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  • Microsoft Reporting 2005 and Report Viewer Report ASP.Net Session Has Expired on Load

    - by ThaKidd
    At my job, I have been tasked with fixing an error with our reporting server. That error is ASP.Net Session Has Expired. This error occurs when the Visual Studio ReportViewer 2005 Control attempts to load a report. We are trying to host this report to users hitting our Internet exposed Windows 2003 Server running IIS 6.0. The reportviewer control is attempting to load this report from a second server running Microsoft SQL 2005 w/Reporting Services. The SQL server is not exposed to the Internet. Here is the weird thing. This error never occurs on the development box. When it is transferred to the production IIS server, the error starts to occur. It only happens every time the report is first loaded. If the browser's refresh button is clicked 5-10 times, the report will finally load correctly. I have reproduced this same error on the latest version of Mozilla Firefox, IE 7, and IE 8. The report only takes 10-20 seconds to load. I have tried timeouts in the 300+ second range on the reporting server/iis production server. I have tried a few options like Async (which causes images not to load properly) and setting the session mode to iproc with a high timeout value in the Reporting Server's web.config. I have also tried using the reporting server's IP address in the report viewer's code instead of the server name. I plan on verifying a picture loading issue which I also read about tomorrow when I get into work. I am unsure what service packs Visual Studio 2005 and the MSSQL server are running. Was an update released to fix this problem that I could not find? Does anyone have a fix for this?

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  • Why can't c# use inline anonymous lambdas or delegates?

    - by Samuel Meacham
    I hope I worded the title of my question appropriately. In c# I can use lambdas (as delegates), or the older delegate syntax to do this: Func<string> fnHello = () => "hello"; Console.WriteLine(fnHello()); Func<string> fnHello2 = delegate() { return "hello 2"; }; Console.WriteLine(fnHello2()); So why can't I "inline" the lambda or the delegate body, and avoid capturing it in a named variable (making it anonymous)? // Inline anonymous lambda not allowed Console.WriteLine( (() => "hello inline lambda")() ); // Inline anonymous delegate not allowed Console.WriteLine( (delegate() { return "hello inline delegate"; })() ); An example that works in javascript (just for comparison) is: alert( (function(){ return "hello inline anonymous function from javascript"; })() ); Which produces the expected alert box. UPDATE: It seems you can have an inline anonymous lambda in C#, if you cast appropriately, but the amount of ()'s starts to make it unruly. // Inline anonymous lambda with appropriate cast IS allowed Console.WriteLine( ((Func<string>)(() => "hello inline anonymous lambda"))() ); Perhaps the compiler can't infer the sig of the anonymous delegate to know which Console.WriteLine() you're trying to call? Does anyone know why this specific cast is required?

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  • Project Euler Question 14 (Collatz Problem)

    - by paradox
    The following iterative sequence is defined for the set of positive integers: n -n/2 (n is even) n -3n + 1 (n is odd) Using the rule above and starting with 13, we generate the following sequence: 13 40 20 10 5 16 8 4 2 1 It can be seen that this sequence (starting at 13 and finishing at 1) contains 10 terms. Although it has not been proved yet (Collatz Problem), it is thought that all starting numbers finish at 1. Which starting number, under one million, produces the longest chain? NOTE: Once the chain starts the terms are allowed to go above one million. I tried coding a solution to this in C using the bruteforce method. However, it seems that my program stalls when trying to calculate 113383. Please advise :) #include <stdio.h> #define LIMIT 1000000 int iteration(int value) { if(value%2==0) return (value/2); else return (3*value+1); } int count_iterations(int value) { int count=1; //printf("%d\n", value); while(value!=1) { value=iteration(value); //printf("%d\n", value); count++; } return count; } int main() { int iteration_count=0, max=0; int i,count; for (i=1; i<LIMIT; i++) { printf("Current iteration : %d\n", i); iteration_count=count_iterations(i); if (iteration_count>max) { max=iteration_count; count=i; } } //iteration_count=count_iterations(113383); printf("Count = %d\ni = %d\n",max,count); }

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  • Android: Determine when an app is being finalized vs destroyed for screen orientation change

