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• WPF ContextMenu bind some property to another property of the same control

  - by bebicasoft

  I have a ContextMenu and a ColumnHeaderStyle defined in Window.Resource section witch i use-it to a DataGrid ColumnHeader. My code is something like this: <ContextMenu x:Key="cm_columnHeaderMenu"/> <Style x:Key="DefaultColumnHeaderStyle" TargetType="{x:Type DataGridColumnHeader}"> <Setter Property="ContextMenu" Value="{StaticResource cm_columnHeaderMenu}" /> </Style> <DataGrid Grid.Column="2" Grid.Row="1" x:Name="dgridFiles" IsReadOnly="True" ColumnHeaderStyle="{StaticResource DefaultColumnHeaderStyle}"> I want to know if I can (and if the answer it true, then HOW I could do it) bind the ContextMenu Visibility property to same control ContextMenu Items.Count>0 property. Initially based on some other treeView control selections made there shoud be no items in the context menu, but i wish to add dinamically items in ContextMenu based on selection in treeView. This part is done, the context has those items. On some selections there are no-items, but still on the grid it appears an empty ContextMenu. So I believe the easiest part it would be to bind the Visibility to Items.Count property of the same control. Sorry if my english is not good enought, I'll try to explain better if i didnt make clear 1st time.

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• Handling form from different view and passing form validation through session in django

  - by Mo J. Mughrabi

  I have a requirement here to build a comment-like app in my django project, the app has a view to receive a submitted form process it and return the errors to where ever it came from. I finally managed to get it to work, but I have doubt for the way am using it might be wrong since am passing the entire validated form in the session. below is the code comment/templatetags/comment.py @register.inclusion_tag('comment/form.html', takes_context=True) def comment_form(context, model, object_id, next): """ comment_form() is responsible for rendering the comment form """ # clear sessions from variable incase it was found content_type = ContentType.objects.get_for_model(model) try: request = context['request'] if request.session.get('comment_form', False): form = CommentForm(request.session['comment_form']) form.fields['content_type'].initial = 15 form.fields['object_id'].initial = 2 form.fields['next'].initial = next else: form = CommentForm(initial={ 'content_type' : content_type.id, 'object_id' : object_id, 'next' : next }) except Exception as e: logging.error(str(e)) form = None return { 'form' : form } comment/view.py def save_comment(request): """ save_comment: """ if request.method == 'POST': # clear sessions from variable incase it was found if request.session.get('comment_form', False): del request.session['comment_form'] form = CommentForm(request.POST) if form.is_valid(): obj = form.save(commit=False) if request.user.is_authenticated(): obj.created_by = request.user obj.save() messages.info(request, _('Your comment has been posted.')) return redirect(form.data.get('next')) else: request.session['comment_form'] = request.POST return redirect(form.data.get('next')) else: raise Http404 the usage is by loading the template tag and firing {% comment_form article article.id article.get_absolute_url %} my doubt is if am doing the correct approach or not by passing the validated form to the session. Would that be a problem? security risk? performance issues? Please advise Update In response to Pol question. The reason why I went with this approach is because comment form is handled in a separate app. In my scenario, I render objects such as article and all I do is invoke the templatetag to render the form. What would be an alternative approach for my case? You also shared with me the django comment app, which am aware of but the client am working with requires a lot of complex work to be done in the comment app thats why am working on a new one.

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• WPF: How to bind and update display with DataContext

