Search Results

Search found 4708 results on 189 pages for '2005'.

Page 163/189 | < Previous Page | 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170  | Next Page >

  • Help to understand the issue with protected method

    - by zeroed
    I'm reading Sybex Complete Java 2 Certification Study Guide April 2005 (ISBN0782144195). This book is for java developers who wants to pass java certification. After a chapter about access modifiers (along with other modifiers) I found the following question (#17): True or false: If class Y extends class X, the two classes are in different packages, and class X has a protected method called abby(), then any instance of Y may call the abby() method of any other instance of Y. This question confused me a little. As far as I know you can call protected method on any variable of the same class (or subclasses). You cannot call it on variables, that higher in the hierarchy than you (e.g. interfaces that you implement). For example, you cannot clone any object just because you inherit it. But the questions says nothing about variable type, only about instance type. I was confused a little and answered "true". The answer in the book is False. An object that inherits a protected method from a superclass in a different package may call that method on itself but not on other instances of the same class. There is nothing here about variable type, only about instance type. This is very strange, I do not understand it. Can anybody explain what is going on here?

    Read the article

  • Refactoring ADO.NET - SqlTransaction vs. TransactionScope

    - by marc_s
    I have "inherited" a little C# method that creates an ADO.NET SqlCommand object and loops over a list of items to be saved to the database (SQL Server 2005). Right now, the traditional SqlConnection/SqlCommand approach is used, and to make sure everything works, the two steps (delete old entries, then insert new ones) are wrapped into an ADO.NET SqlTransaction. using (SqlConnection _con = new SqlConnection(_connectionString)) { using (SqlTransaction _tran = _con.BeginTransaction()) { try { SqlCommand _deleteOld = new SqlCommand(......., _con); _deleteOld.Transaction = _tran; _deleteOld.Parameters.AddWithValue("@ID", 5); _con.Open(); _deleteOld.ExecuteNonQuery(); SqlCommand _insertCmd = new SqlCommand(......, _con); _insertCmd.Transaction = _tran; // add parameters to _insertCmd foreach (Item item in listOfItem) { _insertCmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); } _tran.Commit(); _con.Close(); } catch (Exception ex) { // log exception _tran.Rollback(); throw; } } } Now, I've been reading a lot about the .NET TransactionScope class lately, and I was wondering, what's the preferred approach here? Would I gain anything (readibility, speed, reliability) by switching to using using (TransactionScope _scope = new TransactionScope()) { using (SqlConnection _con = new SqlConnection(_connectionString)) { .... } _scope.Complete(); } What you would prefer, and why? Marc

    Read the article

  • How to parse xml in sql server to process NULL value in DateTime DataType.

    - by Shantanu Gupta
    I have created a sample query in sql server to parse data from xml and to display it right now. Although I will be inserting this data in my table but before that I am facing a simple problem. I want to insert NULL in datetime field ADDED_DATE="NULL" as shown in xml given below. But when I executes this query. It gives me error Conversion failed when converting datetime from character string. What mistake am i doing. Please highlight my mistake. declare @xml varchar(1000) set @xml= ' <ROOT> <TX_MAP FK_GUEST_ID="1" FK_CATEGORY_ID="2" ATTRIBUTE="Test" DESCRIPTION="TestDesc" IS_ACTIVE="1" ADDED_BY="NULL" ADDED_DATE="NULL" MODIFIED_BY="NULL" MODIFIED_DATE="NULL"></TX_MAP> <TX_MAP FK_GUEST_ID="2" FK_CATEGORY_ID="1" ATTRIBUTE="Test2" DESCRIPTION="TestDesc2" IS_ACTIVE="1" ADDED_BY="NULL" ADDED_DATE="NULL" MODIFIED_BY="NULL" MODIFIED_DATE="NULL"></TX_MAP> </ROOT> ' declare @handle int exec sp_xml_preparedocument @handle output, @xml select * from OPENXML(@handle,'/ROOT/TX_MAP',1) with ( FK_GUEST_ID INT ,FK_CATEGORY_ID VARCHAR(10) ,ATTRIBUTE VARCHAR(100) ,[DESCRIPTION] VARCHAR(100) ,IS_ACTIVE VARCHAR(10) ,ADDED_BY VARCHAR(100) ,ADDED_DATE DATETIME NULL ,MODIFIED_BY VARCHAR(100) ,MODIFIED_DATE DATETIME NULL ) I am using Sql Server 2005.

