Search Results

Search found 8785 results on 352 pages for 'multi mark'.

Page 166/352 | < Previous Page | 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173  | Next Page >

  • Hide / show div toggle

    - by aa1
    I have the following mark up with a basic and advanced search divs. <div class="form"> <form> <input type="text" name="first_name"> <input type="text" name="last_name"> <div id="Basic" class="slide"> <input type="text" name="location"> </div> <a onclick="ShowDiv('Adv');">+ show advanced fields</a> <div id="Adv" class="slide hidden"> <input type="text" name="first_name2"> <input type="text" name="last_name2"> <input type="text" name="street"> <input type="text" name="town"> <input type="text" name="country"> </div> </form> <a onclick="ShowDiv('Basic');">- hide advanced fields</a> </div> The toggle is achieved with the following script function HideDiv() { $('.slide').hide(); } function ShowDiv(ctrl) { HideDiv(); $('#' + ctrl).show(); } ShowDiv('Basic'); I need to eliminate the need of using both links. I need to have only one link depending on state. So if the div basic is shown as default the link will say show advanced. When the advanced is shown the anchor link should switch to hide advanced How do I need to edit my jQuery and mark up.

    Read the article

  • Problem with a NSString that equals to (null)

    - by Guy Dor
    Hi, I have an UIViewController named MainViewController I have another UIViewController named LeftSharingViewController; I would like to get and use the NSString from MainViewController in my LeftSharingViewController I have a problem, I always get (null) instead of the NSString wanted value. Here's my code and how does the NSString get it's value MainViewController: - (void)webViewDidFinishLoad:(UIWebView *)webView { leftWebViewString = [NSString stringWithString:leftWebView.request.URL.absoluteString]; } LeftSharingViewController.h: #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> #import "MainViewController.h" #import <MessageUI/MessageUI.h> #import <MessageUI/MFMailComposeViewController.h> @class MainViewController; @interface LeftSharingViewController : UIViewController <MFMailComposeViewControllerDelegate> { MainViewController *mainViewController; NSString *leftWebViewUrl; } @property (nonatomic, retain) MainViewController *mainViewController; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *leftWebViewUrl; @end LeftSharingViewController.m: #import "LeftSharingViewController.h" #import "MainViewController.h" @implementation LeftSharingViewController @synthesize mainViewController; @synthesize leftWebViewUrl; - (void)viewWillAppear:(BOOL)animated { self.leftWebViewUrl = self.mainViewController.leftWebViewString; } #pragma mark - #pragma mark Compose Mail -(void)displayComposerSheet { MFMailComposeViewController *mailPicker = [[MFMailComposeViewController alloc] init]; mailPicker.mailComposeDelegate = self; [mailPicker setSubject:@"Check Out This Website!"]; [mailPicker setMessageBody:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"Take a look at this site:%@", leftWebViewUrl] isHTML:YES]; mailPicker.modalPresentationStyle = UIModalPresentationFormSheet; [self presentModalViewController:mailPicker animated:YES]; [mailPicker release]; } Thanks!

    Read the article

  • wmd editor, why does it keep showing html instead of just going straight to markup

    - by Ke
    hi, im wondering how wmd is supposed to work, when i type in the textarea the text doesnt have html, but once the text is stored in db it turns to html. wmd also shows all this html when reloading the content? is it supposed to work like this? Do I have to sanitize the text before its put into the db? if so how? I thought wmd doesnt deal with html? except in code blocks. Also there are p tags being added Using the beneath html it gets added directly. I guess this could cause xss attacks? - (1) <a onmouseover="alert(1)" href="#">read this!</a> - (2) <p <script>alert(1)</script>hello - (3) </td <script>alert(1)</script>hello I wonder how is wmd supposed to work? I thought it was supposed to enter everything in its own mark up, store its on mark up and retrieve it etc. instead of storing plain html Chees Ke

