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• Reusing Raid 5 Drive?

  - by User125

  We have two servers (ML530 G2 and DL380G2) w/ identical HP 10K RPM SCSI drives w/ a raid 5. One is decommissioned and the other will be decommissioned shortly. However, one of the drives on the production server had a drive failure. My hope was to take one of the drives from the decommissioned server and pop it into the production server. Both are running RAID 5. I broke the array on the decomm. server. To my knowledge, that should have wiped out all the volume and partition information. However, I do not know if it is safe to then take a drive from the decomm'ed server and replace the failed drive. Will the existing array see it as a replacement drive, wipe it and rebuild? Or will it fail because it was used in an array before. Are there any remnant data that resides on the drives after deleting a raid 5 array? These servers are 10-15 years old, so we're just trying to keep them alive until we decommission it. I'm not looking to pay a premium to find a vendor that still sells replacement drives for this system.

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• Replaced CPU and black screen but no beep?

  - by luke

  I'm having a bit of trouble with a GIGABYTE GA-MA78G-DS3H (rev. 2.0) motherboard. Recently when trying to clean my AMD Phenom II X 4 CPU, I dropped it and broke some pins. I have now brought a Athlon 64 X2 5400+. However, it does not seem to work. To begin with, I cleared the CMOS via the jumper located near the battery. This was because I had my AMD Phenom II overclocked and did not wish for the same voltage to go to the new CPU. I then tried booting with the monitor plugged into the chipsets VGA but no luck. No signal was sent to the monitor, and the monitor just went into standby. I then tried it off the graphics card but the same happened again. Then I tried to check whether the CPU could executed some BIOS codes by stripping the RAM out and making sure a speaker was plugged in but no beeps could be heard. I replaced the speaker and tried again but no luck. The CPU is brand-new so what is going wrong?

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• Synchronizing the SamAccountName Property using Windows Azure Active Directory Sync Tool

  - by pk.

  Using this official documentation as a guide, I would expect the SamAccountName property to sync from my on-premise AD to Office 365. I think that it used to do exactly that, but now it seems that it doesn't so much sync the attribute as it does create an entirely new, unlinked value and store it in Office 365. This has caused some minor issues for me (broken scripts, annoying permissions management, etc.) and may be part of a more major issue regarding ADFS authentication. On-Premise PS C:\Windows\system32> Get-ADUser jdoe -Properties SamAccountName | fl SamAccountName SamAccountName : jdoe Office 365 Sync'ed Objects PS C:\Windows\system32> Get-Mailbox jdoe | fl SamAccountName SamAccountName : $1A7H20-K1LCOJFFBHGS I understand how to work around this issue in my scripts -- there exists the ImmutableId property which can be mapped back to the on-premise GUID. As far as the issue I'm having with ADFS, I'm less certain how to proceed and if this is causing my issues. At this point I really would just like some verification that I'm not crazy and that this used to be sync'ed at some point in the past and that Office 365 broke it relatively recently. I also think that MS documentation should perhaps be updated to exclude SamAccountName from the list of synchronized properties on the page I linked.

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• Fixing Windows install by connecting it's hard drive via USB to a different laptop

  - by Jason

  I tried to upgrade a laptop to SP3, which broke it. I later found out SP3 doesn't work on that 2002 laptop. I can't uninstall SP3, or fix SP2, because the hard drive is now not detected during setup (I've read that's the problem you get). I put the hard drive in a USB drive case and plugged it into my other laptop, and I can read (& write to) the disk okay. (The hard drive won't fit in my other laptop, so I'm using USB.) I need to get that disk back to SP2, or fix whatever files got screwed up causing the disk to not be recognized. I don't want to do a re-install as there are 80GB of files on it I need, and they won't fit on the HD of my other laptop, and also because I no longer have some of the install CDs for software on it. What do I need to do to fix that drive from my other laptop? (I don't want my working laptop (XP SP3) to get screwed with by putting an SP2 disk in the CD drive, or the non-o/s data on the other hard drive screwed with.)