    - by Matt
    Hi all, I am relatively new to the Android world and am having some difficultly understanding how the whole screen orientation cycle works. I understand that when the orientation changes from portrait to landscape or vice versa the activity is destroyed and then re-created. Thus all the code in the onCreate function will run again. So here's my situation: I have an app that I am working on where it logs into a website, retrieves data, and displays it to the user. While this is all done in background threads, the code that starts these threads is in the onCreate function. Now, the problem lies in that whenever the user changes the screen orientation, the app will log in, retrieve the data, and display it to the user again. What I would like to do is set a boolean that tells the app if it is logged in or not so it knows whether or not it must log in when the onCreate function is called. So long as the app is in memory the HttpClient will exist and contain the cookies from logging the user in but when the app is killed by the system those will go away. So I would assume that I need to do something like setting the logged in boolean to false when the app is killed but since onDestroy is called when the screen is rotated how is this possible? I also looked into the finalize function and isFinishing() but those seem to not be working. Shorter version: How can I distinguish between when an app is being killed from memory from when an activity is being rotated and different code for each event? Any help or a point in the right direction is greatly appreciated. Thank you!

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  • Guice, JDBC and managing database connections

    - by pledge
    I'm looking to create a sample project while learning Guice which uses JDBC to read/write to a SQL database. However, after years of using Spring and letting it abstract away connection handling and transactions I'm struggling to work it our conceptually. I'd like to have a service which starts and stops a transaction and calls numerous repositories which reuse the same connection and participate in the same transaction. My questions are: Where do I create my Datasource? How do I give the repositories access to the connection? (ThreadLocal?) Best way to manage the transaction (Creating an Interceptor for an annotation?) The code below shows how I would do this in Spring. The JdbcOperations injected into each repository would have access to the connection associated with the active transaction. I haven't been able to find many tutorials which cover this, beyond ones which show creating interceptors for transactions. I am happy with continuing to use Spring as it is working very well in my projects, but I'd like to know how to do this in pure Guice and JBBC (No JPA/Hibernate/Warp/Reusing Spring) @Service public class MyService implements MyInterface { @Autowired private RepositoryA repositoryA; @Autowired private RepositoryB repositoryB; @Autowired private RepositoryC repositoryC; @Override @Transactional public void doSomeWork() { this.repositoryA.someInsert(); this.repositoryB.someUpdate(); this.repositoryC.someSelect(); } } @Repository public class MyRepositoryA implements RepositoryA { @Autowired private JdbcOperations jdbcOperations; @Override public void someInsert() { //use jdbcOperations to perform an insert } } @Repository public class MyRepositoryB implements RepositoryB { @Autowired private JdbcOperations jdbcOperations; @Override public void someUpdate() { //use jdbcOperations to perform an update } } @Repository public class MyRepositoryC implements RepositoryC { @Autowired private JdbcOperations jdbcOperations; @Override public String someSelect() { //use jdbcOperations to perform a select and use a RowMapper to produce results return "select result"; } }

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  • JQuery Ajax control

    - by Anycolor
    Everybody hi. There is a problem with my own AJAX library, that I can't solve. I have some block (#ajax-loading), that has events: $('#ajax-loading') .bind('ajaxStart', function() { $('#ajax-loading').show(); }) .bind('ajaxStop', function() { $('#ajax-loading').fadeOut(150); }); For running AJAX I have special method: run: function(data, callback) { if(this.request) { this.request.abort(); } this.request = $.getJSON(window.location.pathname, data , callback); }, So .request holds current AJAX request. What do I want? My #ajax-loading block contains the button, than should Cancel current AJAX request. As I supposed, the function, making Cancel shoud contain: abort: function() { if(ajax.request) { this.request.abort(); $('#ajax-loading').fadeOut(150); } } But, as I said, there is a problem: my AJAX request cancels, loading-block hides, but when another request starts, this block doesn't shows again. It seems that when I abort AJAX request, the ajaxStop event doesn't happen. And when I run new request ajaxStart doesn't happen. I think it can be connected with readyState or status field of XMLHttpRequest, or smth similar. Could anyone help me with this or explain what's wrong. PS: excuse my english, it's not my native language...

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  • Odd background image resizing on animating UIView

    - by Woody
    I have a UIView in the middle of a view that I am using as a game playing area (in a 2d cocoa view). This image has a background image of the same size as the view. Resizing the view I use animation to make it look smooth (and that works fine). However, when the animation starts, the background image immediately changes size, tiling or being clipped to a size that when the animation finishes, the background image is physically the same size. I don't want this, I want the image to always fit the view, regardless of the view size. UIImage *bgImage = [UIImage imageNamed:@"head.png"]; ... // resize the image returning another image self.view.backgroundColor = [[UIColor alloc] initWithPatternImage:resizedImage]; [UIView beginAnimations:@"resizeView" context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:.5]; int localViewSize = ... // work out view sizes self.view.frame = CGRectMake(... ,localViewSize,localViewSize); [UIView commitAnimations]; It looks very odd as it jumps to a different size, then animates to the original size. I am guessing that maybe I would have to make a separate view underneath my main view but is that the only way?

