Search Results

Search found 4999 results on 200 pages for 'derived instances'.

Page 166/200 | < Previous Page | 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173  | Next Page >

  • Dealing with Try/Catch Exceptions in Java bytecode? ("stack height inconsistent")

    - by Cogwirrel
    I am trying to do some error handling in java bytecode. I first tried to implement some catch-like subroutines, where I would check for the error condition, and jump to the appropriate subroutine, a little like: iconst_1 iconst_0 dup ifeq calldiverr goto enddivtest calldiverr: jsr divError enddivtest: idiv ...More instructions... divError: getstatic java/lang/System/out Ljava/io/PrintStream; ldc "Oh dear you divided by 0!" invokevirtual java/io/PrintStream/print(Ljava/lang/String;)V The problem with the above is that when I have multiple instructions that jump to this subroutine, I get an error message when running the bytecode, saying that the stack height is inconsistent. Perhaps using exceptions is the best way to get around this? From some googling I have found that you can create instances of Exception classes and initialise them with something like: new java/lang/Exception dup ldc "exception message!" invokespecial java/lang/Exception/<init>(Ljava/lang/String;)V I have also found that you can throw them with athrow and this seems ok. What is confusing me however is exactly how exceptions are caught. There seems to be a magical "Exception table" which glues the throwing and catching of exceptions together, but I do not know how to define one of these when writing bytecode from scratch (and assembling using Jasmin). Can somebody tell me the secret of creating an exception table? And possibly give me an example of exception handling that will assemble with jasmin?

    Read the article

  • categorize a set of phrases into a set of similar phrases

    - by Dingo
    I have a few apps that generate textual tracing information (logs) to log files. The tracing information is the typical printf() style - i.e. there are a lot of log entries that are similar (same format argument to printf), but differ where the format string had parameters. What would be an algorithm (url, books, articles, ...) that will allow me to analyze the log entries and categorize them into several bins/containers, where each bin has one associated format? Essentially, what I would like is to transform the raw log entries into (formatA, arg0 ... argN) instances, where formatA is shared among many log entries. The formatA does not have to be the exact format used to generate the entry (even more so if this makes the algo simpler). Most of the literature and web-info I found deals with exact matching, a max substring matching, or a k-difference (with k known/fixed ahead of time). Also, it focuses on matching a pair of (long) strings, or a single bin output (one match among all input). My case is somewhat different, since I have to discover what represents a (good-enough) match (generally a sequence of discontinuous strings), and then categorize each input entries to one of the discovered matches. Lastly, I'm not looking for a perfect algorithm, but something simple/easy to maintain. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Assign a unique client ID to each <rich:dataTable /> row?

    - by Dolph Mathews
    I'm relatively new to working with the UI in Seam, so I'm hoping there is something simple I can replace the three instances of UNIQUE_ID with in the following example (such as #{object.uniqueId}). The goal is to have a <rich:dataTable /> wherein each row has the ability to show/hide a <rich:modalPanel /> with more details about the particular object instance. <rich:dataTable var="object" value="#{bean.myObject}"> <rich:column> <h:outputText value="#{object.summary}" /> </rich:column> <rich:column> <a onclick="Richfaces.showModalPanel('UNIQUE_ID');" href="#">Show Details in ModalPanel</a> <a4j:form> <rich:modalPanel id="UNIQUE_ID" > <a onclick="Richfaces.hideModalPanel('UNIQUE_ID');" href="#">Hide This ModalPanel</a> <h:outputText value="#{object.details}" /> </rich:modalPanel> </a4j:form> </rich:column> </rich:dataTable> If I only had one link/modalPanel pair, this would obviously be trivial, but I don't know what to do within the scope of the <rich:dataTable />'s iteration. Also, in case it complicates things further, the page will also contain many <rich:dataTable />'s, each implementing this behavior.

    Read the article

  • How do I simulate the usage of a sequence of web pages?

