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  • BIP 11g Dynamic SQL

    - by Tim Dexter
    Back in the 10g release, if you wanted something beyond the standard query for your report extract; you needed to break out your favorite text editor. You gotta love 'vi' and hate emacs, am I right? And get to building a data template, they were/are lovely to write, such fun ... not! Its not fun writing them by hand but, you do get to do some cool stuff around the data extract including dynamic SQL. By that I mean the ability to add content dynamically to your your query at runtime. With 11g, we spoiled you with a visual builder, no more vi or notepad sessions, a friendly drag and drop interface allowing you to build hierarchical data sets, calculated columns, summary columns, etc. You can still create the dynamic SQL statements, its not so well documented right now, in lieu of doc updates here's the skinny. If you check out the 10g process to create dynamic sql in the docs. You need to create a data trigger function where you assign the dynamic sql to a global variable that's matched in your report SQL. In 11g, the process is really the same, BI Publisher just provides a bit more help to define what trigger code needs to be called. You still need to create the function and place it inside a package in the db. Here's a simple plsql package with the 'beforedata' function trigger. Spec create or replace PACKAGE BIREPORTS AS whereCols varchar2(2000); FUNCTION beforeReportTrig return boolean; end BIREPORTS; Body create or replace PACKAGE BODY BIREPORTS AS   FUNCTION beforeReportTrig return boolean AS   BEGIN       whereCols := ' and d.department_id = 100';     RETURN true;   END beforeReportTrig; END BIREPORTS; you'll notice the additional where clause (whereCols - declared as a public variable) is hard coded. I'll cover parameterizing that in my next post. If you can not wait, check the 10g docs for an example. I have my package compiling successfully in the db. Now, onto the BIP data model definition. 1. Create a new data model and go ahead and create your query(s) as you would normally. 2. In the query dialog box, add in the variables you want replaced at runtime using an ampersand rather than a colon e.g. &whereCols.   select     d.DEPARTMENT_NAME, ...  from    "OE"."EMPLOYEES" e,     "OE"."DEPARTMENTS" d  where   d."DEPARTMENT_ID"= e."DEPARTMENT_ID" &whereCols   Note that 'whereCols' matches the global variable name in our package. When you click OK to clear the dialog, you'll be asked for a default value for the variable, just use ' and 1=1' That leading space is important to keep the SQL valid ie required whitespace. This value will be used for the where clause if case its not set by the function code. 3. Now click on the Event Triggers tree node and create a new trigger of the type Before Data. Type in the default package name, in my example, 'BIREPORTS'. Then hit the update button to get BIP to fetch the valid functions.In my case I get to see the following: Select the BEFOREREPORTTRIG function (or your name) and shuttle it across. 4. Save your data model and now test it. For now, you can update the where clause via the plsql package. Next time ... parametrizing the dynamic clause.

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  • DHCP and DNS services configuration for VOIP system, windows domain, etc

    - by Stemen
    My company has numerous physical offices (for purposes of this discussion, 15 buildings). Some of them are well-connected to our primary data center via fiber. Others will be connected to the data center by P2P T1. We are in the beginning stages of implementing an Avaya VOIP telephone system, and we will be replacing a significant portion of our network infrastructure in the process. In tandem with the phone system implementation, we are going to be re-addressing some of our networks, and consolidating most of our Windows domains into one (not all domains, just most). We currently have quite a few Windows domains, and they of course each have their own DNS zones. A few of those networks currently use DHCP, but the majority use static IP assignments for every device. I'm tired of managing static assignments -- I want to use DHCP configuration on everything except servers. Printers and etc will have DHCP reservations. The new IP phones will need to get IP addresses from DHCP, though they need to be in a separate VLAN from the computers/printers/etc. The computers and printers need to be registered in DNS. That's currently handled by the Windows DHCP servers on each of the respective domains. We need to place a priority on DHCP and DNS being available on a per-site basis (in case something were to interrupt the WAN connection) for computers and (primarily) phones. Smaller locations (which will have IP phones but not be a member of any Windows domain) will not have any Windows DNS/DHCP server(s) available. We also are looking for the easiest way to replace a part if it were to fail. That is to say, if a server/appliance/router hosting DHCP were to crash hard, and we couldn't extremely quickly recover the DHCP reservations and leases (and subsequently restore them onto a cold spare), we anticipate that bad things could happen. What is the best idea for how to re-implement DNS and DHCP keeping all of the above in mind? Some thoughts that have been raised (by myself or my coworkers): Use Windows DNS and DHCP servers, where they exist, and use IP helpers to route DHCP requests to some other Windows server if necessary. May not be acceptable if the WAN goes down and clients don't get a DHCP response. Use Windows DNS (everywhere, over WAN in some cases) and a mix of Windows DHCP and DHCP provided by Cisco routers. Every site would be covered for DHCP, but from what I've read, Cisco routers can't handle dynamic registration of DHCP clients to Windows DNS servers, which might create a problem where Cisco routers are used for DHCP. Use Windows DNS (everywhere, over WAN in some cases) and a mix of Windows DHCP and DHCP provided by some service running on an extremely low-price linux server. Is there any such software that would allow DHCP leases granted by these linux boxes to be dynamically registered on the Windows DNS servers? Come up with a Linux solution for both DNS and DHCP, and deploy low-price linux servers to every site. Requirements would be that the DNS zone be multi-master (like Windows DNS integrated with Active Directory), that DHCP be able to make dynamic DNS registrations in that zone, for every lease (where a hostname is provided and is thus possible), and that multiple servers be either authoritative for the same DHCP scope or at least receiving a real-time copy / replication / sync of the leases table so that if one server dies, we still know which MAC has what address. Purchase dedicated DNS/DHCP appliances, deploying to all sites. From what I read/see, this solves all of our technical problems. Then come the financial problems... I don't have a ton of money to spend on this. Or, some other solution that we've thus far overlooked and will consider upon recommendation. Can Cisco routers or Windows servers sync DHCP lease tables so that multiple servers can be authoritative (or active/passive for all I care) for the same scope, in case one of the partners were to fail? I've read online (repeatedly) that ISC's DHCP is able to maintain the same lease table across multiple servers, in order to solve this problem. Does anyone have any experience or advice to regarding that?

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  • Bridging a non-persistent PPP connection to wireless (or wired) in Windows XP

    - by phooze
    I have a 3G modem-like device (eMobile's D01NX, PC card style, for any Japan nerds out there) that I use to connect my PC to the Internet. I'd like to bridge this connection with another computer either via an ad-hoc wireless network, or a simple cross-over cable (either are options). However, when I open "Network Connections", I do not see the PPP connection (otherwise I could click both and bridge). I believe this is because there is software (provided by the vendor) that is handling the card directly and registering a PPP connection dynamically. When connected, an ipconfig at the command line yields: Ethernet adapter wireless: Connection-specific DNS Suffix . : Autoconfiguration IP Address. . . : 169.254.5.169 Subnet Mask . . . . . . . . . . . : 255.255.0.0 Default Gateway . . . . . . . . . : Ethernet adapter lan: Media State . . . . . . . . . . . : Media disconnected PPP adapter {B59EEDDE-A22B-48DF-93E5-04842B641257}: Connection-specific DNS Suffix . : IP Address. . . . . . . . . . . . : 114.xx.xxx.xx Subnet Mask . . . . . . . . . . . : 255.255.255.255 Default Gateway . . . . . . . . . : 114.xx.xxx.xx (I've commented out my IP address for privacy reasons, but what does appear there is a functional Internet IP address.) When I disconnect the adapter with the vendor software, the PPP connection disappears completely from the ipconfig list. Any ideas on how to do this?

