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  • Use different configurations with Simple Injection

    - by Ruben.Canton
    I'm using the library "Simple Injector" (http://simpleinjector.codeplex.com) and it looks cool and nice. But after building a configuration and use it, now I want to know how to change from one configuration to another. Scenario: Let's imagine I've set up a configuration in the Global Asax and I have the public and global Container there. Now I want to make some tests and I want them to use mock classes so I want to change the configuration. I can, of course, build another configuration and assign it to the global Container created by default, so that every time I run a test the alternative configuration will be set. But on doing that and though I'm in development context the Container is changed for everyone, even for normal requests. I know I'm testing in this context and that shouldn't matter, but I have the feeling that this is not the way for doing this... and I wonder how to change from one configuration to another in the correct way. Note: At Simple Injector documentation says that you can ask questions in stackoverflow so that's why I'm here. =P PD: I'm new in this IoC and DI world so try to be easy with me when explaining it :)

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  • View transform seems to be ignored when animating on iphone. Why?

    - by heymon
    I have views that can be rotated, scaled and moved around the screen. I want the view to resize and be orthogonal when the user double tap's the view to edit the textview within. The code is below. Somewhere the transform is getting reset. The NSLog statement below prints the identity transform, but a print of the transform when the animation is complete in transitionDidStop reveals that the transform is what it was before I thought I set it to identity. The view resizes, but it acts like the transform was never set to identity? Any ideas/pointers? originalBounds = self.bounds; originalCenter = self.center; originalTransform = self.transform; r = CGRectMake(0, 0, [UIScreen mainScreen].bounds.size.width - 70, 450); [UIView beginAnimations: nil context: NULL]; [UIView setAnimationDelegate: self]; [UIView setAnimationDidStopSelector: @selector(transitionDidStop:finished:context:)]; self.transform = CGAffineTransformIdentity; NSLog(@"%@ after set", NSStringFromCGAffineTransform([self transform])); [self setBounds: r]; [self setCenter: p]; [self setAlpha: 1.0]; [UIView commitAnimations]; [textView becomeFirstResponder];

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  • Flex ChangeWatcher bind to a negative condition

    - by bedwyr
    I have a bindable getter in a component which informs me when a [hidden] timer is running. I also have a context menu which, if this timer is running, should disable one of the menu items. Is it possible to create a ChangeWatcher which watches for the negative condition of a bindable property/getter and changes the enabled property of the menu item? Here are the basic methods I'm trying to bind together: Class A: [Bindable] public function get isPlaying():Boolean { return (_timer != null) ? _timer.running : false; } Class B: private var _playingWatcher:ChangeWatcher; public function createContextMenu():void { //...blah blah, creating context menu var newItem:ContextMenuItem = new ContextMenuItem(); _playingWatcher = BindingUtils.bindProperty(newItem, "enabled", _classA, "isPlaying"); } In the code above, I have the inverse case: when isPlaying() is true, the menu item is enabled; I want it to only be enabled when the condition is false. I could create a second getter (there are other bindings which rely on the current getter) to return the inverse condition, but that sounds ugly to me: [Bindable] public function get isNotPlaying():Boolean { return !isPlaying; } Is this possible, or is there another approach I'm completely missing?

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  • Is it possible to replace values ina queryset before sending it to your template?

    - by Issy
    Hi Guys, Wondering if it's possible to change a value returned from a queryset before sending it off to the template. Say for example you have a bunch of records Date | Time | Description 10/05/2010 | 13:30 | Testing... etc... However, based on the day of the week the time may change. However this is static. For example on a monday the time is ALWAYS 15:00. Now you could add another table to configure special cases but to me it seems overkill, as this is a rule. How would you replace that value before sending it to the template? I thought about using the new if tags (if day=1), but this is more of business logic rather then presentation. Tested this in a custom template tag def render(self, context): result = self.model._default_manager.filter(from_date__lte=self.now).filter(to_date__gte=self.now) if self.day == 4: result = result.exclude(type__exact=2).order_by('time') else: result = result.order_by('type') result[0].time = '23:23:23' context[self.varname] = result return '' However it still displays the results from the DB, is this some how related to 'lazy' evaluation of templates? Thanks! Update Responding to comments below: It's not stored wrong in the DB, its stored Correctly However there is a small side case where the value needs to change. So for example I have a From Date & To date, my query checks if todays date is between those. Now with this they could setup a from date - to date for an entire year, and the special cases (like mondays as an example) is taken care off. However if you want to store in the DB you would have to capture several more records to cater for the side case. I.e you would be capturing the same information just to cater for that 1 day when the time changes. (And the time always changes on the same day, and is always the same)