    - by Rory Becker
    I have a simple sequence of web pages written in ASP.Net 3.5 SP1. Page1 - A Logon Form.... txtUsername, txtPassword and cmdLogon Page2 - A Menu (created using DevExpress ASP.Net controls) Page3 - The page redirected to by the server in the event that the user picks the right menu option in Page2 I would like to create a threaded program to simulate many users trying to use this sequence of pages. I have managed to create a host Winforms app which Launches a new thread for each "User" I have further managed to work out the basics of WebRequest enough to perform a request which retrieves the Logon page itself. Dim Request As HttpWebRequest = TryCast(WebRequest.Create("http://MyURL/Logon.aspx"), HttpWebRequest) Dim Response As HttpWebResponse = TryCast(Request.GetResponse(), HttpWebResponse) Dim ResponseStream As StreamReader = New StreamReader(Response.GetResponseStream(), Encoding.GetEncoding(1252)) Dim HTMLResponse As String = ResponseStream.ReadToEnd() Response.Close() ResponseStream.Close() Next I need to simulate the user having entered information into the 2 TextBoxes and pressing logon.... I have a hunch this requires me to add the right sort of "PostData" to the request. before submitting. However I'm also concerned that "ViewState" may be an issue. Am I correct regarding the PostData? How do I add the postData to the request? Do I need to be concerned about Viewstate? Update: While I appreciate that Selenium or similar products are useful for acceptance testing , I find that they are rather clumsy for what amounts to load testing. I would prefer not to load 100 instances of Firefox or IE in order to simulate 100 users hitting my site. This was the reason I was hoping to take the ASPNet HttpWebRequest route.

    Read the article

  • How to deploy SQL Reporting 2005 when Data Sources are locked?

    - by spoulson
    The DBAs here maintain all SQL Server and SQL Reporting servers. I have a custom developed SQL Reporting 2005 project in Visual Studio that runs fine on my local SQL Database and Reporting instances. I need to deploy to a production server, so I had a folder created on a SQL Reporting 2005 server with permissions to upload files. Normally, a deploy from within Visual Studio is all that is needed to upload the report files. However, for security purposes, data sources are maintained explicitly by DBAs and stored in a separated locked down common folder on the reporting server. I had them create the data source for me. When I attempt to deploy from VS, it gives me the error "The item '/Data Sources' already exists." I get this whether I'm deploying the whole project or just a single report file. I already set OverwriteDataSources=false in the project properties. The TargetServer URL and folder are verified correct. I suppose I could copy the files manually, but I'd like to be able to deploy from within VS. What could I be doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • Checking data of all same class elements

    - by Tiffani
    I need the code to check the data-name value of all instances of .account-select. Right now it just checks the first .account-select element and not any subsequent ones. The function right now is on click of an element such as John Smith, it checks the data-name of the .account-select lis. If the data-names are the same, it does not create a new li with the John Smith data. If no data-names are equal to John Smith, then it adds an li with John Smith. This is the JS-Fiddle I made for it so you can see what I am referring to: http://jsfiddle.net/rsxavior/vDCNy/22/ Any help would be greatly appreciated. This is the Jquery Code I am using right now. $('.account').click(function () { var acc = $(this).data("name"); var sel = $('.account-select').data("name"); if (acc === sel) { } else { $('.account-hidden-li').append('<li class="account-select" data-name="'+ $(this).data("name") +'">' + $(this).data("name") + '<a class="close bcn-close" data-dismiss="alert" href="#">&times;</a></li>'); } }); And the HTML: <ul> <li><a class="account" data-name="All" href="#">All</a></li> <li><a class="account" data-name="John Smith" href="#">John Smith</a></li> </ul> <ul class="account-hidden-li"> <ul>