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  • Pushing DNSSEC updates with offline keys

    - by eggyal
    In a non-professional capacity, I look after the DNS of some 18 domains: mostly personal/vanity domains for immediate family. I outsource the whole shebang to an inexpensive managed hosting provider with a web interface through which I manage the zones; since the provider also offers DNSSEC, I have successfully deployed that too. These domains are so unimportant that an attack targetted against them seems much less likely than a general compromise of my provider's systems, at which point the records of all their customers might be changed to misdirect traffic (perhaps with extremely long TTLs). DNSSEC could protect against such an attack, but only if the zone's private keys are not held by the hosting provider. So, I wonder: how can one keep DNSSEC private keys offline yet still transfer signed zones to an outsourced DNS host? The most obvious answer (to me, at least) is to run one's own shadow/hidden master (from which the provider can slave) and then copy offline-signed zonefiles to the master as required. The problem is that the only machine I (want to*) control is my personal laptop, which usually connects from a typical home ADSL (behind NAT over a dynamically-assigned IP address). Having them slave from that (e.g. with a very long Expiry time on the zone for periods when my laptop is offline/unavailable) would not only require a Dynamic DNS record from which they can slave (if indeed they can slave from a named host rather than a static IP address), but would also involve me running a DNS server on my laptop and opening both it and my home network up to the incoming zone transfer requests: not ideal. I would prefer a much more push-oriented design, whereby my laptop initiates transfer of offline-signed zonefiles/updates to the provider's servers. I looked into whether nsupdate could fit the bill: documentation is a little sketchy, but my testing (with BIND 9.7) suggests it can indeed update DNSSEC zones, but only where the server holds the keys to perform the zone signing; I have not found a way to have it take an update including the relevant RRSIG/NSEC/etc. records and have the server accept them. Is this a supported use-case? If not, I suspect the only solutions which could fit the bill will involve non-DNS-based transfer of the zone updates and would welcome recommendations that are supported by (hopefully inexpensive) hosting providers: SFTP/SCP? rsync? RDBMS replication? Proprietary API? Finally, what would be the practical implications of such a setup? Key rotation is jumping out at me as being an obvious difficulty, especially if my laptop is offline for extended periods. But the zones are extremely stable, so perhaps I could get away with long-lived ZSKs**...? * Whilst I could run a shadow/hidden master on e.g. an outsourced VPS, I dislike the overhead of having to secure / manage / monitor / maintain yet another system; not to mention the additional financial costs of so doing. ** Okay, this would enable a concerted attacker to replay outdated records—but the risk and impact of such are both tolerable in the case of these domains.

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  • Configuring nginx server to handle requests from multiple domains

    - by KillABug
    Use Case:- I am working on a web application which allows to create HTML templates and publish them on amazon S3.Now to publish the websites I use nginx as a proxy server. What the proxy server does is,when a user enters the website URL,I want to identify how to check if the request comes from my application i.e app.mysite.com(This won't change) and route it to apache for regular access,if its coming from some other domain like a regular URL www.mysite.com(This needs to be handled dynamically.Can be random) it goes to the S3 bucket that hosts the template. My current configuration is: user nginx; worker_processes 1; error_log /var/log/nginx/error.log; pid /var/run/nginx.pid; events { worker_connections 1024; } http { include /etc/nginx/mime.types; default_type application/octet-stream; log_format main '$remote_addr - $remote_user [$time_local] "$request" ' '$status $body_bytes_sent "$http_referer" ' '"$http_user_agent" "$http_x_forwarded_for"'; access_log /var/log/nginx/access.log main; charset utf-8; keepalive_timeout 65; server_tokens off; sendfile on; tcp_nopush on; tcp_nodelay off; Default Server Block to catch undefined host names server { listen 80; server_name app.mysite.com; access_log off; error_log off; location / { proxy_pass http://127.0.0.1:8080; proxy_set_header X-Real-IP $remote_addr; proxy_set_header Host $host; proxy_redirect off; proxy_set_header X-Forwarded-For $proxy_add_x_forwarded_for; proxy_connect_timeout 90; proxy_send_timeout 90; proxy_read_timeout 90; client_max_body_size 10m; client_body_buffer_size 128k; proxy_buffer_size 4k; proxy_buffers 4 32k; proxy_busy_buffers_size 64k; } } } Load all the sites include /etc/nginx/conf.d/*.conf; Updates as I was not clear enough :- My question is how can I handle both the domains in the config file.My nginx is a proxy server on port 80 on an EC2 instance.This also hosts my application that runs on apache on a differnet port.So any request coming for my application will come from a domain app.mysite.com and I also want to proxy the hosted templates on S3 which are inside a bucket say sites.mysite.com/coolsite.com/index.html.So if someone hits coolsite.com I want to proxy it to the folder sites.mysite.com/coolsite.com/index.html and not to app.syartee.com.Hope I am clear The other server block: # Server for S3 server { # Listen on port 80 for all IPs associated with your machine listen 80; # Catch all other server names server_name _; //I want it to handle other domains then app.mysite.com # This code gets the host without www. in front and places it inside # the $host_without_www variable # If someone requests www.coolsite.com, then $host_without_www will have the value coolsite.com set $host_without_www $host; if ($host ~* www\.(.*)) { set $host_without_www $1; } location / { # This code rewrites the original request, and adds the host without www in front # E.g. if someone requests # /directory/file.ext?param=value # from the coolsite.com site the request is rewritten to # /coolsite.com/directory/file.ext?param=value set $foo 'http://sites.mysite.com'; # echo "$foo"; rewrite ^(.*)$ $foo/$host_without_www$1 break; # The rewritten request is passed to S3 proxy_pass http://sites.mysite.com; include /etc/nginx/proxy_params; } } Also I understand I will have to make the DNS changes in the cname of the domain.I guess I will have to add app.mysite.com under the CNAME of the template domain name?Please correct if wrong. Thank you for your time

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  • WNDR3700 Router + Cisco SG200-08 + LACP + Dual Uplink

