Search Results

Search found 18677 results on 748 pages for 'current'.

Page 168/748 | < Previous Page | 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175  | Next Page >

• Modelling deterministic and nondeterministic data separately

  - by Superstringcheese

  I'm working with the Microsoft ADO.NET Entity Framework for a game project. Following the advice of other posters on SO, I'm considering modelling deterministic and nondeterministic data separately. The idea for this came from a discussion on multiplayer games, but it seemed to make sense in a single-player scenario as well. Deterministic (things that aren't going to change during gameplay) Attributes (Strength, Agility, etc.) and their descriptions Skills and their descriptions and requirements Races, Factions, Equipment, etc. Base Attribute/Skill/Equipment loadouts for monsters Nondeterministic (things that will change a lot during gameplay) Beings' current AttributeModifers (Potion of Might = +10 Strength), current health and mana, etc. Player inventory, cash, experience, level Player quests states Player FactionRelationships ...and so on. My deterministic model would serve as a set of constants. My nondeterministic model would provide my on-the-fly operable data and would be serialized to a savegame file to maintain game state between play sessions. The data store will be an embedded SQL Compact database. So I might want to create relations between my Attributes table (deterministic model) and my BeingAttributeModifiers table (nondeterministic model), but how do I set that up across models? Det model/db Nondet model/db ____________ ________________________ |Attributes | |PlayerAttributeModifiers| |------------| |------------------------| |Id | |Id | |Name | |AttributeId | |Description | |SourceId | ------------ |Value | ------------------------ Should I use two separate models (edmx) that transact with a single database containing both deterministic-type and nondeterministic-type tables? Or should/can I use two separate databases in one model? Or two models each with their own database? With distinct models/dbs it seems like this will get really complicated and I'll end up fighting EF a lot, rolling my own transaction code, and generally losing out on a lot of the advantages of the framework. I know these are vague questions, I'm just looking for a sanity check before I forge ahead any further.

  Read the article

• Where is the Open Source alternative to WPF?

  - by Evan Plaice

  If we've learned anything from HTML/CSS it's that, declarative languages (like XML) work best to describe User Interfaces because: It's easy to build code preprocessors that can template the code effectively. The code is in a well defined well structured (ideally) format so it's easy to parse. The technology to effectively parse or crawl an XML based source file already exists. The UIs scripted code becomes much simpler and easier to understand. It simple enough that designers are able to design the interface themselves. Programmers suck at creating UIs so it should be made easy enough for designers. I recently took a look at the meat of a WPF application (ie. the XAML) and it looks surprisingly familiar to the declarative language style used in HTML. It's blindingly apparent to me that the current state of desktop UI development is largely fractionalized, otherwise there wouldn't be so much duplicated effort in the domain of user interfaces (IE. GTK, XUL, Qt, Winforms, WPF, etc). There are 45 GUI platforms for Python alone It's painfully obvious to me that there should be a general purpose, open source, standardized, platform independent, markup language for designing desktop GUIs. Much like what the W3C made HTML/CSS into. WPF, or more specifically XAML seems like a pretty likely step in the right direction. Why hasn't anyone in the Open Source community (AFAIK) even scratched the surface of this issue. Now that the 'browser wars' are over should we look forward to a future of 'desktop gui wars?' Note: This topic is relatively subjective in the attempt to be 'future-thinking.' I think that desktop GUI development in its current state sucks ((really)hard) and, even though WPF is still in it's infancy, it presents a likely solution to the problem. Has no one in the OS community looked into developing something similar because they don't see the value, or because it's not worth the effort?

  Read the article

• Can I use a static cache Helper method in a NET MVC controller?