    Read the article

  • Struggling to create correct relationships in MS Access

    - by Yandawl
    http://img714.imageshack.us/img714/7820/croppercapture1.png Basically: an award(course) has many units, which can be either optional or core(mandatory), depending on the award. So for example: the unit 'Advanced Software Engineering' maybe a core unit for the award 'Software Engineering BSc' but only an optional unit for the course 'Web Technology BSc'. I've used flags for that purpose. A student is enrolled on an award so I need to get a complete list of core and optional units (bearing in mind that a student chooses 1 out of many possible optional units). Also, these units have events, e.g, a lecture, workshop or seminar, etc. and those events have sessions or instances of events where students enrolled on that particular unit are required to attend, and those attendances are stored in a separate table to form a register. So I need a hierarchy of expanding the tables something like this I guess: Awards - Students - Units - Sessions - Attendances Any help with this would be appreciated... It's blowing my mind and I'm really close to going insane! My tutor didn't spot I'd got it wrong when I showed my original data model to him and it's due in next week! Thank you :D

    Read the article

  • Improving field get and set performance with ASM or Javassist

    - by ng
    I would like to avoid reflection in an open source project I am developing. Here I have classes like the following. public class PurchaseOrder { @Property private Customer customer; @Property private String name; } I scan for the @Property annotation to determine what I can set and get from the PurchaseOrder reflectively. There are many such classes all using java.lang.reflect.Field.get() and java.lang.reflect.Field.set(). Ideally I would like to generate for each property an invoker like the following. public interface PropertyAccessor<S, V> { public void set(S source, V value); public V get(S source); } Now when I scan the class I can create a static inner class of PurchaseOrder like so. static class customer_Field implements PropertyAccessor<PurchaseOrder, Customer> { public void set(PurchaseOrder order, Customer customer) { order.customer = customer; } public Customer get(PurchaseOrder order) { return order.customer; } } With these I totally avoid the cost of reflection. I can now set and get from my instances with native performance. Can anyone tell me how I would do this. A code example would be great. I have searched the net for a good example but can find nothing like this. The ASM and Javasist examples are pretty poor also. The key here is that I have an interface that I can pass around. So I can have various implementations, perhaps one with Java Reflection as a default, one with ASM, and one with Javassist? Any help would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • 2 Mutually exclusive RadioButton "Lists"

    - by user72603
    I think this has to be THE most frustrating thing I've ever done in web forms. Yet one would think it would be the easiest of all things in the world to do. That is this: I need 2 separate lists of radiobuttons on my .aspx page. One set allows a customer to select an option. The other set does also but for a different purpose. But only one set can have a selected radiobutton. Ok I've tried this using 2 asp.net Radiobuttonlists controls on the same page. Got around the nasty bug with GroupName (asp.net assigns the control's uniqueID which prevents the groupname from ever working because now, 2 radiobuttonlists can't have the same groupname for all their radiobuttons because each radiobuttonlist has a different uniqueID thus the bug assigns the unique ID as the name attribute when the buttons are rendered. since the name sets are different, they are not mutually exclusive). Anyway, so I created that custom RadioButtonListcontrol and fixed that groupname problem. But when ended up happening is when I went to put 2 instances of my new custom radiobuttonlist control on my .aspx page, all was swell until I noticed that every time I checked for radiobuttonlist1.SelectedValue or radiobuttonlist2.SelectedValue (did not matter which I was checking) the value always spit back string.empty and i was not able to figure out why (see http://forums.asp.net/t/1401117.aspx). Ok onto the third try tonight and into the break of dawn (no sleep). I tried to instead just scrap trying to use 2 custom radiobuttonlists altogether because of that string.empty issue and try to spit out 2 sets of radiobuttonlists via using 2 asp.net repeaters and a standard input HTML tag inside. Got that working. Ok but the 2 lists still are not mutually exclusive. I can select a value in the first set of radiobuttons from repeater1 and same goes for repeater2. I cannot for the life of me get the "sets" to be mutually exclusive sets of radiobuttons.

    Read the article

  • Can the Singleton be replaced by Factory?

