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  • Qt/PyQt dialog with toggable fullscreen mode - problem on Windows

    - by Guard
    I have a dialog created in PyQt. It's purpose and functionality don't matter. The init is: class MyDialog(QWidget, ui_module.Ui_Dialog): def __init__(self, parent=None): super(MyDialog, self).__init__(parent) self.setupUi(self) self.installEventFilter(self) self.setWindowFlags(Qt.Dialog | Qt.WindowTitleHint) self.showMaximized() Then I have event filtering method: def eventFilter(self, obj, event): if event.type() == QEvent.KeyPress: key = event.key() if key == Qt.Key_F11: if self.isFullScreen(): self.setWindowFlags(self._flags) if self._state == 'm': self.showMaximized() else: self.showNormal() self.setGeometry(self._geometry) else: self._state = 'm' if self.isMaximized() else 'n' self._flags = self.windowFlags() self._geometry = self.geometry() self.setWindowFlags(Qt.Tool | Qt.FramelessWindowHint) self.showFullScreen() return True elif key == Qt.Key_Escape: self.close() return QWidget.eventFilter(self, obj, event) As can be seen, Esc is used for dialog hiding, and F11 is used for toggling full-screen. In addition, if the user changed the dialog mode from the initial maximized to normal and possibly moved the dialog, it's state and position are restored after exiting the full-screen. Finally, the dialog is created on the MainWindow action triggered: d = MyDialog(self) d.show() It works fine on Linux (Ubuntu Lucid), but quite strange on Windows 7: if I go to the full-screen from the maximized mode, I can't exit full-screen (on F11 dialog disappears and appears in full-screen mode again. If I change the dialog's mode to Normal (by double-clicking its title), then go to full-screen and then return back, the dialog is shown in the normal mode, in the correct position, but without the title line. Most probably the reason for both cases is the same - the setWindowFlags doesn't work. But why? Is it also possible that it is the bug in the recent PyQt version? On Ubuntu I have 4.6.x from apt, and on Windows - the latest installer from the riverbank site.

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  • Facebook IFrame Application issues for certain users

    - by Kon
    We have a strange issue with running an Facebook IFrame application (using MVC 2). When I run my app and log into Facebook, I get to the application just fine. But when my coworker does it, she gets the following error: API Error Code: 100 API Error Description: Invalid parameter Error Message: Requires valid next URL. Typically this error is resolved by updating the "New Data Permissions" setting of the Facebook application. However, in this case it doesn't help. We've also tried logging in with our accounts from different computers and it seems that neither computer nor which one the MVC ASP.NET app is running from matters. The only difference is who is logged into Facebook. We've looked at our Facebook account settings, but couldn't find any obvious differences. We both have Developer access to the FB application and we both can edit its settings. However, only one of us can actually run the application without getting the above mentioned error message. Any idea what could be happening here?

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  • Object does not exist after constructor?

    - by openbas
    Hello, I have a constructor that looks like this (in c++): Interpreter::Interpreter() { tempDat == new DataObject(); tempDat->clear(); } the constructor of dataObject does absolutely nothing, and clear does this: bool DataObject::clear() { //clear the object if (current_max_id > 0) { indexTypeLookup.clear(); intData.clear(); doubleData.clear(); current_max_id = 0; } } Those members are defined as follows: std::map<int, int> indexTypeLookup; std::map<int, int> intData; std::map<int, double> doubleData; Now the strange thing is that I'm getting a segfault on tempDat-clear(); gdb says tempDat is null. How is that possible? The constructor of tempDat cannot fail, it looks like this: DataObject::DataObject() : current_max_id(0) { } I know there are probably better way's of making such a data structure, but I really like to know where this segfault problem is coming from..