  - by Euston

  I realise there have been a few posts regarding where to add a cache check/update and the separation of concerns between the controller, the model and the caching code. There are two great examples that I have tried to work with but being new to MVC I wonder which one is the cleanest and suits the MVC methodology the best? I know you need to take into account DI and unit testing. Example 1 (Helper method with delegate) ...in controller var myObject = CacheDataHelper.Get(thisID, () => WebServiceServiceWrapper.GetMyObjectBythisID(thisID)); Example 2 (check for cache in model class) in controller var myObject = WebServiceServiceWrapper.GetMyObjectBythisID(thisID)); then in model class.............. if (!CacheDataHelper.Get(cachekey, out myObject)) { //do some repository processing // Add obect to cache CacheDataHelper.Add(myObject, cachekey); } Both use a static cache helper class but the first example uses a method signature with a delegate method passed in that has the name of the repository method being called. If the data is not in cache the method is called and the cache helper class handles the adding or updating to the current cache. In the second example the cache check is part of the repository method with an extra line to call the cache helper add method to update the current cache. Due to my lack of experience and knowledge I am not sure which one is best suited to MVC. I like the idea of calling the cache helper with the delegate method name in order to remove any cache code in the repository but I am not sure if using the static method in the controller is ideal? The second example deals with the above but now there is no separation between the caching check and the repository lookup. Perhaps that is not a problem as you know it requires caching anyway?

  Read the article

• Rewrite a URL that's already been redirected?

  - by Jack

  Hi guys, I'm running an Apache2 web server with a dynamic IP address. I bought exampledomain.net, and I use no-ip.com's domain-update service to redirect any visitors to my current ip address (endnote #1). For example, someone visits exampledomain.net and they get redirected to 73.181.57.34. It works like a charm. However, it isn't all that user-friendly. Can I rewrite the redirected, ip-address URL? I tried these rewrite rules in the root folder's .htaccess... RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^73\.181\.57\.34:88 RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://www.exampledomain.net/$1 [L,NC] # I simplified the RewriteCond. I would use regex in a real situation. Of course, this creates an infinite loop. The user visits www.exampledomain.net. They're redirected to 73.181.57.34:88 by no-ip. Apache redirects them to www.exampledomain.net which redirects them back to 73.181.57.34:88... so on and so forth. I'm a noob when it comes to rewriting, but is there a way to rewrite a URL without redirecting? I tried these rewrite rules too (a shot in the dark)... RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^73\.181\.57\.34:88 RewriteRule ^(.*)$ my.exampledomain.net/$1 [L,NC] # I'd read that Apache replied with a redirect header when you include http Thanks! (1) No-IP works like this: You download and install their dynamic update client on your server. Every couple of minutes it polls your server for its current external ip address. If it's changed, it updates your server's ip address in no-ip's records.

  Read the article

• Reading/Writing DataTables to and from an OleDb Database LINQ

  - by jsmith

  My current project is to take information from an OleDbDatabase and .CSV files and place it all into a larger OleDbDatabase. I have currently read in all the information I need from both .CSV files, and the OleDbDatabase into DataTables.... Where it is getting hairy is writing all of the information back to another OleDbDatabase. Right now my current method is to do something like this: OleDbTransaction myTransaction = null; try { OleDbConnection conn = new OleDbConnection("PROVIDER=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;" + "Data Source=" + Database); conn.Open(); OleDbCommand command = conn.CreateCommand(); string strSQL; command.Transaction = myTransaction; strSQL = "Insert into TABLE " + "(FirstName, LastName) values ('" + FirstName + "', '" + LastName + "')"; command.CommandType = CommandType.Text; command.CommandText = strSQL; command.ExecuteNonQuery(); conn.close(); catch (Exception) { // IF invalid data is entered, rolls back the database myTransaction.Rollback(); } Of course, this is very basic and I'm using an SQL command to commit my transactions to a connection. My problem is I could do this, but I have about 200 fields that need inserted over several tables. I'm willing to do the leg work if that's the only way to go. But I feel like there is an easier method. Is there anything in LINQ that could help me out with this?

