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  • Returning from dll (Asynchronous sockets)

    - by Juha
    I am trying to do a simple http-server in (c++) dll-file that I can use from managed (C#) application with P/Invoke. I was trying to do this with asynchronous functions (WSAAsyncSelect() and stuff), so that I could manage server by calling functions inside dll whenever needed and after that it would return to my main program. Now I'm not sure if that is even possible. It seems that "main function" in dll, the function that starts the server, has to include message loop or something and since it's a loop, it doesn't return from dll ever. Could I somehow do this message stuff in my managed application and call some function in dll when there is something to do? Or is it even possible to do this stuff in one thred? I would really like to avoid all concurrency stuff. The dll looks now basicly the same as here, main function is the one that I call from managed C# program and would like to return to there after calling the function. http://www.winsocketdotnetworkprogramming.com/winsock2programming/winsock2advancediomethod5b.html I'm quite noob in windows programming, and never even heard of this message-queue or message-loop.

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  • ASP.NET: Custom MembershipProvider with a custom user table

    - by blahblah
    I've recently started tinkering with ASP.NET MVC, but this question should apply to classic ASP.NET as well. For what it's worth, I don't know very much about forms authentication and membership providers either. I'm trying to write my own MembershipProvider which will be connected to my own custom user table in my database. My user table contains all of the basic user information such as usernames, passwords, password salts, e-mail addresses and so on, but also information such as first name, last name and country of residence. As far as I understand, the standard way of doing this in ASP.NET is to create a user table without the extra information and then a "profile" table with the extra information. However, this doesn't sound very good to me, because whenever I need to access that extra information I would have to make one extra database query to get it. I read in the book "Pro ASP.NET 3.5 in C# 2008" that having a separate table for the profiles is not a very good idea if you need to access the profile table a lot and have many different pages in your website. Now for the problem at hand... As I said, I'm writing my own custom MembershipProvider subclass and it's going pretty well so far, but now I've come to realize that the CreateUser doesn't allow me to create users in the way I'd like. The method only takes a fixed number of arguments and first name, last name and country of residence are not part of them. So how would I create an entry for the new user in my custom table without this information at hand in CreateUser of my MembershipProvider?

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  • ASP.NET 2.0 RijndaelManaged encryption algorithm vs. FIPS

    - by R Rush
    I'm running into an issue with an ASP.NET 2.0 application. Our network folks just upped our security, and now I get the floowing error whenever I try to access the app: "This implementation is not part of the Windows Platform FIPS validated cryptographic algorithms." I've done a little research, and it sounds like ASP.NET uses the RijndaelManaged AES encryption algorithm to encrypt the ViewState of pages... and RijndaelManaged is on the list of algorithms that aren't FIPS compliant. We're certainly not explicitly calling any encryption algorithm... much less anything on the non-compliant list. This ViewState business makes sense to me, I guess. The thing I can't muddle out, though, is what to do about it. I've found a KB article that suggests using a web.config setting to specify a different algorithm... but either that didn't stick, or that algorithm isn't up to snuff, either. So: 1) Is the RijndaelManaged / ViewState thing actually the problem? Or am I barking up the wrong tree? 2) How to I specify what algorithm to use instead of RijndaelManaged? I've got a list of algorithms that are and aren't compliant; I'm just not sure where to plug that information in. Thanks! Richard

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  • text-area-text-to-be-split-with-conditions repeated

    - by desmiserables
    I have a text area wherein i have limited the user from entering more that 15 characters in one line as I want to get the free flow text separated into substrings of max limit 15 characters and assign each line an order number. This is what I was doing in my java class: int interval = 15; items = new ArrayList(); TextItem item = null; for (int i = 0; i < text.length(); i = i + interval) { item = new TextItem (); item.setOrder(i); if (i + interval < text.length()) { item.setSubText(text.substring(i, i + interval)); items.add(item); } else { item.setSubText(text.substring(i)); items.add(item); } } Now it works properly unless the user presses the enter key. Whenever the user presses the enter key I want to make that line as a new item having only that part as the subText. I can check whether my text.substring(i, i + interval) contains any "\n" and split till there but the problem is to get the remaining characters after "\n" till next 15 or till next "\n" and set proper order and subText.

