log/nginx/error.log; ## # Gzip Settings ## gzip on; gzip_disable "msie6"; # gzip_vary on; # gzip_proxied any; # gzip_comp_level 6; # gzip_buffers 16 8k; # gzip_http_version 1.1; # gzip_types text/plain text/css application/json application/x-javascript text/xml application/xml application/xml+rss text/javascript; ## # nginx-naxsi config ## # Uncomment it if you installed nginx-naxsi ## #include /etc/nginx/naxsi_core.rules; ## # nginx-passenger config ## # Uncomment it if you installed nginx-passenger ## #passenger_root /usr; #passenger_ruby /usr/bin/ruby; ## # Virtual Host Configs ## include /etc/nginx/conf.d/*.conf; include /etc/nginx/sites-enabled/*; } /etc/nginx/sites-enabled/subdomain.mydomain.net server { listen 80; # listen for IPv4 listen [::]:80; # listen for IPv6 server_name www.subdomain.mydomain.net subdomain.mydomain.net; access_log /srv/www/subdomain.mydomain.net/logs/access.log; error_log /srv/www/subdomain.mydomain.net/logs/error.log; location / { root /srv/www/subdomain.mydomain.net/public; index index.php; } location ~ \.php$ { try_files $uri =400; include fastcgi_params; fastcgi_split_path_info ^(.+\.php)(/.+)$; fastcgi_pass 127.0.0.1:9000; fastcgi_index index.php; fastcgi_param SCRIPT_FILENAME /srv/www/subdomain.mydomain.net/public$fastcgi_script_name; } } All the directories listed in the configuration files above are correct on my server (to the extent of my knowledge). I have not included /etc/php5/fpm/pool.d/www.conf or /etc/php5/fpm/php.ini in this post as they're rather long, but I have posted them on Pastebin: http://pastebin.com/ensErJD8 and http://pastebin.com/T23dt7vM, respectively. Although, the only thing I've changed in either of the two files was in php.ini, where I set expose_php to off so as to hide the .php file extension from users. What can I do to resolve my issue? Please let me know if I need to supply any additional details.

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• Network config / gear question

  - by mcgee1234

  I have been tasked with setting up a fairly straightforward rack in a data center (we do not even need a whole rack, but this is the smallest allotment available). In a nutshell, 4 to 6 servers need to be able to reach 2 (maybe 3) vendors. The servers needs to be reachable over the internet. A little more detail - the networks the servers need to reach are inside of the data center, and are "trusted". Connections to these networks will be achieved through intra data center cross connects. It is kind of like a manufacturing line where we receive data from one vendor (burst-able up to 200 Mbits), churn through it on the servers, and then send out data to another vendor (bursts up to 20 Mbits). This series of events is very latency sensitive, so much so that it is common practice not to use NAT or a firewall on these segments (or so I hear). To reach the servers over the internet, I plan to use a site to site VPN. (This part is only relevant as far as hardware selection goes). I have 2 configurations in mind: Cisco 2911 (2921) (with the additional wan ports module) and a layer 2 switch - in this scenario, I would use the router also for VPN. Cisco 3560 layer 3 switch to interconnect the networks inside of the data center and an ASA 5510 (which is total overkill, but the 5505 is not rack mountable) as a firewall for the Wan side (internet) and VPN. I envision the setup to be as follows: Internet - ASA - 3560 Vendors - 3560 - Servers The general idea is that the ASA acts as a firewall and VPN device and the 3560 does all the heavy lifting. The first is a fairly traditional setup but my concern is performance. The second is somewhat unorthodox in that the vendors are directly connected to the layer 3 switch without passing through a firewall. Based on my understanding however, a layer 3 switch will perform substantially better as it will do hardware (ASIC) vs. software switching. (Note that number 2 is a little over the budget, but not unworkable (double negative, ugh)) Since this is my first time dealing with a data center, I am not sure what the IP space is going to look like. I suspect I will retain a block(s) of public IPs, vlan them to individual interfaces for the vendor connections and the servers (which will not reachable from the wan side of course) and setup routing on the switch. So here are my questionss: Is there a substantial performance difference between 1 and 2, i.e. hardware based switching on a layer 3 vs a software base on the 2911? I have trolled the internet and found a lot of Cisco literature, but nothing that I could really use to get a good handle. The vendors we connect to are secure and trusted (famous last words) and as I understand it, it is common practice not to NAT or firewall these connections (because of the aforementioned latency sensitivity). But what what kind of latency are we really talking about if I push the data through a router (or even ASA for that matter)? For our purposes, 5 ms will not kill us, 20 or 30 can be very costly. Others measure in microseconds, but they are out of our league. Is there any issues with using public IPs on a layer 3 switch? I am certainly not married to either of these configs, and I am totally open to any ideas. My knowledge (and I use the term loosely) is largely from books so I welcome any advice / insight. Thanks in advance.

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• Get Local IP-Address using Boost.Asio