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  • How to benchmark on multi-core processors

    - by Pascal Cuoq
    I am looking for ways to perform micro-benchmarks on multi-core processors. Context: At about the same time desktop processors introduced out-of-order execution that made performance hard to predict, they, perhaps not coincidentally, also introduced special instructions to get very precise timings. Example of these instructions are rdtsc on x86 and rftb on PowerPC. These instructions gave timings that were more precise than could ever be allowed by a system call, allowed programmers to micro-benchmark their hearts out, for better or for worse. On a yet more modern processor with several cores, some of which sleep some of the time, the counters are not synchronized between cores. We are told that rdtsc is no longer safe to use for benchmarking, but I must have been dozing off when we were explained the alternative solutions. Question: Some systems may save and restore the performance counter and provide an API call to read the proper sum. If you know what this call is for any operating system, please let us know in an answer. Some systems may allow to turn off cores, leaving only one running. I know Mac OS X Leopard does when the right Preference Pane is installed from the Developers Tools. Do you think that this make rdtsc safe to use again? More context: Please assume I know what I am doing when trying to do a micro-benchmark. If you are of the opinion that if an optimization's gains cannot be measured by timing the whole application, it's not worth optimizing, I agree with you, but I cannot time the whole application until the alternative data structure is finished, which will take a long time. In fact, if the micro-benchmark were not promising, I could decide to give up on the implementation now; I need figures to provide in a publication whose deadline I have no control over.

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  • Main Function Error C++

    - by Arjun Nayini
    I have this main function: #ifndef MAIN_CPP #define MAIN_CPP #include "dsets.h" using namespace std; int main(){ DisjointSets s; s.uptree.addelements(4); for(int i=0; i<s.uptree.size(); i++) cout <<uptree.at(i) << endl; return 0; } #endif And the following class: class DisjointSets { public: void addelements(int x); int find(int x); void setunion(int x, int y); private: vector<int> uptree; }; #endif My implementation is this: void DisjointSets::addelements(int x){ for(int i=0; i<x; i++) uptree.push_back(-1); } //Given an int this function finds the root associated with that node. int DisjointSets::find(int x){ //need path compression if(uptree.at(x) < 0) return x; else return find(uptree.at(x)); } //This function reorders the uptree in order to represent the union of two //subtrees void DisjointSets::setunion(int x, int y){ } Upon compiling main.cpp (g++ main.cpp) I'm getting these errors: dsets.h: In function \u2018int main()\u2019: dsets.h:25: error: \u2018std::vector DisjointSets::uptree\u2019 is private main.cpp:9: error: within this context main.cpp:9: error: \u2018class std::vector \u2019 has no member named \u2018addelements\u2019 dsets.h:25: error: \u2018std::vector DisjointSets::uptree\u2019 is private main.cpp:10: error: within this context main.cpp:11: error: \u2018uptree\u2019 was not declared in this scope I'm not sure exactly whats wrong. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • Auto increment with a Unit Of Work

    - by Derick
    Context I'm building a persistence layer to abstract different types of databases that I'll be needing. On the relational part I have mySQL, Oracle and PostgreSQL. Let's take the following simplified MySQL tables: CREATE TABLE Contact ( ID varchar(15), NAME varchar(30) ); CREATE TABLE Address ( ID varchar(15), CONTACT_ID varchar(15), NAME varchar(50) ); I use code to generate system specific alpha numeric unique ID's fitting 15 chars in this case. Thus, if I insert a Contact record with it's Addresses I have my generated Contact.ID and Address.CONTACT_IDs before committing. I've created a Unit of Work (amongst others) as per Martin Fowler's patterns to add transaction support. I'm using a key based Identity Map in the UoW to track the changed records in memory. It works like a charm for the scenario above, all pretty standard stuff so far. The question scenario comes in when I have a database that is not under my control and the ID fields are auto-increment (or in Oracle sequences). In this case I do not have the db generated Contact.ID beforehand, so when I create my Address I do not have a value for Address.CONTACT_ID. The transaction has not been started on the DB session since all is kept in the Identity Map in memory. Question: What is a good approach to address this? (Avoiding unnecessary db round trips) Some ideas: Retrieve the last ID: I can do a call to the database to retrieve the last Id like: SELECT Auto_increment FROM information_schema.tables WHERE table_name='Contact'; But this is MySQL specific and probably something similar can be done for the other databases. If do this then would need to do the 1st insert, get the ID and then update the children (Address.CONTACT_IDs) – all in the current transaction context.