    - by kobaltz
    Background I have a storage server that has several virtual machine images stored on them. I would store them locally, but I have limited space on my desktop (using SSD storage). I would like to increase the bandwidth between the desktop and the storage server by using two NICs on each computer. My original configuration allowed about 55MBps between the desktop and storage server. This storage server also has several TBs of documents, pictures, movies, vms, and ISO/programs. The storage server has 8 1.5TB hard drives in a RAID 10 configuration with a hardware RAID controller. The benchmarks on the RAID 10 are about 300MBps. Configuration In short, I am trying to bridge my switch and router. The switch is a small 8 port Cisco smart switch that supports 802.3ad LACP. I have two computers plugged into the switch, each with 2 Intel Gigabit NICs. The first computer is a Windows 7 machine that has the Intel ANS software installed. I have LACP configured with the computer and now show 3 NICs (2 Physical + 1 TEAM Virtual @ 2Gbps). It looks like this computer is configured correctly. I trunked the two ports that this computer is plugged into with the switch's web interface. The second computer is a homebrew storage box running debian. I also have the bonding enabled on this machine and the switch configured with LACP. Without having the WNDR3700 router in the picture yet, I am able to communicate between the Windows 7 machine and the debian box since they both have static IP addresses. With LACP enabled on both machines I am getting about 106-108MBps speeds. Issue I plug in a network cable from the switch into the router and enable DHCP on the desktop. I saw no need to have a static address on the desktop. My transfer rates are still from 106MBps-108MBps. While this is still a boost, I am trying to figure out how to get about 140-180MBps. I am thinking that I need to increase the bandwidth from the router to the switch. My switch allows 4 groups for port trunking. I plugged in a second network cable from the router to the switch. My question is, what is the proper way to fix this issue. Should I port trunk the two ports that are going from the switch to the router? Keep in mind that the router is a WNDR3700 and is unsure whether or not it supports LACP. I do have OpenWRT installed on the router, but it still wasn't clear in any documentation that I found if it supported 802.3ad LACP standards. I am also wondering if there needs to be anything changed within the Cisco settings. [Edit] - Corrected some numbers, wasn't really paying attention. It looks like the speeds though at least two NICs are bonded with LACP is still reaching the max bandwidth of one port. Is there a way to configure the switch so that I can increase this bandwidth? Also, on the storage server, I had a couple of extra NICs laying around and threw them on there as well. Another EDIT and More Findings I happened to look at the traffic of each individual NIC and think that I see the problem. I tested with a simple transfer for a 4GB file. I noticed that only one of the NICs was taking the load of the traffic. I then copied the file back to the Storage Server and noticed that the other NIC was sending out the traffic. I have 802.3ad LACP enabled on the two NICs and I see that it gets enabled dynamically on the switch's interface. Should I be using Static Link Aggregation?

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  • Dynamic DataGrid columns in WPF DataGrid based on the underlying set of data (and their type)

    - by StatsMan
    Hello everyone, I've got kind of a conceptual question. I am in the process of wrapping some statistics classes I wrote into WPF. For that I have two DataGrid(-Views, currently in WinForms). In one DataGrid each row represents a column in the other. There I can set-up different variables (as in mathematical/statistical variables) with fields like "Header", "DataType", "ValidationBehaviour", "DisplayType". There I can also set-up how it should be displayed. Some Columns can automatically be set to ComboBoxColumns, some TextBoxColumns, and so on and so forth. So, now once I've set-up these Columns I can go to the other grid and enter my data. I may, for instance, have generated (in grid 1) one Column called "Annual Gross Salary" with input of numerical values. Another Column called "Education" with "0=NoEducation", "1=College Level", "3=Universitary" etc. These labels are displayed as text in the combobox and my statistics engine behind then selects the respective value (0-3) for calculations (i.e. ordinal, nominal variables). Sooo. In WinForms I could basically generate all the columns by hand in code and then add my data in the respective cells/rows. Now in WPF I thought that must be easy to realise. However, yesterday I got started with ICustomPropertyDescriptor which (maybe I was too thick) didn't give me the results I was looking for. Basically, I just need to be able to dynamically generate columns (and rows) with different Layout, Controls (ComboBox, simple Input, DateTimes) based on the data that I have. But I don't really know how to go about it? So here in summary: DataGrid 1 Purpose is to display columns that have been specified in DataGrid 2 In rows, the user can add any kind of data in the rows below the columns that is allowed as to the columns specifications DataGrid 2 Each row in this grid represents a column in DataGrid 1 Contains fields like Name/Header, DataType, Validation Behaviour, Default Value, Data Formatting, etc. Also contains a function to be able to set-up how it should be displayed. The user can select from, for instance, ComboBoxColumn (and also add the available options), DateTime, normal TextBox, CheckBox etc. After finishing adding a row it will automatically appear as a new column in DataGrid 1 I'd appreciate any kind of pointer into the right direction. Thanks very, very much in advance! :)

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  • WPF: Animating TranslateTransform from code

    - by ghostskunks
    I have a WPF canvas on which I'm dynamically creating objects from code. These objects are being transformed by setting the RenderTransform property, and an animation needs to be applied one of those transforms. Currently, I can't get properties of any transform to animate (although no exception gets raised and the animation appears to run - the completed event gets raised). In addition, if the animation system is stressed, sometimes the Storyboard.Completed event is never raised. All the examples I've come accross animate the transforms from XAML. MSDN documentation suggests that the x:Name property of a transform must be set for it to be animatable, but I haven't found a working way to set it from code. Any ideas? Here's the full code listing that reproduces the problem: using System; using System.Diagnostics; using System.Windows; using System.Windows.Controls; using System.Windows.Input; using System.Windows.Media; using System.Windows.Media.Animation; using System.Windows.Shapes; namespace AnimationCompletedTest { /// <summary> /// Interaction logic for MainWindow.xaml /// </summary> public partial class MainWindow : Window { Canvas panel; public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); MouseDown += DoDynamicAnimation; Content = panel = new Canvas(); } void DoDynamicAnimation(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs args) { for (int i = 0; i < 12; ++i) { var e = new Ellipse { Width = 16, Height = 16, Fill = SystemColors.HighlightBrush }; Canvas.SetLeft(e, Mouse.GetPosition(this).X); Canvas.SetTop(e, Mouse.GetPosition(this).Y); var tg = new TransformGroup(); var translation = new TranslateTransform(30, 0); tg.Children.Add(translation); tg.Children.Add(new RotateTransform(i * 30)); e.RenderTransform = tg; panel.Children.Add(e); var s = new Storyboard(); Storyboard.SetTarget(s, translation); Storyboard.SetTargetProperty(s, new PropertyPath(TranslateTransform.XProperty)); s.Children.Add( new DoubleAnimation(3, 100, new Duration(new TimeSpan(0, 0, 0, 1, 0))) { EasingFunction = new PowerEase {EasingMode = EasingMode.EaseOut} }); s.Completed += (sndr, evtArgs) => { Debug.WriteLine("Animation {0} completed {1}", s.GetHashCode(), Stopwatch.GetTimestamp()); panel.Children.Remove(e); }; Debug.WriteLine("Animation {0} started {1}", s.GetHashCode(), Stopwatch.GetTimestamp()); s.Begin(); } } [STAThread] public static void Main() { var app = new Application(); app.Run(new MainWindow()); } } }

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  • How to automatically resize an EditText widget (with some attributes) in a TableLayout