  Read the article

• Windows batch - loop over folder string and parse out last folder name

  - by Tim Peel

  Hi, I need to grab the folder name of a currently executing batch file. I have been trying to loop over the current directory using the following syntax (which is wrong at present): set mydir = %~p0 for /F "delims=\" %i IN (%mydir%) DO @echo %i Couple of issues in that I cannot seem to pass the 'mydir' variable value in as the search string. It only seems to work if I pass in commands; I have the syntax wrong and cannot work out why. My thinking was to loop over the folder string with a '\' delimiter but this is causing problems too. If I set a variable on each loop then the last value set will be the current folder name. For example, given the following path: C:\Folder1\Folder2\Folder3\Archive.bat I would expect to parse out the value 'Folder3'. I need to parse that value out as its name will be part of another folder I am going to create further down in the batch file. Many thanks if anyone can help. I may be barking up the wrong tree completely so any other approaches would be greatly received also. Tim

  Read the article

• Stream PDF to another local App

  - by Nathan

  Hi, I'm currently trying to optimize a small firefox extension that will grab a pdf off the current document and send it to a port that another local application is listening on. Right now it uses a terrifying hackjob of cache viewer. The way I'm getting it is loading the cache, searching through it using the current URL and grabbing the file and saving it to a temp directory. Then I stream the file in, delete the temp, and send it through the socket. Now, my new design, ideally I'd want to build it from scratch and cut out saving it to the local machine at all, and just stream it through the socket. I've been looking at doing something like, //check page to ensure its a pdf //init in/out streams //stream through sock //flush Now, this would be vastly superior to the 400 line hacked up mess I have now, but I'm new to building FF extensions, and after reading a lot about URIs and the file streaming and such I'm probably more confused than when I started trying to fix this three hours ago. I'm okay with sending things through the sockets and whatnot, I understand that, I'm mainly confused about what multitude of interfaces I want to use. Gah! Thanks! Also, long time reader, first time poster!

  Read the article

• How can I get the main thread to sleep while waiting for a delgate to be called?

  - by Erik B

  Consider a class with these methods: - (id) initWithFrame: (CGRect) frame { if (!(self = [super init])) return nil; webView = [[UIWebView alloc] initWithFrame:frame]; [webView setDelegate:self]; lock = [[NSConditionLock alloc] initWithCondition:LOCK_WAIT]; return self; } - (void) setHTML: (NSString *) html { [lock lockWhenCondition:LOCK_WAIT]; [webView loadHTMLString:html baseURL:nil]; [lock unlock]; } - (void)webViewDidFinishLoad:(UIWebView *)aWebView { [lock lockWhenCondition:LOCK_WAIT]; // Locking to be able to unlock and change the condition. [lock unlockWithCondition:LOCK_GO]; } - (NSString *) stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString: (NSString *) jsCommand { [lock lockWhenCondition:LOCK_GO]; return [webView stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString:jsCommand]; [lock unlock]; } Let's call this class SynchronousUIWebView. From the main thread I execute: webView = [[SynchronousUIWebView alloc] initWithFrame:frame]; [webView setHTML:html]; [webView stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString:jsCommand]; The problem seems to be that the delegate is not called until I leave the current call stack, which I don't since I'm waiting for the delegate call to happen, aka deadlock. To me it seems like the delegate call is pushed to a queue that is called when the current call is done. So the question is can I modify this behavior? Note: The reason this is needed is that I can't execute the JavaScript until the HTML has loaded.

  Read the article

• Cast Object to Generic List

  - by CrazyJoe

  I have 3 generict type list. List<Contact> = new List<Contact>(); List<Address> = new List<Address>(); List<Document> = new List<Document>(); And save it on a variable with type object. Now i nedd do Cast Back to List to perfom a foreach, some like this: List<Contact> = (List<Contact>)obj; But obj content change every time, and i have some like this: List<???> = (List<???>)obj; I have another variable holding current obj Type: Type t = typeof(obj); Can i do some thing like that??: List<t> = (List<t>)obj; Obs: I no the current type in the list but i need to cast , and i dont now another form instead: List<Contact> = new List<Contact>(); Help Plz!!!

  Read the article

• How can I run Ruby specs and/or tests in MacVim without locking up MacVim?