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  • Running another process without GUI freezing

    - by Adam
    I'm having trouble getting my GUI to appear and not freeze while running (and waiting for) an outside process. In this case, drivers.exe is a very simply program where the user simply clicks "OK". So whenever I click OK, it exits. I am trying to simply make my status strip count numbers up (really fast) as drivers.exe is executing. But in practice, my GUI never appears at all until drivers.exe exits. private void run_drivers() { Console.WriteLine("Start Driver"); int driver_timeout_in_minutes = 20; System.Diagnostics.Process driverproc = System.Diagnostics.Process.Start(Application.StartupPath + "\\" + "drivers.exe"); driverproc.WaitForExit(driver_timeout_in_minutes * 1000 * 60); //uses milliseconds, we must convert } private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { ThreadStart worker = new ThreadStart(run_drivers); Console.WriteLine("Main - Creating worker thread"); toolStripStatusLabel1.Text = "hi"; Thread t = new Thread(worker); t.IsBackground = true; t.Start(); Console.WriteLine("Main - Have requested the start of worker thread"); int i = 0; while (t.IsAlive) { i++; toolStripStatusLabel1.Text = i.ToString(); } Console.WriteLine("Dead"); }

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  • Get the value for a WPF binding

    - by Jose
    Ok, I didn't want a bunch of ICommands in my MVVM ViewModels so I decided to create a MarkupExtension for WPF that you feed it a string(the name of the method), and it gives you back an ICommand that executes the method. here's a snippet: public class MethodCall : MarkupExtension { public MethodCall(string methodName) { MethodName = methodName; CanExecute = "Can" + methodName; } public override object ProvideValue(IServiceProvider serviceProvider) { Binding bin= new Binding { Converter = new MethodConverter(MethodName,CanExecute) }; return bin.ProvideValue(serviceProvider); } } public class MethodConverter : IValueConverter { string MethodName; public object Convert(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, System.Globalization.CultureInfo culture) { //Convert to ICommand ICommand cmd = ConvertToICommand(); if (cmd == null) Debug.WriteLine(string.Format("Could not bind to method 'MyMethod' on object",MethodName)); return cmd; } } It works great, except when the binding fails(e.g. you mistype). When you do this in xaml: {Binding MyPropertyName} you see in the output window whenever the binding fails. and it tells you the propertyName the Type name etc. The MethodConverter Class can tell you the name of the method that failed, but it can't tell you the source object type. Because the value will be null. I can't figure out how to store the source object type so for the following class public class MyClass { public void MyMethod() { } } and the following xaml: <Button Command={d:MethodCall MyMethod}>My Method</Button> It currently says: "Could not bind to method 'MyMethod' on object but I would like it to say: "Could not bind to method 'MyMethod' on object MyClass Any ideas?

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  • Hide list on blur

    - by bah
    Hi, I have a list showing up when i click on button, the problem is that i want to hide the list whenever it loses focus i.e. user clicks anywhere on a page, but not on that list. How can i do this? Also, you can see how it should look at last.fm, where's list of profile settings (li.profileItem). (ul.del li ul by default is display:none) Basic list structure: <ul class='del'> <li> <button class='deletePage'></button> <ul> <li></li> <li></li> </ul> </li> </ul> My function for displaying this list: $(".deletePage").click(function(){ if( $(this).siblings(0).css("display") == "block" ){ $(this).siblings(0).hide(); } else { $(this).siblings(0).show(); } });

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  • TDD test data loading methods