    Read the article

  • Can't add to NSMutableArray from SecondaryView

    - by Antonio
    Hi guys, I've searched and read and still haven't found a concrete answer. Brief: I have an application where I declare an NSMutableArray in my AppDelegate to synthesize when the application loads. (code below). I have a SecondaryViewController call this function, and I have it output a string to let me know what the array size is. Every time I run it, it executes but it does not add any objects to the array. How do I fix this? AppDelegate.h file #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @class arrayTestViewController; @interface arrayTestAppDelegate : NSObject <UIApplicationDelegate> { UIWindow *window; arrayTestViewController *viewController; NSMutableArray *myArray3; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableArray *myArray3; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UIWindow *window; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet arrayTestViewController *viewController; -(void)addToArray3; @end AppDelegate.m file #import "arrayTestAppDelegate.h" #import "arrayTestViewController.h" @implementation arrayTestAppDelegate @synthesize window; @synthesize viewController; @synthesize myArray3; #pragma mark - #pragma mark Application lifecycle - (BOOL)application:(UIApplication *)application didFinishLaunchingWithOptions:(NSDictionary *)launchOptions { myArray3 = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; // Override point for customization after application launch. // Add the view controller's view to the window and display. [window addSubview:viewController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; return YES; } -(void)addToArray3{ NSLog(@"Array Count: %d", [myArray3 count]); [myArray3 addObject:@"Test"]; NSLog(@"Array triggered from SecondViewController"); NSLog(@"Array Count: %d", [myArray3 count]); } SecondViewController.m file #import "SecondViewController.h" #import "arrayTestAppDelegate.h" @implementation SecondViewController -(IBAction)addToArray{ arrayTestAppDelegate *object = [[arrayTestAppDelegate alloc] init]; [object addToArray3]; }

    Read the article

  • iOS: click counter for row in tableview

    - by roger.arliner21
    I am developing and tableView in which in each row I have to display the click counter and row number.Each cell must have an initial click counter value of 0 when application is initialized. Then increment the click counter value within a cell whenever a user clicks on the cell. I have take 26 fixed rows. I have taken tableData.plist file as in the attached image. I am initializing the self.dataArray with the plist . Now I want to do implementation in the didSelectRowAtIndexPath delegate method,if any row is tapped that row's click counter should increment. - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; NSString *path = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"tableData" ofType:@"plist"]; self.dataArray = [NSMutableArray arrayWithContentsOfFile:path];//array initialized with plist } - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { return [self.dataArray count]; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *kCustomCellID = @"MyCellID"; UILabel *label1 = [[UILabel alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(160.0f, 2.0f, 30.0f, 20.0f)]; UILabel *label2 = [[UILabel alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(160.0f, 24.0f, 30.0f, 30.0f)]; label2.textColor = [UIColor grayColor]; UITableViewCell *cell = (UITableViewCell *)[tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:kCustomCellID]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleSubtitle reuseIdentifier:kCustomCellID] autorelease]; cell.selectionStyle = UITableViewCellSelectionStyleNone; } if([self.dataArray count]>indexPath.row) { label1.text = [[self.dataArray objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] objectForKey:@"Lable1"]; label2.text =[[self.dataArray objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] objectForKey:@"Lable2"]; } else { label1.text = @""; label2.text =@""; } [cell.contentView addSubview:label1]; [cell.contentView addSubview:label2]; [label1 release]; [label2 release]; return cell; } #pragma mark - #pragma mark Table view delegate - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { //implementation for row counter incrementer. }

    Read the article

  • SQL indexes for "not equal" searches

    - by bortzmeyer
    The SQL index allows to find quickly a string which matches my query. Now, I have to search in a big table the strings which do not match. Of course, the normal index does not help and I have to do a slow sequential scan: essais=> \d phone_idx Index "public.phone_idx" Column | Type --------+------ phone | text btree, for table "public.phonespersons" essais=> EXPLAIN SELECT person FROM PhonesPersons WHERE phone = '+33 1234567'; QUERY PLAN ------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Index Scan using phone_idx on phonespersons (cost=0.00..8.41 rows=1 width=4) Index Cond: (phone = '+33 1234567'::text) (2 rows) essais=> EXPLAIN SELECT person FROM PhonesPersons WHERE phone != '+33 1234567'; QUERY PLAN ---------------------------------------------------------------------- Seq Scan on phonespersons (cost=0.00..18621.00 rows=999999 width=4) Filter: (phone <> '+33 1234567'::text) (2 rows) I understand (see Mark Byers' very good explanations) that PostgreSQL can decide not to use an index when it sees that a sequential scan would be faster (for instance if almost all the tuples match). But, here, "not equal" searches are really slower. Any way to make these "is not equal to" searches faster? Here is another example, to address Mark Byers' excellent remarks. The index is used for the '=' query (which returns the vast majority of tuples) but not for the '!=' query: essais=> EXPLAIN ANALYZE SELECT person FROM EmailsPersons WHERE tld(email) = 'fr'; QUERY PLAN ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ Index Scan using tld_idx on emailspersons (cost=0.25..4010.79 rows=97033 width=4) (actual time=0.137..261.123 rows=97110 loops=1) Index Cond: (tld(email) = 'fr'::text) Total runtime: 444.800 ms (3 rows) essais=> EXPLAIN ANALYZE SELECT person FROM EmailsPersons WHERE tld(email) != 'fr'; QUERY PLAN -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Seq Scan on emailspersons (cost=0.00..27129.00 rows=2967 width=4) (actual time=1.004..1031.224 rows=2890 loops=1) Filter: (tld(email) <> 'fr'::text) Total runtime: 1037.278 ms (3 rows) DBMS is PostgreSQL 8.3 (but I can upgrade to 8.4).