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• Fixing Windows install by connecting its hard drive via USB to a different laptop

  - by Jason

  I tried to upgrade a laptop to SP3, which broke it. I later found out SP3 doesn't work on that 2002 laptop. I can't uninstall SP3, or fix SP2, because the hard drive is now not detected during setup (I've read that's the problem you get). I put the hard drive in a USB drive case and plugged it into my other laptop, and I can read (& write to) the disk okay. (The hard drive won't fit in my other laptop, so I'm using USB.) I need to get that disk back to SP2, or fix whatever files got screwed up causing the disk to not be recognized. I don't want to do a re-install as there are 80GB of files on it I need, and they won't fit on the HD of my other laptop, and also because I no longer have some of the install CDs for software on it. What do I need to do to fix that drive from my other laptop? (I don't want my working laptop (XP SP3) to get screwed with by putting an SP2 disk in the CD drive, or the non-o/s data on the other hard drive screwed with.)

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• Recovering a broken NTFS filesystem?

  - by OverTheRainbow

  A much-needed Windows Update broke a Vista laptop that was running fine until then: After booting up, Windows displays "Please wait..." but it never goes anywhere. I waited for a couple of hours, there is a bit of disk activity, but it didn't work out in the end. I booted with the Vista DVD, chose "Repair your computer" which said that there was nothing wrong :-/ Next, I booted it up with a Linux USB keydrive, and ran Gparted 0.8.1 (which includes ntfsresize v2011.4.12AR.4 libntfs-3g) which displays a bunch of warnings for the NTFS partition where the Vista system is located such as: ntfs_mst_post_read_fixup: magic: 0x00000000 size: 1024 usa_ofs: 0 usa_count: 65535: Invalid argument Record 16 has no FILE magic (0x0) Next, I ran ntfsfix /dev/sda2, which said: Mounting volume... OK Processing of $MFT and $MFTMirr completed successfully. NTFS volume version is 3.1. NTFS partition /dev/sda2 was processed successfully. Next, I rebooted Vista, which did a CHKDSK, before rebooting. But I'm still getting nowhere with "Please wait..." Before I copy the user's data to another host and reinstall Vista from a DVD, does someone know what I could try? Thank you. Edit: In case someone else has the same issue... After the BIOS, hit F8 and choose "Repair your computer", followed by "Toshiba HDD Recovery". In addition to a 1,5GB partition labelled "WinRE", the hard disk contains a second partition labeled "Data" from which the application will fetch a system image and reinstall it in the "Vista" partition. Make sure you copy your data out of the system partition before doing this.

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• Why is /dev/urandom only readable by root since Ubuntu 12.04 and how can I "fix" it?

  - by Joe Hopfgartner

  I used to work with Ubuntu 10.04 templates on a lot of servers. Since changing to 12.04 I have problems that I've now isolated. The /dev/urandom device is only accessible to root. This caused SSL engines, at least in PHP, for example file_get_contents(https://... to fail. It also broke redmine. After a chmod 644 it works fine, but that doesnt stay upon reboot. So my question. why is this? I see no security risk because... i mean.. wanna steal some random data? How can I "fix" it? The servers are isolated and used by only one application, thats why I use openvz. I think about something like a runlevel script or so... but how do I do it efficiently? Maby with dpkg or apt? The same goes vor /dev/shm. in this case i totally understand why its not accessible, but I assume I can "fix" it the same way to fix /dev/urandom

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• USB Diskdrive cannot be formatted nor accessed

  - by Dmolish

  So I have just recently bought and 8GB USB stick(Kingston DT 100 G2) on which I had installed Linux. However I needed to reinstall said Linux so I formatted the stick to "default" settings which includes FAT32 filesystem. Later when the install process kept getting errors, I got advice that the problem might be with the FAT filesystem. I decided to try and format the stick to NTSF (format G:/fs:ntsf) but the formatting failed and the drive broke down. And with breaking down I mean you cannot access the drive anymore and when you plug it in Windows asks if I want to format the drive but despite my will the format always fails. To fix this I tried changing it back to FAT32 (format G:/fs:fat32), but i get "Error in IOCTL-call". Second thing I tried was trying to reset the filesystem with some 3rd party application like HP USB Disk Storage Format Tool. But the programs didn´t regocnize any media on the drive. So now I´m in the situation that I haven´t got any idea on what to do next. Is the drive recoverable or did I just create a piece of waste metal.

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• Could I have destroyed Partitioning-Scheme/Filesystem of HDDs with External Harddrive Case with builtin Raid-Controller?