  - by Henry

  About 6 months ago I switched from TextMate to MacVim for all of my development work, which primarily consists of coding in Ruby, Ruby on Rails and JavaScript. With TextMate, whenever I needed to run a spec or a test, I could just command+R on the test or spec file and another window would open and the results would be displayed with the 'pretty' format applied. If the spec or test was a lengthy one, I could just continue working with the codebase since the test/spec was running in a separate process/window. After the test ran, I could click through the results directly to the corresponding line in the spec file. Tim Pope's excellent rails.vim plugin comes very close to emulating this behavior within the MacVim environment. Running :Rake when the current buffer is a test or spec runs the file then splits the buffer to display the results. You can navigate through the results and key through to the corresponding spot in the file. The problem with the rails.vim approach is that it locks up the MacVim window while the test runs. This can be an issue with big apps that might have a lot of setup/teardown built into the tests. Also, the visual red/green html results that TextMate displays (via --format pretty, I'm assuming) is a bit easier to scan than the split window. This guy came close about 18 mos ago: http://cassiomarques.wordpress.com/2009/01/09/running-rspec-files-from-vim-showing-the-results-in-firefox/ The script he has worked with a bit of hacking, but the tests still ran within MacVim and locked up the current window. Any ideas on how to fully replicate the TextMate behavior described above in MacVim? Thanks!

  Read the article

• Fiscal year, quarters, student table, and faculty table... How do I relate these?!

  - by yuudachi

  I have a student and faculty table. The primary key for student is studendID (SID) and faculty's primary key is facultyID, naturally. Student has an advisor column and a requested advisor column, which are foreign key to faculty. That's simple enough, right? However, now I have to throw in dates. I want to be able to view who their advisor was for a certain quarter (such as 2009 Winter) and who they had requested. The result will be a table like this: Year | Term | SID | Current | Requested ------------------------------------------------ 2009 | Winter | 860123456 | 1 | NULL 2009 | Winter | 860445566 | 3 | NULL 2009 | Winter | 860369147 | 5 | 1 And then if I feel like it, I could also go ahead and view a different year and a different term. I am not sure how these new table(s) will look like. Will there be a year table with three columns that are Fall, Spring and Winter? And what will the Fall, Spring, Winter table have? I am new to the art of tables, so this is baffling me... Also, I feel I should clarify how the site works so far now. Admin can approve student requests, and what happens is that the student's current advisor gets overwritten with their request. However, I think I should not do that anymore, right?

  Read the article

• TransactionScope and Transactions

  - by Mike

  In my C# code I am using TransactionScope because I was told not to rely that my sql programmers will always use transactions and we are responsible and yada yada. Having said that It looks like TransactionScope object Rolls back before the SqlTransaction? Is that possible and if so what is the correct methodology for wrapping a TransactionScope in a transaction. Here is the sql test CREATE PROC ThrowError AS BEGIN TRANSACTION --SqlTransaction SELECT 1/0 IF @@ERROR<> 0 BEGIN ROLLBACK TRANSACTION --SqlTransaction RETURN -1 END ELSE BEGIN COMMIT TRANSACTION --SqlTransaction RETURN 0 END go DECLARE @RESULT INT EXEC @RESULT = ThrowError SELECT @RESULT And if I run this I get just the divide by 0 and return -1 Call from the C# code I get an extra error message Divide by zero error encountered. Transaction count after EXECUTE indicates that a COMMIT or ROLLBACK TRANSACTION tatement is missing. Previous count = 1, current count = 0. If I give the sql transaction a name then Cannot roll back SqlTransaction. No transaction or savepoint of that name was found. Transaction count after EXECUTE indicates that a COMMIT or ROLLBACK TRANSACTION statement is missing. Previous count = 1, current count = 2. some times it seems the count goes up, until the app completely exits The c# is just using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope()) { ... Execute Sql scope.Commit() }