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  • Visual Studio 2008 Unit test does not pick up code changes unless I build the entire solution

    - by Orion Edwards
    Here's the scenario: Change my code: Change my unit test for that code With the cursor inside the unit test class/method, invoke VS2008's "Run tests in current context" command The visual studio "Output" window indicates that the code dll and the test dll both successfully build (in that order) The problem is however, that the unit test does not use the latest version of the dll which it has just built. Instead, it uses the previously built dll (which doesn't have the updated code in it), so the test fails. When adding a new method, this results in a MethodNotImplementedException, and when adding a class, it results in a TypeLoadException, both because the unit test thinks the new code is there, and it isn't!. If I'm just updating an existing method, then the test just fails due to incorrect results. I can 'work around' the problem by doing this Change my code: Change my unit test for that code Invoke VS2008's 'Build Solution' command With the cursor inside the unit test class/method, invoke VS2008's "Run tests in current context" command The problem is that doing a full build solution (even though nothing has changed) takes upwards of 30 seconds, as I have approx 50 C# projects, and VS2008 is not smart enough to realize that only 2 of them need to be looked at. Having to wait 30 seconds just to change 1 line of code and re-run a unit test is abysmal. Is there anything I can do to fix this? None of my code is in the GAC or anything funny like that, it's just ordinary old dll's (buiding against .NET 3.5SP1 on a win7/64bit machine) Please help!

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  • Django: How can I identify the calling view from a template?

    - by bryan
    Short version: Is there a simple, built-in way to identify the calling view in a Django template, without passing extra context variables? Long (original) version: One of my Django apps has several different views, each with its own named URL pattern, that all render the same template. There's a very small amount of template code that needs to change depending on the called view, too small to be worth the overhead of setting up separate templates for each view, so ideally I need to find a way to identify the calling view in the template. I've tried setting up the views to pass in extra context variables (e.g. "view_name") to identify the calling view, and I've also tried using {% ifequal request.path "/some/path/" %} comparisons, but neither of these solutions seems particularly elegant. Is there a better way to identify the calling view from the template? Is there a way to access to the view's name, or the name of the URL pattern? Update 1: Regarding the comment that this is simply a case of me misunderstanding MVC, I understand MVC, but Django's not really an MVC framework. I believe the way my app is set up is consistent with Django's take on MVC: the views describe which data is presented, and the templates describe how the data is presented. It just happens that I have a number of views that prepare different data, but that all use the same template because the data is presented the same way for all the views. I'm just looking for a simple way to identify the calling view from the template, if this exists. Update 2: Thanks for all the answers. I think the question is being overthought -- as mentioned in my original question, I've already considered and tried all of the suggested solutions -- so I've distilled it down to a "short version" now at the top of the question. And right now it seems that if someone were to simply post "No", it'd be the most correct answer :) Update 3: Carl Meyer posted "No" :) Thanks again, everyone.

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  • Handling form from different view and passing form validation through session in django