  - by MOnsDaR

  Hey, I'm currently searching for a portable way of getting the local IP-addresses. Because I'm using Boost anyway I thought it would be a good idea to use Boost.Asio for this task. There are serveral examples on the net which should do the trick. Examples: Official Boost.Asio Documentation Some Asian Page I tried both codes with just slight modifications. The Code on Boost.Doc was changed to not resolve "www.boost.org" but "localhost" or my hostname instead. For getting the hostname I used boost::asio::ip::host_name() or typed it directly as a string. Additionally I wrote my own code which was a merge of the above examples and my (little) knowledge I gathered from the Boost Documentation and other examples. All the sources worked, but they did just return the following IP: 127.0.1.1 (Thats not a typo, its .1.1 at the end) I run and compiled the code on Ubuntu 9.10 with GCC 4.4.1 A colleague tried the same code on his machine and got 127.0.0.2 (Not a typo too...) He compiled and run on Suse 11.0 with GCC 4.4.1 (I'm not 100% sure) I don't know if it is possible to change the localhost (127.0.0.1), but I know that neither me or my colleague did it. ifconfig says loopback uses 127.0.0.1. ifconfig also finds the public IP I am searching for (141.200.182.30 in my case, subnet is 255.255.0.0) So is this a Linux-issue and the code is not as portable as I thought? Do I have to change something else or is Boost.Asio not working as a solution for my problem at all? I know there are much questions about similar topics on Stackoverflow and other pages, but I cannot find information which is useful in my case. If you got useful links, it would be nice if you could point me to it. Thanks in advance, MOnsDaR PS: Here is the modified code I used from Boost.Doc: #include <boost/asio.hpp> using boost::asio::ip::tcp; boost::asio::io_service io_service; tcp::resolver resolver(io_service); tcp::resolver::query query(boost::asio::ip::host_name(), ""); tcp::resolver::iterator iter = resolver.resolve(query); tcp::resolver::iterator end; // End marker. while (iter != end) { tcp::endpoint ep = *iter++; std::cout << ep << std::endl; }

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• Debugging XSLT with extension objects in Visual Studio 2010

  - by Alex Ciminian

  I'm currently working on a project that involves a lot of XSLT transformations and I really need a debugger (I have XSLTs that are 1000+ lines long and I didn't write them :-). The project is written in C# and makes use of extension objects: xslArg.AddExtensionObject("urn:<obj>", new <Obj>()); From my knowledge, in this situation Visual Studio is the only tool that can help me debug the transformations step-by-step. The static debugger is no use because of the extension objects (it throws an error when it reaches elements that reference their namespace). Fortunately, I've found this thread which gave me a starting point (at least I know it can be done). After searching MSDN, I found the criteria that makes stepping into the transform possible. They are listed here. In short: the XML and the XSLT must be loaded via a class that has the IXmlLineInfo interface (XmlReader & co.) the XML resolver used in the XSLTCompiledTransform constructor is file-based (XmlUriResolver should work). the stylesheet should be on the local machine or on the intranet (?) From what I can tell, I fit all these criteria, but it still doesn't work. The relevant code samples are posted below: // [...] xslTransform = new XslCompiledTransform(true); xslTransform.Load(XmlReader.Create(new StringReader(contents)), null, new BaseUriXmlResolver(xslLocalPath)); // [...] // I already had the xml loaded in an xmlDocument // so I have to convert to an XmlReader XmlTextReader r = new XmlTextReader(new StringReader(xmlDoc.OuterXml)); XsltArgumentList xslArg = new XsltArgumentList(); xslArg.AddExtensionObject("urn:[...]", new [...]()); xslTransform.Transform(r, xslArg, context.Response.Output); I really don't get what I'm doing wrong. I've checked the interfaces on both XmlReader objects and they implement the required one. Also, BaseUriXmlResolver inherits from XmlUriResolver and the stylesheet is stored locally. The screenshot below is what I get when stepping into the Transform function. First I can see the stylesheet code after stepping through the parameters (on template-match), I get this: If anyone has any idea why it doesn't work or has an alternative way of getting it to work I'd be much obliged :). Thanks, Alex

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• MKMapView memory usage grows out of control with setRegion: calls

  - by Kurt

  Hi, I have a single MKMapView instance that I have programmatically added to a UIView. As part of the UI, the user can cycle through a list of addresses and the map view is updated to show the correct map for each address as the user goes through them. I create the map view once, and simply change what it displays with setRegion:animated:. The problem is that each time the map is changed to show a new address, the memory usage of my program increases by 200K-500K (as reported by Memory Monitor in Instruments). According to Object Allocations, it appears that a lot of 1.0K Mallocs are happening each time, and the Extended Detail pane for these 1.0K allocations shows that the Responsible Caller is convert_image_data and the Extended Detail pane shows that this is the result of [MKMapTileView drawLayer:inContext:]. So, seems likely to me that the memory usage is due to MKMapView not freeing memory it uses to redraw the map each time. In fact, when I don't display the map at all (by not even adding it as a subview of my main UIView) but still cycle through the addresses (which changes various UILabels and other displayed info) the memory usage for the app does NOT increase. If I add the map view but never update it with setRegion:, the memory also does NOT increase when changing to a new address. One more bit of info: if I go to a new address (and therefore ask the map to display the new address) the memory jumps as described above. However, if I go back to an address that was already displayed, the memory does not jump when the map redraws with the old address. Also, this happens on iPad (real device) with 3.2 and on iPhone (again, real device) with 3.1.2. Here's how I initialize the MKMapView (I only do this once): CGRect mapFrame; mapFrame.origin.y = 460; // yes, magic numbers. just for testing. mapFrame.origin.x = 0; mapFrame.size.height = 500; mapFrame.size.width = 768; mapView = [[MKMapView alloc] initWithFrame:mapFrame]; mapView.delegate = self; [self.view insertSubview:mapView atIndex:0]; And in response to the user selecting an address, I set the map like so: MKCoordinateRegion region; MKCoordinateSpan span; span.latitudeDelta=kStreetMapSpan; // 0.003 span.longitudeDelta=kStreetMapSpan; // 0.003 region.center = address.coords; // coords is CLLocationCoordinate2D region.span = span; mapView.region.span = span; [mapView setRegion:region animated:NO]; Any thoughts? I've scoured the net but haven't seen mention of this problem, and I've reached the limits of my Instruments knowledge. Thanks for any ideas.