  Read the article

• Problems with objectatasource,giving attributes like delete insert and update

  - by kamal

  After going to the process of adding the various attributes like insert,delete and update.But when i run it through the browser ,editing works but updating and deleting doesn't !(for the update and shows the same thing for delete,my friends think i need to use codes to repair the problems,can you help me please.it shows this: Server Error in '/WebSite3' Application. ObjectDataSource 'ObjectDataSource1' could not find a non-generic method 'Update' that has parameters: First_name, Surname, Original_author_id, First name, original_author id. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.InvalidOperationException: ObjectDataSource 'ObjectDataSource1' could not find a non-generic method 'Update' that has parameters: First_name, Surname, Original_author_id, First name, original_author id. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [InvalidOperationException: ObjectDataSource 'ObjectDataSource1' could not find a non-generic method 'Update' that has parameters: First_name, Surname, Original_author_id, First name, original_author id.] System.Web.UI.WebControls.ObjectDataSourceView.GetResolvedMethodData(Type type, String methodName, IDictionary allParameters, DataSourceOperation operation) +1119426 System.Web.UI.WebControls.ObjectDataSourceView.ExecuteUpdate(IDictionary keys, IDictionary values, IDictionary oldValues) +1008 System.Web.UI.DataSourceView.Update(IDictionary keys, IDictionary values, IDictionary oldValues, DataSourceViewOperationCallback callback) +92 System.Web.UI.WebControls.GridView.HandleUpdate(GridViewRow row, Int32 rowIndex, Boolean causesValidation) +907 System.Web.UI.WebControls.GridView.HandleEvent(EventArgs e, Boolean causesValidation, String validationGroup) +704 System.Web.UI.WebControls.GridView.OnBubbleEvent(Object source, EventArgs e) +95 System.Web.UI.Control.RaiseBubbleEvent(Object source, EventArgs args) +37 System.Web.UI.WebControls.GridViewRow.OnBubbleEvent(Object source, EventArgs e) +123 System.Web.UI.Control.RaiseBubbleEvent(Object source, EventArgs args) +37 System.Web.UI.WebControls.LinkButton.OnCommand(CommandEventArgs e) +118

  Read the article

• jQuery: Show and hide child div when hovering

  - by Björn

  Hi there, I've got a set of items. Each item has two images and some text. For the images I've created a parent div which has an overflow:hidden CSS value. I want to achieve an mouseover effect. As soon as you hover over the images I want to hide the current div and show the second div. Here's a small snippet: <div class="product-images"> <div class="product-image-1"><img src="image1.gif>" /></div> <div class="product-image-2"><img src="images2.gif" /></div> </div> I've created a small jQuery snippet: jQuery(document).ready(function() { jQuery('.product-images').mouseover(function() { jQuery('.product-image-1').hide(); }).mouseout(function() { jQuery('.product-image-1').show(); }); }); Now the problem is that not only the currently hovered child is hidden. Instead all other existing childs are hidden as well. I need something like "this" or "current" but I don't know which jQuery function is the right one. Any idea? Thanks, BJ

  Read the article

• Alter Dilemma : How to use to set Primary and other attributes.

  - by Rachel

  I have following table in database AND I need to alter it to below mentioned schema. Initially I was drop the current database and creating new one using the create but I am not supposed to do that and use ALTER but am not sure as to how can I use ALTER to add primary key and other constraints. Any Suggestions !!! Code Current: CREATE TABLE `details` ( `KEY` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `ID` bigint(20) NOT NULL, `CODE` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `C_ID` bigint(20) NOT NULL, `C_CODE` varchar(64) NOT NULL, `CCODE` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `TCODE` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `LCODE` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `CAMCODE` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `OFCODE` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `OFNAME` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `PRIORITY` bigint(20) NOT NULL, `STDATE` datetime NOT NULL, `ENDATE` datetime NOT NULL, `INT` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `PHONE` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `TV` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `MTV` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `TYPE` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `CREATED` datetime NOT NULL, `MAIN` varchar(255) NOT NULL ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1; Desired: CREATE TABLE `details` ( `id` bigint(20) NOT NULL, `code` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `cid` bigint(20) NOT NULL, `ccode` varchar(64) NOT NULL, `c_code` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `tcode` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `lcode` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `camcode` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `ofcode` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `ofname` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `priority` bigint(20) NOT NULL, `stdate` datetime NOT NULL, `enddate` datetime NOT NULL, `list` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `name` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `created` datetime NOT NULL, `date` datetime NOT NULL, `ofshn` int(20) NOT NULL, `ofcl` int(20) NOT NULL, `ofr` int(20) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`code`,`ccode`,`list`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1; Thanks !!!