    - by steff
    Hi everyone, I have a layout issue. What I do is this: create TableLayout in xml with zero children: <TableLayout android:id="@+id/t_layout_contents" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_below="@id/l_layout_tags" android:stretchColumns="1" android:paddingLeft="5dip" android:paddingRight="5dip" /> Insert first row programmatically in onCreate(): tLayoutContents = (TableLayout)findViewById(R.id.t_layout_contents); NoteElement nr_1 = new NoteElement(this); tLayoutContents.addView(nr_1); Class "NoteElement" extends TableRow. The 1st row just consists of a blank ImageView as a placeholder and an EditText to enter text. NoteElement's constructor looks like this: public NoteElement(Context c) { super(c); this.context = c; defaultText = c.getResources().getString(R.string.create_note_help_text); imageView = new ImageView(context); imageView.setImageResource(android.R.color.transparent); LayoutParams params = new LayoutParams(0); imageView.setLayoutParams(params); addView(imageView); addView(addTextField()); } Method addTextField() specifies the attributes for the EditText widget: private EditText addTextField() { editText = new EditText(context); editText.setImeOptions(EditorInfo.IME_ACTION_DONE); editText.setMinLines(4); editText.setRawInputType(InputType.TYPE_TEXT_FLAG_MULTI_LINE); editText.setHint(R.string.create_note_et_blank_text); editText.setAutoLinkMask(Linkify.ALL); editText.setPadding(5, 0, 0, 0); editText.setGravity(Gravity.TOP); editText.setVerticalScrollBarEnabled(true); LayoutParams params = new LayoutParams(1); editText.setLayoutParams(params); return editText; } So far, so good. But my problem occurs as soon as the available space for the chars is depleted. The EditText does not resize itself but switches to a single line EditText. I am desperatly looking for a way in which the EditText resizes itself in its height dynamically, being dependant on the inserted text length. Does anyone have a hint on this? Thanks & regards, steff

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  • WPF XAML: how to get StackPanel's children to fill maximum space downward?

    - by Edward Tanguay
    I simply want flowing text on the left, and a help box on the right. The help box should extend all the way to the bottom. If you take out the outer StackPanel below it works great. But for reasons of layout (I'm inserting UserControls dynamically) I need to have the wrapping StackPanel. How do I get the GroupBox to extend down to the bottom of the StackPanel, as you can see I've tried: VerticalAlignment="Stretch" VerticalContentAlignment="Stretch" Height="Auto" XAML: <Window x:Class="TestDynamic033.Test3" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Test3" Height="300" Width="600"> <StackPanel VerticalAlignment="Stretch" Height="Auto"> <DockPanel HorizontalAlignment="Stretch" VerticalAlignment="Stretch" Height="Auto" Margin="10"> <GroupBox DockPanel.Dock="Right" Header="Help" Width="100" Background="Beige" VerticalAlignment="Stretch" VerticalContentAlignment="Stretch" Height="Auto"> <TextBlock Text="This is the help that is available on the news screen." TextWrapping="Wrap" /> </GroupBox> <StackPanel DockPanel.Dock="Left" Margin="10" Width="Auto" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch"> <TextBlock Text="Here is the news that should wrap around." TextWrapping="Wrap"/> </StackPanel> </DockPanel> </StackPanel> </Window> Answer: Thanks Mark, using DockPanel instead of StackPanel cleared it up. In general, I find myself using DockPanel more and more now for WPF layouting, here's the fixed XAML: <Window x:Class="TestDynamic033.Test3" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Test3" Height="300" Width="600" MinWidth="500" MinHeight="200"> <DockPanel VerticalAlignment="Stretch" Height="Auto"> <DockPanel HorizontalAlignment="Stretch" VerticalAlignment="Stretch" Height="Auto" MinWidth="400" Margin="10"> <GroupBox DockPanel.Dock="Right" Header="Help" Width="100" VerticalAlignment="Stretch" VerticalContentAlignment="Stretch" Height="Auto"> <Border CornerRadius="3" Background="Beige"> <TextBlock Text="This is the help that is available on the news screen." TextWrapping="Wrap" Padding="5"/> </Border> </GroupBox> <StackPanel DockPanel.Dock="Left" Margin="10" Width="Auto" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch"> <TextBlock Text="Here is the news that should wrap around." TextWrapping="Wrap"/> </StackPanel> </DockPanel> </DockPanel> </Window>

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2: Updating a Linq-To-Sql Entity with an EntitySet

    - by Simon
    I have a Linq to Sql Entity which has an EntitySet. In my View I display the Entity with it's properties plus an editable list for the child entites. The user can dynamically add and delete those child entities. The DefaultModelBinder works fine so far, it correctly binds the child entites. Now my problem is that I just can't get Linq To Sql to delete the deleted child entities, it will happily add new ones but not delete the deleted ones. I have enabled cascade deleting in the foreign key relationship, and the Linq To Sql designer added the "DeleteOnNull=true" attribute to the foreign key relationships. If I manually delete a child entity like this: myObject.Childs.Remove(child); context.SubmitChanges(); This will delete the child record from the DB. But I can't get it to work for a model binded object. I tried the following: // this does nothing public ActionResult Update(int id, MyObject obj) // obj now has 4 child entities { var obj2 = _repository.GetObj(id); // obj2 has 6 child entities if(TryUpdateModel(obj2)) //it sucessfully updates obj2 and its childs { _repository.SubmitChanges(); // nothing happens, records stay in DB } else ..... return RedirectToAction("List"); } and this throws an InvalidOperationException, I have a german OS so I'm not exactly sure what the error message is in english, but it says something along the lines of that the entity needs a Version (Timestamp row?) or no update check policies. I have set UpdateCheck="Never" to every column except the primary key column. public ActionResult Update(MyObject obj) { _repository.MyObjectTable.Attach(obj, true); _repository.SubmitChanges(); // never gets here, exception at attach } I've read alot about similar "problems" with Linq To Sql, but it seems most of those "problems" are actually by design. So am I right in my assumption that this doesn't work like I expect it to work? Do I really have to manually iterate through the child entities and delete, update and insert them manually? For such a simple object this may work, but I plan to create more complex objects with nested EntitySets and so on. This is just a test to see what works and what not. So far I'm disappointed with Linq To Sql (maybe I just don't get it). Would be the Entity Framework or NHibernate a better choice for this scenario? Or would I run into the same problem?

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  • Attaching .swf assets to Flex3 by calling getDefinitionByName()

    - by Alexander Farber
    Hello! Does anybody please know, how could you attach symbols from an .swf file in the Actionscript part of your Flex3 file? I've prepared a simple test case demonstrating my problem. Everything works (there are icons at the 4 buttons, there is a red circle) - except the getDefinitionByName() part. My target is to attach a symbol from library "dynamically" - i.e. depending at the value of the suit variable at the runtime. Thank you, Alex Symbols.as: package { public class Symbols { [Embed('../assets/symbols.swf', symbol='spades')] public static const SPADES:Class; [Embed('../assets/symbols.swf', symbol='clubs')] public static const CLUBS:Class; [Embed('../assets/symbols.swf', symbol='diamonds')] public static const DIAMONDS:Class; [Embed('../assets/symbols.swf', symbol='hearts')] public static const HEARTS:Class; } } TestCase.mxml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" layout="absolute" creationComplete="onCreationComplete();"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ private function onCreationComplete():void { var sprite:Sprite = new Sprite(); var g:Graphics = sprite.graphics; g.lineStyle(1, 0xFF0000); g.beginFill(0xFF0000); g.drawCircle(100, 100, 20); g.endFill(); spriteHolder.addChild(sprite); // XXX stuff below not working, can it be fixed? var suit:String = "SPADES"; var mc:MovieClip = new (getDefinitionByName("Symbols.SPADES") as Class); spriteHolder.addChild(mc); } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:VBox width="100%"> <mx:Button label="1" icon="{Symbols.SPADES}" /> <mx:Button label="2" icon="{Symbols.CLUBS}" /> <mx:Button label="3" icon="{Symbols.DIAMONDS}" /> <mx:Button label="4" icon="{Symbols.HEARTS}" /> <mx:UIComponent id="spriteHolder" width="200" height="200"/> </mx:VBox> </mx:Application>