    Read the article

  • NHibernate with Framework .NET Framework 2

    - by Daniel Dolz
    Hi. I can not make NHibernate 2.1 work in machines without framework 3.X (basically, windows 2000 SP4, although it happens with XP too). NHibernate doc do no mention this. Maybe you can help? I NEED to make NHibernate 2.1 work in Windows 2000 PCs, so you think this can be done? Thanks! PD: DataBase is SQL 2000/2005. Error is: NHibernate.MappingException: Could not compile the mapping document: Datos.NH_VEN_ComprobanteBF.hbm.xml ---> NHibernate.HibernateException: Could not instantiate dialect class NHibernate.Dialect.MsSql2000Dialect ---> System.Reflection.TargetInvocationException: Se produjo una excepción en el destino de la invocación. ---> System.TypeInitializationException: Se produjo una excepción en el inicializador de tipo de 'NHibernate.NHibernateUtil'. ---> System.TypeLoadException: No se puede cargar el tipo 'System.DateTimeOffset' del ensamblado'mscorlib, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089'. en NHibernate.Type.DateTimeOffsetType.get_ReturnedClass() en NHibernate.NHibernateUtil..cctor() --- Fin del seguimiento de la pila de la excepción interna --- en NHibernate.Dialect.Dialect..ctor() en NHibernate.Dialect.MsSql2000Dialect..ctor() --- Fin del seguimiento de la pila de la excepción interna --- en System.RuntimeTypeHandle.CreateInstance(RuntimeType type, Boolean publicOnly, Boolean noCheck, Boolean& canBeCached, RuntimeMethodHandle& ctor, Boolean& bNeedSecurityCheck) en System.RuntimeType.CreateInstanceSlow(Boolean publicOnly, Boolean fillCache) en System.RuntimeType.CreateInstanceImpl(Boolean publicOnly, Boolean skipVisibilityChecks, Boolean fillCache) en System.Activator.CreateInstance(Type type, Boolean nonPublic) en NHibernate.Bytecode.ActivatorObjectsFactory.CreateInstance(Type type) en NHibernate.Dialect.Dialect.InstantiateDialect(String dialectName) --- Fin del seguimiento de la pila de la excepción interna --- en NHibernate.Dialect.Dialect.InstantiateDialect(String dialectName) en NHibernate.Dialect.Dialect.GetDialect(IDictionary`2 props) en NHibernate.Cfg.Configuration.AddValidatedDocument(NamedXmlDocument doc) --- Fin del seguimiento de la pila de la excepción interna --- en NHibernate.Cfg.Configuration.LogAndThrow(Exception exception) en NHibernate.Cfg.Configuration.AddValidatedDocument(NamedXmlDocument doc) en NHibernate.Cfg.Configuration.ProcessMappingsQueue() and continues...

    Read the article

  • qt on Win CE 5.0 crash

    - by Michael
    Good day all, It's the first time I am using Qt on Windows CE and I ran into an issue. Maybe someone can help me with it. I will describe my set up. I am using XP with Visual Studio 2005 an Qt Add-in version 1.1.2. I downloaded Qt source for Windows CE and followed the instructions on these (http://doc.trolltech.com/4.4/install-wince.html) instructions to build the library for CE. I then used the Visual Studio to create a minimal Qt Windows CE Application. The program runs fine in the CE emulator, but once I try to deploy it on the device it crashes with the following message: Load module: qt_ce_3.exe Load module: QtGui4.dll Load module: msvcr80.dll Load module: QtCore4.dll Load module: CEShell.DLL Load module: OLEAUT32.dll Load module: commctrl.dll.0409.MUI Load module: commctrl.dll Load module: aygshell.dll Load module: WS2.dll Load module: WINSOCK.dll Load module: coredll.dll.0409.MUI Load module: ossvcs.dll Load module: ole32.dll Load module: coredll.dll Load module: MMTimer.dll Data Abort: Thread=8fb09a40 Proc=8c4ecea0 'qt_ce_3.exe' AKY=00040001 PC=012a80b0(qtcore4.dll+0x000680b0) RA=012a8168(qtcore4.dll+0x00068168) BVA=676e4574 FSR=000000f5 Unhandled exception at 0x012a80b0 in qt_ce_3.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0x676e4574. I tried it on two devices from different manufacturers, and the result is the same. Debug version worked on one of them, ran out of memory on the other. Does anyone have any idea what this could be? Thanks in advance, Michael