    - by lostiniceland
    Hello Everyone There are already quite some posts about the Singleton-Pattern around, but I would like to start another one on this topic since I would like to know if the Factory-Pattern would be the right approach to remove this "anti-pattern". In the past I used the singleton quite a lot, also did my fellow collegues since it is so easy to use. For example, the Eclipse IDE or better its workbench-model makes heavy usage of singletons as well. It was due to some posts about E4 (the next big Eclipse version) that made me start to rethink the singleton. The bottom line was that due to this singletons the dependecies in Eclipse 3.x are tightly coupled. Lets assume I want to get rid of all singletons completely and instead use factories. My thoughts were as follows: hide complexity less coupling I have control over how many instances are created (just store the reference I a private field of the factory) mock the factory for testing (with Dependency Injection) when it is behind an interface In some cases the factories can make more than one singleton obsolete (depending on business logic/component composition) Does this make sense? If not, please give good reasons for why you think so. An alternative solution is also appreciated. Thanks Marc

    Read the article

  • Automatic .NET code, nhibernate session, and LINQ datacontext clean-up?

    - by AverageJoe719
    Hi all, in my goal to adopt better coding practices I have a few questions in general about automatic handling of code. I have heard different answers both from online and talking with other developers/programmers at my work. I am not sure if I should have split them into 3 questions, but they all seem sort of related: 1) How does .NET handle instances of classes and other code things that take up memory? I recently found out about using the factory pattern for certain things like service classes so that they are only instantiated once in the entire application, but then I was told that '.NET handles a lot of that stuff automatically when mentioning it.' 2) How does Nhibernate's session handle automatic clean-up of un-used things? I've seen some say that it is great at handling things automatically and you should just use a session factory and that's it, no need to close it. But I have also read and seem many examples where people close the hibernate session. 3) How does LINQ's datacontext handle this? Most of the time I never .disposed my datacontext's and the app didn't see to take a performance hit (though I am not running anything super intensively), but it seems like most people recommend disposing of your datacontext after you are done with it. However, I have seen many many code examples where the dispose method is never called. Also in general I found it kind of annoying that you couldn't access even one-deep child related objects after disposing of the datacontext unless you explicity also grabbed them in the query. Thanks all. I am loving this site so far, I kind of get lost and spend hours just reading things on here. =)

    Read the article

  • Generate an ID via COM interop

    - by Erik van Brakel
    At the moment, we've got an unmaintanable ball of code which offers an interface to a third party application. The third party application has a COM assembly which MUST be used to create new entries. This process involves two steps: generate a new object (basically an ID), and update that object with new field values. Because COM interop is so slow, we only use that to generate the ID (and related objects) in the database. The actual update is done using a regular SQL query. What I am trying to figure out if it's possible to use NHibernate to do some of the heavy lifting for us, without bypassing the COM assembly. Here's the code for saving something to the database as I envision it: using(var s = sessionFactory.OpenSession()) using(var t = s.BeginTransaction()) { MyEntity entity = new MyEntity(); s.Save(entity); t.Commit(); } Regular NH code I'd say. Now, this is where it gets tricky. I think I have to supply my own implementation of NHibernate.Id.IIdentifierGenerator which calls the COM assembly in the Generate method. That's not a problem. What IS a problem is that the COM assembly requires initialisation, which does take a bit of time. It also doesn't like multiple instances in the same process, for some reason. What I would like to know is if there's a way to properly access an external service in the generator code. I'm free to use any technique I want, so if it involves something like an IoC container that's no problem. The thing I am looking for is where exactly to hook-up my code so I can access the things I need in my generator, without having to resort to using singletons or other nasty stuff.

    Read the article

  • Is the RESTORE process dependent on schema?