  - by Am

  I'm trying to do the following thing: I have a TabControl with several tabs. Each TabControlItem.Content points to PersonDetails which is a UserControl Each BookDetails has a dependency property called IsEditMode I want a control outside of the TabControl , named ToggleEditButton, to be updated whenever the selected tab changes. I thought I could do this by changing the ToggleEditButton data context, by it doesn't seem to work (but I'm new to WPF so I might way off) The code changing the data context: private void tabControl1_SelectionChanged(object sender, SelectionChangedEventArgs e) { if (e.Source is TabControl) { if (e.Source.Equals(tabControl1)) { if (tabControl1.SelectedItem is CloseableTabItem) { var tabItem = tabControl1.SelectedItem as CloseableTabItem; RibbonBook.DataContext = tabItem.Content as BookDetails; ribbonBar.SelectedTabItem = RibbonBook; } } } } The DependencyProperty under BookDetails: public static readonly DependencyProperty IsEditModeProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("IsEditMode", typeof (bool), typeof (BookDetails), new PropertyMetadata(true)); public bool IsEditMode { get { return (bool)GetValue(IsEditModeProperty); } set { SetValue(IsEditModeProperty, value); SetValue(IsViewModeProperty, !value); } } And the relevant XAML: <odc:RibbonTabItem Title="Book" Name="RibbonBook"> <odc:RibbonGroup Title="Details" Image="img/books2.png" IsDialogLauncherVisible="False"> <odc:RibbonToggleButton Content="Edit" Name="ToggleEditButton" odc:RibbonBar.MinSize="Medium" SmallImage="img/edit_16x16.png" LargeImage="img/edit_32x32.png" Click="Book_EditDetails" IsChecked="{Binding Path=IsEditMode, Mode=TwoWay}"/> ... There are two things I want to accomplish, Having the button reflect the IsEditMode for the visible tab, and have the button change the property value with no code behind (if posible) Any help would be greatly appriciated.

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• Flex ChangeWatcher bind to a negative condition

  - by bedwyr

  I have a bindable getter in a component which informs me when a [hidden] timer is running. I also have a context menu which, if this timer is running, should disable one of the menu items. Is it possible to create a ChangeWatcher which watches for the negative condition of a bindable property/getter and changes the enabled property of the menu item? Here are the basic methods I'm trying to bind together: Class A: [Bindable] public function get isPlaying():Boolean { return (_timer != null) ? _timer.running : false; } Class B: private var _playingWatcher:ChangeWatcher; public function createContextMenu():void { //...blah blah, creating context menu var newItem:ContextMenuItem = new ContextMenuItem(); _playingWatcher = BindingUtils.bindProperty(newItem, "enabled", _classA, "isPlaying"); } In the code above, I have the inverse case: when isPlaying() is true, the menu item is enabled; I want it to only be enabled when the condition is false. I could create a second getter (there are other bindings which rely on the current getter) to return the inverse condition, but that sounds ugly to me: [Bindable] public function get isNotPlaying():Boolean { return !isPlaying; } Is this possible, or is there another approach I'm completely missing?

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• C# IE Proxy Detection not working from a Windows Service

  - by mytwocents

  This is very odd. I've written a windows form tool in C# to return the default IE proxy. It works (See code snippets below). I've created a service to return the proxy using the same code, it works when I step into the debugger, BUT it doesn't work when the service is running as binary code. This must be some sort of permissions or context thing that I cannot recreate. Further, if I call the tool from the windows service, it still doesn't return the proxy information.... this seems isolated to the service somehow. I don't see any permission errors in the events log, it's as if a service has a totally different context than a regular windows form exe. I've tride both: WebRequest.GetSystemWebProxy() and Uri requestUri = new Uri(urlOfDomain); HttpWebRequest request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(requestUri); IWebProxy proxy = request.Proxy; if (!proxy.IsBypassed(requestUri)){ Uri uri2 = proxy.GetProxy(request.RequestUri); } Thanks for any help!

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• Problem with close socket

  - by zp26

  Hi, I have a problem with my socket program. I create the client program (my code is below) I have a problem when i close the socket with the disconnect method. Can i help me? Thanks and sorry for my English XP CFSocketRef s; -(void)CreaConnessione { CFSocketError errore; struct sockaddr_in sin; CFDataRef address; CFRunLoopSourceRef source; CFSocketContext context = { 0, self, NULL, NULL, NULL }; s = CFSocketCreate( NULL, PF_INET, SOCK_STREAM, IPPROTO_TCP, kCFSocketDataCallBack, AcceptDataCallback, &context); memset(&sin, 0, sizeof(sin)); int port = [fieldPorta.text intValue]; NSString *tempIp = fieldIndirizzo.text; const char *ip = [tempIp UTF8String]; sin.sin_family = AF_INET; sin.sin_port = htons(port); sin.sin_addr.s_addr = (long)inet_addr(ip); address = CFDataCreate(NULL, (UInt8 *)&sin, sizeof(sin)); errore = CFSocketConnectToAddress(s, address, 0); if(errore == 0){ buttonInvioMess.enabled = TRUE; fieldMessaggioInvio.enabled = TRUE; labelTemp.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"Connesso al Server"]; CFRelease(address); source = CFSocketCreateRunLoopSource(NULL, s, 0); CFRunLoopAddSource(CFRunLoopGetCurrent(), source, kCFRunLoopDefaultMode); CFRelease(source); CFRunLoopRun(); } else{ labelTemp.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"Errore di connessione. Verificare Ip e Porta"]; switchConnection.on = FALSE; } } //the socket doesn't disconnect -(void)Disconnetti{ CFSocketInvalidate(s); CFRelease(s); } -(IBAction)Connetti { if(switchConnection.on) [self CreaConnessione]; else [self Disconnetti]; }