    Read the article

  • Sending a JSON object to an ASP.NET web service using JQUERY ajax function

    - by uzay95
    I want to create object on the client side of aspx page. And i want to add functions to these javascript classes to make easier the life. Actually i can get and use the objects (derived from the server side classes) which returns from the services. When i wanted to send objects from the client by jquery ajax methods, i couldn't do it :) This is my javascript object: function ClassAndMark(_mark, _lesson){ this.Lesson = _lesson; this.Mark = _mark; } function Student(_name, _surname, _classAndMark){ this.Name = _name; this.SurName = _surname; this.ClassAndMark = _classAndMark; } JSClass.prototype.fSaveToDB(){ $.ajax({ type: "POST", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", url: "/WS/SaveObject.asmx/fSaveToDB"), data: ????????????, dataType: "json" }); } Actually i don't know what should be definition of classes and methods on the Server side but i think: class ClassAndMark{ public string Lesson ; public string Mark ; } class Student{ public string Name ; public string SurName ; public ClassAndMark ClassAndMark ; } Web service is below but again i couldn't get what should be instead of the ???? : [WebMethod()] public void fSaveToDB(???? _obj) { // How can i convert input parameter/parameters // of method in the server side object? }

    Read the article

  • PHP Form - Edit & Delete via Text File Db

    - by Jax
    hi, I pieced together the script below from various tutorials, examples, etc... Right now the script currently: Saves Id, Name, Url with a "|" delimiter to a text file Db like: 1|John|http://www.john.com| 2|Mark|http://www.mark.com| 3|Fred|http://www.fred.com| But I'm having a hard time trying to make the "UPDATE" and "DELETE" buttons work. Can someone please post code which will: let me update/save any changed data for that row (for UPDATE button) let me delete that row (for DELETE button) PLEASE copy n paste the code below and try for yourself. I would like to keep the output format of the script below too. thanks D- $file = "data.txt"; $name = $_POST['name']; $url = $_POST['url']; $data = file('data.txt'); $i = 1; foreach ($data as $line) { $line = explode('|', $line); $i++; } if (isset($_POST['submits'])) { $fp = fopen($file, "a+"); fwrite($fp, $i."|".$name."|".$url."|\n"); fclose($fp); } ? '); } ?

    Read the article

  • How to define 2-bit numbers in C, if possible?

    - by Eddy
    For my university process I'm simulating a process called random sequential adsorption. One of the things I have to do involves randomly depositing squares (which cannot overlap) onto a lattice until there is no more room left, repeating the process several times in order to find the average 'jamming' coverage %. Basically I'm performing operations on a large array of integers, of which 3 possible values exist: 0, 1 and 2. The sites marked with '0' are empty, the sites marked with '1' are full. Initially the array is defined like this: int i, j; int n = 1000000000; int array[n][n]; for(j = 0; j < n; j++) { for(i = 0; i < n; i++) { array[i][j] = 0; } } Say I want to deposit 5*5 squares randomly on the array (that cannot overlap), so that the squares are represented by '1's. This would be done by choosing the x and y coordinates randomly and then creating a 5*5 square of '1's with the topleft point of the square starting at that point. I would then mark sites near the square as '2's. These represent the sites that are unavailable since depositing a square at those sites would cause it to overlap an existing square. This process would continue until there is no more room left to deposit squares on the array (basically, no more '0's left on the array) Anyway, to the point. I would like to make this process as efficient as possible, by using bitwise operations. This would be easy if I didn't have to mark sites near the squares. I was wondering whether creating a 2-bit number would be possible, so that I can account for the sites marked with '2'. Sorry if this sounds really complicated, I just wanted to explain why I want to do this.