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  • OleDB connection only working when debugging

    - by Francesc
    I have a C# application that connects to a named SQL Express instance on the local machine using OleDBConnection: _connection = new OleDbConnection(_strConn); _connection.Open(); _strConn is something like this: "Provider=sqloledb;Data Source=.\NAMEDINSTANCE;Initial Catalog=dbname;User Id=sa;Password=password;" If I debug the application, the connection works fine. If I run the application from Windows Explorer (the same debug compilation), I get an "OleDBException: Login timeout expired" in the Open() line after 30 seconds. The strange thing is the exception happens even if I attach the debugger to the exe. I can see that the connection string is correct and everything seems fine. I can't fine any extra information in the SQL Express error log or SQL Activity Monitor either. If it helps, here is the exception: System.Data.OleDb.OleDbException: Login timeout expired at System.Data.OleDb.OleDbConnectionInternal..ctor(OleDbConnectionString constr, OleDbConnection connection) at System.Data.OleDb.OleDbConnectionFactory.CreateConnection(DbConnectionOptions options, Object poolGroupProviderInfo, DbConnectionPool pool, DbConnection owningObject) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.CreateNonPooledConnection(DbConnection owningConnection, DbConnectionPoolGroup poolGroup) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.GetConnection(DbConnection owningConnection) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionClosed.OpenConnection(DbConnection outerConnection, DbConnectionFactory connectionFactory) at System.Data.OleDb.OleDbConnection.Open() I imagine that find the issue with the information I give here might be difficult, but I don't know where else to look or what other tests to do, so any ideas on what it could be or what test I could do to find out will be really appreciated.

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  • Advice Please: SQL Server Identity vs Unique Identifier keys when using Entity Framework

    - by c.batt
    I'm in the process of designing a fairly complex system. One of our primary concerns is supporting SQL Server peer-to-peer replication. The idea is to support several geographically separated nodes. A secondary concern has been using a modern ORM in the middle tier. Our first choice has always been Entity Framework, mainly because the developers like to work with it. (They love the LiNQ support.) So here's the problem: With peer-to-peer replication in mind, I settled on using uniqueidentifier with a default value of newsequentialid() for the primary key of every table. This seemed to provide a good balance between avoiding key collisions and reducing index fragmentation. However, it turns out that the current version of Entity Framework has a very strange limitation: if an entity's key column is a uniqueidentifier (GUID) then it cannot be configured to use the default value (newsequentialid()) provided by the database. The application layer must generate the GUID and populate the key value. So here's the debate: abandon Entity Framework and use another ORM: use NHibernate and give up LiNQ support use linq2sql and give up future support (not to mention get bound to SQL Server on DB) abandon GUIDs and go with another PK strategy devise a method to generate sequential GUIDs (COMBs?) at the application layer I'm leaning towards option 1 with linq2sql (my developers really like linq2[stuff]) and 3. That's mainly because I'm somewhat ignorant of alternate key strategies that support the replication scheme we're aiming for while also keeping things sane from a developer's perspective. Any insight or opinion would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Constant CMS Session Expiry On 1&1 Cloud Server?

    - by leen3o
    I have a couple of 1&1's 'Dynamic Cloud Servers' and running Win2008R2 and they are setup as web servers, I have a number of Umbraco CMS installs on them and they have been running fine for over a year. On Saturday on BOTH servers, a very strange thing happened - As soon as I login to the CMS/Umbraco admin I am logged out with about 5 seconds? It's as if my session expires the moment I login? I have checked everything I can as I'm not really a server admin, and everything seems to be exactly as it was last week? Like I say this has happened EXACTLY the same time (Saturday) on TWO different servers? I'm just looking for ideas of what I should be looking for? Also the front end of the sites seem fine... Its only the backend when I login. I have gone to 1&1 about this, and as usual they have washed their hands saying its nothing to do with them - When I am certain it is. How can this happen on two different servers, and affect the same sites in exactly the same way? Any help, tips, things to try would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Fullcalendar doesn't render color when using eventRender