    - by Dave Hanson
    I am a TDD newb and I would like to figure out how to test the following code. I am trying to write my tests first, but I am having trouble for creating a test that touches my DataAccessor. I can't figure out how to fake it. I've done the extend the shipment class and override the Load() method; to continue testing the object. I feel as though I end up unit testing my Mock objects/stubs and not my real objects. I thought in TDD the unit tests were supposed to hit ALL of the methods on the object; however I can never seem to test that Load() code only the overriden Mock Load My tests were write an object that contains a list of orders based off of shipment number. I have an object that loads itself from the database. public class Shipment { //member variables protected List<string> _listOfOrders = new List<string>(); protected string _id = "" //public properties public List<string> ListOrders { get{ return _listOfOrders; } } public Shipment(string id) { _id = id; Load(); } //PROBLEM METHOD // whenever I write code that needs this Shipment object, this method tries // to hit the DB and fubars my tests // the only way to get around is to have all my tests run on a fake Shipment object. protected void Load() { _listOfOrders = DataAccessor.GetOrders(_id); } } I create my fake shipment class to test the rest of the classes methods .I can't ever test the Real load method without having an actual DB connection public class FakeShipment : Shipment { protected new void Load() { _listOfOrders = new List<string>(); } } Any thoughts? Please advise. Dave

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  • Better ways to implement a modulo operation (algorithm question)

    - by ryxxui
    I've been trying to implement a modular exponentiator recently. I'm writing the code in VHDL, but I'm looking for advice of a more algorithmic nature. The main component of the modular exponentiator is a modular multiplier which I also have to implement myself. I haven't had any problems with the multiplication algorithm- it's just adding and shifting and I've done a good job of figuring out what all of my variables mean so that I can multiply in a pretty reasonable amount of time. The problem that I'm having is with implementing the modulus operation in the multiplier. I know that performing repeated subtractions will work, but it will also be slow. I found out that I could shift the modulus to effectively subtract large multiples of the modulus but I think there might still be better ways to do this. The algorithm that I'm using works something like this (weird pseudocode follows): result,modulus : integer (n bits) (previously defined) shiftcount : integer (initialized to zero) while( (modulus<result) and (modulus(n-1) != 1) ){ modulus = modulus << 1 shiftcount++ } for(i=shiftcount;i>=0;i++){ if(modulus<result){result = result-modulus} if(i!=0){modulus = modulus << 1} } So...is this a good algorithm, or at least a good place to start? Wikipedia doesn't really discuss algorithms for implementing the modulo operation, and whenever I try to search elsewhere I find really interesting but incredibly complicated (and often unrelated) research papers and publications. If there's an obvious way to implement this that I'm not seeing, I'd really appreciate some feedback.

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  • OpenGl texture mapping blocking colours on FreeType?

    - by Dororo
    I'm using FreeType in order to allow fonts to be used in OpenGL. However, I'm having a problem where I cannot change the font colour whenever I do texture mapping. No matter what I select using glColor3f it will just come out white. The texture works fine. glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT); glLoadIdentity(); glColor3f(0.5,0.0,0.5); glPushMatrix(); glEnable(GL_BLEND); glBlendFunc(GL_SRC_ALPHA, GL_ONE_MINUS_SRC_ALPHA); glEnable(GL_TEXTURE_2D); glTexEnvf(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_TEXTURE_ENV_MODE, GL_REPLACE); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, texName); glBegin(GL_POLYGON); glTexCoord2f(0,1); glVertex2f(-16,-16); glTexCoord2f(0,0); glVertex2f(-16,16); glTexCoord2f(1,0); glVertex2f(16,16); glTexCoord2f(1,1); glVertex2f(16,-16); glEnd(); glDisable(GL_TEXTURE_2D); glDisable(GL_BLEND); glPopMatrix(); glColor3f(1,0,0); print(our_font, -300+screenWidth/2.0, screenHeight/2.0, "fifty two - %7.2f", spin); This is the problem code, I can confirm that drawing a polygon beneath this code will indeed make it red. The text is not changing to red though which it should; if you remove the texture mapping above it will turn red again, I can only think it is a problem with enabling and disabling and I've forgotten to do something...?