    Read the article

  • Move SELECT to SQL Server side

    - by noober
    Hello all, I have an SQLCLR trigger. It contains a large and messy SELECT inside, with parts like: (CASE WHEN EXISTS(SELECT * FROM INSERTED I WHERE I.ID = R.ID) THEN '1' ELSE '0' END) AS IsUpdated -- Is selected row just added? as well as JOINs etc. I like to have the result as a single table with all included. Question 1. Can I move this SELECT to SQL Server side? If yes, how to do this? Saying "move", I mean to create a stored procedure or something else that can be executed before reading dataset in while cycle. The 2 following questions make sense only if answer is "yes". Why do I want to move SELECT? First off, I don't like mixing SQL with C# code. At second, I suppose that server-side queries run faster, since the server have more chances to cache them. Question 2. Am I right? Is it some sort of optimizing? Also, the SELECT contains constant strings, but they are localizable. For instance, WHERE R.Status = "Enabled" "Enabled" should be changed for French, German etc. So, I want to write 2 static methods -- OnCreate and OnDestroy -- then mark them as stored procedures. When registering/unregistering my assembly on server side, just call them respectively. In OnCreate format the SELECT string, replacing {0}, {1}... with required values from the assembly resources. Then I can localize resources only, not every script. Question 3. Is it good idea? Is there an existing attribute to mark methods to be executed by SQL Server automatically after (un)registartion an assembly? Regards,

    Read the article

  • What are your Programming Falacies/Myths?

    - by pms1969
    I recently started a new job and as is typical of all jobs, if you've left, you get blamed for everything. Not long after I started there was a change required for an app (web based) that we maintain, and it was quickly pointed out that the actual code for this site had been lost a long time ago, and the only changes we could make to the it were ones that required changes to mark-up [it was a pre-compiled site]. Being new, I needed a little help finding my way around the code, and enlisted the services of one of my colleagues. Made my changes, and then re-enlisted his help to deploy it. While prepping for the deployment (getting the app on the QA server) we discovered that there were actually 2 different, very similarly named, folders in our source repository. It transpired that for the last year or so, mark-up changes had been made to the site directly, and these were the only differences with the code in the slightly incorrectly named folder in source control. So we did have all the code, and can now properly support the site. This put me in mind of a trick we played on a junior programmer once in a previous job, where we told him he couldn't/shouldn't do a certain thing in code as this would likely bring the server to it's knees and cost the company thousands of pounds (a gag that last months :-). And another one in the first programming job I took on - the batch commission run was just going to crash once a month and there was nothing to be done about it, causing a call out, and call out compensation for the on-call guy (a bug I fixed as soon as I became the on-call guy - 2am call outs don't work for me). So I was wondering... What other programming fallacies/myths are out there that are worth sharing?

    Read the article

  • Symfony 1.3: Any opinion about this code? Coud be shorter or better?

    - by user248959
    Hi, I need your opinion about this code below. I have a list of messages: each message has a link that change the state of the message (read - non read). In the partial "_message" i have this: <div class="switching_link" id="switching_link_<?php echo $message ?>"> echo include_partial('link_switch_state', array('message' => $message)) </div> In the partial "_link_switch_state" i have this: if((int)$message->getState() == 1) { $string_state_message="non read"; } else { $string_state_message="read"; } echo link_to_remote('Mark as '.$string_state_message, array( 'url' => 'message/switchState?id='.$message->getId(), 'update' => 'switching_link_'.$message, "complete" => "switchClassMessage('$message');", )); And in message/actions/actions.class.php i have this: public function executeSwitchState(sfWebRequest $request) { // searching the message we want to change its state. $this->messages = Doctrine::getTable('Message')->findById($request->getParameter('id')); // changing the state of the message. if($this->messages[0]->getState() == 1) { $this->messages[0]->setState(0); } else { $this->messages[0]->setState(1); } $this->messages[0]->save(); // rendering the partial that shows the link ("Mark as read/non read"). return $this->renderPartial('mensaje/link_switch_state', array( 'message' => $this->messages[0])); } Regards Javi