    - by Mo J. Mughrabi
    I have a requirement here to build a comment-like app in my django project, the app has a view to receive a submitted form process it and return the errors to where ever it came from. I finally managed to get it to work, but I have doubt for the way am using it might be wrong since am passing the entire validated form in the session. below is the code comment/templatetags/comment.py @register.inclusion_tag('comment/form.html', takes_context=True) def comment_form(context, model, object_id, next): """ comment_form() is responsible for rendering the comment form """ # clear sessions from variable incase it was found content_type = ContentType.objects.get_for_model(model) try: request = context['request'] if request.session.get('comment_form', False): form = CommentForm(request.session['comment_form']) form.fields['content_type'].initial = 15 form.fields['object_id'].initial = 2 form.fields['next'].initial = next else: form = CommentForm(initial={ 'content_type' : content_type.id, 'object_id' : object_id, 'next' : next }) except Exception as e: logging.error(str(e)) form = None return { 'form' : form } comment/view.py def save_comment(request): """ save_comment: """ if request.method == 'POST': # clear sessions from variable incase it was found if request.session.get('comment_form', False): del request.session['comment_form'] form = CommentForm(request.POST) if form.is_valid(): obj = form.save(commit=False) if request.user.is_authenticated(): obj.created_by = request.user obj.save() messages.info(request, _('Your comment has been posted.')) return redirect(form.data.get('next')) else: request.session['comment_form'] = request.POST return redirect(form.data.get('next')) else: raise Http404 the usage is by loading the template tag and firing {% comment_form article article.id article.get_absolute_url %} my doubt is if am doing the correct approach or not by passing the validated form to the session. Would that be a problem? security risk? performance issues? Please advise Update In response to Pol question. The reason why I went with this approach is because comment form is handled in a separate app. In my scenario, I render objects such as article and all I do is invoke the templatetag to render the form. What would be an alternative approach for my case? You also shared with me the django comment app, which am aware of but the client am working with requires a lot of complex work to be done in the comment app thats why am working on a new one.

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  • ASP.NET Response Filter to Reformat the rendered output of ASPX pages?

    - by PropellerHead
    I've created a simple HttpModule and response stream to reformat the rendered output of web pages (see code snippets below). In the HttpModule I set the Response.Filter to my PageStream: m_Application.Context.Response.Filter = new PageStream(m_Application.Context); In the PageStream I overwrite the Write method in order to do my reformatting of the rendered output: public override void Write(byte[] buffer, int offset, int count) { string html = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8.GetString(buffer); //Do some string resplace operations here... byte[] input = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(html); m_DefaultStream.Write(input, 0, input.Length); } And this work fine when using it on simple HTML pages (.html), but when I use this method on ASPX pages (.aspx), the Write method is called several times, splitting up the reformatting into different steps, and potentially destroying the string replacement operations. How do I solve this? Is there a way to let the ASPX page NOT call Write several times, e.g. by changing its buffer size, or have I chosen the wrong approach entirely, by using this Response.Filter method to manipulate the rendered output?

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  • Validate a XDocument against schema without the ValidationEventHandler (for use in a HTTP handler)

    - by Vaibhav Garg
    Hi everyone, (I am new to Schema validation) Regarding the following method, System.Xml.Schema.Extensions.Validate( ByVal source As System.Xml.Linq.XDocument, ByVal schemas As System.Xml.Schema.XmlSchemaSet, ByVal validationEventHandler As System.Xml.Schema.ValidationEventHandler, ByVal addSchemaInfo As Boolean) I am using it as follows inside a IHttpHandler - Try Dim xsd As XmlReader = XmlReader.Create(context.Server.MapPath("~/App_Data/MySchema.xsd")) Dim schemas As New XmlSchemaSet() : schemas.Add("myNameSpace", xsd) : xsd.Close() myXDoxumentOdj.Validate(schemas, Function(s As Object, e As ValidationEventArgs) SchemaError(s, e, context), True) Catch ex1 As Threading.ThreadAbortException 'manage schema error' Return Catch ex As Exception 'manage other errors' End Try The handler- Function SchemaError(ByVal s As Object, ByVal e As ValidationEventArgs, ByVal c As HttpContext) As Object If c Is Nothing Then c = HttpContext.Current If c IsNot Nothing Then HttpContext.Current.Response.Write(e.Message) HttpContext.Current.Response.End() End If Return New Object() End Function This is working fine for me at present but looks very weak. I do get errors when I feed it bad XML. But i want to implement it in a more elegant way. This looks like it would break for large XML etc. Is there some way to validate without the handler so that I get the document validated in one go and then deal with errors? To me it looks Async such that the call to Validate() would pass and some non deterministic time later the handler would get called with the result/errors. Is that right? Thanks and sorry for any goofy mistakes :).