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• Multi-step Workflows: make Workflow A depend on results of Workflow B and/or Workflow C

  - by Joey

  I have been tasked with creating a Software Installation Approval section for our Intranet. When a person requests that a particular piece of software be installed on their workstation, we need to get IT approval and then business approval. Once those are obtained, it is to be installed. I am using Sharepoint Designer to do this. I have List A, where the user enters the information on the requested software. Workflow A then creates a Task in List B, which is then assigned to the IT approver. Workflow B works on List B on item creation, setting the due dates, titles, and other fields, and then pauses until the due date. The IT approver works with the business side and completes the task. Once List B task is complete, the item in List A should be marked as complete -- I have everything up to this point working fine. I want to make this more robust in 2 ways. As the only real option is to mark List B task as "completed", which essentially means "Approved", we have no way of really denying a request. What I want to add is the option to approve or deny a request through the task on List B -- if it is approved, I want the item in List A to continue to show "In Progress" with a custom status of "Approved", and I want to create a new task for software installation; once the installation task is marked as completed, then I want List A to show "Completed" with a status of "Installed". If it is denied, I want the item in List A to show as "Completed", with a status of "Denied". The problem is, I'm not even sure where to start making these modifications. Creating and modifying the custom status fields isn't that big of an issue -- I have messed around with this and I'm fairly confident I can do this easily. My main concern is that I know I will need a Workflow C, but I don't know where or how to trigger this to get the results I need. I've managed to get Workflows A and B working fine, but anything beyond this is really pushing the limit of my knowledge. It's probably obvious that I am rather new to Sharepoint workflows. I was very much thrust into this position and I am still feeling my way around. Thanks in advance for any help!

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• Are PackageMaker installations with preinstall scripts broken on Snow Leopard?

  - by Stu Thompson

  Everything worked on 10.5, but now my PackageMaker installation project is broken. I've been fighting a problem for a few days now, and either Snow Leopard (OS X 10.6.1) has broken PackageMaker installations I am lacking a very, very basic tidbit of knowledge To narrow down the problem, I've gotten to this point: Create a new PackageMaker installation Have it install a jpeg image into my home directoy Define a preinstall script that does nothing #/bin/sh exit 0 Run the above...and watch it fail with the below error message like clock work Sep 14 15:09:45 manoa installd[5620]: PackageKit: ----- Begin install ----- Sep 14 15:09:45 manoa installd[5620]: PackageKit: request=PKInstallRequest <1 packages, destination=/> Sep 14 15:09:45 manoa installd[5620]: PackageKit: packages=(\n "PKLeopardPackage <file://localhost/Users/stu/Desktop/asdf.pkg>"\n) Sep 14 15:09:46 manoa installd[5620]: PackageKit: Extracting /Users/stu/Desktop/asdf.pkg (destination=/var/folders/Hb/HbXJFyEpFaupt5QyLN-pTk+++TI/-Tmp-/PKInstallSandbox-tmp/Root/~, uid=501) Sep 14 15:09:46 manoa installd[5620]: PackageKit: Executing script "./preinstall" in /private/tmp/PKInstallSandbox.cmlS2H/Scripts/test.test.5year_header.pkg.PFrHNB Sep 14 15:09:46 manoa installd[5620]: PackageKit: *** launch path not accessible Sep 14 15:09:46 manoa installd[5620]: PackageKit: Install Failed: PKG: pre-install scripts for "test.test.5year_header.pkg"\nError Domain=PKInstallErrorDomain Code=112 UserInfo=0x100149430 "An error occurred while running scripts from the package “asdf”." {\n NSFilePath = "./preinstall";\n NSLocalizedDescription = "An error occurred while running scripts from the package \U201casdf\U201d.";\n NSURL = "file://localhost/Users/stu/Desktop/asdf.pkg";\n PKInstallPackageIdentifier = "test.test.5year_header.pkg";\n} Sep 14 15:09:46 manoa Installer[5614]: install:didFailWithError:Error Domain=PKInstallErrorDomain Code=112 UserInfo=0x1195917c0 "An error occurred while running scripts from the package “asdf”." Sep 14 15:09:46 manoa Installer[5614]: Install failed: The Installer encountered an error that caused the installation to fail. Contact the software manufacturer for assistance. Sep 14 15:09:47 manoa Installer[5614]: IFDInstallController 144040 state = 7 Sep 14 15:09:47 manoa Installer[5614]: Displaying 'Install Failed' UI. Sep 14 15:09:47 manoa Installer[5614]: 'Install Failed' UI displayed message:'The Installer encountered an error that caused the installation to fail. Contact the software manufacturer for assistance.'. There is no file in /private/tmp/PKInstallSandbox.cmlS2H/Scripts/test.test.5year_header.pkg.PFrHNB/, which makes me think the problem is with PackageMaker, and not me. But I'm new to the world of OS X software installation, so doubts remain. So, the question: Is PackageMaker with a preinstall script broken on OS X 10.6? Or is there some requirement regarding preinstall scripts that I do not understand?

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• NHibernate: No persister error

  - by Mike

  Hello, In my quest to further my knowledge, I'm trying to get get NHibernate running. I have the following structure to my solution Core Class Library Project Infrastructure Class Library Project MVC Application Project Test Project In my Core project I have created the following entity: using System; namespace Core.Domain.Model { public class Category { public virtual Guid Id { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } } } In my Infrastructure Project I have the following mapping: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" namespace="Core.Domain.Model" assembly="Core"> <class name="Category" table="Categories" dynamic-update="true"> <cache usage="read-write"/> <id name="Id" column="Id" type="Guid"> <generator class="guid"/> </id> <property name="Name" length="100"/> </class> </hibernate-mapping> With the following config file: <hibernate-configuration xmlns="urn:nhibernate-configuration-2.2"> <session-factory> <property name="connection.driver_class">NHibernate.Driver.SqlClientDriver</property> <property name="connection.connection_string">server=xxxx;database=xxxx;Integrated Security=true;</property> <property name="show_sql">true</property> <property name="dialect">NHibernate.Dialect.MsSql2008Dialect</property> <property name="cache.use_query_cache">false</property> <property name="adonet.batch_size">100</property> <property name="proxyfactory.factory_class">NHibernate.ByteCode.Castle.ProxyFactoryFactory, NHibernate.ByteCode.Castle</property> <mapping assembly="Infrastructure" /> </session-factory> </hibernate-configuration> In my test project, I have the following Test [TestMethod] [DeploymentItem("hibernate.cfg.xml")] public void CanCreateCategory() { IRepository<Category> repo = new CategoryRepository(); Category category = new Category(); category.Name = "ASP.NET"; repo.Save(category); } I get the following error when I try to run the test: Test method Volunteer.Tests.CategoryTests.CanCreateCategory threw exception: NHibernate.MappingException: No persister for: Core.Domain.Model.Category. Any help would be greatly appreciated. I do have the cfg build action set to embedded resource. Thanks!