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  • HTML5 video - Safari (Mac) - live HLS stream - seek in live buffer

    - by bsnote
    I have the following HTML: <head> </head> <body> <button type="button" onclick="onSeek();">Seek</button> <video id="video" src="http://<host>/somevideo.m3u8" autoplay controls> </video> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery-1.7.2.min.js"></script> <script> function onSeek() { var video = $('#video')[0]; video.currentTime = -300; } </script> </body> When I open the page, the m3u8 playlist has already about 100 media segments (5 min). Since it's a live video it starts playing from one of the last media segments and video.currentTime is set to 0. video.seekable.start(i) and video.seekable.end(i) shows the seekable range which is 0..currentTime. How can I seek to the previous media segments, say 5 min back? video.currentTime = -300 doesn't work. It resets currentTime to 0.

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  • .NET Reference "Copy Local" True / Fasle Being Set Based on Contents of General Assembly

    - by D-Sect
    Hello All. First question for me here. We had a very interesting problem with a Win Forms project. It's been resolved. We know what happened, but we want to understand why it happened. This may help other people out in the future who have a similar problem. The WinForms project failed on 2 of our client's PCs. The error was an obscure kernel.dll error. The project ran fine on 3 other PCs. We found that a .DLL (log4net.dll - a very popular open-source logging library) was missing from our release folder. It was previously in our release folder. Why was it missing in this latest release? It was missing because I must have installed a program on my Dev box that used log4net.dll and it was added to the general assembly. When I checked the SLN's references for log4net.dll, they were changed to "copy local=FALSE". They must have changed automagicially because log4net.dll was present in my GAC. Here's where my question starts: Why did my reference for log4net.dll get changed from COPY LOCAL = TRUE to COPY LOCAL = FALSE? I suspect it's because it was added to my GAC by another program. How can we prevent this from happening again? As it stands now, if I install a piece of software that uses a common library and it adds it to my GAC, then my SLNs that REF that DLL will change from Copy Local TRUE to FALSE. Thank you so much. I hope this helps people out who have a piece of software that runs in some places, but not in others, when it used to run fine in ALL places.

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  • toggling proximity sensor on iPhone loses an event

    - by slugolicious
    I'm using setProximitySensingEnabled and implemented proximityStateChanged in my UIApplication subclass. It looks like if sensing is toggled, that the first "off" event is being lost. My UIApplication class is pretty basic... -(void)proximityStateChanged:(BOOL)state { NSLog(state ? @"ON" : @"OFF"); } In my application delegate, I have a UISwitch that enables/disables the proximity sensor. -(IBAction)toggleProxy:(id)sender { [UIApplication sharedApplication].proximitySensingEnabled = prox.on; } "prox" is my UISwitch. The test works fine when it first starts. I tap the switch to turn it on and then put my hand over the sensor for a second then move it away and get: 2009-03-11 12:43:00.465 Proximity[324:20b] ON 2009-03-11 12:43:02.514 Proximity[324:20b] OFF 2009-03-11 12:43:04.046 Proximity[324:20b] ON 2009-03-11 12:43:05.621 Proximity[324:20b] OFF I then tap the switch to turn it off then tap again to turn it on. Now I get: 2009-03-11 12:43:12.005 Proximity[324:20b] ON 2009-03-11 12:43:14.789 Proximity[324:20b] ON 2009-03-11 12:43:16.467 Proximity[324:20b] OFF 2009-03-11 12:43:17.516 Proximity[324:20b] ON 2009-03-11 12:43:19.077 Proximity[324:20b] OFF Notice I get two ON's before an OFF. The OFF is lost somewhere. I can't replicate this behavior using Google's mobile app so I'm wondering if they're resetting something in between proximity enabling. They don't have the proximity sensor on all the time because if you cover the sensor, the screen doesn't go blank. You have to tilt the phone up and angle it back (to simulate the position it would be in at your ear) and then covering the sensor works. Anyone else playing with the sensor? In my particular app, I'm recording a voice message and when you move the phone away from your ear, I want to pause the recording (when I get an OFF). The first time I move the phone away from my ear, the recording is not paused. However, if I put it to my ear and move it away again, it is paused.