    Read the article

  • Appending a TR to Table Not Formatting Correctly

    - by TimNguyenBSM
    My PHP script is sending back an array: $currentStatus = ( isset( $status ) ) ? "1" : "0"; $html = "<tr><td>" . $email . "</td><td>" . ( ( $status->type == 0 ) ? "View Only" : ( ( $status->type == 1 ) ? "View & Mark" : "View, Mark & Edit" ) ) . "</td><td>Invited</td></tr>"; echo json_encode( array( $html, $currentStatus ) ); Then my jquery is appending this to the table: ... success: function( result ) { var resultArray = eval( result ); $( "#myTable tr:last").append( resultArray[0] ); ... } Problem is, when it prints, it prints the following extra marks: [email protected]<\/td> View Only<\/td> Invited<\/td><\/tr>","1"] If I only echo the HTML it appends to table just fine, but I cant do that because I need the $currentStatus back too to do something with it. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Undeclared - 'first use in function'

    - by Ragunath Jawahar
    I'm new to Objective-C, though I have a very good hand in Android. I'm trying to make a call to a method but it gives me 'first use in function'. I know I'm making a silly mistake but experts could figure it out easily. RootViewController.h #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> #import "ContentViewController.h" @interface RootViewController : UITableViewController { ContentViewController *contentViewController; } @property (nonatomic, retain) ContentViewController *contentViewController; - (NSString*)getContentFileName:(NSString*)title; //<--- This function declartion @end RootViewController.m #import "RootViewController.h" #import "HAWATAppDelegate.h" #import "ContentViewController.h" @implementation RootViewController @synthesize contentViewController; ... more methods ... #pragma mark - #pragma mark Table view delegate - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { HAWATAppDelegate *appDelegate = (HAWATAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; NSString *title = (NSString *) [appDelegate.titles objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; NSString *fileName = getContentFileName:title; //<--- Here is the error ... } - (NSString*) getContentFileName:(NSString*)title { return [title lowercaseString]; } @end There must be a simple thing I'm missing. Please let me know. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • How to get a UIAlertView's result??

    - by cocos2dbeginner
    Hi, I implemented the gamekit. All works fine now. But if the user presses on send the data will instantly send to the other iphone/ipod/ipad and it will instantly written. So now i wanted to implemenr a confirm screen for the receiver. In my receiveData method (from the gamekit) i have an array. If the user presses yes the array will be written into a file.if not it wont be written into a file. #pragma mark - #pragma mark - GKreceiveData - (void) receiveData:(NSData *)data fromPeer:(NSString *)peer inSession: (GKSession *)session context:(void *)context { NSDictionary *dict = [NSKeyedUnarchiver unarchiveObjectWithData:data]; UIAlertView *alert = [[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Incoming Set" message:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@ wants to send you a Set named: \n\n %@",[session displayNameForPeer:peer], [dict valueForKey:@"SetName"]] delegate:self cancelButtonTitle:@"Cancel" otherButtonTitles:@"OK", nil]; [alert show]; [alert release]; } - (void)alertView:(UIAlertView *)actionSheet clickedButtonAtIndex:(NSInteger)buttonIndex { // the user clicked one of the OK/Cancel buttons if (buttonIndex == 0) { //NSLog(@"ok"); //this should happen if the user presses on ok on the alertview. [dataArray addObject:dict]; //i can't acess "dict" } else { //NSLog(@"cancel"); } } Do you see the problem?? What can I do??

    Read the article

  • passing info from facebook to UITabBarController

    - by EquinoX
    When my app first start, it shows up a main page showing to login to facebook and then it goes to the UITabBarController. The code that I have in my app delegate is the following: //this is the .h @interface NMeAppDelegate : NSObject <UIApplicationDelegate> { UIWindow *window; MainViewController *controller; UITabBarController *tabBar; } @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UITabBarController *tabBar; @property (nonatomic, retain) MainViewController *controller; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UIWindow *window; @end //this is the .m of the app delegate #import "NMeAppDelegate.h" @implementation NMeAppDelegate @synthesize window; @synthesize tabBar; @synthesize controller; #pragma mark - #pragma mark Application lifecycle - (BOOL)application:(UIApplication *)application didFinishLaunchingWithOptions:(NSDictionary *)launchOptions { // Override point for customization after application launch. controller = [[MainViewController alloc] init]; [window addSubview:tabBar.view]; [window addSubview:controller.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; return YES; } Inside of MainViewController, I actually have a Facebook * facebook object, which basically has all of the information that I need. Every information that I need for this apps is queried in the MainViewController. The problem is that after getting this info and now I am in the UITabViewController... how do I get those information that I already queried facebook for? I have a class called UserInfo as well, which basically has everything essential I need. I need to have the info from UserInfo so that the other ViewController in the UITabBarController have access to it.... I hope my question makes sense