    - by Martin Aatmaa
    Let's say I have two database instances: InstanceA - Production server InstanceB - Test server My workflow is to deploy new schema changes to InstanceB first, test them, and then deploy them to InstanceA. So, at any one time, the instance schema relationship looks like this: InstanceA - Schema Version 1.5 InstanceB - Schema Version 1.6 (new version being tested) An additional part of my workflow is to keep the data in InstanceB as fresh as possible. To fulfill this, I am taking the database backups of InstanceA and applying them (restoring them) to InstanceB. My question is, how does schema version affect the restoral process? I know I can do this: Backup InstanceA - Schema Version 1.5 Restore to InstanceB - Schema Version 1.5 But can I do this? Backup InstanceA - Schema Version 1.5 Restore to InstanceB - Schema Version 1.6 (new version being tested) If no, what would the failure look like? If yes, would the type of schema change matter? For example, if Schema Version 1.6 differed from Schema Version 1.5 by just having an altered storec proc, I imagine that this type of schema change should't affect the restoral process. On the other hand, if Schema Version 1.6 differed from Schema Version 1.5 by having a different table definition (say, an additional column), I image this would affect the restoral process. I hope I've made this clear enough. Thanks in advance for any input!

    Read the article

  • jmap -histo is missing a lot of memory

    - by ripper234
    I have a JVM with 12 gigs of total RAM, out of which 7 GB is allocated to the old generation. There seems to be some memory leak, because almost the entire old gen is full, and will not release when I schedule a GC (the process is not doing anything else at that time). A jmap -histo dump only reveals less than 1 gigabyte worth of objects. Where are the missing 6 gigs? What better tool do you propose for diagnosing this? Here is the top of the jmap output: num #instances #bytes class name ---------------------------------------------- 1: 429853 68725736 <constMethodKlass> 2: 429853 51594040 <methodKlass> 3: 37503 49611368 <constantPoolKlass> 4: 37503 31109576 <instanceKlassKlass> 5: 191716 28019968 [C 6: 32573 26933152 <constantPoolCacheKlass> 7: 86158 13789560 [I 8: 53532 11244232 [B 9: 284 10507216 [J 10: 137608 7210664 <symbolKlass> 11: 203072 6498304 java.lang.String 12: 10132 5219512 <methodDataKlass> 13: 39694 4128176 java.lang.Class 14: 55713 3792816 [S 15: 61816 3141936 [[I 16: 90109 2883488 java.util.HashMap$Entry

    Read the article

  • How to build a web crawler to find a specific advert, which is in an iframe loaded by Javascript

    - by ZoFreX
    I'm trying to find all instances of an advert on a website. The advert is in an iframe which is loaded by javascript (it doesn't appear at all if javascript is turned off). Detecting the advert itself is extremely simple, both the name of the flash file and the target of the href always contain a certain string. What would be the best "starting point" for achieving this? At the moment I'm considering an Adobe AIR app, which could crawl the site and examine the DOM to find the ad, and would run javascript and load the content of the iframe. The other option I can think of is using Firefox as the platform (using maybe GreaseMonkey or Selenium? I don't really know how to leverage Firefox like this). Does anyone know of anything suitable to build this, or have any suggestions on using Firefox to do it? Extra details: Being CPU intensive isn't really an issue, nor is anything depending on a browser being open. This doesn't need to run on a headless server, it will be running on a powerful desktop box. OS is also not an issue. It would be advantageous if the crawler loaded each page multiple times, as the advert is in rotation. While the crawler does need to execute the javascript and load the content of the iframe, it does not need to be able to display flash files.

    Read the article

  • C# reference collection for storing reference types

    - by ivo s
    I like to implement a collection (something like List<T>) which would hold all my objects that I have created in the entire life span of my application as if its an array of pointers in C++. The idea is that when my process starts I can use a central factory to create all objects and then periodically validate/invalidate their state. Basically I want to make sure that my process only deals with valid instances and I don't re-fetch information I already fetched from the database. So all my objects will basically be in one place - my collection. A cool thing I can do with this is avoid database calls to get data from the database if I already got it (even if I updated it after retrieval its still up-to-date if of course some other process didn't update it but that a different concern). I don't want to be calling new Customer("James Thomas"); again if I initted James Thomas already sometime in the past. Currently I will end up with multiple copies of the same object across the appdomain - some out of sync other in sync and even though I deal with this using timestamp field on the MSSQL server I'd like to keep only one copy per customer in my appdomain (if possible process would be better). I can't use regular collections like List or ArrayList for example because I cannot pass parameters by their real local reference to the their existing Add() methods where I'm creating them using ref so that's not to good I think. So how can this be implemented/can it be implemented at all ? A 'linked list' type of class with all methods working with ref & out params is what I'm thinking now but it may get ugly pretty quickly. Is there another way to implement such collection like RefList<T>.Add(ref T obj)? So bottom line is: I don't want re-create an object if I've already created it before during the entire application life unless I decide to re-create it explicitly (maybe its out-of-date or something so I have to fetch it again from the db). Is there alternatives maybe ?