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  • edited an .SWF, locally the changes made are okay, but when on server changes are not fully visible

    - by Andy
    Hi, I just edited an .SWF file I have on my website home page for a while now. I update the SWF frequently with new pictures. It's actually a picture slideshow, consisting out of 6 images. I used Adobe Flash CS4 Pro to edit the file, with just swapping all the pictures (JPGS) in it for other ones. I also have some small AS where I just have the URL: on(release) { getURL("link"); } so that's nothing fancy at all. I saved and published everything (CTRL+ENTER) and the .SWF played well, and tested it in IE8 and FF. Then I uploaded the SWF to my test server, overwriting the existing SWF file. Now the problem: all pictures but one show up well. Of the 6 images, the second image is actually the old image that was in its place. I downloaded the .SWF from the testserver and inspected the SWF and guess what: the old picture wasn't in it, instead the correct image was in the SWF. Even after reloading the page hitting CTRL+F5 still the wrong image shows. FF though shows the SWF correctly. So I then opened the page on another computer using IE8 and there the SWF works well, showing the correct second image. What's wrong with my first computer's browser? It's also the computer I edited the SWF with. I DO remember like I first saved and uploaded the wrong SWF (with the old 2nd image still in it) to the testserver, and later on uploading the correct one (proper 2nd image) I think IE8 has cached the wrong SWF, and now memorized it someway not willing to see that the file has actually been changed, but what to do so IE8 starts showing the correct SWF??

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  • Code for decoding/encoding a modified base64 URL

    - by Kirk Liemohn
    I want to base64 encode data to put it in a URL and then decode it within my HttpHandler. I have found that Base64 Encoding allows for a '/' character which will mess up my UriTemplate matching. Then I found that there is a concept of a "modified Base64 for URL" from wikipedia: A modified Base64 for URL variant exists, where no padding '=' will be used, and the '+' and '/' characters of standard Base64 are respectively replaced by '-' and '_', so that using URL encoders/decoders is no longer necessary and has no impact on the length of the encoded value, leaving the same encoded form intact for use in relational databases, web forms, and object identifiers in general. Using .NET I want to modify my current code from doing basic base64 encoding and decoding to using the "modified base64 for URL" method. Has anyone done this? To decode, I know it starts out with something like: string base64EncodedText = base64UrlEncodedText.Replace('-', '+').Replace('_', '/'); // Append '=' char(s) if necessary - how best to do this? // My normal base64 decoding now uses encodedText But, I need to potentially add one or two '=' chars to the end which looks a little more complex. My encoding logic should be a little simpler: // Perform normal base64 encoding byte[] encodedBytes = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(unencodedText); string base64EncodedText = Convert.ToBase64String(encodedBytes); // Apply URL variant string base64UrlEncodedText = base64EncodedText.Replace("=", String.Empty).Replace('+', '-').Replace('/', '_'); I have seen the Guid to Base64 for URL StackOverflow entry, but that has a known length and therefore they can hardcode the number of equal signs needed at the end.

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  • Silverlight client never calls WCF Service

    - by Doug Nelson
    Hi all, This one has me completed stumped. I have developed a silverlight application that calls back to WCF services ( it's a silverlight - basicHttpBinding) The site works perfectly fine from my development machine, but when it is deployed to the developement server. The application is delivered with the XAP just fine, but it never attempts to talk to the service. I have a service call in the bootstrapper so it should be calling this when the client starts up. The services are healthy. They can be browsed to and show the standard WCF service display. We have been through the bindings many times and everything seems to be ok. I have added an extensive amount of error handling for displaying any errors, but on this dev server, no service calls and no errors are being raised. Fiddler shows the page being loaded up, but my client never issues a call to the service. The service is in the same folder as the default.aspx which hosts the Silverlight client. This is a Silverlight 3.0 app. Anybody ever seen anything similar?

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  • How do I pass data from a BroadcastReceiver through to an Activity being started?