    Read the article

  • jQuery async ajax query and returning value problem (scope, closure)

    - by glebovgin
    Hi. Code not working because of async query and variable scope problem. I can't understand how to solve this. Change to $.ajax method with async:false - not an option. I know about closures, but how I can implement it here - don't know. I've seen all topics here about closures in js and jQuery async problems - but still nothing. Help, please. Here is the code: var map = null; var marker; var cluster = null; function refreshMap() { var markers = []; var markerImage = new google.maps.MarkerImage('/images/image-1_32_t.png', new google.maps.Size(32, 32)); $.get('/get_users.php',{},function(data){ if(data.status == 'error') return false; var users = data.users; // here users.length = 1 - this is ok; for(var i in users) { //here I have every values from users - ok var latLng = new google.maps.LatLng(users[i].lat, users[i].lng); var mark = new google.maps.Marker({ position: latLng, icon: markerImage }); markers.push(mark); alert(markers.length); // length 1 } },'json'); alert(markers.length); // length 0 //if I have alert() above - I get result cluster = new MarkerClusterer(map, markers, { maxZoom: null, gridSize: null }); } Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How to delete the first child of an element but referenced by $(this) in Jquery?

    - by Raja
    The scenario is I have two Divs one is where I select items (divResults) and it goes to the next div (divSelectedContacts). When I select it I place a tick mark next to it. What I want to do is when I select it again I want to remove the tick mark and also remove the element from divSelectedContacts. Here is the code. $("#divResults li").click(function() { if ($(this).find('span').size() == 1) { var copyElement = $(this).children().clone(); $(this).children().prepend("<span class='ui-icon ui-icon-check checked' style='float:left'></span>"); $("#divSelectedContacts").append(copyElement); } else { var deleteElement = $(this).find('span'); //here is the problem how to find the first span and delete it $(deleteElement).remove(); var copyElement = $(this).children().clone();//get the child element $("#divSelectedContacts").find(copyElement).remove(); //remove that element by finding it } }); I don't know how to select the first span in a li using $(this). Any help is much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Can't give my custom prototype cells in tableview different heights

    - by kerbelda
    I've looked around at other questions here and many other sources online and just can't find a solution. I have 3 rows and no matter what I do, they all keep the width defined in the tableview. The first one is what I want, but the second and 3rd I can't give a custom height. Below is my code: #import "DetailTableViewController.h" #import "EventDetailTableViewCell.h" #import "EventDescriptionTableViewCell.h" #import "EventMapTableViewCell.h" @interface DetailTableViewController () @end @implementation DetailTableViewController - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; } #pragma mark - Table view data source - (NSInteger)numberOfSectionsInTableView:(UITableView *)tableView { // Return the number of sections. return 3; } - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { // Return the number of rows in the section. return 1; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { if (indexPath.section == 0) { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"headerCell"; EventDetailTableViewCell *headerCell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier forIndexPath:indexPath]; headerCell.headerImage.image = [UIImage imageNamed:@"img4.png"]; return headerCell; } else if (indexPath.section == 1) { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"descriptionCell"; EventDescriptionTableViewCell *descriptionCell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier forIndexPath:indexPath]; descriptionCell.descriptionImage.image = [UIImage imageNamed:@"img2.png"]; return descriptionCell; } else { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"mapCell"; EventMapTableViewCell *mapCell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier forIndexPath:indexPath]; return mapCell; } } #pragma mark - Helper Methods - (NSString *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView titleForHeaderInSection:(NSInteger)section { if (section == 1) { return @" "; } else if (section == 2) { return @" "; } else { return nil; } } -(CGFloat)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView heightForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { if (indexPath.row == 0) { return 222; } else if (indexPath.row == 1) { return 80; } else { return 100; } } @end