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  • Access Violation Using memcpy or Assignment to an Array in a Struct

    - by Synetech inc.
    Hi, I wrote a program last night that worked just fine but when I refactored it today to make it more extensible, I ended up with a problem. The original version had a hard-coded array of bytes. After some processing, some bytes were written into the array and then some more processing was done. To avoid hard-coding the pattern, I put the array in a structure so that I could add some related data and create an array of them. However now, I cannot write to the array in the structure. Here’s a pseudo-code example: main() { char pattern[]="\x32\x33\x12\x13\xba\xbb"; PrintData(pattern); pattern[2]='\x65'; PrintData(pattern); } That one works but this one does not: struct ENTRY { char* pattern; int somenum; }; main() { ENTRY Entries[] = { {"\x32\x33\x12\x13\xba\xbb\x9a\xbc", 44} , {"\x12\x34\x56\x78", 555} }; PrintData(Entries[0].pattern); Entries[0].pattern[2]='\x65'; //0xC0000005 exception!!! :( PrintData(Entries[0].pattern); } The second version causes an access violation exception on the assignment. I’m sure it’s because the second version allocates memory differently, but I’m starting to get a headache trying to figure out what’s what or how to get fix this. (I’m currently working around it by dynamically allocating a buffer of the same size as the pattern array, copying the pattern to the new buffer, making the changes to the buffer, using the buffer in the place of the pattern array, and then trying to remember to free the—temporary—buffer.) (Specifically, the original version cast the pattern array—+offset—to a DWORD* and assigned a DWORD constant to it to overwrite the four target bytes. The new version cannot do that since the length of the source is unknown—may not be four bytes—so it uses memcpy instead. I’ve checked and re-checked and have made sure that the pointers to memcpy are correct, but I still get an access violation. I use memcpy instead of str(n)cpy because I am using plain chars (as an array of bytes), not Unicode chars and ignoring the null-terminator. Using an assignment as above causes the same problem.) Any ideas? Thanks a lot.

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  • Failed to load viewstate

    - by Jen
    OK have just started getting this error and I'm not sure why. I have a hosting page which has listview and a panel with a usercontrol. The listview loads up records with a linkbutton. You click the link button to edit that particular record - which gets loaded up in the formview (within the usercontrol) which goes to edit mode. After an update occurs in the formview I'm triggering an event which my hosting page is listening for. The hosting page then rebinds the listview to show the updated data. So this all works - but when I then go to click on a different linkbutton I get the below error: Webpage error details User Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 6.1; WOW64; Trident/4.0; SLCC2; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.5.30729; .NET CLR 3.0.30729; Media Center PC 6.0; InfoPath.3) Timestamp: Fri, 18 Jun 2010 03:15:54 UTC Message: Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManagerServerErrorException: Failed to load viewstate. The control tree into which viewstate is being loaded must match the control tree that was used to save viewstate during the previous request. For example, when adding controls dynamically, the controls added during a post-back must match the type and position of the controls added during the initial request. Line: 4723 Char: 21 Code: 0 URI: http://localhost:1951/AdminWebSite/ScriptResource.axd?d=yfdLw4zYs0bqYqs1arL-htap1ceeKCyW1EXhrhMZy_AqJ36FUpx8b2pzMKL6V7ebYsgJDVm_sZ_ykV1hNtFqgYcJCLLtardHm9-yyA7zC4k1&t=ffffffffec2d9970 Any suggestions as to what is actually wrong?? My event listener does this: protected void RatesEditDate1_EditDateRateUpdated() { if (IsDateRangeValid(txtDisplayFrom, txtDisplayTo)) { PropertyAccommodationRates1.DataBind(); } else { pnlViewAccommodationRates.Visible = false; } divEditRate.Visible = false; } When I click my link button - it should be hitting this but the second time round it errors before hitting the breakpoint: protected void RatesEditDate1_EditDateRateSelected(DateTime theDateTime) { // make sure everything else is invisible pnlAddAccommodation.Visible = false; pnlViewEditAccommodations.Visible = false; RatesEditDate1.TheDateTime = theDateTime; RatesEditDate1.PropertyID = (int)Master.PropertyId; if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(Accommodations1.SelectedValue)) { RatesEditDate1.AccommodationTypeID = Convert.ToInt32(Accommodations1.SelectedValue); } else { RatesEditDate1.AccommodationTypeID = 0; } divEditRate.Visible = true; } So my listview appears to be being rebound successfully - I can see my changed data.. I just don't know why its complaining about viewstate when I click on the linkbutton. Or is there a better way to update the data in my listview? My listview and formview are bound to objectdata sources (in case that matters) Thanks for the help!

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  • C# 4.0 'dynamic' and foreach statement

    - by ControlFlow
    Not long time before I've discovered, that new dynamic keyword doesn't work well with the C#'s foreach statement: using System; sealed class Foo { public struct FooEnumerator { int value; public bool MoveNext() { return true; } public int Current { get { return value++; } } } public FooEnumerator GetEnumerator() { return new FooEnumerator(); } static void Main() { foreach (int x in new Foo()) { Console.WriteLine(x); if (x >= 100) break; } foreach (int x in (dynamic)new Foo()) { // :) Console.WriteLine(x); if (x >= 100) break; } } } I've expected that iterating over the dynamic variable should work completely as if the type of collection variable is known at compile time. I've discovered that the second loop actually is looked like this when is compiled: foreach (object x in (IEnumerable) /* dynamic cast */ (object) new Foo()) { ... } and every access to the x variable results with the dynamic lookup/cast so C# ignores that I've specify the correct x's type in the foreach statement - that was a bit surprising for me... And also, C# compiler completely ignores that collection from dynamically typed variable may implements IEnumerable<T> interface! The full foreach statement behavior is described in the C# 4.0 specification 8.8.4 The foreach statement article. But... It's perfectly possible to implement the same behavior at runtime! It's possible to add an extra CSharpBinderFlags.ForEachCast flag, correct the emmited code to looks like: foreach (int x in (IEnumerable<int>) /* dynamic cast with the CSharpBinderFlags.ForEachCast flag */ (object) new Foo()) { ... } And add some extra logic to CSharpConvertBinder: Wrap IEnumerable collections and IEnumerator's to IEnumerable<T>/IEnumerator<T>. Wrap collections doesn't implementing Ienumerable<T>/IEnumerator<T> to implement this interfaces. So today foreach statement iterates over dynamic completely different from iterating over statically known collection variable and completely ignores the type information, specified by user. All that results with the different iteration behavior (IEnumarble<T>-implementing collections is being iterated as only IEnumerable-implementing) and more than 150x slowdown when iterating over dynamic. Simple fix will results a much better performance: foreach (int x in (IEnumerable<int>) dynamicVariable) { But why I should write code like this? It's very nicely to see that sometimes C# 4.0 dynamic works completely the same if the type will be known at compile-time, but it's very sadly to see that dynamic works completely different where IT CAN works the same as statically typed code. So my question is: why foreach over dynamic works different from foreach over anything else?