  Read the article

• OpenGLES - Rendering a background image only once and not wiping it

  - by chaosbeaker

  Hello, first time asking a question here but been watching others answers for a while. My own question is one for improving the performance of my program. Currently I'm wiping the viewFrameBuffer on each pass through my program and then rendering the background image first followed by the rest of my scene. I was wondering how I go about rendering the background image once, and only wiping the rest of the scene for updating/re-rendering. I tried using a seperate buffer but I'm not sure how to present this new buffer to the render buffer. // Set the current EAGLContext and bind to the framebuffer. This will direct all OGL commands to the // framebuffer and the associated renderbuffer attachment which is where our scene will be rendered [EAGLContext setCurrentContext:context]; glBindFramebufferOES(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_OES, viewFramebuffer); // Define the viewport. Changing the settings for the viewport can allow you to scale the viewport // as well as the dimensions etc and so I'm setting it for each frame in case we want to change i glViewport(0, 0, screenBounds.size.width , screenBounds.size.height); // Clear the screen. If we are going to draw a background image then this clear is not necessary // as drawing the background image will destroy the previous image glClearColor(0.0f, 1.0f, 0.0f, 1.0f); glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT); // Setup how the images are to be blended when rendered. This could be changed at different points during your // render process if you wanted to apply different effects glBlendFunc(GL_SRC_ALPHA, GL_ONE_MINUS_SRC_ALPHA); switch (currentViewInt) { case 1: { [background render:CGPointMake(240, 0) fromTopLeftBottomRightCenter:@"Bottom"]; // Other Rendering Code }} // Bind to the renderbuffer and then present this image to the current context glBindRenderbufferOES(GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES, viewRenderbuffer); [context presentRenderbuffer:GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES]; Hopefully by solving this I'll also be able to implement another buffer just for rendering particles as I can set them to always use a black background as their alpha source. Any help is greatly appreciated

  Read the article

• Tree data in MySql database table

  - by Robert Koritnik

  I have a table that uses Adjacency list model for hierarchy storage. My most relevant columns in this table are therefore: ItemId // is auto_increment ParentId Level ParentTrail // in the form of "parentId/../parentId/itemId" then I created a before insert tigger, that populates columns Level and ParentTrail. Since the last column also includes current item's ID I had to use a trick in my trigger because auto_increment columns are not available in the before insert trigger. So I get that value from the information_schema.tables table. All works fine, until I try to write an update trigger, that would update my item and its descendants when the item changes its parent (ParentId has changed). But I can't make an update on my table inside the update trigger. All I can do is to change current record's values but not other's. I could use a separate table for hierarchy data, but that would mean that I would also have to create a view that would combine these two tables (1:1 relation) and I would like to avoid this is at all possible. Is there a way to have all these in the same table so that these fields (Level and ParetTrail) set/update themselves automagically using triggers?

  Read the article

• Checking if Date is within Range

  - by Brett Powell

  So I am using a scripting language with c++ syntax, and trying to think of the best way to check if a date is within range. The problem I am running into is that if the current day is in a new month, the check is failing. Here is what my code looks like... if(iMonth >= iStartMonth && iMonth <= iEndMonth) { if(iDay >= iStartDay && iDay <= iEndDay) { if(iYear >= iStartYear && iYear <= iEndYear) { bEnabled = true; return; When I have something like this... (Pulled in from cfg file specified by client) Start date: 3 27 2010 End Date: 4 15 2010 Current Date: 3 31 2010 The day check fails because if(iDay <= iEndDay) does not pass. The scripting language doesn't have a lot of time related functions, and I cant compare timestamps because im allowing users to put like "03:27:2010" and "04:15:2010" as start/end dates in a config file. Im assuming I am just not thinking straight and missing an easy fix.

  Read the article

• Sampling Duplicates

  - by user3640982

  I have a dataset from which I need to sample. It is set up with an ID field and a year field. I want every record from the most current year and then I want the most current ID's but sampled from every 3rd year going back. The data is ordered by year. For example ID<-rep(1:3, 5) Year<-rep(c(1,2,3,4,5),each=3) df<-data.frame(ID,Year) ID Year 1 1 1 2 2 1 3 3 1 4 1 2 5 2 2 6 3 2 7 1 3 8 2 3 9 3 3 10 1 4 11 2 4 12 3 4 13 1 5 14 2 5 15 3 5 So from this example, I would want to return ID Year 1 1 1 2 2 1 3 3 1 4 1 4 5 2 4 6 3 4 I'm thinking that some combination of duplicated() and which() should get what I want, but the problem is duplicated() just tells if it has been repeated; it doesn't say which record is being repeated. which(duplicated(df$ID)) [1] 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 This a problem since not every ID exists in every year. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks, Eric