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• View transform seems to be ignored when animating on iphone. Why?

  - by heymon

  I have views that can be rotated, scaled and moved around the screen. I want the view to resize and be orthogonal when the user double tap's the view to edit the textview within. The code is below. Somewhere the transform is getting reset. The NSLog statement below prints the identity transform, but a print of the transform when the animation is complete in transitionDidStop reveals that the transform is what it was before I thought I set it to identity. The view resizes, but it acts like the transform was never set to identity? Any ideas/pointers? originalBounds = self.bounds; originalCenter = self.center; originalTransform = self.transform; r = CGRectMake(0, 0, [UIScreen mainScreen].bounds.size.width - 70, 450); [UIView beginAnimations: nil context: NULL]; [UIView setAnimationDelegate: self]; [UIView setAnimationDidStopSelector: @selector(transitionDidStop:finished:context:)]; self.transform = CGAffineTransformIdentity; NSLog(@"%@ after set", NSStringFromCGAffineTransform([self transform])); [self setBounds: r]; [self setCenter: p]; [self setAlpha: 1.0]; [UIView commitAnimations]; [textView becomeFirstResponder];

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• Show NSSegmentedControl menu when segment clicked, despite having set action

  - by Justin Williams

  I have an NSSegmentedControl on my UI with 4 buttons. The control is connected to a method that will call different methods depending on which segment is clicked: - (IBAction)performActionFromClick:(id)sender { NSInteger selectedSegment = [sender selectedSegment]; NSInteger clickedSegmentTag = [[sender cell] tagForSegment:selectedSegment]; switch (clickedSegmentTag) { case 0: [self showNewEventWindow:nil]; break; case 1: [self showNewTaskWindow:nil]; break; case 2: [self toggleTaskSplitView:nil]; break; case 3: [self showGearMenu]; break; } } Segment 4 has has a menu attached to it in the awakeFromNib method. I'd like this menu to drop down when the user clicks the segment. At this point, it only will drop if the user clicks & holds down on the menu. From my research online this is because of the connected action. I'm presently working around it by using some code to get the origin point of the segment control and popping up the context menu using NSMenu's popUpContextMenu:withEvent:forView but this is pretty hacktastic and looks bad compared to the standard behavior of having the menu drop down below the segmented control cell. Is there a way I can have the menu drop down as it should after a single click rather than doing the hacky context menu thing?

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• Main Function Error C++

  - by Arjun Nayini

  I have this main function: #ifndef MAIN_CPP #define MAIN_CPP #include "dsets.h" using namespace std; int main(){ DisjointSets s; s.uptree.addelements(4); for(int i=0; i<s.uptree.size(); i++) cout <<uptree.at(i) << endl; return 0; } #endif And the following class: class DisjointSets { public: void addelements(int x); int find(int x); void setunion(int x, int y); private: vector<int> uptree; }; #endif My implementation is this: void DisjointSets::addelements(int x){ for(int i=0; i<x; i++) uptree.push_back(-1); } //Given an int this function finds the root associated with that node. int DisjointSets::find(int x){ //need path compression if(uptree.at(x) < 0) return x; else return find(uptree.at(x)); } //This function reorders the uptree in order to represent the union of two //subtrees void DisjointSets::setunion(int x, int y){ } Upon compiling main.cpp (g++ main.cpp) I'm getting these errors: dsets.h: In function \u2018int main()\u2019: dsets.h:25: error: \u2018std::vector DisjointSets::uptree\u2019 is private main.cpp:9: error: within this context main.cpp:9: error: \u2018class std::vector \u2019 has no member named \u2018addelements\u2019 dsets.h:25: error: \u2018std::vector DisjointSets::uptree\u2019 is private main.cpp:10: error: within this context main.cpp:11: error: \u2018uptree\u2019 was not declared in this scope I'm not sure exactly whats wrong. Any help would be appreciated.