    - by Tom Hume
    I've got an Android application which needs to be woken up sporadically throughout the day. To do this, I'm using the AlarmManager to set up a PendingIntent and have this trigger a BroadcastReceiver. This BroadcastReceiver then starts an Activity to bring the UI to the foreground. All of the above seems to work, in that the Activity launches itself correctly; but I'd like the BroadcastReceiver to notify the Activity that it was started by the alarm (as opposed to being started by the user). To do this I'm trying, from the onReceive() method of the BroadcastReceiver to set a variable in the extras bundle of the intent, thus: Intent i = new Intent(context, MyActivity.class); i.putExtra(wakeupKey, true); i.setFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); context.startActivity(i); In the onResume() method of my Activity, I then look for the existence of this boolean variable: protected void onResume() { super.onResume(); String wakeupKey = "blah"; if (getIntent()!=null && getIntent().getExtras()!=null) Log.d("app", "onResume at " + System.currentTimeMillis() + ":" + getIntent().getExtras().getBoolean(wakeupKey)); else Log.d("app", "onResume at " + System.currentTimeMillis() + ": null"); } The getIntent().getExtras() call in onResume() always returns null - I don't seem to be able to pass any extras through at all in this bundle. If I use the same method to bind extras to the PendingIntent which triggers the BroadcastReceiver however, the extras come through just fine. Can anyone tell me what's different about passing a bundle from a BroadcastReceiver to an Activity, as opposed to passing the bundle from an Activity to a BroadcastReceiver? I fear I may be doing something very very obvious wrong here...

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  • Matlab crashes on library initialize when called from Java

    - by David Sauter
    Hello everyone. The setup I have is I'm using a Java application to call native C-code with JNI, which in turn starts up the MATLAB runtime and calls functions on it (I know there are other solutions to call MATLAB methods from Java). The problem is that the MATLAB engine crashes at some point during the initialization and I don't know what's causing it exactly. The crash causes my jvm to terminate, I assume it's some kind of memory corruption. The C++ code calling MATLAB functions that is actually crashing is JNIEXPORT void JNICALL some_jni_vodoo_initializeLibrary(JNIEnv* env, jclass thisClass) { try { if (!mclInitializeApplication(NULL, 0)) { THROW_EXCEPTION(env, "Could not initialize the application properly."); return; } if (!<library>Initialize()) { THROW_EXCEPTION(env, "Could not initialize the library."); return; } } ... The function <library>Initialize() crashes here, the Java error log reads Stack Trace: [0] jmi.dll:0x793f4175(0x7934cdca, 1, 0x7937e67c "à;.y`[email protected] in C:\BUILD_ARE..", 0x792d6a32) [1] jvm.dll:0x792df9a5(0xc0000005, 0x79356791, 0x4961b400 "Ð\8y", 0x6d8b29de) [2] jvm.dll:0x792e0431(0x8b515008, 0x70f0e8ce, 0x8b5ffffa, 0xc25d5ec6) ------------------------------------------------------------------------ Fatal Java Exception detected at Fri Apr 30 11:08:08 2010 ------------------------------------------------------------------------ Configuration: MATLAB Version: 7.8.0.347 (R2009a) MATLAB License: unknown Operating System: Microsoft Windows Vista Window System: Version 6.0 (Build 6002: Service Pack 2) Processor ID: x86 Family 6 Model 10 Stepping 5, GenuineIntel Virtual Machine: Java is not enabled Default Encoding: windows-1252 Java is not enabled I really have no idea what could be wrong. Is there not enough memory from the jvm? I guess the problem is somehow related to Java, since calling the JNI functions from a simple test C++ program works fine... Thanks

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  • Localizing DataAnnotations Custom Validation Attribute

    - by Gabe G
    Hello SO, I'm currently working in an MVC 2 app which has to have everything localized in n-languages (currently 2, none of them english btw). I validate my model classes with DataAnnotations but when I wanted to validate a DateTime field found out that the DataTypeAttribute returns always true, no matter it was a valid date or not (that's because when I enter a random string "foo", the IsValid() method checks against "01/01/0001 ", dont know why). Decided to write my own validator extending ValidationAtribute class: public class DateTimeAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public override bool IsValid(object value) { DateTime result; if (value.ToString().Equals("01/01/0001 0:00:00")) { return false; } return DateTime.TryParse(value.ToString(), out result); } } Now it checks OK when is valid and when it's not, but my problem starts when I try to localize it: [Required(ErrorMessageResourceType = typeof(MSG), ErrorMessageResourceName = "INS_DATA_Required")] [CustomValidation.DateTime(ErrorMessageResourceType = typeof(MSG), ErrorMessageResourceName = "INS_DATA_DataType")] public DateTime INS_DATA { get; set; } If I put nothing in the field I get a localized MSG (MSG being my resource class) for the key=INS_DATA_Required but if I put a bad-formatted date I get the "The value 'foo' is not valid for INS_DATA" default message and not the localized MSG. What am I misssing?