    Read the article

  • Pain removing a perl rootkit

    - by paul.ago
    So, we host a geoservice webserver thing at the office. Someone apparently broke into this box (probably via ftp or ssh), and put some kind of irc-managed rootkit thing. Now I'm trying to clean the whole thing up, I found the process pid who tries to connect via irc, but i can't figure out who's the invoking process (already looked with ps, pstree, lsof) The process is a perl script owned by www user, but ps aux |grep displays a fake file path on the last column. Is there another way to trace that pid and catch the invoker? Forgot to mention: the kernel is 2.6.23, which is exploitable to become root, but I can't touch this machine too much, so I can't upgrade the kernel EDIT: lsof might help: lsof -p 9481 COMMAND PID USER FD TYPE DEVICE SIZE NODE NAMEss perl 9481 www cwd DIR 8,2 608 2 /ss perl 9481 www rtd DIR 8,2 608 2 /ss perl 9481 www txt REG 8,2 1168928 38385 /usr/bin/perl5.8.8ss perl 9481 www mem REG 8,2 135348 23286 /lib64/ld-2.5.soss perl 9481 www mem REG 8,2 103711 23295 /lib64/libnsl-2.5.soss perl 9481 www mem REG 8,2 19112 23292 /lib64/libdl-2.5.soss perl 9481 www mem REG 8,2 586243 23293 /lib64/libm-2.5.soss perl 9481 www mem REG 8,2 27041 23291 /lib64/libcrypt-2.5.soss perl 9481 www mem REG 8,2 14262 23307 /lib64/libutil-2.5.soss perl 9481 www mem REG 8,2 128642 23303 /lib64/libpthread-2.5.soss perl 9481 www mem REG 8,2 1602809 23289 /lib64/libc-2.5.soss perl 9481 www mem REG 8,2 19256 38662 /usr/lib64/perl5/5.8.8/x86_64-linux-threa d-multi/auto/IO/IO.soss perl 9481 www mem REG 8,2 21328 38877 /usr/lib64/perl5/5.8.8/x86_64-linux-threa d-multi/auto/Socket/Socket.soss perl 9481 www mem REG 8,2 52512 23298 /lib64/libnss_files-2.5.soss perl 9481 www 0r FIFO 0,5 1068892 pipess perl 9481 www 1w FIFO 0,5 1071920 pipess perl 9481 www 2w FIFO 0,5 1068894 pipess perl 9481 www 3u IPv4 130646198 TCP 192.168.90.7:60321-www.**.net:ircd (SYN_SENT)

    Read the article

  • Avoiding DNS timeouts when a dns server fails

    - by user65124
    Hi there. We have a small datacenter with about a hundred hosts pointing to 3 internal dns servers (bind 9). Our problem comes when one of the internal dns servers becomes unavailable. At that point all the clients that point to that server start performing very slowly. The problem seems to be that the stock linux resolver doesn't really have the concept of "failing over" to a different dns server. You can adjust the timeout and number of retries it uses, (and set rotate so it will work through the list), but no matter what settings one uses our services perform much more slowly if a primary dns server becomes unavailable. At the moment this is one of the largest sources of service disruptions for us. My ideal answer would be something like "RTFM: tweak /etc/resolv.conf like this...", but if that's an option I haven't seen it. I was wondering how other folks handled this issue? I can see 3 possible types of solutions: Use linux-ha/Pacemaker and failover ips (so the dns IP VIPs are "always" available). Alas, we don't have a good fencing infrastructure, and without fencing pacemaker doesn't work very well (in my experience Pacemaker lowers availability without fencing). Run a local dns server on each node, and have resolv.conf point to localhost. This would work, but it would give us a lot more services to monitor and manage. Run a local cache on each node. Folks seem to consider nscd "broken", but dnrd seems to have the right feature set: it marks dns servers as up or down, and won't use 'down' dns servers. Any-casting seems to work only at the ip routing level, and depends on route updates for server failure. Multi-casting seemed like it would be a perfect answer, but bind does not support broadcasting or multi-casting, and the docs I could find seem to suggest that multicast dns is more aimed at service discovery and auto-configuration rather than regular dns resolving. Am I missing an obvious solution?

    Read the article

  • Domain with www pointing yo another site

    - by ntechi
    Recently I started Multi Sites on my VPS which is having Centos 64 bit. Currently I am having two sites live and each is working fine, Now the problem is in the URL I have the following sites: http://mbas.co.in http://u-k.in mbas was the very first site on my VPS Now in URL if I type http://mbas.co.in or http://www.mbas.co.in both redirect to my mbas website But for the second website, If in URL I type http://u-k.in then it redirects to the u-k website correctly but if I type http://www.u-k.in then it redirects me to mbas website. You can try that I have configured my DNS in this way, see the image http://i55.tinypic.com/14vlpxl.jpg And my Multi Site code is this <VirtualHost *:80> ServerAdmin [email protected] DocumentRoot /var/www/html/www.mbas.co.in ServerName mbas.co.in ErrorLog logs/mbas.co.in-error_log CustomLog logs/mbas.co.in-access_log common </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost *:80> ServerAdmin [email protected] DocumentRoot /var/www/html/u-k.in ServerName u-k.in ErrorLog logs/u-k-error_log CustomLog logs/u-k-access_log common </VirtualHost>

    Read the article

  • GNOME 2 + Compiz equivalent?