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• Entity Framework Validation & usage

  - by kmsellers

  I'm aware there is an AssociationChanged event, however, this event fires after the association is made. There is no AssociationChanging event. So, if I want to throw an exception for some validation reason, how do I do this and get back to my original value? Also, I would like to default values for my entity based on information from other entities but do this only when I know the entitiy is instanced for insertion into the database. How do I tell the difference between that and the object getting instanced because it is about to be populated based on existing data? Am I supposed to know? Is that considiered business logic that should be outside of my entity business logic? If that's the case, then should I be designing controller classes to wrap all these entities? My concern is that if I deliver back an entity, I want the client to get access to the properties, but I want to retain tight control over validations on how they are set, defaulted, etc. Every example I've seen references context, which is outside of my enity partial class validation, right? BTW, I looked at the EFPocoAdapter and for the life of me cannot determine how to populate lists of from within my POCO class... anyone know how I get to the context from a EFPoco Class?

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• Django: How can I identify the calling view from a template?

  - by bryan

  Short version: Is there a simple, built-in way to identify the calling view in a Django template, without passing extra context variables? Long (original) version: One of my Django apps has several different views, each with its own named URL pattern, that all render the same template. There's a very small amount of template code that needs to change depending on the called view, too small to be worth the overhead of setting up separate templates for each view, so ideally I need to find a way to identify the calling view in the template. I've tried setting up the views to pass in extra context variables (e.g. "view_name") to identify the calling view, and I've also tried using {% ifequal request.path "/some/path/" %} comparisons, but neither of these solutions seems particularly elegant. Is there a better way to identify the calling view from the template? Is there a way to access to the view's name, or the name of the URL pattern? Update 1: Regarding the comment that this is simply a case of me misunderstanding MVC, I understand MVC, but Django's not really an MVC framework. I believe the way my app is set up is consistent with Django's take on MVC: the views describe which data is presented, and the templates describe how the data is presented. It just happens that I have a number of views that prepare different data, but that all use the same template because the data is presented the same way for all the views. I'm just looking for a simple way to identify the calling view from the template, if this exists. Update 2: Thanks for all the answers. I think the question is being overthought -- as mentioned in my original question, I've already considered and tried all of the suggested solutions -- so I've distilled it down to a "short version" now at the top of the question. And right now it seems that if someone were to simply post "No", it'd be the most correct answer :) Update 3: Carl Meyer posted "No" :) Thanks again, everyone.

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• Insert and delete SIM contacs working but it needs to be phone restart to update the changes

  - by girishgm08

  Hi All, I am able to insert the contacts into SIM card and delete from it. But it needs to be phone restart to update the changes. The below is the code woks for delete the conatcs, Uri simUri = Uri.parse("content://icc/adn"); Cursor cur = context.getContentResolver().query(simUri, null, null, null, null); prn("Number of SIM Contacts are.."+cur.getCount()); int row =0; while(cur.moveToNext()){ String name = cur.getString(cur.getColumnIndex("name")); prn("Name..."+name); String data = cur.getString(cur.getColumnIndex("number")); if(!data.equals("")) prn("Number.."+data); String where = null; if(!name.equals("") && !data.equals("")){ where = "tag =" + name + "AND" + "number =" +data; } else if(name.equals("") && !data.equals("")){ where = "number ="+data; } else { where = "tag ="+name+ "AND" +"number="+null; } context.getContentResolver().delete(simUri, where, null); row++; } prn(row+" are deleted"); cur.close(); cur = null; Please look into this issue and give suggestions on this. Thanks, Girish G M

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• Auto increment with a Unit Of Work