    Read the article

  • ReportServer 2005 Custom Assembly Error

    - by user752083
    We have a reportserver on sql server 2005, it has previously been working on computer X which we are replacing with a computer Y. Computer X only had one default sql instance as our test environment, machine Y is a new machine with 2 sql instances, Y\TEST and Y\DEV. Both machines run Windows Server 2003 and Both have Sql Server 2005 installed together with Report Server We have not currently done any work on the DEV instance, just on the TEST instance. The reportserver is installed for TEST. SSRS previously worked as intended on X machine, and on Y\TEST its working for reports not using any custom code. However for some of the reports we are loading a custom assembly Localization. This assembly currently exists in following folders on server: C:\Program Files\Microsoft Visual Studio 8\Common7\IDE\PublicAssemblies C:\Program Files\Microsoft Visual Studio 8\Common7\IDE\PrivateAssemblies C:\Program Files\Microsoft SQL Server\MSSQL.2\Reporting Services\ReportServer\bin Also in rssrvpolicy.config, the entry for Report_Expressions_Default_Permissions has been changed from Execution to FullTrust (Although this was not necessary on the machine X). When attempting to upload the rdl files through the web interface, we get the following errors: Error while loading code module: ‘Localization, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=e302ddd55ecd694a’. Details: Could not load file or assembly 'Localization, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=e302ddd55ecd694a' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. (rsErrorLoadingCodeModule) Get Online Help There is an error on line 14 of custom code: [BC30451] Name 'Localization' is not declared. (rsCompilerErrorInCode) Get Online Help Does anyone know any other places with potential errors?

    Read the article

  • Accessing the stringValue from NSTextFields on different NIBs

    - by Kyle Zaragoza
    I'm having an extremely difficult time trying to access information from an object (e.g. an NSTextField) that is located on a NIB other than my "MainMenu.nib". My current setup: I have a MainMenu.xib that contains only a toolbar at the top and an NSView. I have four other .xib files containing custom NSViews and each of their File Owner's are assigned to a NSViewController subclass which I have created for each. My MainMenu.xib contains an object that is set to my WindowController subclass that takes care of swapping the fours views into the NSView on my MainMenu.xib. All of this works fantastic. Where I have a problem: I have another class that acts as the brains to my application which sends and receives data from an online server, all of the methods I have created rely on inputs from the user that are located on the individual .xibs that swap into my MainMenu.xib's NSview. Unfortunately I have no idea on how to grab the information from the NSTextFields, textViews, etc. that are located on my individual .xib files. What I've tried: I have tried setting the File Owner's of the four individual .xibs to my "brains" class and connecting outlets defined in my "brains".h, but when I call [textField stringValue] I receive a NULL response. I'm thinking this is because I'm creating multiple instances of my "brains" class but not totally sure. Any help on accessing information from textFields from other nibs would be a great benefit, thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • How should I handle this Optimistic Concurrency error in this Entity Framework code, I have?