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• Flash -> ByteArray -> AMFPHP -> Invalid Image !??

  - by undefined

  Hi, Im loading images into Flash and using JPGEncoder to encode the image to a ByteArray and send this to AMF PHP which writes out the bytearray to a file. This all appears to work correctly and I can download the resulting file in Photoshop CS4 absolutely fine. When i try to open it from the desktop or open it back in Flash it doesnt work... Picasa my default image browser says "Invalid" Here is the code i use to write the bytearray to a file - $jpg = $GLOBALS["HTTP_RAW_POST_DATA"]; file_put_contents($filename, $jpg); That's it ... I use the NetConnection class to connect and call the service, do I need to say Im sending jpg data? I assumed that JPGEncoder took care of that. How can I validate the bytearray before writing the file? Do I need to set MIME type or something .. excuse the slightly noob questions, a little knowledge can be a dangerous thing. Thanks --------------------------------------- PART II ------------------------------------------ Here is some code - 1) load the image into Flash player item.load(); function _onImageDataLoaded(evt:Event):void { var tmpFileRef:FileReference=FileReference(evt.target); image_loader=new Loader ; image_loader.contentLoaderInfo.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, _onImageLoaded); image_loader.loadBytes(tmpFileRef.data); } function _onImageLoaded(evt:Event):void { bitmap=Bitmap(evt.target.content); bitmap.smoothing=true; if (bitmap.width>MAX_WIDTH||bitmap.height>MAX_HEIGHT) { resizeBitmap(bitmap); } uploadResizedImage(bitmap); } function resizeBitmap(target:Bitmap):void { if (target.height>target.width) { target.width=MAX_WIDTH; target.scaleY=target.scaleX; } else if (target.width >= target.height) { target.height=MAX_HEIGHT; target.scaleX=target.scaleY; } } function uploadResizedImage(target:Bitmap):void { var _bmd:BitmapData=new BitmapData(target.width,target.height); _bmd.draw(target, new Matrix(target.scaleX, 0, 0, target.scaleY)); var encoded_jpg:JPGEncoder=new JPGEncoder(90); var jpg_binary:ByteArray=encoded_jpg.encode(_bmd); _uploadService=new NetConnection(); _uploadService.objectEncoding=ObjectEncoding.AMF3 _uploadService.connect("http://.../amfphp/gateway.php"); _uploadService.call("UploadService.receiveByteArray",new Responder(success, error), jpg_binary, currentImageFilename); } Many thanks for you help

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• Default Database Collations got messed up

  - by dominicdinada

  I am using Ubuntu 9.10 with XAMPP ( Lampp "MYSQL 5.1.45 PHPMYADMIN 3.3.1 PHP 5.3.2 ) What my problem is, is that I set up my testing env to debug my scripts locally and when I did so there arose a problem. This problem is that I used firefox's addon SQLinject ME to test for weakness' and upon doing so it caused mysql to change the default local collations; character sets dir /opt/lampp/share/mysql/charsets/ collation connection latin1_general_ci (Global value) latin1_swedish_ci collation database latin1_swedish_ci collation server latin1_swedish_ci I have searched for quite sometime in regards to a solution to this problem and have come up with searching for the db.opt file which stores this information without success. Upon not finding a solution I removed lampp with the "sudo rm -fR /opt" command and reinstall and the problem still persists. I have tried to change the collations manually and still come up with the database displaying latin1_swedish_ci as the default language. Why is this a problem?? Why is it a problem with mysql? Because the application I am testing and debugging locally is built on the CodeIgnitor with Smarty framework and since this combination of framework is built to detect the LOCALES, Rather what the database defaults are I keep getting errors saying no language file for swedish...... Of course I could get the swedish language file to work around this problem but I do not feel the need to make this work around a perminant solution as with time when I move on to projects I will run into simular problems every time that A; When importing database files, backups etc it will default to import such databases as the locale swedish. B; As time passes on I might completly forget of this error and will be back to square one. I have found this code in searches for a fix,which seems to alter the tables to a desired Collaion; $value) { mysql_query("ALTER TABLE $value COLLATE latin1_general_ci"); }} echo "The collation of your database has been successfully changed!"; ? Which is handy to switch collations in One Schema at a time however this is not a fix when a framework doesnt care that the said database is in one langugae. It tests for the Default of the entire server. Someone with any knowledge of a purge or fix to this I would greatly appricate the help. One more final note is that when I was testing I only figured to back up the applications DataBase and not the entire Schema of the install. No matter if I uninstall or reinstall the database still seems to carry these problems.