  - by th3m3s

  I had just recently bought a Fantec QB-35US3R to have a nice box on my desk to make some backups to. Along with the HDD-Bay I had ordered some 4TB HDDs to let them run in Raid 5, which is handled by the hardware RAID controller of the Fantec HDD-Bay. The QB-35US3R arrived a few days before the hard drives, so I got impatient and had the idea to put three old 1TB disks in the Fantec device, just to test it... Long story short: I made a backup of the most important data on these three disks before they broke. I had set the configuration scheme to RAID 3 at the Fantec device. It seems, that the Fantec RAID controller has "somehow" destroyed the partitioning scheme or the file system, because when put into a HDD docking station, they get recognized by the OS (Ubuntu/Linux) but are not mountable anymore. I tried to recover the data from one HDD via gParted (parted), which ran some hours without success. Here I stopped, before trying other tools, cos I read that the longer a hard drive is running after a the partitioning got destroyed, the worse it gets. What could the HDD-Bay probably have done to my lovely hard drive disks? Is there some routine a RAID controller is executing, when it wants to create a RAID system? Like erasing the partition table (seems not plausible to me.) or writing some information to every hard drive in the RAID (seems more likely to me.)? Is there a chance to recover the data from these HDDs, or is the change a RAID controller makes so significant, that no software is of help?

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• How can I tell System Restore in WIndows 7 recovery console to use my recovered backup drive's restore point data?

  - by Rich Shealer

  My Windows 7 desktop PC failed to boot. It would get to a grayish screen with a mouse and would only respond to the power button. After much examination I found that the problem was not a failed drive as running CHKDSK from the Recovery Console on my main drives passed without any errors. I had been installing various Java version in the days before the failure so I decided to use a restore point to roll backwards. I have an external SATA drive controller with two 2 TB drives mirrored using the Windows mirroring function. My system has been backing up to this drive regularly. The problem is I accidently broke the mirror when testing to see if this drive system might have been causing my boot issue. Connecting it to another machine showed two dynamic drives that were invalid. In the end I reformatted one as an NTFS basic disc and used recovery software on the other to copy all of the files to the reformatted drive. I had to copy the restore points into the new drive's System Volume Information folder by granting rights to that user. I moved the drive back to the original machine and rebooted. I can see my new drive, it even uses the same drive letter as it did in normal mode. Running System Restore it lists a new Automatic Restore point created while sitting at the RC along with all of my backups. Selecting the backup I want (or any other) I get a dialog. The backup drive could not be found. System Restore is looking for restore points on your backup. Make sure the backup drive is on and connected to this computer and then click OK. What do I need to do to allow system restore to see the restore points?

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• Configure Web app for external access (IIS7), allowing only certain users via AD group. All users need internal access

  - by White Island

  We have a Web app running in IIS7 (Server 2008 R2). I now need to allow external access with an SSL certificate, so certain users (e.g. the owner of the company) can use it remotely without VPN. They want to roll out the external access only to those specific users at first (thinking: a Windows credential prompt), BUT everyone will still need access internally (HTTP), without the prompt. I have the SSL cert installed on the server and public DNS configured. I've been trying to figure out how to work the authentication/authorization. I was thinking I need to disable Anonymous authn and set Windows authn, then I keep coming back to 'URL Authorization' in my research for the group setting; however, when I tried URL authz, (removed allow all, added allow rule for the special group), it broke the site internally (403.2 Forbidden, I believe it was). I thought maybe setting up a second site in IIS pointing to the same program would work, but the exact same thing happened (and again with a new app pool, just for kicks). So I guess my question is, how would you do this: allow external access, limited to users in a specific AD group, while still allowing internal access without a credentials prompt? How do I separate the external HTTPS and internal HTTP authorization requirements? Will I need to just copy the entire contents of the app in Windows Explorer to a new folder and create my external site from that? Is Windows authentication the correct option for this? I did come across this, which refers to creating a custom module. While it sounds like a solution, it's not one I'm familiar with, and I just wondered if there is a simpler way to get it to work: http://forums.iis.net/p/1182792/2000775.aspx Thanks!

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• Ant and Flex-4 problem, MXMLC.jar not found !