    Read the article

  • In Seam what's the difference between injected EntityManager and getEntityManager from EntityHome

    - by Navi
    I am testing a Seam application using the needle test API. In my code I am using the getEntityManager() method from EntityHome. When I run the unit tests against an in memory database I get the following exception: java.lang.IllegalStateException: No application context active at org.jboss.seam.Component.forName(Component.java:1945) at org.jboss.seam.Component.getInstance(Component.java:2005) at org.jboss.seam.Component.getInstance(Component.java:1983) at org.jboss.seam.Component.getInstance(Component.java:1977) at org.jboss.seam.Component.getInstance(Component.java:1972) at org.jboss.seam.framework.Controller.getComponentInstance(Controller.java:272) at org.jboss.seam.framework.PersistenceController.getPersistenceContext(PersistenceController.java:20) at org.jboss.seam.framework.EntityHome.getEntityManager(EntityHome.java:177) etc .. I can resolve some of these errors by injecting the EntityManager with @In EntityManager entityManager; Unfortunately the persist method of EntityHome also calls the getEntityManager. This means a lot of mocks or rewriting the code somehow. Is there any workaround and why is this exception thrown anyway? I am using Seam 2.2.0 GA by the way. There is nothing special about the components. They are generated by seam-gen. The test is performed with in memory database - I followed the examples in http://jbosscc-needle.sourceforge.net/jbosscc-needle/1.0/db-util.html.

    Read the article

  • Full text index requires dropping and recreating - why?

    - by Amjid Qureshi
    Hi all, So I've got a web app running on .net 3.5 connected to a SQL 2005 box. We do scheduled releases every 2 weeks. About 14 tables out of 250 are full text indexed. After not every release, but a few too many, the indexes crap out. They seem to have data in there, but when we try to search them from the front end or SQL enterprise we get timeouts/hangs. We have a script that disables the indexes, drops them, deletes the catalog and then re creates the indexes. This fixes the problem 99 times out of 100. and the one other time, we run the script again and it all works We have tried just rebuilding the fulltext index but that doesn't fix the issue. My question is why do we have to do this ? what can we do to sort the index out? Here is a bit of the script, IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM sys.fulltext_indexes fti WHERE fti.object_id = OBJECT_ID(N'[dbo].[Address]')) ALTER FULLTEXT INDEX ON [dbo].[Address] DISABLE GO IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM sys.fulltext_indexes fti WHERE fti.object_id = OBJECT_ID(N'[dbo].[Address]')) DROP FULLTEXT INDEX ON [dbo].[Address] GO IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM sysfulltextcatalogs ftc WHERE ftc.name = N'DbName.FullTextCatalog') DROP FULLTEXT CATALOG [DbName.FullTextCatalog] GO -- may need this line if we get an error BACKUP LOG SMS2 WITH TRUNCATE_ONLY CREATE FULLTEXT CATALOG [DbName.FullTextCatalog] ON FILEGROUP [FullTextCatalogs] IN PATH N'F:\Data' AS DEFAULT AUTHORIZATION [dbo] CREATE FULLTEXT INDEX ON [Address](CommonPlace LANGUAGE 'ENGLISH') KEY INDEX PK_Address ON [DbName.FullTextCatalog] WITH CHANGE_TRACKING AUTO go

    Read the article

  • cl.exe Difference in object files when /E output is the same and flags are the same

    - by madiyaan damha
    Hello: I am using Visual Studio 2005's cl.exe compiler. I call it with a bunch of /I /D and some compilation/optimization flags (example: /Ehsc). I have two compilation scripts, and both differ only in the /I flags (include directories are different). All other flags are the same. These scripts produce different object files (and not just a timestamp difference as noted below). The strange thing is that the /E output of both scripts is the same. That means that the include files are not causing the difference in object files, but then again, where is the difference coming from? Can anyone elucidate on how I am seeing two different object files in my situation. If the include files are causing the difference, how come I see identical /E output? PS. The object files are different not only in the timestamp, but in the code sections also. In fact the behavior of my final executable is different in both cases. Edit: PSS: I even looked at the /includeFiles output of cl.exe and that output is identical. The object files, however, differ in more than just the timestamp (in fact, one is 1KB bigger than another!)

    Read the article

  • text-overflow:ellipsis in Firefox 4?