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  • Seeking for faster $.(':data(key)')

    - by PoltoS
    I'm writing an extension to jQuery that adds data to DOM elements using el.data('lalala', my_data); and then uses that data to upload elements dynamically. Each time I get new data from the server I need to update all elements having el.data('lalala') != null; To get all needed elements I use an extension by James Padolsey: $(':data(lalala)').each(...); Everything was great until I came to the situation where I need to run that code 50 times - it is very slow! It takes about 8 seconds to execute on my page with 3640 DOM elements var x, t = (new Date).getTime(); for (n=0; n < 50; n++) { jQuery(':data(lalala)').each(function() { x++; }); }; console.log(((new Date).getTime()-t)/1000); Since I don't need RegExp as parameter of :data selector I've tried to replace this by var x, t = (new Date).getTime(); for (n=0; n < 50; n++) { jQuery('*').each(function() { if ($(this).data('lalala')) x++; }); }; console.log(((new Date).getTime()-t)/1000); This code is faster (5 sec), but I want get more. Q Are there any faster way to get all elements with this data key? In fact, I can keep an array with all elements I need, since I execute .data('key') in my module. Checking 100 elements having the desired .data('lalala') is better then checking 3640 :) So the solution would be like for (i in elements) { el = elements[i]; .... But sometimes elements are removed from the page (using jQuery .remove()). Both solutions described above [$(':data(lalala)') solution and if ($(this).data('lalala'))] will skip removed items (as I need), while the solution with array will still point to removed element (in fact, the element would not be really deleted - it will only be deleted from the DOM tree - because my array will still have a reference). I found that .remove() also removes data from the node, so my solution will change into var toRemove = []; for (vari in elements) { var el = elements[i]; if ($(el).data('lalala')) .... else toRemove.push(i); }; for (var ii in toRemove) elements.splice(toRemove[ii], 1); // remove element from array This solution is 100 times faster! Q Will the garbage collector release memory taken by DOM elements when deleted from that array? Remember, elements have been referenced by DOM tree, we made a new reference in our array, then removed with .remove() and then removed from the array. Is there a better way to do this?

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  • [JavaScript-CSS-Firefox] Cannot change borderColor of TD

    - by Tadeus Prastowo
    Using JS to set the background color of a TD is fine. But, setting the border color is problematic in FF 3.0.18 although IE 6 doesn't experience this. FF is problematic in that it requires the TD element to have an attribute style initialized to border-style: solid. Without that, setting border color of a TD won't work. Is this known bug? How do I set the border color without having to set style attribute as well as the initialization value? I know another trick of setting the class attribute instead of setting the border color directly. Is this an indication that somehow TD hates having its border color set dynamically? Is this known as well? The problematic code is below (the goal is find out why setting the border color of simple truth 1 does not work while simple truth 3 works when I employ the trick described above): <html> <head> <title>Quirks FF 3.0.18</title> <style type="text/css"> table { border-collapse: collapse; } </style> <script type="text/javascript"> function changeBgColor() { document.getElementById('simple').style.backgroundColor='yellow'; document.getElementById('simple2').style.backgroundColor='yellow'; document.getElementById('simple3').style.backgroundColor='yellow'; } function quirk(id) { var x = document.getElementById(id); x.style.border = '2px solid red'; } </script> </head> <body> <input type="button" onclick="changeBgColor()" value="Change background color"/> <input type="button" onclick="quirk('simple')" value="Change border color 1"/> <input type="button" onclick="quirk('simple2')" value="Change border color 2"/> <input type="button" onclick="quirk('simple3')" value="Change border color 3"/> <table> <tr><td id="simple">Simple truth 1</td></tr> </table> <table> <tr><td><span id="simple2">Simple truth 2</span></td></tr> <table> <tr><td id="simple3" style="border-style: solid">Simple truth 3</td></tr> </table> </body> </html>

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  • jquery ui tabs close button beneath the text

    - by Pradyut Bhattacharya
    Hi I m using jquery ui tabs and i m using them with the function of dynamically closing them. the example page here where clicking on the link 'add tab' leads to adding of tabs in the tabs panel... now in firefox the close buttons are displayed beneath the text of the tab which is leading to garbled text in the tab panel or the body of the tabs like other browsers how can i display it in same line the css i m using is .ui-tabs { padding: .20em; zoom: 1; } .ui-tabs .ui-tabs-nav { list-style: none; position: relative; padding: .2em .2em 0; height:27px; } .ui-tabs .ui-tabs-nav li { position: relative; float: left; border-bottom-width: 0 !important; margin: 0 .2em -1px 0; padding: 0; font-size:63.5%; } .ui-tabs .ui-tabs-nav li a { float: left; text-decoration: none; padding: .5em 1em; } .ui-tabs .ui-tabs-nav li.ui-tabs-selected { padding-bottom: 1px; border-bottom-width: 0; } .ui-tabs .ui-tabs-nav li.ui-tabs-selected a, .ui-tabs .ui-tabs-nav li.ui-state-disabled a, .ui-tabs .ui-tabs-nav li.ui-state-processing a { cursor: text; } .ui-tabs .ui-tabs-nav li a, .ui-tabs.ui-tabs-collapsible .ui-tabs-nav li.ui-tabs-selected a { cursor: pointer; font: 62.5%; } .ui-tabs .ui-tabs-panel { padding: 1em 1.4em; display: block; border-width: 0; background:black; color:white; font-size: 12px; } .ui-tabs .ui-tabs-hide { display: none !important; font: 62.5%; } #tabs .ui-tabs-nav li a:hover { float: left; text-decoration: none; padding: .5em 1em; background-color: #868472; } #tabs-profile .ui-tabs-nav li { position: relative; float: left; border-bottom-width: 0 !important; margin: 0 .2em -1px 0; padding: 0; font-size:75%; } Please help thanks Pradyut India

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  • C++ How to deep copy a struct with unknown datatype?