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  • IE error on jquery Line 4618

    - by eo
    I am trying to save some css information into cookies with the below jquery script. Everything is perfectly fine for Firefox however IE throws an error on jquery Line 4618, whenever i include this file jQuery(document).ready(function() { // cookie period var days = 365; // load positions and z-index from cookies $("div[id*='tqitem']").each( function( index ){ $(this).css( "left", $.cookie( "im_" + $(this).attr("id") + "_left") ); $(this).css( "top", $.cookie( "im_" + this.id + "_top") ); $(this).css( "zIndex", $.cookie( "tqz_" + this.id + "_zIndex") ); }); // bind event $(".pagenumbers").draggable({cursor: "move"}); $("div[id*='tqitem']").bind('dragstop', savePos); $("div[id*='tqitem']").bind('dragstop', savePot); // save positions into cookies function savePos( event, ui ){ $.cookie("im_" + $(this).attr("id") + "_left", $(this).css("left"), { path: '/', expires: days }); $.cookie("im_" + this.id + "_top", $(this).css("top"), { path: '/', expires: days }); $.cookie("im_" + this.id + "_zIndex", $(this).css("zIndex"), { path: '/', expires: days }); }; var thiss = $("div[id*='tqitem']"); function savePot(){ $("div[id*='tqitem']").each(function (i) { $.cookie("tqz_" + $(this).attr("id") + "_zIndex", $(this).css("zIndex"), { path: '/', expires: days }); }) }; }); /*ADDITIONAL INFO: SCRIPT HIERARCHY Jquery itself Jquery ui Jquery cookie plugin Save cookies js no matter how i ordered them the result did not change*/

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  • Android Home Screen Widget Failing with EditText

    - by Chris
    Whenever I add an EditText widget to the layout of my home screen widget (confusing how the term "widget" is being used twice in the Android lexicon :-/ ), I receive the "Problem Loading Widget" error box. Here is the layout I'm attempting; if you remove the EditText, it works... < RelativeLayout android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" <Button android:id="@+id/button_generate" android:layout_width="54px" android:layout_height="54px" android:text="Generate" android:textSize="10sp" android:gravity="center" android:layout_alignParentTop="true" android:layout_toRightOf="@+id/edittext_key"> </Button> <TextView android:id="@+id/textview_hash" android:layout_width="75px" android:layout_height="45px" android:text="Password" android:textSize="11sp" android:gravity="left" android:layout_alignParentTop="true" android:layout_toLeftOf="@+id/edittext_key"> </TextView> <EditText android:id="@+id/edittext_data2" android:layout_width="200px" android:layout_height="50px" android:textSize="12sp" android:layout_marginTop="20px" android:layout_alignParentTop="true" android:layout_centerHorizontal="true"> </EditText> </RelativeLayout> Now, the Google Search home screen widget has an EditText, so it's obviously legal to implement. Any thoughts on why this is not working?

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  • Problem with DataTrigger binding - setters are not being called

    - by aoven
    I have a Command bound to a Button in XAML. When executed, the command changes a property value on the underlying DataContext. I would like the button's Content to reflect the new value of the property. This works*: <Button Command="{x:Static Member=local:MyCommands.TestCommand}" Content="{Binding Path=TestProperty, Mode=OneWay}" /> But this doesn't: <Button Command="{x:Static Member=local:MyCommands.TestCommand}"> <Button.Style> <Style TargetType="{x:Type Button}"> <Style.Triggers> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding Path=TestProperty, Mode=OneWay}" Value="True"> <DataTrigger.Setters> <Setter Property="Content" Value="Yes"/> </DataTrigger.Setters> </DataTrigger> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding Path=TestProperty, Mode=OneWay}" Value="False"> <DataTrigger.Setters> <Setter Property="Content" Value="No"/> </DataTrigger.Setters> </DataTrigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> </Button.Style> </Button> Why is that? * By "works" I mean the Content gets updated whenever I click the button. TIA

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  • Creating stored procedure having different WHERE clause on different search criteria without putting