    - by Spudley
    The text-overflow:ellipsis; CSS property must be one of the few things that Microsoft has done right for the web. All the other browsers now support it... except Firefox. The Firefox developers have been arguing over it since 2005 but despite the obvious demand for it, they can't seem to actually bring themselves to implement it (even an experimental -moz- implementation would be sufficient). A few years ago, someone worked out a way to hack Firefox 3 to make it support an ellipsis. The hack uses the -moz-binding feature to implement it using XUL. Quite a number of sites are now using this hack. The bad news? Firefox 4 is removing the -moz-binding feature, which means this hack won't work any more. So as soon as Firefox 4 is released (later this month, I hear), we're going to be back to the problem of having it not being able to support this feature. So my question is: Is there any other way around this? (I'm trying to avoid falling back to a Javascript solution if at all possible) [EDIT] Lots of up-votes, so I'm obviously not the only one who wants to know, but I've got one answer so far which basically says 'use javascript'. I'm still hoping for a solution that will either not need JS at all, or at worst only use it as a fall-back where the CSS feature doesn't work. So I'm going to post a bounty on the question, on the off chance that someone, somewhere has found an answer.

    Read the article

  • Why is my multithreaded Java program not maxing out all my cores on my machine?

    - by James B
    Hi, I have a program that starts up and creates an in-memory data model and then creates a (command-line-specified) number of threads to run several string checking algorithms against an input set and that data model. The work is divided amongst the threads along the input set of strings, and then each thread iterates the same in-memory data model instance (which is never updated again, so there are no synchronization issues). I'm running this on a Windows 2003 64-bit server with 2 quadcore processors, and from looking at Windows task Manager they aren't being maxed-out, (nor are they looking like they are being particularly taxed) when I run with 10 threads. Is this normal behaviour? It appears that 7 threads all complete a similar amount of work in a similar amount of time, so would you recommend running with 7 threads instead? Should I run it with more threads?...Although I assume this could be detrimental as the JVM will do more context switching between the threads. Alternatively, should I run it with fewer threads? Alternatively, what would be the best tool I could use to measure this?...Would a profiling tool help me out here - indeed, is one of the several profilers better at detecting bottlenecks (assuming I have one here) than the rest? Note, the server is also running SQL Server 2005 (this may or may not be relevant), but nothing much is happening on that database when I am running my program. Note also, the threads are only doing string matching, they aren't doing any I/O or database work or anything else they may need to wait on. Thanks in advance, -James

    Read the article

  • Doing large updates against indexed view

    - by user217136
    We have an indexed view that runs across three large tables. Two of these tables (A & B) are constantly getting updated with user transactions and the other table (C) contains data product info that is needs to be updated once a week. This product table contains over 6 million records. We need this view across these three tables for our core business process and unfortunately we cannot change this aspect. We even had a sql server MVP come in to help test under load to make sure we have the most efficient configuration. There is one column in the product table that gets utilized in the view and has to be updated each week. The problem we are now encountering is that as volume is increasing on our transactions against tables A & B, the update to Table C is causing deadlocks. I have tried several different methods to no avail: 1) I was hoping that we could change the view so that table C could be a dirty read "WITH (NOLOCK)" but apparently that functionality is not available with indexes views. 2) I thought about updating a new column in Table C and then just renaming it when the process is done but you cannot do that due to the dependency in the view. 3) I also entertained the idea of writing this value to a temporary product table, and then running an ALTER statement against the view to have it point to my new table. however when i did that the indexes on my view were dropped and it took quite a bit of time to recreate them. 4) we tried to do the weekly update in small chunks (as small as 100 records at a time) but we still run into dead locks. questions: a) we are using sql server 2005. Does sql server 2008 have a new functionality with their indexed views that would help us? Is there now a way to do dirty reads w/ an indexed view? b) a better approach to altering an existing view to point to a new table? thanks!

    Read the article

  • Always get exception when trying to Fill data to DataTable

    - by Sambath
    The code below is just a test to connect to an Oracle database and fill data to a DataTable. After executing the statement da.Fill(dt);, I always get the exception "Exception of type 'System.OutOfMemoryException' was thrown.". Has anyone met this kind of error? My project is running on VS 2005, and my Oracle database version is 11g. My computer is using Windows Vista. If I copy this code to run on Windows XP, it works fine. Thank you. using System.Data; using Oracle.DataAccess.Client; ... string cnString = "data source=net_service_name; user id=username; password=xxx;"; OracleDataAdapter da = new OracleDataAdapter("select 1 from dual", cnString); try { DataTable dt = new DataTable(); da.Fill(dt); // Got error here Console.Write(dt.Rows.Count.ToString()); } catch (Exception e) { Console.Write(e.Message); // Exception of type 'System.OutOfMemoryException' was thrown. } Update I have no idea what happens to my computer. I just reinstall Oracle 11g, and then my code works normally.