    - by jaffa
    When I set-up fullCalendar and set eventRender function callback, I want to set the color of the event depending if LeadId is null or not. But this doesn't seem to work even though the documentation says so: http://arshaw.com/fullcalendar/docs/event_data/Event_Object/#color-options Is there any way to set the event color to change based on the data? calendar = $('#dayview').fullCalendar({ .... timeFormat: 'HH:mm', columnFormat: { agendaDay: 'dddd dd/MM/yyyy' }, eventClick: function (calEvent, jsEvent, view) { var leadUrl = "/Leads/" + calEvent.LeadId; window.location = leadUrl; }, eventRender: function (event, element) { if (event.LeadId != null) { event.eventColor = "#B22222"; event.eventBackColor = "#B22222"; } }, UPDATE: This is really strange. The event has all my properties returned for the event off the server. element is just the DOM element for the event. When I drag/move the event to somewhere else in the calendar, the event turns red, and if I inspect the event object it now has color set to Red. So the question is why isn't it applying on the 1st render, but on subsequent renders (i.e. after move) the colour gets applied?

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  • Facebook Stream.Get -- How to access data in array?

    - by user316841
    On stream.get, I try to echo $feeds["posts"][$i]["attachment"]["href"]; It return the URL, but, in the same array scope where "type" is located (which returns string: video, etc), trying $feeds["posts"][$i]["attachment"]["type"] returns nothing at all! Here's an array through PHP's var_dump: http://pastie.org/930475 So, from testing I suppose this is protected by Facebook? Does that makes sense at all? Here it's full: http://pastie.org/930490, but not all attachment/media/types has values. It's also strange, because I can't access through [attachment][media][href] or [attachment][media][type], and if I try [attachment][media][0][type] or href, it gives me a string offset error. ["attachment"]=> array(8) { ["media"]=> array(1) { [0]=> array(5) { ["href"]=> string(55) "http://www.facebook.com/video/video.php?v=1392999461587" ["alt"]=> string(13) "IN THE STUDIO" ["type"]=> string(5) "video" My question is, is this protected by Facebook? Or we can actually access this array position?

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  • [Ruby] Object assignment and pointers

    - by Jergason
    I am a little confused about object assignment and pointers in Ruby, and coded up this snippet to test my assumptions. class Foo attr_accessor :one, :two def initialize(one, two) @one = one @two = two end end bar = Foo.new(1, 2) beans = bar puts bar puts beans beans.one = 2 puts bar puts beans puts beans.one puts bar.one I had assumed that when I assigned bar to beans, it would create a copy of the object, and modifying one would not affect the other. Alas, the output shows otherwise. ^_^[jergason:~]$ ruby test.rb #<Foo:0x100155c60> #<Foo:0x100155c60> #<Foo:0x100155c60> #<Foo:0x100155c60> 2 2 I believe that the numbers have something to do with the address of the object, and they are the same for both beans and bar, and when I modify beans, bar gets changed as well, which is not what I had expected. It appears that I am only creating a pointer to the object, not a copy of it. What do I need to do to copy the object on assignment, instead of creating a pointer? Tests with the Array class shows some strange behavior as well. foo = [0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5] baz = foo puts "foo is #{foo}" puts "baz is #{baz}" foo.pop puts "foo is #{foo}" puts "baz is #{baz}" foo += ["a hill of beans is a wonderful thing"] puts "foo is #{foo}" puts "baz is #{baz}" This produces the following wonky output: foo is 012345 baz is 012345 foo is 01234 baz is 01234 foo is 01234a hill of beans is a wonderful thing baz is 01234 This blows my mind. Calling pop on foo affects baz as well, so it isn't a copy, but concatenating something onto foo only affects foo, and not baz. So when am I dealing with the original object, and when am I dealing with a copy? In my own classes, how can I make sure that assignment copies, and doesn't make pointers? Help this confused guy out.

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  • 3D Animation Rotating and Translating simultaneously in WPF