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, I have the following pseduo code in some Repository Pattern project that uses EF4. public void Delete(int someId) { // 1. Load the entity for that Id. If there is none, then null. // 2. If entity != null, then DeleteObject(..); } Pretty simple but I'm getting a run-time error:- ConcurrencyException: Store, Update, Insert or Delete statement affected an unexpected number of rows (0). Now, this is what is happening :- Two instances of EF4 are running inthe app at the same time. Instance A calls delete. Instance B calls delete a nano second later. Instance A loads the entity. Instance B also loads the entity. Instance A now deletes that entity - cool bananas. Instance B tries to delete the entity, but it's already gone. As such, the no-count or what not is 0, when it expected 1 .. or something like that. Basically, it figured out that the item it is suppose to delete, didn't delete (because it happened a split sec ago). I'm not sure if this is like a race-condition or something. Anyways, is there any tricks I can do here so the 2nd call doesn't crash? I could make it into a stored procedure.. but I'm hoping to avoid that right now. Any ideas? I'm wondering If it's possible to lock that row (and that row only) when the select is called ... forcing Instance B to wait until the row lock has been relased. By that time, the row is deleted, so when Instance B does it's select, the data is not there .. so it will never delete.

    Read the article

  • Why can't I wrap the ServletRequest when trying to capture JSP Output

    - by Patrick Cornelissen
    I am trying to dispatch in a servlet request handler to the JSP processor and capture the content of it. I am providing wrapper instances for the ServletRequest and ServletResponse, they implement the corresponding HTTPServletRequest/-Response interfaces, so they should be drop-in replacements. All methods are currently passed to the original Servlet Request object (I am planning to modify some of them soon). Additionally I have introduced some new methods. (If you want to see the code: http://code.google.com/p/gloudy/source/browse/trunk/gloudyPortal/src/java/org/gloudy/gloudlet/impl/RenderResponseImpl.java) The HttpServletResponse uses it's own output streams to capture the output. When I try to call request.getRequestDispatcher("/WEB-INF/views/test.jsp").include(request, response); With my request and response wrappers the method returns and no content has been captured. When I tried to pass the original request object it worked! But that's not what I need in the long run... request.getRequestDispatcher("/WEB-INF/views/test.jsp").include(request.getServletRequest(), response); This works. getservletRequest() returns the original Request, given by the servlet container. Does anyone know why this is not working with my wrappers?

    Read the article

  • Access cost of dynamically created objects with dynamically allocated members

    - by user343547
    I'm building an application which will have dynamic allocated objects of type A each with a dynamically allocated member (v) similar to the below class class A { int a; int b; int* v; }; where: The memory for v will be allocated in the constructor. v will be allocated once when an object of type A is created and will never need to be resized. The size of v will vary across all instances of A. The application will potentially have a huge number of such objects and mostly need to stream a large number of these objects through the CPU but only need to perform very simple computations on the members variables. Could having v dynamically allocated could mean that an instance of A and its member v are not located together in memory? What tools and techniques can be used to test if this fragmentation is a performance bottleneck? If such fragmentation is a performance issue, are there any techniques that could allow A and v to allocated in a continuous region of memory? Or are there any techniques to aid memory access such as pre-fetching scheme? for example get an object of type A operate on the other member variables whilst pre-fetching v. If the size of v or an acceptable maximum size could be known at compile time would replacing v with a fixed sized array like int v[max_length] lead to better performance? The target platforms are standard desktop machines with x86/AMD64 processors, Windows or Linux OSes and compiled using either GCC or MSVC compilers.

    Read the article

  • JTextField vs JComboBox behaviour in JTable

    - by Ash
    Okay, this is a hard one to explain but I'll try my best. I have a JTextField and a JComboBox in a JTable, whose getCellEditor method has been overriden as follows: public TableCellEditor getCellEditor( int row, int column ) { if ( column == 3 ) { // m_table is the JTable if ( m_table.getSelectedRowCount() == 1 ) { JComboBox choices = new JComboBox(); choices.setEditable( true ); choices.addItem( new String( "item 1" ) ); return new DefaultCellEditor( choices ); } return super.getCellEditor( row, column ); } Here are the behavioral differences (NOTE that from this point on, when I say JTextField or JComboBox, I mean the CELL in the JTable containing either component): When I click once on a JTextField, the cell is highlighted. Double clicking brings up the caret and I can input text. Whereas, with a JComboBox, single clicking brings up the caret to input text, as well as the combo drop down button. When I tab or use the arrow keys to navigate to a JTextField and then start typing, the characters I type automatically get entered into the cell. Whereas, when I navigate to a JComboBox the same way and then start typing, nothing happens apart from the combo drop down button appearing. None of the characters I type get entered unless I hit F2 first. So here's my question: What do I need to do have JComboBoxes behave exactly like JTextFields in the two instances described above? Please do not ask why I'm doing what I'm doing or suggest alternatives (it's the way it is and I need to do it this way) and yes, I've read the API for all components in question....the problem is, it's a swing API. Thanks in advance, Ash