    Read the article

  • SQL Server: Is it possible to prevent SQL Agent from failing a step on error?

    - by Kenneth
    I have a stored procedure that runs custom backups for around 60 SQL servers (mixes 2000 through 2008R2). Occasionally, due to issues outside of my control (backup device inaccessible, network error, etc.) an individual backup on one or two databases will fail. This causes this entire step to fail, which means any subsequent backup commands are not executed and half of the databases on a given server may not be backed up. On the 2005+ boxes I am using TRY/CATCH blocks to manage these problems and continue backing up the remaining databases. On a 2000 server however, for example, I have no way to prevent this error from failing the entire step: Msg 3201, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Cannot open backup device 'db-diff(\PATH\DB-DIFF-03-16-2010.DIF)'. Operating system error 5(Access is denied.). Msg 3013, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 BACKUP DATABASE is terminating abnormally. I am simply asking if anything like TRY/CATCH is possible in SQL 2000? I realize there are no built in methods for this, so I guess I am looking for some creativity. Even when wrapping each backup (or any failing statement) via sp_executesql the job fails instantly. Example: DECLARE @x INT, @iReturn INT PRINT 'Executing statement that will fail with 208.' EXEC @iReturn = Sp_executesql N'SELECT * from TABLETHATDOESNTEXIST;' PRINT Cast(@iReturn AS NVARCHAR) --In SSMS this return code prints. Executed as a job it fails and aborts before this statement.

    Read the article

  • Firebird Data Access Designer (DDEX) installation

    - by persian Dev
    hi i want to use firebird library , and i followed its instruction as below , but i get "The referenced component 'FirebirdSql.Data.Firebird' could not be found." error. instruction : Prerequisites Make sure that you have Visual Studio .NET 2005 Standard or higher edition. Express editions are not supported. Registry update Remember to update the path in FirebirdDDEXProviderPackageLess32.reg or FirebirdDDEXProviderPackageLess64.reg, places where to update it are marked %Path%. Install the .reg file into the registry. Machine.config update Add the following two sections to machine.config (located usually at C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\CONFIG\machine.config and C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework64\v2.0.50727\CONFIG\machine.config on 64-bit system). <configuration> ... <configSections> ... <section name="firebirdsql.data.firebirdclient" type="System.Data.Common.DbProviderConfigurationHandler, System.Data, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089" /> ... </configSections> ... <system.data> <DbProviderFactories> ... <add name="FirebirdClient Data Provider" invariant="FirebirdSql.Data.FirebirdClient" description=".Net Framework Data Provider for Firebird" type="FirebirdSql.Data.FirebirdClient.FirebirdClientFactory, FirebirdSql.Data.FirebirdClient, Version=%Version%, Culture=%Culture%, PublicKeyToken=%PublicKeyToken%" /> ... </DbProviderFactories> </system.data> ... </configuration> And subst: %Version% With the version of the provider assembly that you have in the GAC. %Culture% With the culture of the provider assembly that you have in the GAC. %PublicKeyToken% With the PublicKeyToken of the provider assembly that you have in the GAC.

    Read the article

  • Updating a Foreign Key constraint with ON DELETE CASCADE not updating?

    - by Alastair Pitts
    We've realised in our SQL Server 2005 DB that some Foreign Keys don't have the On Delete Cascade property set, which is giving us a couple of referential errors when we try and delete some records. Use the Management Studio I scripted the DROP and CREATESQL's, but it seems that the CREATE isn't working correctly. The DROP: USE [FootprintReports] GO IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM sys.foreign_keys WHERE object_id = OBJECT_ID(N'[dbo].[FK__SUBSCRIPTIONS_Reports]') AND parent_object_id = OBJECT_ID(N'[dbo].[_SUBSCRIPTIONS]')) ALTER TABLE [dbo].[_SUBSCRIPTIONS] DROP CONSTRAINT [FK__SUBSCRIPTIONS_Reports] and the CREATE USE [FootprintReports] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[_SUBSCRIPTIONS] WITH CHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK__SUBSCRIPTIONS_Reports] FOREIGN KEY([PARAMETER_ReportID]) REFERENCES [dbo].[Reports] ([ID]) ON DELETE CASCADE GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[_SUBSCRIPTIONS] CHECK CONSTRAINT [FK__SUBSCRIPTIONS_Reports] If I manually change the value of the On Delete in the GUI, after dropping and recreating, the On Delete isn't correctly updated. As a test, I set the Delete rule in the GUI to Set Null. It dropped correctly, and recreated without error. If I got back into the GUI, it is still showing the Set Null as the Delete Rule. Have I done something wrong? or is there another way to edit a constraint to add the ON DELETE CASCADE rule?