  - by Derick

  Context I'm building a persistence layer to abstract different types of databases that I'll be needing. On the relational part I have mySQL, Oracle and PostgreSQL. Let's take the following simplified MySQL tables: CREATE TABLE Contact ( ID varchar(15), NAME varchar(30) ); CREATE TABLE Address ( ID varchar(15), CONTACT_ID varchar(15), NAME varchar(50) ); I use code to generate system specific alpha numeric unique ID's fitting 15 chars in this case. Thus, if I insert a Contact record with it's Addresses I have my generated Contact.ID and Address.CONTACT_IDs before committing. I've created a Unit of Work (amongst others) as per Martin Fowler's patterns to add transaction support. I'm using a key based Identity Map in the UoW to track the changed records in memory. It works like a charm for the scenario above, all pretty standard stuff so far. The question scenario comes in when I have a database that is not under my control and the ID fields are auto-increment (or in Oracle sequences). In this case I do not have the db generated Contact.ID beforehand, so when I create my Address I do not have a value for Address.CONTACT_ID. The transaction has not been started on the DB session since all is kept in the Identity Map in memory. Question: What is a good approach to address this? (Avoiding unnecessary db round trips) Some ideas: Retrieve the last ID: I can do a call to the database to retrieve the last Id like: SELECT Auto_increment FROM information_schema.tables WHERE table_name='Contact'; But this is MySQL specific and probably something similar can be done for the other databases. If do this then would need to do the 1st insert, get the ID and then update the children (Address.CONTACT_IDs) – all in the current transaction context.

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• Entity framework generates values for NOT NULL columns which has default defined in db.

  - by Muhammad Kashif Nadeem

  Hi I have a table Customer. One of the columns in table is DateCreated. This column is NOT NULL but default values is defined for this column in db. When I add new Customer using EF4 from my code. var customer = new Customer(); customer.CustomerName = "Hello"; customer.Email = "[email protected]"; // Watch out commented out. //customer.DateCreated = DateTime.Now; context.AddToCustomers(customer); context.SaveChanges(); Above code generates following query. exec sp_executesql N'insert [dbo].[Customers]([CustomerName], [Email], [Phone], [DateCreated], [DateUpdated]) values (@0, @1, null, @2, null) select [CustomerId] from [dbo].[Customers] where @@ROWCOUNT > 0 and [CustomerId] = scope_identity() ',N'@0 varchar(100),@1 varchar(100),@2 datetime2(7) ',@0='Hello',@1='[email protected]',@2='0001-01-01 00:00:00' And throws following error The conversion of a datetime2 data type to a datetime data type resulted in an out-of-range value. The statement has been terminated. Can you please tell me how NOT NULL columns which has default values at db level should not have values generated by EF? DB: DateCreated DATETIME NOT NULL DateCreated Properties in EF: Nullable: False Getter/Setter: public Type: DateTime DefaultValue: None Thanks.

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• stop android emulator call

  - by Shahzad Younis

  I am working on an Android application, having functionality like voicemail. I am using BroadcastReceiver to get dialing events. I have to get the event "WHEN CALL IS UNANSWERED (not picked after few rings) FROM RECEIVER". I will do some actions on caller end against this event. I am using AVD emulator, and I do call from one instance to another instance and it calls perfectly, but the problem is: It continuously calls until I reject or accept the call. This way I cannot detect that "CALL IS UNANSWERED AFTER A NUMBER OF RINGS". So I want the Caller emulator to drop the call after a number of rings (if unanswered) like a normal phone. I can do it (drop the call after some time) by writing some code, but I need the natural functionality of phone in the emulator. Can anyone please guide me? Is there any settings in the emulator? Or something else? The code is shown below in case it helps: public class MyPhoneReceiver extends BroadcastReceiver { @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { Bundle extras = intent.getExtras(); if (extras != null) { String state = "my call state = " + extras.getString(TelephonyManager.EXTRA_STATE); Log.w("DEBUG", state); } }

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• Streaming content to JSF UI