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  • jQuery cycle plugin customizing

    - by spirax
    I'm using the jQuery Cycle plugin to start a slidshow of images when hovering over the initial image. This works fine. What I want after that is to have the slideshow stop when hovered off, and have a manual slideshow (next/prev buttons) start. This currently works, but the slideshow starts from the beginning each time it's initialized. I want it to begin at the current image that's loaded. I was playing around with getting the image's index from the DOM (as it's the only one with display:block) and using the option 'startingSlide' to resume it, but my index keeps returning as -1. jQuery('#home-menu li').hover(function() { setImages(jQuery(this).attr('title'), jQuery(this).find('.subtitle').text()); jQuery('#main .blog #projects .gallery .slideshow').cycle( { fx: 'scrollHorz', easing: 'easeOutBounce', speed: 2000, delay: 0 }); }, function() { // Before loading the images for the clickable slideshow, find the current image in the DOM array to use as the starting position slideshowStart = jQuery('.gallery .slideshow img:visible').index(this); console.log('Index: ' + slideshowStart); setImages(jQuery(this).attr('title'), jQuery(this).find('.subtitle').text()); jQuery('#main .blog #projects .gallery .slideshow').cycle('stop').cycle( { fx: 'scrollHorz', easing: 'easeOutBounce', startingSlide: slideshowStart, speed: 2000, timeout: 0, next: "#main .blog #projects .gallery span.span2", prev: "#main .blog #projects .gallery span.span1" }); }); setImages() just loads images into the DOM based on what li is being hovered over. Nothing special there. I want the image to be resumed when hovered over and hovered off. I've left out the resume part for hover on for the moment while I was trying to get it working - In case you were wondering.

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  • Perl strings internals

    - by n0rd
    How does perl strings represented internally? What encoding is used? How do I handle different encodings properly? I've been using perl for quite a long time, but it didn't include a lot of string handling in different encodings, and when I encountered a minor problem that had something to do with encodings I usually resorted to some shamanic actions. Until this moment I thought about perl strings as sequences of bytes, which did fit pretty well for my tasks. Now I need to do some processing of UTF-8 encoded file and here starts trouble. First, I read file into string like this: open(my $in, '<', $ARGV[0]) or die "cannot open file $ARGV[0] for reading"; binmode($in, ':utf8'); my $contents; { local $/; $contents = <$in>; } close($in); then simply print it: print $contents; And I get two things: a warning Wide character in print at <scriptname> line <n> and a garbage in console. So I can conclude that perl strings have a concept of "character" that can be "wide" or not, but when printed these "wide" characters are represented in console as multiple bytes, not as single "character". (I wonder now why did all my previous experience with binary files worked quite how I expected it to work without any "character" issues). Why then I see garbage in console? If perl stores strings as character in some known encoding, I don't think there is a big problem to find out console encoding and print text properly. (I use Windows, BTW). If perl stores strings as multibyte sequences (e.g. using same UTF-8 encoding), why is it done this way? From my C experience handling multibyte strings is PAIN.

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  • Hiding keyboard in iPad with UITextView , can do this in iphone not iPad.

    - by user271753
    Hey the code below when written in HelloWorldAppDelegate.m in an iPhone app having UITextView hides the keyboard when the app starts : The UITextView is editable thats what I want in iPad Also But how can do the same in iPad its not working at all ! ! ! ! ! ! ! And also I have checked that I can use Subviews if I want to keep this to my app itself - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { //For hiding the Keyboard [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(keyboardWillShow:) name:UIKeyboardWillShowNotification object:nil]; [window addSubview:viewController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; } /// /// Hiding the Keyboard /// - (void)keyboardWillShow:(NSNotification *)note { //The UIWindow that contains the keyboard view UIWindow* tempWindow; //Because we cant get access to the UIKeyboard throught the SDK we will just use UIView. //UIKeyboard is a subclass of UIView anyways UIView* keyboard; //Check each window in our application for(int c = 0; c < [[[UIApplication sharedApplication] windows] count]; c ++) { //Get a reference of the current window tempWindow = [[[UIApplication sharedApplication] windows] objectAtIndex:c]; //Get a reference of the current view for(int i = 0; i < [tempWindow.subviews count]; i++) { keyboard = [tempWindow.subviews objectAtIndex:i]; if (!strcmp(object_getClassName(keyboard), "UIKeyboard")) { NSLog(@"hide keyboard"); [keyboard setHidden:YES]; return; } } } } Regards