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  • C# IE Proxy Detection not working from a Windows Service

    - by mytwocents
    This is very odd. I've written a windows form tool in C# to return the default IE proxy. It works (See code snippets below). I've created a service to return the proxy using the same code, it works when I step into the debugger, BUT it doesn't work when the service is running as binary code. This must be some sort of permissions or context thing that I cannot recreate. Further, if I call the tool from the windows service, it still doesn't return the proxy information.... this seems isolated to the service somehow. I don't see any permission errors in the events log, it's as if a service has a totally different context than a regular windows form exe. I've tride both: WebRequest.GetSystemWebProxy() and Uri requestUri = new Uri(urlOfDomain); HttpWebRequest request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(requestUri); IWebProxy proxy = request.Proxy; if (!proxy.IsBypassed(requestUri)){ Uri uri2 = proxy.GetProxy(request.RequestUri); } Thanks for any help!

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  • Streaming content to JSF UI

    - by Mark Lewis
    Hello, I was quite happy with my JSF app which read the contents of MQ messages received and supplied them to the UI like this: <rich:panel> <snip> <rich:panelMenuItem label="mylabel" action="#{MyBacking.updateCurrent}"> <f:param name="current" value="mylog.log" /> </rich:panelMenuItem> </snip> </rich:panel> <rich:panel> <a4j:outputPanel ajaxRendered="true"> <rich:insert content="#{MyBacking.log}" highlight="groovy" /> </a4j:outputPanel> </rich:panel> and in MyBacking.java private String logFile = null; ... public String updateCurrent() { FacesContext context=FacesContext.getCurrentInstance(); setCurrent((String)context.getExternalContext().getRequestParameterMap().get("current")); setLog(getCurrent()); return null; } public void setLog(String log) { sendMsg(log); msgBody = receiveMsg(moreargs); logFile = msgBody; } public String getLog() { return logFile; } until the contents of one of the messages was too big and tomcat fell over. Obviously, I thought, I need to change the way it works so that I return some form of stream so that no one object grows so big that the container dies and the content returned by successive messages is streamed to the UI as it comes in. Am I right in thinking that I can replace the work I'm doing now on a String object with a BufferedOutputStream object ie no change to the JSF code and something like this changing at the back end: private BufferedOutputStream logFile = null; public void setLog(String log) { sendMsg(args); logFile = (BufferedOutputStream) receiveMsg(moreargs); } public String getLog() { return logFile; }

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  • LINQ to SQL: Reusable expression for property?

    - by coenvdwel
    Pardon me for being unable to phrase the title more exact. Basically, I have three LINQ objects linked to tables. One is Product, the other is Company and the last is a mapping table Mapping to store what Company sells which products and by which ID this Company refers to this Product. I am now retrieving a list of products as follows: var options = new DataLoadOptions(); options.LoadWith<Product>(p => p.Mappings); context.LoadOptions = options; var products = ( from p in context.Products select new { ProductID = p.ProductID, //BackendProductID = p.BackendProductID, BackendProductID = (p.Mappings.Count == 0) ? "None" : (p.Mappings.Count > 1) ? "Multiple" : p.Mappings.First().BackendProductID, Description = p.Description } ).ToList(); This does a single query retrieving the information I want. But I want to be able to move the logic behind the BackendProductID into the LINQ object so I can use the commented line instead of the annoyingly nested ternary operator statements for neatness and re-usability. So I added the following property to the Product object: public string BackendProductID { get { if (Mappings.Count == 0) return "None"; if (Mappings.Count > 1) return "Multiple"; return Mappings.First().BackendProductID; } } The list is still the same, but it now does a query for every single Product to get it's BackendProductID. The code is neater and re-usable, but the performance now is terrible. What I need is some kind of Expression or Delegate but I couldn't get my head around writing one. It always ended up querying for every single product, still. Any help would be appreciated!

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  • Newbie: Render RGB to GTK widget -- howto?