  - by Mark Lewis

  Hello, I was quite happy with my JSF app which read the contents of MQ messages received and supplied them to the UI like this: <rich:panel> <snip> <rich:panelMenuItem label="mylabel" action="#{MyBacking.updateCurrent}"> <f:param name="current" value="mylog.log" /> </rich:panelMenuItem> </snip> </rich:panel> <rich:panel> <a4j:outputPanel ajaxRendered="true"> <rich:insert content="#{MyBacking.log}" highlight="groovy" /> </a4j:outputPanel> </rich:panel> and in MyBacking.java private String logFile = null; ... public String updateCurrent() { FacesContext context=FacesContext.getCurrentInstance(); setCurrent((String)context.getExternalContext().getRequestParameterMap().get("current")); setLog(getCurrent()); return null; } public void setLog(String log) { sendMsg(log); msgBody = receiveMsg(moreargs); logFile = msgBody; } public String getLog() { return logFile; } until the contents of one of the messages was too big and tomcat fell over. Obviously, I thought, I need to change the way it works so that I return some form of stream so that no one object grows so big that the container dies and the content returned by successive messages is streamed to the UI as it comes in. Am I right in thinking that I can replace the work I'm doing now on a String object with a BufferedOutputStream object ie no change to the JSF code and something like this changing at the back end: private BufferedOutputStream logFile = null; public void setLog(String log) { sendMsg(args); logFile = (BufferedOutputStream) receiveMsg(moreargs); } public String getLog() { return logFile; }

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• Validate a XDocument against schema without the ValidationEventHandler (for use in a HTTP handler)

  - by Vaibhav Garg

  Hi everyone, (I am new to Schema validation) Regarding the following method, System.Xml.Schema.Extensions.Validate( ByVal source As System.Xml.Linq.XDocument, ByVal schemas As System.Xml.Schema.XmlSchemaSet, ByVal validationEventHandler As System.Xml.Schema.ValidationEventHandler, ByVal addSchemaInfo As Boolean) I am using it as follows inside a IHttpHandler - Try Dim xsd As XmlReader = XmlReader.Create(context.Server.MapPath("~/App_Data/MySchema.xsd")) Dim schemas As New XmlSchemaSet() : schemas.Add("myNameSpace", xsd) : xsd.Close() myXDoxumentOdj.Validate(schemas, Function(s As Object, e As ValidationEventArgs) SchemaError(s, e, context), True) Catch ex1 As Threading.ThreadAbortException 'manage schema error' Return Catch ex As Exception 'manage other errors' End Try The handler- Function SchemaError(ByVal s As Object, ByVal e As ValidationEventArgs, ByVal c As HttpContext) As Object If c Is Nothing Then c = HttpContext.Current If c IsNot Nothing Then HttpContext.Current.Response.Write(e.Message) HttpContext.Current.Response.End() End If Return New Object() End Function This is working fine for me at present but looks very weak. I do get errors when I feed it bad XML. But i want to implement it in a more elegant way. This looks like it would break for large XML etc. Is there some way to validate without the handler so that I get the document validated in one go and then deal with errors? To me it looks Async such that the call to Validate() would pass and some non deterministic time later the handler would get called with the result/errors. Is that right? Thanks and sorry for any goofy mistakes :).

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• Visual Studio 2008 Unit test does not pick up code changes unless I build the entire solution

  - by Orion Edwards

  Here's the scenario: Change my code: Change my unit test for that code With the cursor inside the unit test class/method, invoke VS2008's "Run tests in current context" command The visual studio "Output" window indicates that the code dll and the test dll both successfully build (in that order) The problem is however, that the unit test does not use the latest version of the dll which it has just built. Instead, it uses the previously built dll (which doesn't have the updated code in it), so the test fails. When adding a new method, this results in a MethodNotImplementedException, and when adding a class, it results in a TypeLoadException, both because the unit test thinks the new code is there, and it isn't!. If I'm just updating an existing method, then the test just fails due to incorrect results. I can 'work around' the problem by doing this Change my code: Change my unit test for that code Invoke VS2008's 'Build Solution' command With the cursor inside the unit test class/method, invoke VS2008's "Run tests in current context" command The problem is that doing a full build solution (even though nothing has changed) takes upwards of 30 seconds, as I have approx 50 C# projects, and VS2008 is not smart enough to realize that only 2 of them need to be looked at. Having to wait 30 seconds just to change 1 line of code and re-run a unit test is abysmal. Is there anything I can do to fix this? None of my code is in the GAC or anything funny like that, it's just ordinary old dll's (buiding against .NET 3.5SP1 on a win7/64bit machine) Please help!

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• Newbie: Render RGB to GTK widget -- howto?