  - by Ali

  Hi all, I updated a flex application from flex 3.5 to flex 4.0. We are using ant for compiling our project and we have a mxmlc task to handle the flex part. After the upgrade, our mxmlc task broke. Here is the task definition: <taskdef resource="flexTasks.tasks"> <classpath> <pathelement path="${FLEX_HOME}/ant/lib/flexTasks.jar"/> <pathelement path="${FLEX_HOME}/lib/flexTasks.jar"/> <fileset dir="${FLEX_HOME}/lib"> <include name="**/*.jar"/> </fileset> </classpath> </taskdef> And here is mxmlc task <mxmlc file="${src}/Main.mxml" output="${build}/main.swf" debug="true" target-player="10" services="../src/main/webapp/WEB-INF/flex/services-config.xml" context-root="/" > <compiler.library-path dir="${lib}"> <include name="*.swc"/> </compiler.library-path> <compiler.library-path dir="${FLEX_HOME}/frameworks/libs"> <include name="*.swc"/> </compiler.library-path> <compiler.library-path dir="${FLEX_HOME}/frameworks/libs/player/10.0"> <include name="*.swc"/> </compiler.library-path> <compiler.library-path dir="${FLEX_HOME}/frameworks/locale"> <include name="**/*"/> </compiler.library-path> </mxmlc> And we are getting: The class not found in jar file: mxmlc.jar I checked the ${FLEX_HOME}/lib folder and I can see the mxmlc.jar file there. I appreciate your comments for resolving this matter, Thanks, -A

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• Editing a UITextField inside a UITableViewCell fails

  - by Stephen Darlington

  In my application I have a UITextField inside a UITableViewCell. If I click inside the text field and add some text I find that if try to move the insertion point it works the first time but fails on subsequent attempts. I am completely unable to move the selection; no "magnifying glass" appears. Even more curious, this "setting" seems to be permanent until I restart the application. And it affects all UITextFields on that screen and not just the one that I originally tried to edit. If you want to see it yourself, try the "UICatalog" sample that comes with the iPhone SDK. Click "text fields" and then "edit" and play around with the text boxes. I've done a lot of digging on this but it's pretty hard to Google for! The best references I've found are on Apple's support board and MacRumors formum (both reference a solution that apparently used to work on iPhone 2.0 but does work not with contemporary versions -- I did try). My feeling that is that this is a bug in the OS, but I thought I'd throw this out to the SO crowd for a second opinion and to see if there are any workarounds. Any ideas? Following benzado's suggestion, I tried building my application using the 2.0, 2.1 and 2.2 SDKs. I got the same behaviour in all versions. (Actually, something related but not the same broke in 2.2 but that's probably another question!)

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• New to MVVM - Best practices for seperating Data processing thread and UI Thread?

  - by OffApps Cory

  Good day. I have started messing around with the MVVP pattern, and I am having some problems with UI responsiveness versus data processing. I have a program that tracks packages. Shipment and package entities are persisted in SQL database, and are displayed in a WPF view. Upon initial retrieval of the records, there is a noticeable pause before displaying the new shipments view, and I have not even implemented the code that counts shipments that are overdue/active yet (which will necessitate a tracking check via web service, and a lot of time). I have built this with the Ocean framework, and all appears to be doing well, except when I first started my foray into multi-threading. It broke, and it appeared to break something in Ocean... Here is what I did: Private QueryThread As New System.Threading.Thread(AddressOf GetShipments) Public Sub New() ' Insert code required on object creation below this point. Me.New(ViewManagerService.CreateInstance, ViewModelUIService.CreateInstance) 'Perform initial query of shipments 'QueryThread.Start() GetShipments() Console.WriteLine(Me.Shipments.Count) End Sub Public Sub New(ByVal objIViewManagerService As IViewManagerService, ByVal objIViewModelUIService As IViewModelUIService) MyBase.New(objIViewModelUIService) End Sub Public Sub GetShipments() Dim InitialResults = From shipment In db.Shipment.Include("Packages") _ Select shipment Me.Shipments = New ShipmentsCollection(InitialResults, db) End Sub So I declared a new Thread, assigned it the GetShipments method and instanced it in the default constructor. Ocean freaks out at this, so there must be a better way of doing it. I have not had the chance to figure out the usage of the SQL ORM thing in Ocean so I am using Entity Framework (perhaps one of these days i will look at NHibernate or something too). Any information would be greatly appreciated. I have looked at a number of articles and they all have examples of simple uses. Some have mentioned the Dispatcher, but none really go very far into how it is used. Anyone know any good tutorials? Cory

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• AutoMapper a viable alternative to two way databinding using a FormView?