    - by sklitzz
    Hi, I have ModelVisual3D of a cube. I want to translate and rotate it at the same time. I wish the center of rotation to be in the middle of the cube(the cube rotates around its own axis). But when I try to do this applying both transformations the effect is not what you would expect. Since the object is translating the center of rotation is different thus making it move and rotate in a strange way. How do I get the desired effect? Transform3DGroup transGroup = new Transform3DGroup(); DoubleAnimation cardAnimation = new DoubleAnimation(); cardAnimation.From = 0; cardAnimation.To = 3; cardAnimation.Duration = new Duration(TimeSpan.FromSeconds(2)); Transform3D transform = new TranslateTransform3D(0,0,0); transGroup.Children.Add(transform); RotateTransform3D rotateTransform = new RotateTransform3D(); AxisAngleRotation3D rotateAxis = new AxisAngleRotation3D(new Vector3D(0, 1, 0), 180); Rotation3DAnimation rotateAnimation = new Rotation3DAnimation(rotateAxis, TimeSpan.FromSeconds(2)); rotateAnimation.DecelerationRatio = 0.8; transGroup.Children.Add(rotateTransform); Model.Transform = transGroup; transform.BeginAnimation(TranslateTransform3D.OffsetXProperty, cardAnimation); rotateTransform.BeginAnimation(RotateTransform3D.RotationProperty, rotateAnimation);

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  • Counting string length in javascript and Ruby on Rails

    - by williamjones
    I've got a text area on a web site that should be limited in length. I'm allowing users to enter 255 characters, and am enforcing that limit with a Rails validation: validates_length_of :body, :maximum => 255 At the same time, I added a javascript char counter like you see on Twitter, to give feedback to the user on how many characters he has already used, and to disable the submit button when over length, and am getting that length in Javascript with a call like this: element.length Lastly, to enforce data integrity, in my Postgres database, I have created this field as a varchar(255) as a last line of defense. Unfortunately, these methods of counting characters do not appear to be directly compatible. Javascript counts the best, in that it counts what users consider as number of characters where everything is a single character. Once the submission hits Rails, however, all of the carriage returns have been converted to \r\n, now taking up 2 characters worth of space, which makes a close call fail Rails validations. Even if I were to handcode a different length validation in Rails, it would still fail when it hits the database I think, though I haven't confirmed this yet. What's the best way for me to make all this work the way the user would want? Best Solution: an approach that would enable me to meet user expectations, where each character of any type is only one character. If this means increasing the length of the varchar database field, a user should not be able to sneakily send a hand-crafted post that creates a row with more than 255 letters. Somewhat Acceptable Solution: a javascript change that enables the user to see the real character count, such that hitting return increments the counter 2 characters at a time, while properly handling all symbols that might have these strange behaviors.

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  • JDBC call not executing

    - by dbyrne
    I am working on one of the DAOs for a medium sized web application. Unfortunately, it contains very convoluted logic, and makes hundreds of JDBC stored proc calls in loops. This is out of my control. I am working on a method inside the DAO which makes a single JDBC call. The simplified version of what this method looks like is this: DriverManager.registerDriver(new com.sybase.jdbc2.jdbc.SybDriver()); Connection con = DriverManager.getConnection((String)connectionDetails.get("DATABASE_URL") (String)connectionDetails.get("USERID"), (String)connectionDetails.get("PASSWORD")); String sqlToExecute = "{call " + STORED_PROC + "(?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?)}"; CallableStatement stmt = con.prepareCall(sqlToExecute); //Maybe I should try calling clearParameters here? stmt.setString(1,someData); //....Set of parameters.... if (!stmt.execute()) { //execute method never returns false } stmt.close(); Its pretty much a textbook JDBC call. All this stored proc does is insert a single row. Here is where things get crazy: This code works when you run it through a debugger line by line, but fails when you run it "full speed". Not only does it fail, but it doesn't throw any exception! The execute method always returns true. It just breezes right through the JDBC call without inserting a row to the database. If you go through the log files, copy the stored proc call and run it manually, it works (just like it does in debug mode). Whats strange is that the rest of the DAO, with all its hundreds of looped stored proc calls, works fine. My thinking is that Connection or CallableStatement is caching some value behind the scenes that is screwing things up. Has anyone ever seen anything like this before? A JDBC call failing with no exceptions? I know it will be impossible to provide a complete solution to this without seeing the whole application, I am just looking for suggestions on possible issues to investigate.