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• Objective-C wrapper API design methodology

  - by Wade Williams

  I know there's no one answer to this question, but I'd like to get people's thoughts on how they would approach the situation. I'm writing an Objective-C wrapper to a C library. My goals are: 1) The wrapper use Objective-C objects. For example, if the C API defines a parameter such as char *name, the Objective-C API should use name:(NSString *). 2) The client using the Objective-C wrapper should not have to have knowledge of the inner-workings of the C library. Speed is not really any issue. That's all easy with simple parameters. It's certainly no problem to take in an NSString and convert it to a C string to pass it to the C library. My indecision comes in when complex structures are involved. Let's say you have: struct flow { long direction; long speed; long disruption; long start; long stop; } flow_t; And then your C API call is: void setFlows(flow_t inFlows[4]); So, some of the choices are: 1) expose the flow_t structure to the client and have the Objective-C API take an array of those structures 2) build an NSArray of four NSDictionaries containing the properties and pass that as a parameter 3) create an NSArray of four "Flow" objects containing the structure's properties and pass that as a parameter My analysis of the approaches: Approach 1: Easiest. However, it doesn't meet the design goals Approach 2: For some reason, this seems to me to be the most "Objective-C" way of doing it. However, each element of the NSDictionary would have to be wrapped in an NSNumber. Now it seems like we're doing an awful lot just to pass the equivalent of a struct. Approach 3: Seems the cleanest to me from an object-oriented standpoint and the extra encapsulation could come in handy later. However, like #2, it now seems like we're doing an awful lot (creating an array, creating and initializing objects) just to pass a struct. So, the question is, how would you approach this situation? Are there other choices I'm not considering? Are there additional advantages or disadvantages to the approaches I've presented that I'm not considering?

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• Featureful commercial text editors?

  - by wrp

  I'm willing to buy tools if they add genuine value over a FOSS equivalent. One thing I wouldn't mind having is an editor with the power of Emacs, but made more user-friendly. There seem to be several commercial editors out there, but I can't find much discussion of them online. Maybe it's because the kind of people who use commercial software don't have time to do much blogging. ;-) If you have used any, what was your evaluation? I'd especially like to hear how you would compare them to Emacs. I'm thinking of editors like VEDIT, Boxer, Crisp, UltraEdit, SlickEdit, etc. To get things started, I tried EditPad Pro because I needed something on a Win98SE box. I was attracted by its powerful support for regexps, but I didn't use it for long. One annoyance was that find-in-files was only available in a separate product you had to buy. The main problem, though, was stability. It sometimes hung and I lost a few files because it corrupted them while editing. After a couple weeks, I found that I was avoiding using it, so I just uninstalled. Edit: Ah...I need to remove some ambiguity. With reference to Emacs, "power" often means its potential for customization. This malleability comes from having an architecture in which most of the functionality is written in a scripting language that runs on a compiled core. Emacs (with elisp) is by far the most widely known such system among home users, but there have been other heavily used editors such as Freemacs (MINT), JED (S-Lang), XEDIT (Rexx), ADAM (TPU), and SlickEdit (Slick-C). In this case, by "power" I'm not referring to extensibility but to realized features. There are three main areas which I think a commercial text editor might be an improvement over Emacs: Stability The only apps I regularly use on Linux that give me flaky behavior are Emacs, Gedit, and Geany. On Windows, I like the look and features of Notepad++, but I find it extremely unstable, especially if I try to use the plugins. Whatever I happen to be doing, I'm using some text editor practically all day long. If I could switch to an editor that never gave me problems, it would definitely lower my stress level. Tools When I started using Emacs, I searched the manual cover to cover to gleam ideas for clever, useful things I could do with it. I'd like to see lots of useful features for editing code, based on detailed knowledge of what the system can do and the accumulated feedback of users. Polish The rule of threes goes that if you develop something for yourself, it's three times harder to make it usable in-house, and three times harder again to make it a viable product for sale. It's understandable, but free software development doesn't seem to benefit from much usability testing. BTW, texteditors.org is a fantastic resource for researching text editors.

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• How to select one object from a NSArray?

  - by 0SX

  First of all Merry Christmas to everyone!!! Currently I have a NSArray that has parsed content in it. When I do a NSLog of the array it prints out 20 objects with the parsed content that I needed. Like so: 2010-12-24 20:27:32.170 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent 2010-12-24 20:27:32.172 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent1 2010-12-24 20:27:32.172 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent2 2010-12-24 20:27:32.173 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent3 2010-12-24 20:27:32.173 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent4 2010-12-24 20:27:32.173 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent5 2010-12-24 20:27:32.174 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent6 2010-12-24 20:27:32.175 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent7 2010-12-24 20:27:32.176 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent8 2010-12-24 20:27:32.176 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent9 2010-12-24 20:27:32.177 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent10 2010-12-24 20:27:32.177 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent11 2010-12-24 20:27:32.177 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent12 2010-12-24 20:27:32.179 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent13 2010-12-24 20:27:32.179 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent14 2010-12-24 20:27:32.180 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent15 2010-12-24 20:27:32.180 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent16 2010-12-24 20:27:32.181 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent17 2010-12-24 20:27:32.181 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent18 2010-12-24 20:27:32.190 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent19 However, I don't need every object at once. I need to be able to pick out one object at a time so I can put each object into a string of it's own. If anyone knows a easier way to do this then what I'm trying to please let me know. Anyways, I need to be able to choose just one object depending on what object I need. For example, let's say I only need object #5 and not all the array, how can this be done so I can put it into a string? I'm thinking I might have to use the index feature but I'm not sure how to set it up properly. Here is my NSArray that I'm working with: NSArray* myArray = [document selectElements: @"div.someContent"]; NSMutableArray* results = [NSMutableArray array]; for (Element* element in myArray){ NSString* snipet = [element contentsSource]; [results addObject: snipet]; NSLog(@"%@", snipet); } NSLog(@"%i",myArray.count); I've already spent several hours trying to achieve this but my knowledge with array's is limited even with me reading the documentation. :-( Any help is much appreciated. Thanks

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• Custom ViewEngine problem with ASP.NET MVC