    - by Billy Pilgrim
    Hi All, Big picture: I want to render an RGB image via GTK on a linux box. I'm a frustrated GTK newbie, so please forgive me. I assume that I should create a Drawable_area in which to render the image -- correct? Do I then have to create a graphics context attached to that area? How? my simple app (which doesn't even address the rgb issue yet is this: int main(int argc, char** argv) { GdkGC * gc = NULL; GtkWidget * window = NULL; GtkDrawingArea * dpage = NULL; GtkWidget * page = NULL; gtk_init( &argc, & argv ); window = gtk_window_new( GTK_WINDOW_TOPLEVEL ); page = gtk_drawing_area_new( ); dpage = GTK_DRAWING_AREA( page ); gtk_widget_set_size_request( page, PAGE_WIDTH, PAGE_HEIGHT ); gc = gdk_gc_new( GTK_DRAWABLE( dpage ) ); gtk_widget_show( window ); gtk_main(); return (EXIT_SUCCESS); } my dpage is apparently not a 'drawable' (though it is a drawing area). I am confused as to a) how do I get/create the graphics context which is required in subsequent function calls? b) am I close to a solution, or am I so completely *#&@& wrong that there is no hope c) a baby steps tutorial. (I started with hello world as my base, so I got that far). any and all help appreciated. bp

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  • Insert and delete SIM contacs working but it needs to be phone restart to update the changes

    - by girishgm08
    Hi All, I am able to insert the contacts into SIM card and delete from it. But it needs to be phone restart to update the changes. The below is the code woks for delete the conatcs, Uri simUri = Uri.parse("content://icc/adn"); Cursor cur = context.getContentResolver().query(simUri, null, null, null, null); prn("Number of SIM Contacts are.."+cur.getCount()); int row =0; while(cur.moveToNext()){ String name = cur.getString(cur.getColumnIndex("name")); prn("Name..."+name); String data = cur.getString(cur.getColumnIndex("number")); if(!data.equals("")) prn("Number.."+data); String where = null; if(!name.equals("") && !data.equals("")){ where = "tag =" + name + "AND" + "number =" +data; } else if(name.equals("") && !data.equals("")){ where = "number ="+data; } else { where = "tag ="+name+ "AND" +"number="+null; } context.getContentResolver().delete(simUri, where, null); row++; } prn(row+" are deleted"); cur.close(); cur = null; Please look into this issue and give suggestions on this. Thanks, Girish G M

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  • Is it possible to replace values in a queryset before sending it to your template?

    - by Issy
    Hi Guys, Wondering if it's possible to change a value returned from a queryset before sending it off to the template. Say for example you have a bunch of records Date | Time | Description 10/05/2010 | 13:30 | Testing... etc... However, based on the day of the week the time may change. However this is static. For example on a monday the time is ALWAYS 15:00. Now you could add another table to configure special cases but to me it seems overkill, as this is a rule. How would you replace that value before sending it to the template? I thought about using the new if tags (if day=1), but this is more of business logic rather then presentation. Tested this in a custom template tag def render(self, context): result = self.model._default_manager.filter(from_date__lte=self.now).filter(to_date__gte=self.now) if self.day == 4: result = result.exclude(type__exact=2).order_by('time') else: result = result.order_by('type') result[0].time = '23:23:23' context[self.varname] = result return '' However it still displays the results from the DB, is this some how related to 'lazy' evaluation of templates? Thanks! Update Responding to comments below: It's not stored wrong in the DB, its stored Correctly However there is a small side case where the value needs to change. So for example I have a From Date & To date, my query checks if todays date is between those. Now with this they could setup a from date - to date for an entire year, and the special cases (like mondays as an example) is taken care off. However if you want to store in the DB you would have to capture several more records to cater for the side case. I.e you would be capturing the same information just to cater for that 1 day when the time changes. (And the time always changes on the same day, and is always the same)

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  • Entity Framework - Many to Many Subquery

    - by Jorin
    I asked a question about this previously but my database structure has changed, and while it made other things simpler, now this part is more complicated. Here is the previous question. At the time, my EF Context had a UsersProjects object because there were other properties. Now that I've simplified that table, it is just the keys, so all my EF context knows about is Users and Projects and the M2M relationship between them. There is no more UsersProjects as far as EF knows. So my goal is to say "show me all the users who are working on projects with me." in SQL, this would go something like: SELECT * FROM Users INNER JOIN UsersProjects ON Users.ID=UsersProjects.UserID WHERE ProjectID IN (SELECT ProjectID FROM UsersProjects WHERE UserID=@UserID) and I started in EF with something like this: var myProjects = (from p in edmx.Projects where p.Users.Contains(edmx.Users.FirstOrDefault(u => u.Email == UserEmail)) orderby p.Name select p).ToList(); var associatedUsers = (from u in edmx.Users where myProjects.Contains(?????????) //where myProjects.Any(????????) select u); The trick is finding what to put in the ????????. Anyone help here?