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  • Can not access response.body inside after filter block in Sinatra 1.0

    - by Petr Vostrel
    I'm struggling with a strange issue. According to http://github.com/sinatra/sinatra (secion Filters) a response object is available in after filter blocks in Sinatra 1.0. However the response.status is correctly accessible, I can not see non-empty response.body from my routes inside after filter. I have this rackup file: config.ru require 'app' run TestApp Then Sinatra 1.0.b gem installed using: gem install --pre sinatra And this is my tiny app with a single route: app.rb require 'rubygems' require 'sinatra/base' class TestApp < Sinatra::Base set :root, File.dirname(__FILE__) get '/test' do 'Some response' end after do halt 500 if response.empty? # used 500 just for illustation end end And now, I would like to access the response inside the after filter. When I run this app and access /test URL, I got a 500 response as if the response is empty, but the response clearly is 'Some response'. Along with my request to /test, a separate request to /favicon.ico is issued by the browser and that returns 404 as there is no route nor a static file. But I would expect the 500 status to be returned as the response should be empty. In console, I can see that within the after filter, the response to /favicon.ico is something like 'Not found' and response to /test really is empty even though there is response returned by the route. What do I miss?

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  • Am I a discoverer of a bug in the WPF engine?

    - by bitbonk
    We have a MFC 8 application compiled with /CLR that contains a larger amount of Windows Forms UserControls wich again contain WPF user controls using ElementHost. Due to the architecture of our software we can not use HwndHost directly. We observed an extremely strange behavior here that we can not make any sense of: When the CPU load is very high during startup of the application and there are a lot live of ElementHost instances, the whole property engine completely stops working. For example animations that usually just work fine now never update the values of the bound properties, they just stay at some random value after startup. When I set a property that is not bound to anything the value is correctly stored in the dependency property (calling the getter returns the new value) but the visual representation never reflects that. I set the background to red but the background color does not change. We tested this on a lot of different machines all running Windows XP SP2 and it is pretty reproducible. The funny thing here is, that there is in fact one situation where the bound properties actually pickup a new value from the animation and the visual gets updated based on the property values. It is when I resize the ElementHost or when I hide and reshow the parent native control. As soon as I do this, properties that are bound to an animation pickup a new value and the visuals rerender based on the new property values - but just once - if I want to see another update I have to resize the ElementHost. Do you have any explanation of what could be happening here or how I could approach this problem to find it out? What can I do to debug this? Is there a way I can get more information about what WPF actually does or where WPF might have crashed? To me it currently seems like a bug in WPF itself since it only happens at high CPU load at startup.

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  • DBD::Oracle and utf8 issue

    - by goe
    Hi All, I have a problem where my perl code using the latest DBD::Oracle on perl v5.8.8 throws an exception on me when I try to insert characters like 'ñ'. Exception: DBD::Oracle::db do failed: ORA-01756: quoted string not properly terminated (DBD ERROR: OCIStmtPrepare) My $ENV{NLS_LANG} is set to 'AMERICAN_AMERICA.AL32UTF8' These are the DB params based on "SELECT * from NLS_DATABASE_PARAMETERS" 1 NLS_LANGUAGE AMERICAN 2 NLS_TERRITORY AMERICA 3 NLS_CURRENCY $ 4 NLS_ISO_CURRENCY AMERICA 5 NLS_NUMERIC_CHARACTERS ., 6 NLS_CHARACTERSET AL32UTF8 7 NLS_CALENDAR GREGORIAN 8 NLS_DATE_FORMAT DD-MON-RR 9 NLS_DATE_LANGUAGE AMERICAN 10 NLS_SORT BINARY 11 NLS_TIME_FORMAT HH.MI.SSXFF AM 12 NLS_TIMESTAMP_FORMAT DD-MON-RR HH.MI.SSXFF AM 13 NLS_TIME_TZ_FORMAT HH.MI.SSXFF AM TZR 14 NLS_TIMESTAMP_TZ_FORMAT DD-MON-RR HH.MI.SSXFF AM TZR 15 NLS_DUAL_CURRENCY $ 16 NLS_COMP BINARY 17 NLS_LENGTH_SEMANTICS BYTE These are perl params based on "$db-ora_nls_parameters()" $VAR1 = { 'NLS_LANGUAGE' => 'AMERICAN', 'NLS_TIME_TZ_FORMAT' => 'HH.MI.SSXFF AM TZR', 'NLS_SORT' => 'BINARY', 'NLS_NUMERIC_CHARACTERS' => '.,', 'NLS_TIME_FORMAT' => 'HH.MI.SSXFF AM', 'NLS_ISO_CURRENCY' => 'AMERICA', 'NLS_COMP' => 'BINARY', 'NLS_CALENDAR' => 'GREGORIAN', 'NLS_DATE_FORMAT' => 'DD-MON-RR', 'NLS_DATE_LANGUAGE' => 'AMERICAN', 'NLS_TIMESTAMP_FORMAT' => 'DD-MON-RR HH.MI.SSXFF AM', 'NLS_TERRITORY' => 'AMERICA', 'NLS_LENGTH_SEMANTICS' => 'BYTE', 'NLS_NCHAR_CHARACTERSET' => 'AL16UTF16', 'NLS_DUAL_CURRENCY' => '$', 'NLS_TIMESTAMP_TZ_FORMAT' => 'DD-MON-RR HH.MI.SSXFF AM TZR', 'NLS_NCHAR_CONV_EXCP' => 'FALSE', 'NLS_CHARACTERSET' => 'AL32UTF8', 'NLS_CURRENCY' => '$' }; Here are some other strange facts: If I set NLS_LANG to ‘'AMERICAN_AMERICA.UTF8’ the insert executes fine with ‘ñ’ character. If I leave NLS_LANG as ‘'AMERICAN_AMERICA.AL32UTF8' but use ‘Ñ’ the insert will run fine as well.