    Read the article

  • How Can I Find Out *HOW* My Site Was Hacked? How Do I Find Site Vulnerabilities?

    - by Imageree
    One of my custom developed ASP.NET sites was hacked today: "Hacked By Swan (Please Stop Wars !.. )" It is using ASP.NET and SQL Server 2005 and IIS 6.0 and Windows 2003 server. I am not using Ajax and I think I am using stored procedures everywhere I am connecting to the database so I dont think it is SQL injection. I have now removed the write permission on the folders. How can I find out what they did to hack the site and what to do to prevent it from happening again? The server is up to date with all Windows updates. What they have done is uploading 6 files (index.asp, index.html, index.htm,...) to the main directory for the website. What log files should I upload? I have log files for IIS from this folder: c:\winnt\system32\LogFiles\W3SVC1. I am willing to show it to some of you but don't think it is good to post on the Internet. Anyone willing to take a look at it? I have already searched on Google but the only thing I find there are other sites that have been hacked - I haven't been able to see any discussion about it. I know this is not strictly related to programming but this is still an important thing for programmers and a lot of programmers have been hacked like this.

    Read the article

  • Problems referencing build output from TFS Build and Visual Studio

    - by pmdarrow
    Here's what I'm trying to do: I have two solutions - one for my main application and its associated projects and another for my database (VS .dbproj) and its associated projects. What I'd like to do is include the output from the database project (a .dbschema and some SQL scripts) in my WiX installer (which exists in the main application solution.) This involves having TFS build the DB solution immediately before the main application solution. I've got that part working properly, but I'm having trouble referencing the output of the DB solution from my installer. I'm using relative paths to reference the DB project output in my WiX installer (e.g. <?define DBProjectOutputDir = "..\..\MyDatabaseSolution\MyDatabaseProject\sql\"?>) which works fine locally, but fails when building via TFS build. This is because TFS Build apparently changes the output dir of each project to one common location. Instead of the path to my database project being ..\..\MyDatabaseSolution\MyDatabaseProject\sql\ like it is when building locally, it gets set to something like ..\..\..\Binaries\Release\. How can I get around this and have a consistent output location to reference from my installer project? I'm using TFS 2005 and VS 2008.

    Read the article

  • Require help in Writing Query

    - by harigm
    The following image have been uploaded to show what I am trying to do and what I wanted out of it Can any one help me write the Query to get the results what I want Please check the following SELECT * FROM KPT WHERE PROPERTY_ID IN (SELECT PROPERTY_ID FROM khata_header WHERE DIV_ID = 3 and RECORD_STATUS = 0) and CHALLAN_NO > 42646 The above is the query I have written and I have got the following result set ID CHALLAN_NO PROPERTY_ID SITE_NO TOTAL_AMOUNT ----- ------------- -------------- ------------------- --------------- 1242 42757 3103010141 296 595 1243 63743 3204190257 483 594 1244 63743 3204190257 483 594 1334 43395 3217010223 1088 576 1421 524210 3320050416 (null) (null) 1422 524210 3320050416 (null) (null) 1560 564355 3320021408 (null) (null) 1870 516292 3320040420 (null) (null) 1940 68357 3217100104 139 1153 1941 68357 3217100104 139 1153 2002 56256 3320100733 511 4430 2003 56256 3320100733 511 4430 2004 66488 3217040869 293 3094 2005 66488 3217040869 293 3094 2016 64571 3217040374 (null) (null) 2036 523122 3320020352 (null) (null) 2039 65682 3217040021 273 919 In my resultset, I am getting the PropertyId repeated, since there are multilple entries, How Can I know How many have been repeated What are those Property Id which have repeated more than 2 times. Little Back ground about the tables are PROPERTY_ID is the FK in the KPT PROPERTY_ID is the PK in KH I am writing a subquery to get the Result, so I am stuck I dont know how to get my results Please help

    Read the article

  • What is the difference between cubes and the Unified Dimensional Model (if any)?