  - by Billy Pilgrim

  Hi All, Big picture: I want to render an RGB image via GTK on a linux box. I'm a frustrated GTK newbie, so please forgive me. I assume that I should create a Drawable_area in which to render the image -- correct? Do I then have to create a graphics context attached to that area? How? my simple app (which doesn't even address the rgb issue yet is this: int main(int argc, char** argv) { GdkGC * gc = NULL; GtkWidget * window = NULL; GtkDrawingArea * dpage = NULL; GtkWidget * page = NULL; gtk_init( &argc, & argv ); window = gtk_window_new( GTK_WINDOW_TOPLEVEL ); page = gtk_drawing_area_new( ); dpage = GTK_DRAWING_AREA( page ); gtk_widget_set_size_request( page, PAGE_WIDTH, PAGE_HEIGHT ); gc = gdk_gc_new( GTK_DRAWABLE( dpage ) ); gtk_widget_show( window ); gtk_main(); return (EXIT_SUCCESS); } my dpage is apparently not a 'drawable' (though it is a drawing area). I am confused as to a) how do I get/create the graphics context which is required in subsequent function calls? b) am I close to a solution, or am I so completely *#&@& wrong that there is no hope c) a baby steps tutorial. (I started with hello world as my base, so I got that far). any and all help appreciated. bp

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• LINQ to SQL: Reusable expression for property?

  - by coenvdwel

  Pardon me for being unable to phrase the title more exact. Basically, I have three LINQ objects linked to tables. One is Product, the other is Company and the last is a mapping table Mapping to store what Company sells which products and by which ID this Company refers to this Product. I am now retrieving a list of products as follows: var options = new DataLoadOptions(); options.LoadWith<Product>(p => p.Mappings); context.LoadOptions = options; var products = ( from p in context.Products select new { ProductID = p.ProductID, //BackendProductID = p.BackendProductID, BackendProductID = (p.Mappings.Count == 0) ? "None" : (p.Mappings.Count > 1) ? "Multiple" : p.Mappings.First().BackendProductID, Description = p.Description } ).ToList(); This does a single query retrieving the information I want. But I want to be able to move the logic behind the BackendProductID into the LINQ object so I can use the commented line instead of the annoyingly nested ternary operator statements for neatness and re-usability. So I added the following property to the Product object: public string BackendProductID { get { if (Mappings.Count == 0) return "None"; if (Mappings.Count > 1) return "Multiple"; return Mappings.First().BackendProductID; } } The list is still the same, but it now does a query for every single Product to get it's BackendProductID. The code is neater and re-usable, but the performance now is terrible. What I need is some kind of Expression or Delegate but I couldn't get my head around writing one. It always ended up querying for every single product, still. Any help would be appreciated!

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• Is it possible to replace values in a queryset before sending it to your template?

  - by Issy

  Hi Guys, Wondering if it's possible to change a value returned from a queryset before sending it off to the template. Say for example you have a bunch of records Date | Time | Description 10/05/2010 | 13:30 | Testing... etc... However, based on the day of the week the time may change. However this is static. For example on a monday the time is ALWAYS 15:00. Now you could add another table to configure special cases but to me it seems overkill, as this is a rule. How would you replace that value before sending it to the template? I thought about using the new if tags (if day=1), but this is more of business logic rather then presentation. Tested this in a custom template tag def render(self, context): result = self.model._default_manager.filter(from_date__lte=self.now).filter(to_date__gte=self.now) if self.day == 4: result = result.exclude(type__exact=2).order_by('time') else: result = result.order_by('type') result[0].time = '23:23:23' context[self.varname] = result return '' However it still displays the results from the DB, is this some how related to 'lazy' evaluation of templates? Thanks! Update Responding to comments below: It's not stored wrong in the DB, its stored Correctly However there is a small side case where the value needs to change. So for example I have a From Date & To date, my query checks if todays date is between those. Now with this they could setup a from date - to date for an entire year, and the special cases (like mondays as an example) is taken care off. However if you want to store in the DB you would have to capture several more records to cater for the side case. I.e you would be capturing the same information just to cater for that 1 day when the time changes. (And the time always changes on the same day, and is always the same)

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• Entity Framework - Many to Many Subquery