    Read the article

  • MySQL database design question

    - by Greelmo
    I'm trying to weigh the pros and cons of a database design, and would like to get some feedback as to the best approach. Here is the situation: I have users of my system that have only a few required items (username, password). They can then supply a lot of optional information. This optional information continues to grow as the system grows, so I want to do it in such a way that adding new optional information is easy. Currently, I have a separate table for each piece of information. For example, there's a table called 'names' that holds 'user_id', 'first_name', and 'last_name'. There's 'address', 'occupation', etc. You get the drift. In most cases, when I talk to my database, I'm looking only for users with one particular qualifier (name, address, etc.). However, there are instances when I want to see what information a user has set. The 'edit account' page, for example, must run queries for each piece of information it wants. Is this wasteful? Is there a way I can structure my queries or my database to make it so I never have to do one query for each piece of information like that without getting my tables to huge? If i want to add 'marital status', how hard will that be if I don't have a one-table-per-attribute system? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Binding type variables that only occur in assertions

    - by Giuseppe Maggiore
    Hi! I find it extremely difficult to describe my problem, so here goes nothing: I have a bunch of assertions on the type of a function. These assertions rely on a type variable that is not used for any parameter of the function, but is only used for internal bindings. Whenever I use this function it does not compile because, of course, the compiler has no information from which to guess what type to bind my type variable. Here is the code: {-# LANGUAGE MultiParamTypeClasses, FunctionalDependencies, FlexibleInstances, UndecidableInstances, FlexibleContexts, EmptyDataDecls, ScopedTypeVariables, TypeOperators, TypeSynonymInstances #-} class C a a' where convert :: a -> a' class F a b where apply :: a -> b class S s a where select :: s -> a data CInt = CInt Int instance S (Int,String) Int where select (i,_) = i instance F Int CInt where apply = CInt f :: forall s a b . (S s a, F a b) => s -> b f s = let v = select s :: a y = apply v :: b in y x :: Int x = f (10,"Pippo") And here is the generated error: FunctorsProblems.hs:21:4: No instances for (F a Int, S (t, [Char]) a) arising from a use of `f' at FunctorsProblems.hs:21:4-17 Possible fix: add an instance declaration for (F a Int, S (t, [Char]) a) In the expression: f (10, "Pippo") In the definition of `x': x = f (10, "Pippo") Failed, modules loaded: none. Prelude>

    Read the article

  • SQL Server Database In Single User Mode after Failover

    - by jlichauc
    Here is a weird situation we experienced with a SQL Server 2008 Database Mirroring Failover. We have a pair of mirrored databases running in high-availability mode and both the principal and mirror showed as synchronized. As part of some maintenance I triggered a manual failover of the principal to the mirror. However after the failover the principal was now in single-user mode instead of the expected "Principal/Synchronized" state we usually get. The database had been in multi-user mode on the previous principal before this had happened. We ended up stopping all applications, restarting the SQL Server instances, and executing "ALTER DATABASE ... SET MULTI_USER" to bring the database back to the expected "Principal/Synchronized" state in a multi-user mode. Question. Does anyone know where SQL Server stores information about whether a database should be in single-user mode or not? I'm wondering if there is some system database or table that has this setting recorded somewhere. In particular we had an incident once with the database on the original principal (the one I was failing over to) where when trying to detach the database it was put into single-user mode. I'm wondering if that setting is cached somewhere and is the reason that SQL Server put it back into single-user mode after a failover.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173  | Next Page >