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  • 'send' button error 401

    - by jjd
    I'm having a strange error with 'Send' button I have the following code on my page <div id="fb-root"></div> <script type="text/javascript"> (function(d, s, id) { var js, fjs = d.getElementsByTagName(s)[0]; if (d.getElementById(id)) return; js = d.createElement(s); js.id = id; js.src = "//connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js#xfbml=1&amp;appId=<myAppId>"; fjs.parentNode.insertBefore(js, fjs); }(document, 'script', 'facebook-jssdk')); </script> <br/> <fb:like send="true" width="450" show_faces="true"></fb:like> The 'send' button works fine if I access the application via IP address, but if I use a domain name, Facebook returns The page at http://<...>.com:8080/pages/question.jsf could not be reached because the server returned status code 401. Meantime 'like' button works fine. The application front-end is built with JSF2+Primefaces. Any ideas would be appreciated Thanks

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  • JPA 2.0 Provider Hibernate

    - by Rooh
    I have very strange problem we are using jpa 2.0 with hibernate annotations based Database generated through JPA DDL is true and MySQL as Database; i will provide some reference classes and then my porblem. @MappedSuperclass public abstract class Common implements serializable{ @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) @Column(name = "id", updatable = false) private Long id; @ManyToOne @JoinColumn private Address address; //with all getter and setters //as well equal and hashCode } @Entity public class Parent extends Common{ private String name; @OneToMany(cascade = {CascadeType.MERGE,CascadeType.PERSIST}, mappedBy = "parent") private List<Child> child; //setters and rest of class } @Entity public class Child extends Common{ //some properties with getter/setters } @Entity public class Address implements Serializable{ @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) @Column(name = "id", updatable = false) private Long id; private String street; //rest of class with get/setter } as in code you can see that parents and child classes extends Common class so both have address property and id , the problem occurs when change the address refference in parent class it reflect same change in all child objects in list and if change address refference in child class then on merge it will change address refference of parent as well i am not able to figure out is it is problem of jpa or hibernate

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  • SQL Server becomes slow after restart