    - by Muhammad Kashif Nadeem
    Is there any alternate way to create stored procedure without putting all query in one long string if criteria of WWHERE clause can be different. Suppose I have Orders table I want to create stored procedure on this table and there are three column on which I wnat to filter records. 1- CustomerId, 2- SupplierId, 3- ProductId. If user only give CustomerId in search criteria then query should be like following SELECT * FROM Orders WHERE Orders.CustomerId = @customerId And if user only give ProductId in search criteria then query should be like following SELECT * FROM Orders WHERE Orders.ProductId = @productId And if user only all three CustomerId, ProductId, and SupplierId is given then all three Ids will be used in WHERE to filter. There is also chance that user don't want to filter record then query should be like following SELCT * FROM Orders Whenever I have to create this kind of procedure I put all this in string and use IF conditions to check if arguments (@customeId or @supplierId etc) has values. I use following method to create procedure DECLARE @query VARCHAR(MAX) DECLARE @queryWhere VARCHAR(MAX) SET @query = @query + 'SELECT * FROM Orders ' IF (@originationNumber IS NOT NULL) BEGIN BEGIN SET @queryWhere =@queryWhere + ' Orders.CustomerId = ' + CONVERT(VARCHAR(100),@customerId) END END IF(@queryWhere <> '') BEGIN SET @query = @query+' WHERE ' + @queryWhere END EXEC (@query) Thanks.

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  • MVC: capture route url's and pass them to javascript function

    - by Tim Geerts
    Short:Is there a way to have a route-definition that will pass the "CONTROLLER/ACTION" string value to a javascript function in stead of actually going straight for the controller action? More:I have a masterpage which contains the navigation of the site. Now, all the pages need this navigation wrapped around it at all times, but because I didn't want the navigation to constantly load with each pagecall, I changed all my pages to partialviews. These partial views are loaded via the JQuery.Load() method whenever a menu item is clicked in the navigation. This all worked very good, up till now because I noticed it's also a requirement of the website to be able to link directly to page X, rather then default.aspx. So, as an example:The main page is my "default.aspx" page, this utilizes my master page with the nagivation around it. And each call to a new page uses a javascript function that loads that particular partial view inside a div that is known in my masterpage. So, the url never changes away from "default.aspx", but my content changes seemlesly. The problem is, those url's also need to be available when typed directly into the address bar. But, they're partial views, so loading them directly from the address bar makes them display without any masterpages around them. Therefore my question if it might be possible to capture the route typed into the address bar and pass that on to my javascript function that will load that route in the content div. (I hope I explained it ok enough, if not, feel free to ask more information)

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  • How to refactor use of the general Exception?

    - by Colin
    Our code catches the general exception everywhere. Usually it writes the error to a log table in the database and shows a MessageBox to the user to say that the operation requested failed. If there is database interaction, the transaction is rolled back. I have introduced a business logic layer and a data access layer to unravel some of the logic. In the data access layer, I have chosen not to catch anything and I also throw ArgumentNullExceptions and ArgumentOutOfRangeExceptions so that the message passed up the stack does not come straight from the database. In the business logic layer I put a try catch. In the catch I rollback the transaction, do the logging and rethrow. In the presentation layer there is another try catch that displays a MessageBox. I am now thinking about catching a DataException and an ArgumentException instead of an Exception where I know the code only accesses a database. Where the code accesses a web service, then I thought I would create my own "WebServiceException", which would be created in the data access layer whenever an HttpException, WebException or SoapException is thrown. So now, generally I will be catching 2 or 3 exceptions where currently I catch just the general Exception, and I think that seems OK to me. Does anyone wrap exceptions up again to carry the message up to the presentation layer? I think I should probably add a try catch to Main() that catches Exception, attempts to log it, displays an "Application has encountered an error" message and exits the application. So, my question is, does anyone see any holes in my plan? Are there any obvious exceptions that I should be catching or do these ones pretty much cover it (other than file access - I think there is only 1 place where we read-write to a config file).