  - by mare

  In this question jfar answered with his solution the problem is it does not work for me. In the method FindView() I have to somehow check if the View we are requesting is a ViewUserControl. Because otherwise I get an error saying: "A master name cannot be specified when the view is a ViewUserControl." This is my custom view engine code right now: public class PendingViewEngine : VirtualPathProviderViewEngine { public PendingViewEngine() { // This is where we tell MVC where to look for our files. /* {0} = view name or master page name * {1} = controller name */ MasterLocationFormats = new[] {"~/Views/Shared/{0}.master", "~/Views/{0}.master"}; ViewLocationFormats = new[] { "~/Views/{1}/{0}.aspx", "~/Views/Shared/{0}.aspx", "~/Views/Shared/{0}.ascx", "~/Views/{1}/{0}.ascx" }; PartialViewLocationFormats = new[] {"~/Views/{1}/{0}.ascx", "~/Views/Shared/{0}.ascx"}; } protected override IView CreatePartialView(ControllerContext controllerContext, string partialPath) { return new WebFormView(partialPath, ""); } protected override IView CreateView(ControllerContext controllerContext, string viewPath, string masterPath) { return new WebFormView(viewPath, masterPath); } public override ViewEngineResult FindView(ControllerContext controllerContext, string viewName, string masterName, bool useCache) { if (controllerContext.HttpContext.Request.IsAjaxRequest()) return base.FindView(controllerContext, viewName, "Modal", useCache); return base.FindView(controllerContext, viewName, "Site", useCache); } } The above ViewEngine fails on calls like this: <% Html.RenderAction("Display", "WidgetZoneV2", new { zoneslug = "left-default-zone" }); %> As you can see, I am providing Route values to my RenderAction call. The action I am rendering here is this: // Widget zone name is unique // GET: /WidgetZoneV2/{zoneslug} public ActionResult Display(string zoneslug) { zoneslug = Utility.RemoveIllegalCharacters(zoneslug); // Displaying widget zone creates new widget zone if it does not exist yet; so it prepares our page for // dropping of content widgets WidgetZone zone; if (!_repository.IsUniqueSlug(zoneslug)) zone = (WidgetZone) _repository.GetInstance(zoneslug); else { // replace slug with spaces to convert it into Title zone = new WidgetZone {Slug = zoneslug, Title = zoneslug.Replace('-', ' '), WidgetsList = new ContentList()}; _repository.Insert(zone); } ViewData["ContentItemsList"] = _repository.GetContentItems(); return View("WidgetZoneV2", zone); } I cannot use RenderPartial (at least I don't know how) the way I can RenderAction. To my knowledge there is no way to provide RouteValueDictionary to RenderPartial() like the way you can to RenderAction().

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• jQuery ajax() returning json object to another function on success causes error

  - by Michael Mao

  Hi all: I got stuck in this problem for an hour. I am thinking this is something relates to variable scoping ? Anyway, here is the code : function loadRoutes(from_city) { $.ajax( { url: './ajax/loadRoutes.php', async : true, cache : false, timeout : 10000, type : "POST", dataType: 'json', data : { "from_city" : from_city }, error : function(data) { console.log('error occured when trying to load routes'); }, success : function(data) { console.log('routes loaded successfully.'); $('#upperright').html(""); //reset upperright box to display nothing. return data; //this line ruins all //this section works just fine. $.each(data.feedback, function(i, route) { console.log("route no. :" + i + " to_city : " + route.to_city + " price :" + route.price); doSomethingHere(i); }); } }); } The for each section works just fine inside the success callback region. I can see Firebug console outputs the route ids with no problem at all. For decoupling purpose, I reckon it would be better to just return the data object, which in JSON format, to a variable in the caller function, like this: //ajax load function function findFromCity(continent, x, y) { console.log("clicked on " + continent + ' ' + x + ',' + y); $.ajax( { url: './ajax/findFromCity.php', async : true, cache : false, timeout : 10000, type : "POST", dataType : 'json', data : { "continent" : continent, "x" : x, "y" : y }, error : function(data) { console.log('error occured when trying to find the from city'); }, success : function(data) { var cityname = data.from_city; //only query database if cityname was found if(cityname != 'undefined' && cityname != 'nowhere') { console.log('from city found : ' + cityname); data = loadRoutes(cityname); console.log(data); } } }); } Then all of a sudden, everything stops working! Firebug console reports data object as "undefined"... hasn't that being assigned by the returning object from the method loadRoutes(cityname)? Sorry my overall knowledge on javascript is quite limited, so now I am just like a "copycat" to work on my code in an amateur way.

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• Opposite method of math power adding numbers

  - by adopilot

  I have method for converting array of Booleans to integer. It looks like this class Program { public static int GivMeInt(bool[] outputs) { int data = 0; for (int i = 0; i < 8; i++) { data += ((outputs[i] == true) ? Convert.ToInt32(Math.Pow(2, i)) : 0); } return data; } static void Main(string[] args) { bool[] outputs = new bool[8]; outputs[0] = false; outputs[1] = true; outputs[2] = false; outputs[3] = true; outputs[4] = false; outputs[5] = false; outputs[6] = false; outputs[7] = false; int data = GivMeInt(outputs); Console.WriteLine(data); Console.ReadKey(); } } Now I want to make opposite method returning array of Booleans values As I am short with knowledge of .NET and C# until now I have only my mind hardcoding of switch statement or if conditions for every possible int value. public static bool[] GiveMeBool(int data) { bool[] outputs = new bool[8]; if (data == 0) { outputs[0] = false; outputs[1] = false; outputs[2] = false; outputs[3] = false; outputs[4] = false; outputs[5] = false; outputs[6] = false; outputs[7] = false; } //After thousand lines of coed if (data == 255) { outputs[0] = true; outputs[1] = true; outputs[2] = true; outputs[3] = true; outputs[4] = true; outputs[5] = true; outputs[6] = true; outputs[7] = true; } return outputs; } I know that there must be easier way.