    - by Tobi DM
    We use SQL Server 2005 on an Windwos Server 2008. Ther Server has 48 GB RAM. SQL Server is configured to use 40 GB RAM. There is only one database hosted (About 70 GB). The only app beside SQL Server is our App-Server which connects the clients to the database. Now we encounter the following problem: After a restart of the server our the performance is great. The server grabs the 40 GB RAM wich it is allowed to and then runs fast as hell. But after about 4 weeks the system becomes slower and slower. The execution of statements (seen in the profiler) is raising slowly. But I cannot see that there is something going wrong on the server. CPU usage is at about 20% I/O also seems to be no Problem The process monitor does also not show that there are strange apps or something like that. Eventlog does also have no interessting messages No open transactions or blockings to see We tried already the following things without effect: Droped the cache by using the statements DBCC FreeProcCache DBCC FREESYSTEMCACHE('ALL') DBCC DropCleanbuffers Restarted the Appserver we are using. Restart the sql server service But nothing did help exept restarting the whole server. Any ideas?

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  • Broken console in Maven project using Netbeans

    - by Maciek Sawicki
    Hi, I have strange problem with my Neatens+Maven installation. This is the shortest code to reproduce the problem: public class App { public static void main( String[] args ) { // Create a scanner to read from keyboard Scanner scanner = new Scanner (System.in); Scanner s= new Scanner(System.in); String param= s.next(); System.out.println(param); } } When I'm running it as Maven Project inside Netbeans console seems to be broken. It just ignores my input. It's look like infinitive loop in System.out.println(param);. However this project works fine when it's compiled as "Java Aplication" project. It also works O.K. if I build and run it from cmd. System info: Os: Vista IDE: Netbeans 6.8 Maven: apache-maven-2.2.1 //edit Built program (using mavean from Netbeans) works fine. I just can't test it using Net beans. And I think I forgot to ask the question ;). So of course my first question is: how can I fix this problem? And second is: Is it any workaround for this? For example configuring Netbeans to run external commend line app instead of using built in console.

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  • JS: Why isn't this variable available to the other functions?

    - by Marius Jonsson
    Hello there, I've am trying to make a canvas animation: var context; var meter; var pin; function init() { var meter = new Image(); var pin = new Image(); var context = document.getElementById('canvas').getContext('2d'); meter.src = 'background.png'; pin.src = 'needle.png'; context.drawImage(meter,0,0); context.translate(275,297); context.save(); setTimeout(startup,500); } function startup() { var r=2; // set rpm here. var i=r*36-27; var angleInRadians = 3.14159265 * i/180; //converting degree to radian context.rotate(angleInRadians); //rotating by angle context.drawImage(pin,-250,-3); //adjusting pin center at meter center context.restore(); } You can see the script at http://www.kingoslo.com/instruments/ With firebug I get error saying that context is undefined, which I think is strange. Thanks. Kind regards, Marius

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  • Managed bean property value not set to null

    - by Vladimir
    Hi! I'm new to JSF, so this question might be strange. I have an inputText component's value bound to managed bean's property of type Float. I need to set property to null when inputText field is empty, not to 0 value. It's not done by default, so I added converter with the following method implemented: public Object getAsObject(FacesContext arg0, UIComponent arg1, String arg2) throws ConverterException { if (StringUtils.isEmpty(arg2)) { return null; } float result = Float.parseFloat(arg2); if (result == 0) { return null; } return result; } I registered converter, and assigned it to inputText component. I logged arg2 argument, and also logged return value from getAsObject method. By my log I can see that it returns null value. But, I also log setter property on backing bean and argument is 0 value, not null as expected. To be more precise, it is setter property is called twice, once with null argument, second time with 0 value argument. It still sets backing bean value to 0. How can I set value to null? Thanks in advance.

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  • dll's loaded through reflection

    - by Seattle Leonard
    Ok, I got a strange one here and I want to know if any of you have ever run accross anything like it. So I've got this web app that loads up a bunch of dll's through reflection. Basically it looks for Types that are derived from certain abstract types and adds them to the list of things it can make. Here's the weird part. While developing there is never a problem. When installing it, there is never a problem to start with. Then, at a seemingly random time, the application breaks while trying to find all the types. I've had 2 sites sitting side by side and one worked while the other did not, and they were configured exactly(and I mean exactly) the same. IISRESET's never helped, but this did: I simply moved all the dll's out of the bin directory then moved them back. That's right I just moved them out of the bin directory then put them right back where they came from and everything worked fine. Any ideas?