    - by virtualeyes
    Running Fedora 14 and realize I need to either change distros or find an alternative to GNOME 3 in Fedora 17. Based on what I have read to-date, XFCE and KDE are the go-to WMs if I want to avoid GNOME 3. I tried KDE 4 and I wasn't impressed; I like the simplicity of GNOME 2 with Compiz and Emerald. Can't stay on Fedora 14 forever, however, so...where to turn? Basically looking for these features in my desktop environment: GNOME Do or equivalent Snap to grid/Window tiling A must-have, the ability to hot key focused window to a monitor grid region is a huge productivity win. Zoom window to cursor In a multi-monitor setup sometimes it's nice to, say, GNOME Do terminal in one monitor and then hot key the opened window to the other monitor just by zipping the mouse cursor anywhere on target monitor (followed by, of course, snap-to-grid hotkey, all without a single mouse click) Polarization At night white background hurts the eyes, so I prefer to hot key polarize to black. Multi-monitor support I'm partial to Fedora given that I've worked with CentOS for years and have little experience with any other Linux distro; however, if the difference between Fedora and Arch, Mint, etc. is fairly subtle, I'll make the leap, just need a distro & desktop environment that allows me to be productive with keyboard hot keys and provides the above basic features. Any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • Avoiding DNS timeouts when a dns server fails

    - by Neil Katin
    We have a small datacenter with about a hundred hosts pointing to 3 internal dns servers (bind 9). Our problem comes when one of the internal dns servers becomes unavailable. At that point all the clients that point to that server start performing very slowly. The problem seems to be that the stock linux resolver doesn't really have the concept of "failing over" to a different dns server. You can adjust the timeout and number of retries it uses, (and set rotate so it will work through the list), but no matter what settings one uses our services perform much more slowly if a primary dns server becomes unavailable. At the moment this is one of the largest sources of service disruptions for us. My ideal answer would be something like "RTFM: tweak /etc/resolv.conf like this...", but if that's an option I haven't seen it. I was wondering how other folks handled this issue? I can see 3 possible types of solutions: Use linux-ha/Pacemaker and failover ips (so the dns IP VIPs are "always" available). Alas, we don't have a good fencing infrastructure, and without fencing pacemaker doesn't work very well (in my experience Pacemaker lowers availability without fencing). Run a local dns server on each node, and have resolv.conf point to localhost. This would work, but it would give us a lot more services to monitor and manage. Run a local cache on each node. Folks seem to consider nscd "broken", but dnrd seems to have the right feature set: it marks dns servers as up or down, and won't use 'down' dns servers. Any-casting seems to work only at the ip routing level, and depends on route updates for server failure. Multi-casting seemed like it would be a perfect answer, but bind does not support broadcasting or multi-casting, and the docs I could find seem to suggest that multicast dns is more aimed at service discovery and auto-configuration rather than regular dns resolving. Am I missing an obvious solution?

    Read the article

  • SQL Server Database In Single User Mode after Failover

    - by jlichauc
    Here is a weird situation we experienced with a SQL Server 2008 Database Mirroring Failover. We have a pair of mirrored databases running in high-availability mode and both the principal and mirror showed as synchronized. As part of some maintenance I triggered a manual failover of the principal to the mirror. However after the failover the principal was now in single-user mode instead of the expected "Principal/Synchronized" state we usually get. The database had been in multi-user mode on the previous principal before this had happened. We ended up stopping all applications, restarting the SQL Server instances, and executing "ALTER DATABASE ... SET MULTI_USER" to bring the database back to the expected "Principal/Synchronized" state in a multi-user mode. Question. Does anyone know where SQL Server stores information about whether a database should be in single-user mode or not? I'm wondering if there is some system database or table that has this setting recorded somewhere. In particular we had an incident once with the database on the original principal (the one I was failing over to) where when trying to detach the database it was put into single-user mode. I'm wondering if that setting is cached somewhere and is the reason that SQL Server put it back into single-user mode after a failover.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173  | Next Page >