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• C# Design Questions

  - by guazz

  How to approach unit testing of private methods? I have a class that loads Employee data into a database. Here is a sample: public class EmployeeFacade { public Employees EmployeeRepository = new Employees(); public TaxDatas TaxRepository = new TaxDatas(); public Accounts AccountRepository = new Accounts(); //and so on for about 20 more repositories etc. public bool LoadAllEmployeeData(Employee employee) { if (employee == null) throw new Exception("..."); EmployeeRepository emps = new EmployeeRepository(); bool exists = emps.FetchExisting(emps.Id); if (!exists) { emps.AddNew(); } try { emps.Id = employee.Id; emps.Name = employee.EmployeeDetails.PersonalDetails.Active.Names.FirstName; emps.SomeOtherAttribute; } catch() {} try { emps.Save(); } catch(){} try { LoadorUpdateTaxData(employee.TaxData); } catch() {} try { LoadorUpdateAccountData(employee.AccountData); } catch() {} ... etc. for about 20 more other employee objects } private bool LoadorUpdateTaxData(employeeId, TaxData taxData) { if (taxData == null) throw new Exception("..."); ...same format as above but using AccountRepository } private bool LoadorUpdateAccountData(employee.TaxData) { ...same format as above but using TaxRepository } } I am writing an application to take serialised objects(e.g. Employee above) and load the data to the database. I have a few design question that I would like opinions on: A - I am calling this class "EmployeeFacade" because I am (attempting?) to use the facade pattern. Is it good practace to name the pattern on the class name? B - Is it good to call the concrete entities of my DAL layer classes "Repositories" e.g. "EmployeeRepository" ? C - Is using the repositories in this way sensible or should I create a method on the repository itself to take, say, the Employee and then load the data from there e.g. EmployeeRepository.LoadAllEmployeeData(Employee employee)? I am aim for cohesive class and but this will requrie the repository to have knowledge of the Employee object which may not be good? D - Is there any nice way around of not having to check if an object is null at the begining of each method? E - I have a EmployeeRepository, TaxRepository, AccountRepository declared as public for unit testing purpose. These are really private enities but I need to be able to substitute these with stubs so that the won't write to my database(I overload the save() method to do nothing). Is there anyway around this or do I have to expose them? F - How can I test the private methods - or is this done (something tells me it's not)? G- "emps.Name = employee.EmployeeDetails.PersonalDetails.Active.Names.FirstName;" this breaks the Law of Demeter but how do I adjust my objects to abide by the law?

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• Problem adding subviews (UIButtons) to subclass of UIImageView

  - by samfu_1

  I'm adding a custom button/keypad to my application. Thus far, I have a UIImageView subclass that contains an animation that slides it from the bottom of the screen, and then back down when the user no longer needs it. I'm having trouble adding UIButtons to this UIImageView, however. Since this is a subclass of UIView, I'm attempting to add buttons to my view via the initWithFrame: method. (slideDown method is the added animation) in my UIImageView Subclass, I have a UIButton ivar object added: -(id)initWithFrame:(CGRect)frame { if (self = [super initWithFrame: frame]) { UIButton *button = [UIButton buttonWithType: UIButtonTypeRoundedRect]; button.frame = CGRectMake(16.0, 20.0, 50.0, 50.0); [button setTitle: @"Go" forState: UIControlStateNormal]; [button addTarget: self action: @selector(slideDown) forControlEvents: UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; self.button1 = button; [self addSubview: button1]; NSLog(@"Button added"); } return self; } In my view controller, I instantiate my UIIMageView Subclass in the -(void)viewDidLoad: method as follows: -(void)viewDidLoad { //other objects init'ed ButtonPad *customPad = [[ButtonPad alloc] initWithImage: [UIImage imageNamed: @"ButtonPad.png"]]; customPad.frame = CGRectMake(0.0, 480.0, 320.0, 300.0); self.buttonPad = customPad; [self.view addSubview: buttonPad]; [customPad release]; [super viewDidLoad]; } My current app allows the view to slide up and down off of the screen without any problems. However, the button never appears. I have also tried adding the button to my buttonPad object by instantiating & adding it as a subView to the buttonPad in my view controller file. This worked... but it didn't allow the button to function. I am wondering: A.) Is it appropriate to add buttons or any subview for that matter to the UIView initWithFrame: method or should I be adding these subviews as a subview to my buttonPad in the view Controller file? B.) Since I am creating a custom button/keypad, am i following a valid approach by using a normal UIViewController or should I be using something like a modal view Controller? ( I have little knowledge about these.)

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• Control third check box based on the state of the first two using jquery

  - by Moj

  I have three check boxes and need to disable the third if either and/or of the other two are checked. I'm sure there's a easier way than what I have currently. It's turning into what I believe is a mess and I'm hoping that someone with more jquery knowledge can shine the light here. Here's my simple html form: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> <script src="custom.js" type="text/javascript"></script> </head> <body> <input type="checkbox" class="class" id="1">First <input type="checkbox" class="class" id="2">Second <input type="checkbox" class="class" id="3">Third </body> </html> Here's the javascript I'm using with jquery v1.4.2 jQuery(document).ready(function() { // watches the events of all checkboxes $(":checkbox").click(function(){ if( // if both 1 and 2 are checked we don't want to enable Third until both are unchecked. (($('#1:checkbox').attr('checked'))&&($('#2:checkbox').attr('checked')))|| ((($('#1:checkbox').attr('checked'))&&($('#2:checkbox').attr('checked')))&&($('#3:checkbox').attr('disabled')))|| ((($('#1:checkbox').attr('checked'))||($('#2:checkbox').attr('checked')))&&($('#3:checkbox').attr('disabled'))) ){ // we don't want to do anything in the above events } else if( // handles the First check box (($('#1:checkbox').attr('checked'))||(!$('#1:checkbox').attr('checked')))|| // handles the Second check box (($('#2:checkbox').attr('checked'))||(!$('#2:checkbox').attr('checked'))) ){ // call the disableThird function disableThird(); } }); // handles enabling and disabling the Third checkbox function disableThird(){ var $checkbox = $('#3:checkbox'); $checkbox.attr('disabled', !$checkbox.attr('disabled')); }; }); For some reason checking #3 will disable it's self. I don't understand why. This works, but one of the requirements is that a non programmer should be able to edit and maintain this. Ideally it'd be great if he could just add new check boxes to the html and it would work. The class for these are define and as far as I know can't be changed. The last check box in the list of check boxes will disable if any of the ones above are selected. Like wise if the last check box is selected, it will disable all the ones above it. I haven't even begun writing and testing that portion as this is quickly becoming too complicated for a non programmer to handle. I myself am more of a PHP coder than a js, let alone jquery, coder. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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• Event not bubbling in some Browsers when clicked on Flash