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  • How can I update a record using a correlated subquery?

    - by froadie
    I have a function that accepts one parameter and returns a table/resultset. I want to set a field in a table to the first result of that recordset, passing in one of the table's other fields as the parameter. If that's too complicated in words, the query looks something like this: UPDATE myTable SET myField = (SELECT TOP 1 myFunctionField FROM fn_doSomething(myOtherField) WHERE someCondition = 'something') WHERE someOtherCondition = 'somethingElse' In this example, myField and myOtherField are fields in myTable, and myFunctionField is a field return by fn_doSomething. This seems logical to me, but I'm getting the following strange error: 'myOtherField' is not a recognized OPTIMIZER LOCK HINTS option. Any idea what I'm doing wrong, and how I can accomplish this? *UPDATE: * Based on Anil Soman's answer, I realized that the function is expecting a string parameter and the field being passed is an integer. I'm not sure if this should be a problem as an explicit call to the function using an integer value works - e.g. fn_doSomething(12345) seems to automatically cast the number to an string. However, I tried to do an explicit cast: UPDATE myTable SET myField = (SELECT TOP 1 myFunctionField FROM fn_doSomething(CAST(myOtherField AS varchar(1000))) WHERE someCondition = 'something') WHERE someOtherCondition = 'somethingElse' Now I'm getting the following error: Line 5: Incorrect syntax near '('.

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  • Connections hanging on read()

    - by viraptor
    Hi, Short version: I've got a strange issue with a server accepting TCP connections. Even though there are normally some processes waiting, at some volume of connections it hangs. Long version: The server is written in Perl and binds a $srv socket with the reuse flag and listen == 5. Afterwards, it forks into 10 processes with a loop of $clt=$srv->accept(); do_processing($clt); $clt->shutdown(2); The client written in C is also very simple - it sends some lines, then receives all lines available and does a shutdown(sockfd, 2); There's nothing async going on and at the end both send and receive queues are empty (as reported by netstat). Connections last only ~20ms. All clients behave the same way, are the same implementation, etc. Now let's say I'm accepting X connections from client 1 and another X from client 2. Processes still report that they're idle all the time. If I add another X connections from client 3, suddenly the server processes start hanging just after accepting. The first blocking thing they do after accept(); is while (<$clt>) ... - but they don't get any data (on the first try already). Suddenly all 10 processes are in this state and do not stop waiting. On strace, the server processes seem to hang on read(), which makes sense. There are loads of connections in TIME_WAIT state belonging to that server (~100 when the problem starts to manifest), but this might be a red herring. What could be happening here?

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  • A feeling that I'm not that good developer

    - by Karim
    Hi, Im having a strange feeling, but let me first introduce myself as a software developer. I started to program when I was still a kid, I had about 10 or 11 years. I really enjoy my work and never get bored from it. It's amazing how somebody could be paid for what he really likes to do and would be doing it anyway even for free. WHen I first started to program, I was feeling proud of what I was doing, each application I built was for me a success and after 2-3 year I had a feeling that I'm a coding guru. It was a nice feeling ;-) But the more I was in the field, the more types of software I started to develop I was starting to have a feeling that I'm completely wrong in that I'm guru. I felt that I'm not even a mediocre developer. Each new field I start to work on is giving me this feeling. Like when I once developed a device driver for a client, I saw how much I need to learn about device drivers. When I developed a video filter for an application, I saw how much do I still need to learn about DirectShow, Color Spaces, and all the theory behind that. The worst thing was when I started to learn algorithms. It was several years ago. I knew then the basic structures and algorithms like the sorting, some types of trees, some hashtables, strings etc.. and when I really wanted to learn a group of structures I learned about 5-6 new types and saw that in fact even this small group has several hundred subtypes of structures. It's depressing how little time people have in their lives to learn all this stuff. I'm now a software developer with about 10 years of experience and I still feel that I'm not a proficient developer when I think about things that others do in the industry. Is this normal what I'm experiencing or is it a sign of a destructive excessive ambition? Thanks in advance for any comments.

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