    - by ngm
    I'm currently researching SQL Server 2008 as a business intelligence solution, and currently looking at Analysis Services (and I'm pretty new to business intelligence as a whole...) I'm a bit confused by some of the terms in SSAS, particularly the conceptual differences between cubes and MS's Unified Dimensional Model. I believe that a cube in SSAS is basically an OLAP cube -- dimensions, measures, something that sits between the underlying data source and a business user. But then that's kind of what I understand UDM to be as well. The docs for SQL Server 2005 seem to suggest as much: "A cube is essentially synonymous with a Unified Dimensional Model (UDM)". But then the SQL Server 2008 pages sort of suggest that UDM is a wrapper for both multidimensional data (cubes) and relational data: "Use the Unified Dimensional Model to provide one consolidated business view for relational and multidimensional data that includes business entities, business logic, calculations, and metrics." This blog post suggests similarly: "UDM provides a single dimensional model for all OLAP analysis and relational reporting needs. So you can use either MDX or SQL" Is UDM something that sits above cubes? Or are they the same thing? I presume I would develop cubes with the Cube Designer application; what would I develop a UDM with?

    Read the article

  • how can i insert a new sitemap with google gdata api? it returns 400 bad request

    - by wingoo
    i try to insert a new sitemap to google using api, but i can't do it successful-_- this is the method var fullDomainUrl = "http://www.example.com/"; var entry = new SitemapsEntry(); entry.Id = new AtomId(fullDomainUrl + "sitemap.xml"); entry.Categories.Add(new AtomCategory("http://schemas.google.com/webmasters/tools/2007#site-info", new AtomUri("http://schemas.google.com/g/2005#kind"))); entry.SitemapType = "WEB"; myService.Insert(new Uri(string.Format("https://www.google.com/webmasters/tools/feeds/{0}/sitemaps/", HttpUtility.UrlEncode(fullDomainUrl))), entry); this will retuen a 400 bad requestand i try another method var settings = new RequestSettings("TesterApp1", domain.GoogleAuthToken, CommonService.GetRsaPrivateKey(Context)); var request = new WebmasterToolsRequest(settings); var sitemap = new Sitemap(); sitemap.Id = fullDomainUrl + "sitemap.xml"; sitemap.Categories.Add(new AtomCategory("http://schemas.google.com/webmasters/tools/2007#site-info", new AtomUri("http://schemas.google.com/g/2005#kind"))); sitemap.SitemapType = "WEB"; //request.AddSitemap(fullDomainUrl, sitemap); request.Insert(new Uri(string.Format("https://www.google.com/webmasters/tools/feeds/{0}/sitemaps/", HttpUtility.UrlEncode(fullDomainUrl))), sitemap); this also return a 400 bad request and then i try to use HttpWebRequest to post the atom to google,but it also return a 400 bad request(???") i can insert/update site successful,but can;t insert a new sitemap.. does any can give a right code with .net?

    Read the article

  • Combining data sets without losing observations in SAS

    - by John
    Hye guys, I know, another post another problem :D :(. I took a screenshot to easily explain my problem. http://i39.tinypic.com/rhms0h.jpg As you can see I want to merge two tables (again), the Base & Analyst table. What I want to achieve is displayed in the right bottom corner table. I’m calculating the number of total analysts and female analysts for each month in the analyst table. In the base table I have different observations for one company (here company Alcoa with ticker AA). When I use the following command: data want; merge base analyst; by month ; run; I get the right up corner problem. My observations in the main table are being narrowed down to only 4 observations (for each different year one observation, 2001, 2002, 2005, 2006). What I want is that the observations are not reduced but that for every year the same data is being placed as shown in the right bottom corner. What am I missing in my merge command? In both tables I have month as a time count variable ( the observations in my base table are monthly) on which I need to merge. For clarity I added 2 screenshots of my real databases in SAS. The base table: http://i42.tinypic.com/dr5jky.jpg The analyst table: http://i40.tinypic.com/eqpmqq.jpg Here is what my merged table looks like: http://i43.tinypic.com/116i62s.jpg You can clearly see that the merged table only has four observations left for AA (one for each unique year) instead of the original 8. Anyone an idea to solve this?