  - by 166_MMX

  Environment: Windows 7, Internet Explorer 8, Flash ActiveX 10.1.53.64, wmode=transparent Just wrote a small test page that you can load in IE and Firefox or any other Browser. <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <title>Event bubbling test</title> </head> <body onclick="alert('body');" style="margin:0;border-width:0;padding:0;background-color:#00FF00;"> <div onclick="alert('div');" style="margin:0;border-width:0;padding:0;background-color:#FF0000;"> <span onclick="alert('span');" style="margin:0;border-width:0;padding:0;background-color:#0000FF;"> <object classid="clsid:D27CDB6E-AE6D-11cf-96B8-444553540000" codebase="http://fpdownload.macromedia.com/get/shockwave/cabs/flash/swflash.cab#version=7,0,0,0" width="159" height="91" id="flashAbout_small" align="absmiddle"> <param name="movie" value="http://www.adobe.com/swf/software/flash/about/flashAbout_info_small.swf"/> <param name="quality" value="high"/> <param name="bgcolor" value="#FFFFFF"/> <param name="wmode" value="transparent"/> <embed src="http://www.adobe.com/swf/software/flash/about/flashAbout_info_small.swf" quality="high" bgcolor="#FFFFFF" width="159" height="91" wmode="transparent" name="flashAbout_small" align="absmiddle" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" pluginspage="http://www.adobe.com/go/getflashplayer"/> </object> </span> </div> </body> </html> So clicking any colored shape should produce an alert (except for the green one in IE, not sure why but I hope that's off topic and not related to my issue). Clicking the Flash container in Firefox will work Perfectly fine. You should get alert boxes in this order containing: span, div and body. Flash bubbles the event to the HTML. But this is not happening in IE. So why is Flash in IE not bubbling events to HTML? Edit: As mentioned by Andy E this behavior can also bee seen in Google Chrome which to my knowledge is not using ActiveX to embed the flash movie into the page.

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• .NET RegEx "Memory Leak" investigation

  - by Kevin Pullin

  I recently looked into some .NET "memory leaks" (i.e. unexpected, lingering GC rooted objects) in a WinForms app. After loading and then closing a huge report, the memory usage did not drop as expected even after a couple of gen2 collections. Assuming that the reporting control was being kept alive by a stray event handler I cracked open WinDbg to see what was happening... Using WinDbg, the !dumpheap -stat command reported a large amount of memory was consumed by string instances. Further refining this down with the !dumpheap -type System.String command I found the culprit, a 90MB string used for the report, at address 03be7930. The last step was to invoke !gcroot 03be7930 to see which object(s) were keeping it alive. My expectations were incorrect - it was not an unhooked event handler hanging onto the reporting control (and report string), but instead it was held on by a System.Text.RegularExpressions.RegexInterpreter instance, which itself is a descendant of a System.Text.RegularExpressions.CachedCodeEntry. Now, the caching of Regexs is (somewhat) common knowledge as this helps to reduce the overhead of having to recompile the Regex each time it is used. But what then does this have to do with keeping my string alive? Based on analysis using Reflector, it turns out that the input string is stored in the RegexInterpreter whenever a Regex method is called. The RegexInterpreter holds onto this string reference until a new string is fed into it by a subsequent Regex method invocation. I'd expect similar behaviour by hanging onto Regex.Match instances and perhaps others. The chain is something like this: Regex.Split, Regex.Match, Regex.Replace, etc Regex.Run RegexScanner.Scan (RegexScanner is the base class, RegexInterpreter is the subclass described above). The offending Regex is only used for reporting, rarely used, and therefore unlikely to be used again to clear out the existing report string. And even if the Regex was used at a later point, it would probably be processing another large report. This is a relatively significant problem and just plain feels dirty. All that said, I found a few options on how to resolve, or at least work around, this scenario. I'll let the community respond first and if no takers come forward I will fill in any gaps in a day or two.

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• C# Nested Property Accessing overloading OR Sequential Operator Overloading

  - by Tim

  Hey, I've been searching around for a solution to a tricky problem we're having with our code base. To start, our code resembles the following: class User { int id; int accountId; Account account { get { return Account.Get(accountId); } } } class Account { int accountId; OnlinePresence Presence { get { return OnlinePresence.Get(accountId); } } public static Account Get(int accountId) { // hits a database and gets back our object. } } class OnlinePresence { int accountId; bool isOnline; public static OnlinePresence Get(int accountId) { // hits a database and gets back our object. } } What we're often doing in our code is trying to access the account Presence of a user by doing var presence = user.Account.Presence; The problem with this is that this is actually making two requests to the database. One to get the Account object, and then one to get the Presence object. We could easily knock this down to one request if we did the following : var presence = UserPresence.Get(user.id); This works, but sort of requires developers to have an understanding of the UserPresence class/methods that would be nice to eliminate. I've thought of a couple of cool ways to be able to handle this problem, and was wondering if anyone knows if these are possible, if there are other ways of handling this, or if we just need to think more as we're coding and do the UserPresence.Get instead of using properties. Overload nested accessors. It would be cool if inside the User class I could write some sort of "extension" that would say "any time a User object's Account property's Presence object is being accessed, do this instead". Overload the . operator with knowledge of what comes after. If I could somehow overload the . operator only in situations where the object on the right is also being "dotted" it would be great. Both of these seem like things that could be handled at compile time, but perhaps I'm missing something (would reflection make this difficult?). Am I looking at things completely incorrectly? Is there a way of enforcing this that removes the burden from the user of the business logic? Thanks! Tim

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