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  • function (blurClass) NOT WORKING IN IE

    - by Erik
    I can't get this plugin to function properly in IE.... Check out my homepage and look at the huge search field toward the top... www.naturalskin.com Whenever I refresh the screen the "blur" looses its function and I'm stuck with text..... Here is the script that I place in an external js page: http://www.naturalskin.com/src/js/javascript/batches.js jQuery.fn.hint = function (blurClass) { if (!blurClass) { blurClass = 'blur'; } return this.each(function () { // get jQuery version of 'this' var $input = jQuery(this), // capture the rest of the variable to allow for reuse title = $input.attr('title'), $form = jQuery(this.form), $win = jQuery(window); function remove() { if ($input.val() === title && $input.hasClass(blurClass)) { $input.val('').removeClass(blurClass); } } // only apply logic if the element has the attribute if (title) { // on blur, set value to title attr if text is blank $input.blur(function () { if (this.value === '') { $input.val(title).addClass(blurClass); } }).focus(remove).blur(); // now change all inputs to title // clear the pre-defined text when form is submitted $form.submit(remove); $win.unload(remove); // handles Firefox's autocomplete } }); }; Erik

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  • How to make CFileDialog synchronize the displayed filename with the selected extension?

    - by RobH
    We have a class that derives from CFileDialog that overrides the OnTypeChange() method to allow it to change the filename to keep it in synch with the selected extension whenever the user selects a new extension from the filter combobox. (Our filters are set to contain only one extension per filter entry.) Unfortunately, the way we are doing this seems to have been broken by the Vista style dialogue. (We were using SetControlText() to set the filename edit box to the filename with the newly selected extension, but the control ID seems to be different for the Vista style dialogue, and the one that I found using Spy++ works just as well as the old ID (i.e., it doesn't)..) Is there a better way to tell the CFileDialog object to update the filename field to use the new extension when the user selects a new filter? It has to work with the old XP style dialogue as well. Failing that, how to I force the use of the XP style dialogue so that I get my functionality back without the dialogue crashing on me? (I'd rather not go that route if at all possible.) I've found a way to get it to fall back to the XP style. I still want to get the new style dialogue to do what I want though.

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  • android : bluetooth support

    - by Puneet kaur
    i have coded for bluetooth via defining a user task ,which will search the devices in background and set the list on foreground after finishing the search . but sometimes i am getting the data in adapter as "nodevice" "device1" "device2" ...... the problem here is why it is always filling the no device in the list and after that fill the device in list .. private BroadcastReceiver mBlueToothInfoDiscoveryListener = new BroadcastReceiver() { /** * This is an overridden function called by the framework whenever there * is some broadcast message for Bluetooth info discovery listener */ @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { String action = intent.getAction(); // When discovery finds a device if (BluetoothDevice.ACTION_FOUND.equals(action)) { // Get the BluetoothDevice object from the Intent BluetoothDevice device = intent.getParcelableExtra(BluetoothDevice.EXTRA_DEVICE); // If it's already paired, skip it, because it's been listed // already if (device.getBondState() != BluetoothDevice.BOND_BONDED) { mNewBtDevicesArrayAdapter.add(device.getName() + "\n" + device.getAddress()); } // When discovery is finished, change the Activity title } else if (BluetoothAdapter.ACTION_DISCOVERY_FINISHED.equals(action)) { setProgressBarIndeterminateVisibility(false); setTitle("device list"); if (mNewBtDevicesArrayAdapter.getCount() == 0) { String noDevices = "No devices found"; mNewBtDevicesArrayAdapter.add(noDevices); } } } }; but here why it is sometimes going into else option on start and filling the list with no device then to if part again ... when devices are already on .

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  • How can I load a Class contained in a website from a DLL referenced by that website???

    - by Morgeh
    Ok so this is alittle bit obscure and I'm not sure its the best way of doing what I'm trying to do but here goes. Basically I have a Presentation Layer Dll in my web site which handles the Model View Presenter classes. The presentation layer also handles login for my website and then calls off to a web service. Currently whenever the presentation layer calls to a model it verifies the users details and if they are invalid it calls to a loginHandler which redirects the user to the login page. However I cannot dynamically load a new istance of the Login Page in my website from within my Presentation layer. I've tried to use reflection to dynamically load the class but Since the method call is in the presentation assembly it is only looking within that assembly while the page I want to load is in the website. heres the reflection code that loads the View: public ILoginView LoadView() { string viewName = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["LoginView"].ToString(); Type type = Type.GetType(viewName, true); object newInstance = Activator.CreateInstance(type); return newInstance as ILoginView; } Anyone got any suggestions on how to search within the website assembly? Ideal I don't want to tie this implementation into the website specifically as the presentation layer is also used in a WPF application.