    Read the article

  • Regex issue with comma's telling me there are 6 args, instead of intended 4

    - by Azher
    I have a scenario outline table that looks like the following: Scenario Outline: Verify Full ad details Given I am on the xxx classified home page And I have entered <headline> in the search field & clicked on search When I click on full details Then I should see <headline> <year> <mileage> <price> displaying correctly and successfully Examples: |headline |year |mileage |price | |alfa romeo 166 |2005 |73,000 |6,990 | When I run my scenario it spits out that I have 6 args. But what I thought, I should only have 4 args: headline, year, mileage and price. I am thinking that it is taking the comma's and what is before and after it as two seperate args. Is there any way that I can make cucumber think that there are only 4 args with the example below? I have looked at messing around with regex but I dont seem to be getting anywhere. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • SubSonic 3.0 Simple Repository Adding a DateTime Property To An Object

    - by Blounty
    I am trying out SubSonic to see if it is viable to use on production projects. I seem to have stumbled upon an issue whith regards to updating the database with default values (String and DateTime) when a new column is created. If a new property of DateTime or String is added to an object. public class Bug { public int BugId { get; set; } public string Title { get; set; } public string Overview { get; set; } public DateTime TrackedDate { get; set; } public DateTime RemovedDate { get; set; } } When the code to add that type of object to the database is run var repository = new SimpleRepository(SimpleRepositoryOptions.RunMigrations); repository.Add(new Bug() { Title = "A Bug", Overview = "An Overview", TrackedDate = DateTime.Now }); it creates the following sql: UPDATE Bugs SET RemovedDate=''01/01/1900 00:00:00'' For some reason it is adding double 2 single quotes to each end of the string or DateTime. This is causing the following error: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException - Incorrect syntax near '01' I am connecting to SQL Server 2005 Any help would be appreicated as apart from this issue i am finding SubSonic to be a great product. I have created a screen cast of my error here:

    Read the article

  • Can someone copyright an SQL query?

    - by Samutz
    I work for a school district. Every year we have to export a list of students from our student management system and send it to a company that handles our online exams. So to do this export, we had to hire someone who knew the inner workings of our student management system. He wrote an sql (Adaptive Sybase SQL Anywhere) query to export the students to a csv file like we needed. This was before I started working for the district, so for a while I assumed this was an actually application, until it came time for me to do the export myself. And every year he charges us $500 to update this query to export the students for the current year. So when I discovered it was only a query (.bat file and .sql file), my thought was "I can update this myself". All I have to do is change the years in the query (eg. 2009 to 2010). The query (.sql file) itself has this comment at the top: // This code was writtend by [the guy] // and is the property of [his company]...Copyright 2005,2006,2008,2009 // This code MAY NOT BE USED without the expressed written consent of // [his company]. (Yes, it really does says "writtend".) So now my boss is worried that we're violating the copyright. And that the guy is gonna find out that I updated the query myself because we haven't asked him to update it this year and take legal action. So back to the subject's question: Can he really copyright this query? And if so, is modifying it ourselves a copyright violation? In my mind, a single query isn't program code. It's more a command line command. But I don't know what it's considered legally.

    Read the article

  • How to deploy RSWebParts.cab manually?

    - by denni
    I'm using the SSRS 2005 Web parts to display my reports in a MOSS 2007 SP1 Portal. I have successfully installed the Web parts in my development, testing, and UAT servers using the following command: stsadm -o addwppack -filename path/to/RSWebParts.cab. But when I tried running the same command in the production server, it will give me the following error: This solution contains no resources scoped for a Web application and cannot be deployed to a particular Web application. I know I usually will get this kind of error message when I tried to deploy my custom solutions having no Web application resources (such as web.config entries) to a specific Web application. But this is not my custom solution, it is an out-of-the-box SSRS Web part and it does have resources scoped to a Web application. I tried to even use different combination of the command by providing the -url, -globalinstall, and -force switches but it still give the same error. The configuration of the 4 servers are exactly the same, both from software and hardware perspectives. All other features are working properly on the production server. I even tried to extract the cab file manually to the bin folder of my Web application, then modify the Web.config manually to include the SafeControl element (copied from the manifest.xml inside the cab file). But it gave me an error saying it couldn't find the resources file. Even though, I extracted the whole file, including the resource files in the bin folder. Is there anyone who can help me resolve the problem? Thanks a lot.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170  | Next Page >