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  • WPF performance on scaling a large scene

    - by Mark
    I have a full screen app that I want to be able to zoom in on certain areas. I have the code working fine, but I notice that when I get closer in, the zoom in animation (which animates the ScaleTransform.ScaleX and ScaleTransform.ScaleY properties on a Parent canvas) starts to jerk down a little and the frame rate suffers. Im not using any BitmapEffects or anything, and ideally I would like my scene to get more complicated than it currently already is. The scene is quite large, 1980x1024, this is a requirement and cannot be changed. The current layout is like this: <Canvas x:name="LayoutRoot"> <Canvas x:Name="ContainerCanvas"> <local:MyControl x:Name="c1" /> <!-- numerous or ther controls and elements that compose the scene --> </Canvas> </Canvas> The code that zooms in just animates the RenderTransform of the ContainerCanvas, which in tern, scales its children which gives the desired effect. However, Im wondering if I need to swap out the ContainerCanvas for a ViewBox or something like that? Ive never really worked with ViewBox/Viewport controls before in WPF can they even help me out here? Smooth zooming is a huge requirement of the client and I must get this resolved. All ideas are welcome Thanks a lot Mark

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  • Why does Cut/Paste of form components sometimes stop working in Delphi 2007 IDE?

    - by robsoft
    This is driving me crazy. I'm not going to take it anymore. I'm going to ask, even at the risk of eternal public humiliation! (If it's something really obvious or that I've done to the system myself). For reasons I've never quite had the patience to work out, every so often the form I'm working on in Delphi 2007's visual form editor goes 'pseudo-read-only'; I can add new components to the form, I can move/resize existing ones (and change any properties in the Object Inspector), and I can select a component and 'copy' it to the clipboard. But I'm completely unable to cut a component from the form, or paste a new copy down. I don't believe it's to do with the 'Lock Controls' Edit menu option as I can toggle this on or off and it has the effect it's supposed to - this disappearance of Cut & Paste happens on the right-click context menu, from the keyboard and from the main Edit menu - it's as if the form has become read only to thing to do with the clipboard. If I close the form in the IDE and then reopen it, everything starts working fine again (just as D1, D3, D5 and D7 always did for me, previously). I'm not going mad, as I'm sure I read something about why this happens on a newsgroup once and it's caught me out from time to time many many times in the last few months, but I've failed to find the newsgroup reference this evening and I've decided that, as more and more Delphi users seem to be making use of StackOverflow, it was worth asking here. Help - when I'm doing lots of form-work it drives me absolutely mad!

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  • TRibbon's large button's image is not centered...any ideas? easy to demonstrate at design-time.

    - by X-Ray
    i'm using delphi 2009 (updates 1, 2, 3, 4). i'm seeing something quite peculiar. the image on the button is not centered in the button when i have a large button with a large glyph! rather than being centered, the left part of the glyph starts at the center of the button. a clue is that when i: go into the action editor and select the action use the ImageIndex combobox in the object inspector, the list is empty (normally i'd see the available images in the combobox). it seems as though there's an image width property i've failed to set or an imagelist not correctly configured. i've expected the glyph on a large button should be 32x32. try the following: paste these components into an empty form add a 32x32 image to the image list set the Action1 imageindex to 0 you'll immediately see what i mean! can anyone tell me why it looks that way? i find it interesting that the ribbon demo app doesn't show this problem. i even tried the same image. thank you! object ActionManager1: TActionManager ActionBars = < item Items = < item Action = Action1 Caption = '&Action1' ImageIndex = 0 CommandProperties.ButtonSize = bsLarge end> ActionBar = RibbonGroup1 end> LargeDisabledImages = img3232 LargeImages = img3232 Left = 376 Top = 184 StyleName = 'Ribbon - Luna' object Action1: TAction Caption = 'Action1' ImageIndex = 0 end end object Ribbon1: TRibbon Left = 0 Top = 0 Width = 693 Height = 147 ActionManager = ActionManager1 Caption = 'Ribbon1' Tabs = < item Caption = 'RibbonPage1' Page = RibbonPage1 end> ExplicitLeft = 232 ExplicitTop = 80 ExplicitWidth = 0 DesignSize = ( 693 147) StyleName = 'Ribbon - Luna' object RibbonPage1: TRibbonPage Left = 0 Top = 54 Width = 692 Height = 93 Caption = 'RibbonPage1' Index = 0 object RibbonGroup1: TRibbonGroup Left = 4 Top = 3 Width = 54 Height = 86 ActionManager = ActionManager1 Caption = 'RibbonGroup1' GroupIndex = 0 end end end object img3232: TImageList Height = 32 Width = 32 Left = 376 Top = 256 end