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  • TemplateField button causing GridView Invalid Postback

    - by Carter
    Ok, so I've got a template field in a gridview that contains just a simple button... <asp:GridView ID="KeywordsGridView" AllowPaging="false" AutoGenerateColumns="false" BackColor="white" GridLines="None" HeaderStyle-CssClass="Table_Header" RowStyle-CssClass="Table_Style" runat="server"> <Columns> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Button runat="server" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:BoundField DataField="References" SortExpression="References" HeaderText="Total References" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="Keyword" SortExpression="Keyword" HeaderText="Keyword" /> </Columns> </asp:GridView> Whenever I click the button I get the error... Invalid postback or callback argument. Event validation is enabled using <pages enableEventValidation="true"/> in configuration or <%@ Page EnableEventValidation="true" %> in a page. For security purposes, this feature verifies that arguments to postback or callback events originate from the server control that originally rendered them. If the data is valid and expected, use the ClientScriptManager.RegisterForEventValidation method in order to register the postback or callback data for validation. I've found a decent amount of articles referencing this issue, including a couple on SO, for example... http://stackoverflow.com/questions/228969/asp-net-invalid-postback-or-callback-argument-event-validation-is-enabled-usi and... http://stackoverflow.com/questions/103560/invalid-postback-or-callback-argument I might just be misunderstanding, but as far as I can tell they don't really help me. How do I get this to go away without setting enableEventValidation="false"?

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  • Quick help refactoring Ruby Class

    - by mplacona
    I've written this class that returns feed updates, but am thinking it can be further improved. It's not glitchy or anything, but as a new ruby developer, I reckon it's always good to improve :-) class FeedManager attr_accessor :feed_object, :update, :new_entries require 'feedtosis' def initialize(feed_url) @feed_object = Feedtosis::Client.new(feed_url) fetch end def fetch @feed_object.fetch end def update @updates = fetch end def updated? @updates.new_entries.count > 0 ? true : false end def new_entries @updates.new_entries end end As you can see, it's quite simple, but the things I'm seeing that aren't quite right are: Whenever I call fetch via terminal, it prints a list with the updates, when it's really supposed return an object. So as an example, in the terminal if I do something like: client = Feedtosis::Client.new('http://stackoverflow.com/feeds') result = client.fetch I then get: <Curl::Easy http://stackoverflow.com/feeds> Which is exactly what I'd expect. However, when doing the same thing with "inniting" class with: FeedManager.new("http://stackoverflow.com/feeds") I'm getting the object returning as an array with all the items on the feed. Sure I'm doing something wrong, so any help refactoring this class will he greatly appreciated. Also, I'd like to see comments about my implementation, as well as any sort of comment to make it better would be welcome. Thanks in advance

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  • iPhone multitouch - Some touches dispatch touchesBegan: but not touchesMoved:

    - by zkarcher
    I'm developing a multitouch application. One touch is expected to move, and I need to track its position. For all other touches, I need to track their beginnings and endings, but their movement is less critical. Sometimes, when 3 or more touches are active, my UIView does not receive touchesMoved: events for the moving touch. This problem is intermittent, and can always be reproduced after a few attempts: Touch the screen with 2 fingers. Touch the screen with another finger, and move this finger around. The moving finger always dispatches touchesBegan: and touchesEnded:, but sometimes does not dispatch any touchesMoved: events. Whenever the moving touch does not dispatch touchesMoved: events, I can force it to dispatch touchesMoved: if I move one of the other touches. This seems to "force" every touch to recheck its position, and I successfully receive a touchesMoved: event. However, this is clumsy. This bug is reproducible on both the iPhone 2G and 3GS models. My question is: How do I ensure that my moving touch dispatches touchesMoved: events? Does anyone have any experience with this issue? I've spent few fruitless days searching the web for answers. I found a post describing how to sync touch events with the VBL: http://www.71squared.com/2009/04/maingameloop-changes/ . However, this has not solved the problem. I really don't know how to proceed. Any help is appreciated!