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  • LINQ - Querying a list filtered via a Many-to-Many reltionship

    - by user118190
    Please excuse the context of my question for I did not know how to exactly word it. To not complicate things further, here's my business requirement: "bring me back all the Employees where they belong in Department "X". So when I view this, it will display all of the Employees that belong to this Department. Here's my environment: Silverlight 3 with Entity Framework 1.0 and WCF Data Services 1.0. I am able to load and bind all kinds of lists (simple), no problem. I don't feel that my environment matters and that's why I feel it is a LINQ question more than the technologies. My question is for scenarios where I have 3 tables linked, i.e. entities (collections). For example, I have this in my EDM: Employee--EmployeeProject--Project. Here's the table design from the Database: Employee (table1) ------------- EmployeeID (PK) FirstName other Attributes ... EmployeeProject (table2) ------------- EmployeeProjectID (PK) EmployeeID (FK) ProjectID (FK) AssignedDate other Attributes ... Project (table3) ------------- ProjectID (PK) Name other Attributes ... Here's the EDM design from Entity Framework: ------------------------ Employee (entity1) ------------------------ (Scalar Properties) ------------------- EmployeeID (PK) FirstName other Attributes ... ------------------- (Navigation Properties) ------------------- EmployeeProjects ------------------------ EmployeeProject (entity2) ------------------------ (Scalar Properties) ------------------- EmployeeProjectID (PK) AssignedDate other Attributes ... ------------------- (Navigation Properties) ------------------- Employee Project ------------------------ Project (entity3) ------------------------ (Scalar Properties) ------------------- ProjectID (PK) Name other Attributes ... ------------------- (Navigation Properties) ------------------- EmployeeProjects So far, I have only been able to do: var filteredList = Context.Employees .Where(e => e.EmployeeProjects.Where(ep => ep.Project.Name == "ProjectX")) NOTE: I have updated the syntax of the query after John's post. As you can see, I can only query, the related entity (EmployeeProjects). All I want is being able to filter to Project from the Employee entity. Thanks for any advice.

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  • No GPS Update retrieved? Problem in Code?

    - by poeschlorn
    Hello mates, I've got a serious problem with my GPS on my Nexus One: I wrote a kind of hello world with GPS, but the Toast that should be displayed isn't :( I don't know what I'm doing wrong...maybe you could help me getting this work. Here's my code: package gps.test; import android.app.Activity; import android.content.Context; import android.location.Location; import android.location.LocationListener; import android.location.LocationManager; import android.os.Bundle; import android.widget.Toast; public class GPS extends Activity { private LocationManager lm; private LocationListener locationListener; /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); // ---use the LocationManager class to obtain GPS locations--- lm = (LocationManager) getSystemService(Context.LOCATION_SERVICE); locationListener = new MyLocationListener(); lm.requestLocationUpdates(LocationManager.GPS_PROVIDER, 100, 1, locationListener); } private class MyLocationListener implements LocationListener { @Override public void onLocationChanged(Location loc) { if (loc != null) { Toast.makeText( getBaseContext(), "Location changed : Lat: " + loc.getLatitude() + " Lng: " + loc.getLongitude(), Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); } } @Override public void onProviderDisabled(String provider) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } @Override public void onProviderEnabled(String provider) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } @Override public void onStatusChanged(String provider, int status, Bundle extras) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } } } Theoretically there should be a new toast every 100 milliseconds, shouldn't it? Or at least, when I change my position by one meter!? I've no idea why it doesn't. I must admit I'm new to the topic, maybe I've missed something? It would be great if you could give me a hint :) nice greetings, poeschlorn

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  • adding a token onto a webservice or wcf call