    - by Ewald Peters
    hi, i have a "data provider" which stores its output in a struct of a certain type, for instance struct DATA_TYPE1{ std::string data_string; }; then this struct has to be casted into a general datatype, i thought about void * or char *, because the "intermediate" object that copies and stores it in its binary tree should be able to store many different types of such struct data. struct BINARY_TREE_ENTRY{ void * DATA; struct BINARY_TREE_ENTRY * next; }; this void * is then later taken by another object that casts the void * back into the (struct DATA_TYPE1 *) to get the original data. so the sender and the receiver know about the datatype DATA_TYPE1 but not the copying object inbetween. but how can the intermidiate object deep copy the contents of the different structs, when it doesn't know the datatype, only void * and it has no method to copy the real contents; dynamic_cast doesn't work for void *; the "intermediate" object should do something like: void store_data(void * CASTED_DATA_STRUCT){ void * DATA_COPY = create_a_deepcopy_of(CASTED_DATA_STRUCT); push_into_bintree(DATA_COPY); } a simple solution would be that the sending object doesn't delete the sent data struct, til the receiving object got it, but the sending objects are dynamically created and deleted, before the receiver got the data from the intermediate object, for asynchronous communication, therefore i want to copy it. instead of converting it to void * i also tried converting to a superclass pointer of which the intermediate copying object knows about, and which is inherited by all the different datatypes of the structs: struct DATA_BASE_OBJECT{ public: DATA_BASE_OBJECT(){} DATA_BASE_OBJECT(DATA_BASE_OBJECT * old_ptr){ std::cout << "this should be automatically overridden!" << std::endl; } virtual ~DATA_BASE_OBJECT(){} }; struct DATA_TYPE1 : public DATA_BASE_OBJECT { public: string str; DATA_TYPE1(){} ~DATA_TYPE1(){} DATA_TYPE1(DATA_TYPE1 * old_ptr){ str = old_ptr->str; } }; and the corresponding binary tree entry would then be: struct BINARY_TREE_ENTRY{ struct DATA_BASE_OBJECT * DATA; struct BINARY_TREE_ENTRY * next; }; and to then copy the unknown datatype, i tried in the class that just gets the unknown datatype as a struct DATA_BASE_OBJECT * (before it was the void *): void * copy_data(DATA_BASE_OBJECT * data_that_i_get_in_the_sub_struct){ struct DATA_BASE_OBJECT * copy_sub = new DATA_BASE_OBJECT(data_that_i_get_in_the_sub_struct); push_into_bintree(copy_sub); } i then added a copy constructor to the DATA_BASE_OBJECT, but if the struct DATA_TYPE1 is first casted to a DATA_BASE_OBJECT and then copied, the included sub object DATA_TYPE1 is not also copied. i then thought what about finding out the size of the actual object to copy and then just memcopy it, but the bytes are not stored in one row and how do i find out the real size in memory of the struct DATA_TYPE1 which holds a std::string? Which other c++ methods are available to deepcopy an unknown datatype (and to maybe get the datatype information somehow else during runtime) thanks Ewald

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  • TVirtualStringTree - resetting non-visual nodes and memory consumption

    - by Remy Lebeau - TeamB
    I have an app that loads records from a binary log file and displays them in a virtual TListView. There are potentially millions of records in a file, and the display can be filtered by the user, so I do not load all of the records in memory at one time, and the ListView item indexes are not a 1-to-1 relation with the file record offsets (List item 1 may be file record 100, for instance). I use the ListView's OnDataHint event to load records for just the items the ListView is actually interested in. As the user scrolls around, the range specified by OnDataHint changes, allowing me to free records that are not in the new range, and allocate new records as needed. This works fine, speed is tolerable, and the memory footprint is very low. I am currently evaluating TVirtualStringTree as a replacement for the TListView, mainly because I want to add the ability to expand/collapse records that span multiple lines (I can fudge it with the TListView by incrementing/decrementing the item count dynamically, but this is not as straight forward as using a real tree). For the most part, I have been able to port the TListView logic and have everything work as I need. I notice that TVirtualStringTree's virtual paradigm is vastly different, though. It does not have the same kind of OnDataHint functionality that TListView does (I can use the OnScroll event to fake it, which allows my memory buffer logic to continue working), and I can use the OnInitializeNode event to associate nodes with records that are allocated. However, once a tree node is initialized, it sees that it remains initialized for the lifetime of the tree. That is not good for me. As the user scrolls around and I remove records from memory, I need to reset those non-visual nodes without removing them from the tree completely, or losing their expand/collapse states. When the user scrolls them back into view, I can re-allocate the records and re-initialize the nodes. Basically, I want to make TVirtualStringTree act as much like TListView as possible, as far as its virtualization is concerned. I have seen that TVirtualStringTree has a ResetNode() method, but I encounter various errors whenever I try to use it. I must be using it wrong. I also thought of just storing a data pointer inside each node to my record buffers, and I allocate and free memory, update those pointers accordingly. The end effect does not work so well, either. Worse, my largest test log file has ~5 million records in it. If I initialize the TVirtualStringTree with that many nodes at one time (when the log display is unfiltered), the tree's internal overhead for its nodes takes up a whopping 260MB of memory (without any records being allocated yet). Whereas with the TListView, loading the same log file and all the memory logic behind it, I can get away with using just a few MBs. Any ideas?

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  • Filter Calendar view SharePoint WWS 3.0

    - by lerac
    Hi all, I have a SP site with a calendarview and would like to filter this on the basis of the current user. Don't be afraid I already figured out how do to this with a list customizing some excisting jScripts and working with Content Editor WebPart. Yet this jScript does not work in a Calendar. To paint a picture I have columns like: Judge1 Lawyer Clerk (example). Underneath these columns there are names ofcourse. However these are not shown in Calendar view, so it is hard to filter on something that is not displayed only the casenumbers. Now I've been thinking (not always wise) perhaps I can adjust the aspx page of calendar/list by adjusting a filter I applied in SharePoint. This would also solve the issue of displaying all the content before it filters with Java, since it should not be possible for users to see the entire listcontent (security). I went to Modify list view and created a filter where judge1 = Mr. J. Jenkins. Then I went to SharePoint Designer and opend the Calendar aspx page. To my expectation I found Mr. J. Jenkins with the following code: Since I can't display image because i'm new, not very handy discrimination I have to give you a url. Code can't be pasted either is completely messes it up even with codemode on. Hyperlink CODE IMAGE Keep in mind I just posted a very tiny part of the code (only the part I want to change). Now I have no idea what kind of code this is above this text (SP wss 3.0 uses for aspx pages), but I would like to change Mr. J. Jenkins into a jScript var/val. Since I already managed to get the current user that is logged in content. var user = jP.getUserProfile(); var userinfspvalue = user.Department; There is more code around that one 2 ofcourse, yet to give you a picture. The var userinfspvalue is what I would like to replace the text Mr. J. Jenkins into. This would mean the calendar would be dynamically filtered based upon the current user that is logged on. Have no idea what is possible, perhaps there is a better solution who knows... Do you know? Thank you so much ahead!

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  • "type not defined" exception with WF4 RC

    - by avi1234
    Hi, I`m gettin the following exception while invoking my workflow (dynamically): The following errors were encountered while processing the workflow tree: 'DynamicActivity': The private implementation of activity '1: DynamicActivity' has the following validation error: Compiler error(s) encountered processing expression "TryCast(simplerule_out,OutputBase2)". Type 'OutputBase2' is not defined. 'DynamicActivity': The private implementation of activity '1: DynamicActivity' has the following validation error: Compiler error(s) encountered processing expression "Res". Type 'OutputBase2' is not defined. 'DynamicActivity': The private implementation of activity '1: DynamicActivity' has the following validation error: Compiler error(s) encountered processing expression "Res". Type 'OutputBase2' is not defined. 'DynamicActivity': The private implementation of activity '1: DynamicActivity' has the following validation error: Compiler error(s) encountered processing expression "New List(Of OutputBase2)". Type 'OutputBase2' is not defined. The workflow is very simple and worked fine on VS 2010 beta 2! All I`m trying to do is to create new list of my abstract custom type "OutputBase2". public class OutputBase2 { public OutputBase2() { } public bool Succeeded { get; set; } } class Example { public void Exec() { ActivityBuilder builder = new ActivityBuilder(); builder.Name = "act1"; var res = new DynamicActivityProperty { Name = "Res", Type = typeof(OutArgument<List<OutputBase2>>), Value = new OutArgument<List<OutputBase2>>() }; builder.Properties.Add(res); builder.Implementation = new Sequence(); ((Sequence)builder.Implementation).Activities.Add(new Assign<List<OutputBase2>> { To = new VisualBasicReference<List<OutputBase2>> { ExpressionText = res.Name }, Value = new VisualBasicValue<List<OutputBase2>>("New List(Of OutputBase2)") }); Activity act = getActivity(builder); var res2 = WorkflowInvoker.Invoke(act); } string getXamlStringFromActivityBuilder(ActivityBuilder activityBuilder) { string xamlString; StringBuilder stringBuilder = new StringBuilder(); System.IO.StringWriter stringWriter = new System.IO.StringWriter(stringBuilder); System.Xaml.XamlSchemaContext xamlSchemaContext = new System.Xaml.XamlSchemaContext(); System.Xaml.XamlXmlWriter xamlXmlWriter = new System.Xaml.XamlXmlWriter(stringWriter, xamlSchemaContext); System.Xaml.XamlWriter xamlWriter = System.Activities.XamlIntegration.ActivityXamlServices.CreateBuilderWriter(xamlXmlWriter); System.Xaml.XamlServices.Save(xamlWriter, activityBuilder); xamlString = stringBuilder.ToString(); return xamlString; } public Activity getActivity(ActivityBuilder t) { string xamlString = getXamlStringFromActivityBuilder(t); System.IO.StringReader stringReader = new System.IO.StringReader(xamlString); Activity activity = System.Activities.XamlIntegration.ActivityXamlServices.Load(stringReader); return activity; } } Thanks!