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  • sql exception when transferring project from usb to c:\

    - by jello
    I'm working on a C# windows program with Visual Studio 2008. Usually, I work from school, directly on my usb drive. But when I copy the folder on my hard drive at home, an sql exception is unhandled whenever I try to write to the database. it is unhandled at the conn.Open(); line. here's the exception unhandled Database 'L:\system\project\the_project\the_project\bin\Debug\PatientMonitoringDatabase.mdf' already exists. Choose a different database name. Cannot attach the file 'C:\Documents and Settings\Administrator\My Documents\system\project\the_project\the_project\bin\Debug\PatientMonitoringDatabase.mdf' as database 'PatientMonitoringDatabase'. it's weird, because my connection string says |DataDirectory|, so it should work on any drive... here's my connection string: string connStr = "Data Source=.\\SQLEXPRESS;AttachDbFilename=|DataDirectory|\\PatientMonitoringDatabase.mdf; " + "Initial Catalog=PatientMonitoringDatabase; " + "Integrated Security=True"; Someone told me to: Connect to localhost with SQL Server Management Studio Express, and remove/detach the existing PatientMonitoringDatabase database. Whether it's a persistent database or only active within a running application, you can't have 2 databases with the same name at the same time attached to a SQL Server instance. So I did that, and now it gives me: Directory lookup for the file "C:\Documents and Settings\Administrator\My Documents\system\project\the_project\the_project\bin\Debug\PatientMonitoringDatabase.mdf" failed with the operating system error 5(Access is denied.). Cannot attach the file 'C:\Documents and Settings\Administrator\My Documents\system\project\the_project\the_project\bin\Debug\PatientMonitoringDatabase.mdf' as database 'PatientMonitoringDatabase' I checked the files' properties, and I have allow for everyone. Does anyone know what's going on here?

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  • Textured Primitives in XNA with a first person camera

    - by 131nary
    So I have a XNA application set up. The camera is in first person mode, and the user can move around using the keyboard and reposition the camera target with the mouse. I have been able to load 3D models fine, and they appear on screen no problem. Whenever I try to draw any primitive (textured or not), it does not show up anywhere on the screen, no matter how I position the camera. In Initialize(), I have: quad = new Quad(Vector3.Zero, Vector3.UnitZ, Vector3.Up, 2, 2); quadVertexDecl = new VertexDeclaration(this.GraphicsDevice, VertexPositionNormalTexture.VertexElements); In LoadContent(), I have: quadTexture = Content.Load<Texture2D>(@"Textures\brickWall"); quadEffect = new BasicEffect(this.GraphicsDevice, null); quadEffect.AmbientLightColor = new Vector3(0.8f, 0.8f, 0.8f); quadEffect.LightingEnabled = true; quadEffect.World = Matrix.Identity; quadEffect.View = Matrix.CreateLookAt(cameraPosition, cameraTarget, Vector3.Up); quadEffect.Projection = this.Projection; quadEffect.TextureEnabled = true; quadEffect.Texture = quadTexture; And in Draw() I have: this.GraphicsDevice.VertexDeclaration = quadVertexDecl; quadEffect.Begin(); foreach (EffectPass pass in quadEffect.CurrentTechnique.Passes) { pass.Begin(); GraphicsDevice.DrawUserIndexedPrimitives<VertexPositionNormalTexture>( PrimitiveType.TriangleList, quad.Vertices, 0, 4, quad.Indexes, 0, 2); pass.End(); } quadEffect.End(); I think I'm doing something wrong in the quadEffect properties, but I'm not quite sure what.

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