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  • How to add an image when generating a pdf-file with javascript. When adding the imageLoadFromURL no pdf is generated

    - by Angu Handschuh
    I've got a problem with adding an image when generating a pdf-file with javascript. Here is my code: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="base64.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="sprintf.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="jspdf.js"></script> <script> function demo1() { var name = prompt('Name: '); var nachname=prompt('Nachname: '); var doc = new jsPDF(); doc.setFontSize(22); doc.text(20, 20, 'Der eingegebene Text'); doc.setFontSize(16); doc.imageLoadFromUrl('image.jpg'); doc.imagePlace(20, 40); doc.text(20, 30, 'Name: ' + name); doc.text(20,40,'Nachname:'+nachname); // Output as Data URI doc.output('datauri'); } </script> </head> <body> <h2> Ein Document </h2> <a href="javascript:demo1()"> PDF erstellen </a> </body> </html> Before adding doc.imageLoadFromUrl('image.jpg'); doc.imagePlace(20, 40); the code runs without picture. It starts with a demand note for the name and the second name, after this it generates a pdf-file. But when adding the imageLoad-Method there is no pdf-file generated. Does anyone konws how to solve this problem?

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  • Using Traveling Salesman Solver to Decide Hamiltonian Path

    - by Firas Assaad
    This is for a project where I'm asked to implement a heuristic for the traveling salesman optimization problem and also the Hamiltonian path or cycle decision problem. I don't need help with the implementation itself, but have a question on the direction I'm going in. I already have a TSP heuristic based on a genetic algorithm: it assumes a complete graph, starts with a set of random solutions as a population, and works to improve the population for a number of generations. Can I also use it to solve the Hamiltonian path or cycle problems? Instead of optimizing to get the shortest path, I just want to check if there is a path. Now any complete graph will have a Hamiltonian path in it, so the TSP heuristic would have to be extended to any graph. This could be done by setting the edges to some infinity value if there is no path between two cities, and returning the first path that is a valid Hamiltonian path. Is that the right way to approach it? Or should I use a different heuristic for Hamiltonian path? My main concern is whether it's a viable approach since I can be somewhat sure that TSP optimization works (because you start with solutions and improve them) but not if a Hamiltonian path decider would find any path in a fixed number of generations. I assume the best approach would be to test it myself, but I'm constrained by time and thought I'd ask before going down this route... (I could find a different heuristic for Hamiltonian path instead)

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  • Stopping the service and the babysited application before uninstalling

    - by Viv Coco
    Hi all, I have a service MyService.exe that is babysitting my application MyApp.exe, meaning it starts the application when this one crashes or whatever. Basically when the service is stopped the application is stopped (by the service) and when the service is started the application is started by the service. In order to stop my service and by that my application when uninstalling I'm doing: <ServiceControl Id='MyServiceControl' Name='MyServiceForTest' Start='install' Stop='uninstall' Remove='uninstall'/> But when I want to uninstall everything I get the error message: "The setup must update files or services that cannot be updated while the system is running. If you choose to continue, a reboot will be required to complete the setup.". If I manually stop the service before running the uninstaller I don't get this msg as both my service and my application aren't then running anymore. In the log file I noticed that this happens in InstallValidate and I get this message b/c of MyApp.exe being running. I think what happens is: the uninstallers checks the running applications, it notices that the MyService.exe and MyApp.exe are both running, detects probably that the MyService.exe will be stopped by the uninstaller itself as instructed, but doesn't know about the MyApp.exe that this one will also be terminated once the service will be stopped so it will show the reboot-message. I can't just close MyApp.exe from uninstaller b/c the service will restart it again. How could I solve this problem so that the user won't need to reboot or to manually stop the service before doing an uninstall/upgrade? Also, I can't change MyService and MyApp code anymore so I will have to do this from the (un)installer only. TIA, Viv

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