  - by tbone

  I've started using the FormView control to enable two way databinding in asp.net webforms. I liked that it saved me the trouble of writing loadForm and unloadForm routines on every page. So it seemed to work nicely at the start when I was just using textboxes everywhere....but when it came time to start converting some to DropDownLists, all hell broke lose. For example, see: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2435185/not-possible-to-load-dropdownlist-on-formview-from-code-behind ....and I had many additional problems after that. So I happened upon an article on AutoMapper, which I know very little about yet, but from the sounds of it, this might be a viable alternative to two-way databinding a form to an domain entity object? From what I understand, AutoMapper basically operates on naming convention, so, it will look for matched names properties(?) on the source and destination objects. So, basically, I have all my domain entities (ie: Person) with properties (FirstName, LastName, Address, etc)....what I would like to be able to do is declare my asp controls with those exact same names, and have automapper do the loading and unloading. One obvious caveat is that AutoMapper would have to know the proper property name for each control type, ie: Person.FirstName -- form.FirstName*.Text* Person.Country -- form.Country.SelectedValue Person.IsVerified -- form.IsVerified.Checked ....so it would have to have the smarts to find the control on the form, determine its type, and then load/unload between the domain object and the webform control into the proper property of the control. So if this worked, a person could just get rid of the cursed FormView control entirely, and it would be just one line of code each for binding and unbinding a webform. Possible?

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• How can I debug why this click handler never fires?

  - by tixrus

  I am going to be excrutiatingly detailed here. I am using Firefox 3.6.3 on Max OSX with Firebug 1.5.3. I have two versions of a project, one which works and one with a bug. One I downloaded and one I typed by hand. Take a guess which one doesn't work. They should be the same except that mine uses a newer version of jQuery and the files are named differently. jQuery version is not the issue. I made mine use the older jquery and I made the working one use the newer jquery. Either way, mine still broke and the downloaded one still works. I've busted my eyes trying to see how these projects are different. The only thing I don't want to do is copy the working code to the busted code because I need to be able to figure this stuff out when it is my own unique code causing similar issues. There are no errors that I can see in Firebug in my code, in fact, 2/3 of it works just fine. just the second button does nothing. So I wanted to step through. These are always eyeball errors and I really suck at seeing them. I put it on a public server. http://colleenweb.com/jqtests/ex71.html And I want to debug ex71.js If you firebug the working one and set a break point at line 13 in ex71.js the variable json has the expected values when you click on the second button. But If you firebug this one, it never gets there. I've been over the html and all the names of everything seem to match up. I also wonder why the buttons aren't right justified but that's a css thing. Please tell me what I'm missing, and more importantly, what tool/technique I could use to find these types of bugs.

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• When does a PHP <5.3.0 daemon script receive signals?

  - by MidnightLightning

  I've got a PHP script in the works that is a job worker; its main task is to check a database table for new jobs, and if there are any, to act on them. But jobs will be coming in in bursts, with long gaps in between, so I devised a sleep cycle like: while(true) { if ($jobs = get_new_jobs()) { // Act upon the jobs } else { // No new jobs now sleep(30); } } Good, but in some cases that means there might be a 30 second lag before a new job is acted upon. Since this is a daemon script, I figured I'd try the pcntl_signal hook to catch a SIGUSR1 signal to nudge the script to wake up, like: $_isAwake = true; function user_sig($signo) { global $_isAwake; daemon_log("Caught SIGUSR1"); $_isAwake = true; } pcntl_signal(SIGUSR1, 'user_sig'); while(true) { if ($jobs = get_new_jobs()) { // Act upon the jobs } else { // No new jobs now daemon_log("No new jobs, sleeping..."); $_isAwake = false; $ts = time(); while(time() < $ts+30) { sleep(1); if ($_isAwake) break; // Did a signal happen while we were sleeping? If so, stop sleeping } $_isAwake = true; } } I broke the sleep(30) up into smaller sleep bits, in case a signal doesn't interrupt a sleep() command, thinking that this would cause at most a one-second delay, but in the log file, I'm seeing that the SIGUSR1 isn't being caught until after the full 30 seconds has passed (and maybe the outer while loop resets). I found the pcntl_signal_dispatch command, but that's only for PHP 5.3 and higher. If I were using that version, I could stick a call to that command before the if ($_isAwake) call, but as it currently stands I'm on 5.2.13. On what sort of situations is the signals queue interpreted in PHP versions without the means to explicitly call the queue parsing? Could I put in some other useless command in that sleep loop that would trigger a signal queue parse within there?