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  • VBA - Access 03 - Iterating through a list box, with an if statement to evaluate

    - by Justin
    So I have a one list box with values like DeptA, DeptB, DeptC & DeptD. I have a method that causes these to automatically populate in this list box if they are applicable. So in other words, if they populate in this list box, I want the resulting logic to say they are "Yes" in a boolean field in the table. So to accomplish this I am trying to use this example of iteration to cycle through the list box first of all, and it works great: dim i as integer dim myval as string For i = o to me.lstResults.listcount - 1 myVal = lstResults.itemdata(i) Next i if i debug.print myval, i get the list of data items that i want from the list box. so now i am trying to evaluate that list so that I can have an UPDATE SQL statement to update the table as i need it to be done. so, i know this is a mistake, but this is what i tried to do (giving it as an example so that you can see what i am trying to get to here) dim sql as string dim i as integer dim myval as string dim db as database sql = "UPDATE tblMain SET " for i = 0 to me.lstResults.listcount - 1 myval = lstResults.itemdata(i) If MyVal = "DeptA" Then sql = sql & "DeptA = Yes" ElseIF myval = "DeptB" Then sql = sql & "DeptB = Yes" ElseIf MyVal = "DeptC" Then sql = sql & "DeptC = Yes" ElseIf MyVal = "DeptD" Then sql = sql & "DeptD = Yes" End If Next i debug.print (sql) sql = sql & ";" set db= currentdb db.execute(sql) msgbox "Good Luck!" So you can see why this is going to cause problems because the listbox that these values (DeptA, DeptB, etc) automatically populate in are dynamic....there is rarely one value in the listbox, and the list of values changes per OrderID (what the form I am using this on populates information for in the first place; unique instance). I am looking for something that will evaluate this list one at a time (i.e. iterate through the list of values, and look for "DeptA", and if it is found add yes to the SQL string, and if it not add no to the SQL string, then march on to the next iteration). Even though the listbox populates values dynamically, they are set values, meaning i know what could end up in it. Thanks for any help, Justin

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  • How to check if a checkbox in a checkbox array is checked with jquery

    - by eddy
    Hello everyone. I have a html table with a column of text boxes (mileage), all of them are disabled when the page loads, and I need that when user clicks on a check box, the text box for that column should be enabled and become a required field, and then if the user unchecks the checkbox, the textbox on that row must be disabled and the required class removed. I already have the function to enable and disable the text boxes (column mileage) when the user clicks on the corresponding checkbox, but it is written in javascript.However, for some reason it only works in IE). Here is the html code <tbody> <c:forEach items="${list}" var="item"> <tr> <td align="center"> <input type="checkbox" name="selectItems" value="<c:out value="${item.numberPlate}"/>" onchange="enableTextField(this)" /> </td> <td align="left"><c:out value="${item.numberPlate}"/></td> <td align="left"><c:out value="${item.driver.fullName}"/></td> <td align="left"><input type="text" name="mileage_<c:out value="${item.numberPlate}"/>" value="" disabled="true"/></td> </tr> </c:forEach> </tbody> And the javascript code: function enableTextField(r) { var node = r.parentNode; while( node && node.tagName !== 'TR' ) { node = node.parentNode; } var i=node.rowIndex; if(document.form1.selectItems[i-1].checked) { document.getElementById('mileage_' + document.form1.selectItems[i-1].value).disabled=false; } else { document.getElementById('mileage_' + document.form1.selectItems[i-1].value).value=""; document.getElementById('mileage_' + document.form1.selectItems[i-1].value).disabled=true; } } Now, I know that in order to add or remove dynamically validation rules I have to use: addClass('required'); o removeClass('required') ,but I don't know how to detect whether a check box is selected or not, and based on that ,enable or disable the text box for that row. I really hope you can help me out with this.

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  • Client-side templating frameworks to streamline using jQuery with REST/JSON

    - by Tauren
    I'm starting to migrate some html generation tasks from a server-side framework to the client. I'm using jQuery on the client. My goal is to get JSON data via a REST api and use this data to populate HTML into the page. Right now, when a user on my site clicks a link to My Projects, the server generates HTML like this: <dl> <dt>Clean Toilet</dt> <dd>Get off your butt and clean this filth!</dd> <dt>Clean Car</dt> <dd>I think there's something growing in there...</dd> <dt>Replace Puked on Baby Sheets</dt> </dl> I'm changing this so that clicking My Projects will now do a GET request that returns something like this: [ { "name":"Clean Car", "description":"I think there's something growing in there..." }, { "name":"Clean Toilets", "description":"Get off your butt and clean this filth!" }, { "name":"Replace Puked on Baby Sheets" } ] I can certainly write custom jQuery code to take that JSON and generate the HTML from it. This is not my question, and I don't need advice on how to do that. What I'd like to do is completely separate the presentation and layout from the logic (jquery code). I don't want to be creating DL, DT, and DD elements via jQuery code. I'd rather use some sort of HTML templates that I can fill the data in to. These templates could simply be HTML snippets that are hidden in the page that the application was loaded from. Or they could be dynamically loaded from the server (to support user specific layouts, i18n, etc.). They could be displayed a single time, as well as allow looping and repeating. Perhaps it should support sub-templates, if/then/else, and so forth. I have LOTS of lists and content on my site that are presented in many different ways. I'm looking to create a simple and consistent way to generate and display content without creating custom jQuery code for every different feature on my site. To me, this means I need to find or build a small framework on top of jQuery (probably as a plugin) that meets these requirements. The only sort of framework that I've found that is anything like this is jTemplates. I don't know how good it is, as I haven't used it yet. At first glance, I'm not thrilled by it's template syntax. Anyone know of other frameworks or plugins that I should look into? Any blog posts or other resources out there that discuss doing this sort of thing? I just want to make sure that I've surveyed everything out there before building it myself. Thanks!

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