  - by Jorin

  I asked a question about this previously but my database structure has changed, and while it made other things simpler, now this part is more complicated. Here is the previous question. At the time, my EF Context had a UsersProjects object because there were other properties. Now that I've simplified that table, it is just the keys, so all my EF context knows about is Users and Projects and the M2M relationship between them. There is no more UsersProjects as far as EF knows. So my goal is to say "show me all the users who are working on projects with me." in SQL, this would go something like: SELECT * FROM Users INNER JOIN UsersProjects ON Users.ID=UsersProjects.UserID WHERE ProjectID IN (SELECT ProjectID FROM UsersProjects WHERE UserID=@UserID) and I started in EF with something like this: var myProjects = (from p in edmx.Projects where p.Users.Contains(edmx.Users.FirstOrDefault(u => u.Email == UserEmail)) orderby p.Name select p).ToList(); var associatedUsers = (from u in edmx.Users where myProjects.Contains(?????????) //where myProjects.Any(????????) select u); The trick is finding what to put in the ????????. Anyone help here?

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• How to re-prompt after a trap return in bash?

  - by verbose

  I have a script that is supposed to trap SIGTERM and SIGTSTP. This is what I have in the main block: trap 'killHandling' TERM And in the function: killHandling () { echo received kill signal, ignoring return } ... and similar for SIGINT. The problem is one of user interface. The script prompts the user for some input, and if the SIGTERM or SIGINT occurs when the script is waiting for input, it's confusing. Here is the output in that case: Enter something: # SIGTERM received received kill signal, ignoring # shell waits at blank line for user input, user gets confused # user hits "return", which then gets read as blank input from the user # bad things happen because of the blank input I have definitely seen scripts which handle this more elegantly, like so: Enter something: # SIGTERM received received kill signal, ignoring Enter something: # re-prompts user for user input, user is not confused What is the mechanism used to accomplish the latter? Unfortunately I can't simply change my trap code to do the re-prompt as the script prompts the user for several things and what the prompt says is context-dependent. And there has to be a better way than writing context-dependent trap functions. I'd be very grateful for any pointers. Thanks!

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• Using reflection to find all linq2sql tables and ensure they match the database

  - by Jake Stevenson

  I'm trying to use reflection to automatically test that all my linq2sql entities match the test database. I thought I'd do this by getting all the classes that inherit from DataContext from my assembly: var contexttypes = Assembly.GetAssembly(typeof (BaseRepository<,>)).GetTypes().Where( t => t.IsSubclassOf(typeof(DataContext))); foreach (var contexttype in contexttypes) { var context = Activator.CreateInstance(contexttype); var tableProperties = type.GetProperties().Where(t=> t.PropertyType.Name == typeof(ITable<>).Name); foreach (var propertyInfo in tableProperties) { var table = (propertyInfo.GetValue(context, null)); } } So far so good, this loops through each ITable< in each datacontext in the project. If I debug the code, "table" is properly instantiated, and if I expand the results view in the debugger I can see actual data. BUT, I can't figure out how to get my code to actually query that table. I'd really like to just be able to do table.FirstOrDefault() to get the top row out of each table and make sure the SQL fetch doesn't fail. But I cant cast that table to be anything I can query. Any suggestions on how I can make this queryable? Just the ability to call .Count() would be enough for me to ensure the entities don't have anything that doesn't match the table columns.

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• adding a token onto a webservice or wcf call

  - by duncanUK

  I have an httphandler which I am using to log the http soap request and response for each webservice that is called from my application as a comms log. i would like to inject a token ont he 1st call (possibly the 1st call to invoke the service that is being logged) and then be able to track all subsequent webservice calls run in the same context with this token so i can tie the subsequent calls back up to the original call. so for example. main webservice -> 2nd web service -> another web service [token] [token] [token] -> nth web service [token] I would like to inject the token on the first call to the main webservice (http handler checks if no token, add it), I would like to use the same http handler to intercept each call to the subsequent webservices and pass on the token if it exists already (the job of the httphandler is to log the in/out soap with the token to reference with. I have managed to inject the first token, but my problem is how do I add the token on the subsequent calls.. can I make it stick on the same context or session? My worry is that when we call a new webservice, we create a whole new proxy/http request which will not inhrit the token... or will it?! Ideally I would like it to persist on the http header as I am setting the token as a header at the moment? has anyone got any ideas or a better way of doing this? I would be most greatful for you comments!

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