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• Strange xml/html accent issue

  - by Ayrad

  I have an XML file that contains a message with html tags in it. The XML file is read by a java class that mails it to people. When the mail is received, the accents do not show. For example é doesn't show. I have tried &eacute; in the xml but it gives an error in eclipse saying that the entity has not been declared. I also tried simply inserting &#233; but that shows nothing in the final output. The 3rd thing I tried was using <![CDATA[é]]> but that broke the parser since it didn't output anything after it. However I noticed something weird. When i put something like this in the xml and added UTF-16 encoding <message>text bla bla blaa é&lt; it did ouput the é at the end like this bla bla blaa blaa é. EDIT <message>text bla bla blaa éé&lt; outputs ?é or just one é The file looks something like this: <?xml version="1.0"? encoding="UTF-16"> <message> &lt;b&gt;hello é &lt;/b&gt; </message> </xml> What gives?

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• How do i convert String to Integer/Float in Haskell

  - by Ranhiru

  data GroceryItem = CartItem ItemName Price Quantity | StockItem ItemName Price Quantity makeGroceryItem :: String -> Float -> Int -> GroceryItem makeGroceryItem name price quantity = CartItem name price quantity I want to create a GroceryItem when using a String or [String] createGroceryItem :: [String] -> GroceryItem createGroceryItem (a:b:c) = makeGroceryItem a b c The input will be in the format ["Apple","15.00","5"] which i broke up using words function in haskell. I get this error which i think is because the makeGroceryItem accepts a Float and an Int. But how do i make b and c Float and Int respectively? *Type error in application *** Expression : makeGroceryItem a read b read c *** Term : makeGroceryItem *** Type : String -> Float -> Int -> GroceryItem *** Does not match : a -> b -> c -> d -> e -> f* Thanx a lot in advance :)

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• Adapting existing HTML/Javascript model to Titanium's latest release (v 0.9)

  - by Alan Neal

  In pre-0.9 versions of Titanium, one could simply specify an .html file (local or remote) in the tiapp.xml file and interact with it in the same manner as one would on a website. As of version 0.9, that is no the longer case. One creates their entire app dynamically. Unfortunately, this broke my previous implementation and, other than an updated Kitchen Sink, much of the new model and API calls are not covered in the documentation (e.g., createLabel). So, my question is this... What are the simplest steps for re-creating the previous effect (knowingly forgoing some of the advantages of the Titanium's latest approach if necessary)? My previous implementation was exactly as it functions on the website. The website has a single index.html file with no content other than links to JavaScript and style files. The document body's onload event called the first JavaScript function (located in the main script) and, from that point forth, the entire content was dynamically created. How can I set up the latest version of Titanium so that I am poised to do the exact same thing? BTW: Whereas I previously had the choice to keep the files local or remote, I don't believe that remote access (e.g., simply using the webView widget to point to the website) is viable. That's because pages displayed via the webView do not have access to most of the API. Since the iPhone and Safari browsers do not support the file input type, the only means for uploading files (something my app requires) is calling Titanium's function. Thanks in advance.

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• Django Admin: not seeing any app (permission problem?)

  - by Facundo

  I have a site with Django running some custom apps. I was not using the Django ORM, just the view and templates but now I need to store some info so I created some models in one app and enabled the Admin. The problem is when I log in the Admin it just says "You don't have permission to edit anything", not even the Auth app shows in the page. I'm using the same user created with syncdb as a superuser. In the same server I have another site that is using the Admin just fine. Using Django 1.1.0 with Apache/2.2.10 mod_python/3.3.1 Python/2.5.2, with psql (PostgreSQL) 8.1.11 all in Gentoo Linux 2.6.23 Any ideas where I can find a solution? Thanks a lot. UPDATE: It works from the development server. I bet this has something to do with some filesystem permission but I just can't find it. UPDATE2: vhost configuration file: <Location /> SetHandler python-program PythonHandler django.core.handlers.modpython SetEnv DJANGO_SETTINGS_MODULE gpx.settings PythonDebug On PythonPath "['/var/django'] + sys.path" </Location> UPDATE 3: more info /var/django/gpx/init.py exists and is empty I run python manage.py from /var/django/gpx directory The site is GPX, one of the apps is contable and lives in /var/django/gpx/contable the user apache is webdev group and all these directories and files belong to that group and have rw permission UPDATE 4: confirmed that the settings file is the same for apache and runserver (renamed it and both broke) UPDATE 5: /var/django/gpx/contable/init.py exists This is the relevan part of urls.py: urlpatterns = patterns('', (r'^admin/', include(admin.site.urls)), ) urlpatterns += patterns('gpx', (r'^$', 'menues.views.index'), (r'^adm/$', 'menues.views.admIndex'),