    - by duncanUK
    I have an httphandler which I am using to log the http soap request and response for each webservice that is called from my application as a comms log. i would like to inject a token ont he 1st call (possibly the 1st call to invoke the service that is being logged) and then be able to track all subsequent webservice calls run in the same context with this token so i can tie the subsequent calls back up to the original call. so for example. main webservice -> 2nd web service -> another web service [token] [token] [token] -> nth web service [token] I would like to inject the token on the first call to the main webservice (http handler checks if no token, add it), I would like to use the same http handler to intercept each call to the subsequent webservices and pass on the token if it exists already (the job of the httphandler is to log the in/out soap with the token to reference with. I have managed to inject the first token, but my problem is how do I add the token on the subsequent calls.. can I make it stick on the same context or session? My worry is that when we call a new webservice, we create a whole new proxy/http request which will not inhrit the token... or will it?! Ideally I would like it to persist on the http header as I am setting the token as a header at the moment? has anyone got any ideas or a better way of doing this? I would be most greatful for you comments!

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  • EXEC_BAD_ACCESS error comes in my applicatoin in iphone

    - by Jaimin
    when i print dictionary i got this error.. here my dictTf is mutabledictionay.. when i m in home page i selct few fields and click find. so new view comes with the result.. now i go back and again click find without changing anything.. now comes proper.. now at this moment when i go back it shows this in the dictionay and EXEC_BAD_ACCESS eror comes... Printing description of dictTf: The program being debugged was signaled while in a function called from GDB. GDB has restored the context to what it was before the call. To change this behavior use "set unwindonsignal off" Evaluation of the expression containing the function (CFShow) will be abandoned. The program being debugged was signaled while in a function called from GDB. GDB has restored the context to what it was before the call. To change this behavior use "set unwindonsignal off" Evaluation of the expression containing the function (CFShow) will be abandoned. (gdb)

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  • Using reflection to find all linq2sql tables and ensure they match the database

    - by Jake Stevenson
    I'm trying to use reflection to automatically test that all my linq2sql entities match the test database. I thought I'd do this by getting all the classes that inherit from DataContext from my assembly: var contexttypes = Assembly.GetAssembly(typeof (BaseRepository<,>)).GetTypes().Where( t => t.IsSubclassOf(typeof(DataContext))); foreach (var contexttype in contexttypes) { var context = Activator.CreateInstance(contexttype); var tableProperties = type.GetProperties().Where(t=> t.PropertyType.Name == typeof(ITable<>).Name); foreach (var propertyInfo in tableProperties) { var table = (propertyInfo.GetValue(context, null)); } } So far so good, this loops through each ITable< in each datacontext in the project. If I debug the code, "table" is properly instantiated, and if I expand the results view in the debugger I can see actual data. BUT, I can't figure out how to get my code to actually query that table. I'd really like to just be able to do table.FirstOrDefault() to get the top row out of each table and make sure the SQL fetch doesn't fail. But I cant cast that table to be anything I can query. Any suggestions on how I can make this queryable? Just the ability to call .Count() would be enough for me to ensure the entities don't have anything that doesn't match the table columns.

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  • Entity framework generates values for NOT NULL columns which has default defined in db.

    - by Muhammad Kashif Nadeem
    Hi I have a table Customer. One of the columns in table is DateCreated. This column is NOT NULL but default values is defined for this column in db. When I add new Customer using EF4 from my code. var customer = new Customer(); customer.CustomerName = "Hello"; customer.Email = "[email protected]"; // Watch out commented out. //customer.DateCreated = DateTime.Now; context.AddToCustomers(customer); context.SaveChanges(); Above code generates following query. exec sp_executesql N'insert [dbo].[Customers]([CustomerName], [Email], [Phone], [DateCreated], [DateUpdated]) values (@0, @1, null, @2, null) select [CustomerId] from [dbo].[Customers] where @@ROWCOUNT > 0 and [CustomerId] = scope_identity() ',N'@0 varchar(100),@1 varchar(100),@2 datetime2(7) ',@0='Hello',@1='[email protected]',@2='0001-01-01 00:00:00' And throws following error The conversion of a datetime2 data type to a datetime data type resulted in an out-of-range value. The statement has been terminated. Can you please tell me how NOT NULL columns which has default values at db level should not have values generated by EF? DB: DateCreated DATETIME NOT NULL DateCreated Properties in EF: Nullable: False Getter/Setter: public Type: DateTime DefaultValue: None Thanks.

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