  Read the article

• Instanced drawing with OpenGL ES 2.0

  - by Mårten Wikström

  In short: Is it possible to use the gl_InstanceID built-in variable in OpenGL ES 2.0? And, if so, how? Some more info: I want to draw multiple instances of an object using glDrawArraysInstanced and gl_InstanceID, and I want my application to run on multiple platforms, including iOS. The specification clearly says that these features require ES 3.0. According to the iOS Device Compatibility Reference ES 3.0 is only available on a few devices (those based on the A7 GPU; so iPhone 5s, but not on iPhone 5 or earlier). So my first assumption was that I needed to avoid using instanced drawing on older iOS devices. However, further down in the compatibility reference document it says that the EXT_draw_instanced extension is supported for all SGX Series 5 processors (that includes iPhone 5 and 4s). This makes me think that I could indeed use instanced drawing on older iOS devices too, by looking up and using the appropriate extension function (EXT or ARB) for glDrawArraysInstanced. I'm currently just running some test code using SDL and GLEW on Windows so I haven't tested anything on iOS yet. However, in my current setup I'm having trouble using the gl_InstanceID built-in variable in a vertex shader. I'm getting the following error message: 'gl_InstanceID' : variable is not available in current GLSL version Enabling the "draw_instanced" extension in GLSL has no effect: #extension GL_ARB_draw_instanced : enable #extension GL_EXT_draw_instanced : enable The error goes away when I specifically declare that I need ES 3.0 (GLSL 300 ES): #version 300 es Although that seem to work fine on my Windows desktop machine in an ES 2.0 context I doubt that this would work on an iPhone 5. So, shall I abandon the idea of being able to use instanced drawing on older iOS devices?

  Read the article

• Rails runner command not saving to cache

  - by mark

  Hi I'm having a bit of a problem with a cron task generated by rails whenever plugin that should store remote data in the rails cache for display. What I have is this: schedule.rb set :path, '/var/www/apps/tuexplore/current' every 1.hour do runner "Weather.cache_remote", :environment => :production end calls this model class Weather def self.cache_remote Rails.cache.write('weather_data', Net::HTTP.get_response(URI.parse(WEATHER_URL)).body) end end Calling whenever returns this PATH=/usr/local/sbin:/usr/local/bin:/usr/sbin:/usr/bin:/sbin:/bin:/usr/games:/home/deploy/.gem/ruby/1.8/bin 0 * * * * /var/www/apps/tuexplore/current/script/runner -e production "Weather.cache_remote" This doesn't work. Calling the weather model method from a controller works fine, but I need to schedule it hourly. The cron task causes a "Cache write: weather_data" entry to appear in the production log but data isn't stored nor output into the page. Additional information, I can log into production console and run Weather.cache_remote, then read the data from the rails cache. I'd be really appreciative if someone could point out the error of my ways. If further explanation is needed please ask. Thanks in advance for any pointers.

  Read the article

• Create new or update existing entity at one go with JPA

  - by Alex R

  A have a JPA entity that has timestamp field and is distinguished by a complex identifier field. What I need is to update timestamp in an entity that has already been stored, otherwise create and store new entity with the current timestamp. As it turns out the task is not as simple as it seems from the first sight. The problem is that in concurrent environment I get nasty "Unique index or primary key violation" exception. Here's my code: // Load existing entity, if any. Entity e = entityManager.find(Entity.class, id); if (e == null) { // Could not find entity with the specified id in the database, so create new one. e = entityManager.merge(new Entity(id)); } // Set current time... e.setTimestamp(new Date()); // ...and finally save entity. entityManager.flush(); Please note that in this example entity identifier is not generated on insert, it is known in advance. When two or more of threads run this block of code in parallel, they may simultaneously get null from entityManager.find(Entity.class, id) method call, so they will attempt to save two or more entities at the same time, with the same identifier resulting in error. I think that there are few solutions to the problem. Sure I could synchronize this code block with a global lock to prevent concurrent access to the database, but would it be the most efficient way? Some databases support very handy MERGE statement that updates existing or creates new row if none exists. But I doubt that OpenJPA (JPA implementation of my choice) supports it. Event if JPA does not support SQL MERGE, I can always fall back to plain old JDBC and do whatever I want with the database. But I don't want to leave comfortable API and mess with hairy JDBC+SQL combination. There is a magic trick to fix it using standard JPA API only, but I don't know it yet. Please help.

  Read the article

• How to Load external Div that has a dynamic content using ajax and jsp/servlets ?

  - by A.S al-shammari

  I need to use ajax feature to load external div element ( external jsp file) into the current page. That JSP page contains a dynamic content - e.g. content that is based on values received from the current session. I solved this problem , but I'm in doubt because I think that my solution is bad , or maybe there is better solution since I'm not expert. I have three files: Javascript function that is triggered when a element is clicked, it requests html data from a servlet: $("#inboxtable tbody tr").click(function(){ var trID = $(this).attr('id'); $.post("event?view=read",{id:trID}, function(data){ $("#eventContent").html(data); // load external file },"html"); // type }); The servlet "event" loads the data and generates HTML content using include method : String id = request.getParameter("id"); if (id != null) { v.add("Test"); v.add(id); session.setAttribute("readMessageVector", v); request.getRequestDispatcher("readMessage.jsp").include(request, response); } The readMessage jsp file looks like this: <p> Text: ${readMessageVector[0]} </p> <p> ID: ${readMessageVector[1]} </p> My questions Is this solution good enough to solve this problem - loading external jsp that has dynamic content ? Is there better solution ?

  Read the article

• Using XSLT to Find Nodes Given a Set of Parameters

  - by davecardwell

  Sorry about the title—wasn’t sure how to word it. Basically I have some XML like this: <countries> <country handle="bangladesh"/> <country handle="india"/> <country handle="pakistan"/> </countries> And some XSLT like this (which doesn’t work): <xsl:template match="/countries"> <xsl:param name="popular"/> <xsl:apply-templates select="country[count($popular/country[@handle = current()/@handle]) &gt; 0]" /> </xsl:template> <xsl:template match="/countries/country"> … </xsl:template> I want to pass in a list of popular destinations like this: <popular> <country handle="india"/> <country handle="pakistan"/> </popular> …to the /countries template and have it only operate on the ones in the $popular param. At the moment this simply does nothing. Changing the selector to country[true()] operates on them all, so at least I know the basic structure is right. Any ideas? I think I may be getting confused by what is currently “current()”.

  Read the article

• Visual Studio 2008 Unit test does not pick up code changes unless I build the entire solution

  - by Orion Edwards

  Here's the scenario: Change my code: Change my unit test for that code With the cursor inside the unit test class/method, invoke VS2008's "Run tests in current context" command The visual studio "Output" window indicates that the code dll and the test dll both successfully build (in that order) The problem is however, that the unit test does not use the latest version of the dll which it has just built. Instead, it uses the previously built dll (which doesn't have the updated code in it), so the test fails. When adding a new method, this results in a MethodNotImplementedException, and when adding a class, it results in a TypeLoadException, both because the unit test thinks the new code is there, and it isn't!. If I'm just updating an existing method, then the test just fails due to incorrect results. I can 'work around' the problem by doing this Change my code: Change my unit test for that code Invoke VS2008's 'Build Solution' command With the cursor inside the unit test class/method, invoke VS2008's "Run tests in current context" command The problem is that doing a full build solution (even though nothing has changed) takes upwards of 30 seconds, as I have approx 50 C# projects, and VS2008 is not smart enough to realize that only 2 of them need to be looked at. Having to wait 30 seconds just to change 1 line of code and re-run a unit test is abysmal. Is there anything I can do to fix this? None of my code is in the GAC or anything funny like that, it's just ordinary old dll's (buiding against .NET 3.5SP1 on a win7/64bit machine) Please help!

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175  | Next Page >