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• jvm version for Websphere 6.1.0.23on Solaris

  - by dr jerry

  Hi I'm at big financial institute and we've an application running on Websphere 6.1. on Solaris. Due to MQ Connectivity we had to install fixpack 6.1.0.23. Unfortunately this broke an ejb (1.1) which is still there as legacy (Test missed it). [3/23/10 11:33:18:703 CET] 00000055 EJBContainerI E WSVR0068E: Attempt to start EnterpriseBean EventRisk_1.0.0#EventRiskEJB.jar#PolicyDataManager failed with exception: java.lang.NoSuchMethodError: com.ibm.ejs.csi.ResRefListImpl.(Lorg/eclipse/jst/j2ee/ejb/EnterpriseBean;Lcom/ibm/ejs/models/base/bindings/ejbbnd/EnterpriseBeanBinding;Lcom/ibm/ejs/models/base/extensions/ejbext/EnterpriseBeanExtension;)V at com.ibm.ws.metadata.ejb.EJBMDOrchestrator.finishBMDInit(EJBMDOrchestrator.java:1364) at com.ibm.ws.runtime.component.EJBContainerImpl.finishDeferredBeanMetaData(EJBContainerImpl.java:4829) at com.ibm.ws.runtime.component.EJBContainerImpl$3.run(EJBContainerImpl.java:4631) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at com.ibm.ws.security.util.AccessController.doPrivileged(AccessController.java:125) at com.ibm.ws.runtime.component.EJBContainerImpl.initializeDeferredEJB(EJBContainerImpl.java:4627) at com.ibm.ejs.container.HomeOfHomes.getHome(HomeOfHomes.java:390) at com.ibm.ejs.container.HomeOfHomes.internalCreateWrapper(HomeOfHomes.java:938) at com.ibm.ejs.container.EJSContainer.createWrapper(EJSContainer.java:4783) at com.ibm.ejs.container.WrapperManager.faultOnKey(WrapperManager.java:545) at com.ibm.ejs.util.cache.Cache.findAndFault(Cache.java:498) at com.ibm.ejs.container.WrapperManager.keyToObject(WrapperManager.java:489) We cannot reproduce the issue on our desktop boxes (it all works fine there) and we do not have direct access to our the Solaris machines (dependent on the deployment department) we do suspect a discrepancy on the jvm but we're not sure. My question is two fold: can you confirm IBM's statement that fixpack 6.1.0.23 for solaris indeed runs on jvm 1.5.0_17b04 our installation tells us ./java -version java version "1.5.0_13" But deploy department is not eager to investigate. Do you see some other solution, apart from hiring big blue's con$ultancy? kind regards, Jeroen.

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• Why can't the compiler/JVM just make autoboxing "just work"?

  - by Pyrolistical

  Autoboxing is rather scary. While I fully understand the difference between == and .equals I can't but help have the follow bug the hell out of me: final List<Integer> foo = Arrays.asList(1, 1000); final List<Integer> bar = Arrays.asList(1, 1000); System.out.println(foo.get(0) == bar.get(0)); System.out.println(foo.get(1) == bar.get(1)); That prints true false Why did they do it this way? It something to do with cached Integers, but if that is the case why don't they just cache all Integers used by the program? Or why doesn't the JVM always auto unbox to primitive? Printing false false or true true would have been way better. EDIT I disagree about breakage of old code. By having foo.get(0) == bar.get(0) return true you already broke the code. Can't this be solved at the compiler level by replacing Integer with int in byte code (as long as it is never assigned null)

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• subgraph cluster ranking in dot

  - by Chris Becke

  I'm trying to use graphviz on media wiki as a documentation tool for software. First, I documented some class relationships which worked well. Everything was ranked vertically as expected. But, then, some of our modules are dlls, which I wanted to seperate into a box. When I added the nodes to a cluster, they got edged, but clusters seem to have a LR ranking rule. Or being added to a cluster broke the TB ranking of the nodes as the cluster now appears on the side of the graph. This graph represents what I am trying to do: at the moment, cluster1 and cluster2 appear to the right of cluster0. I want/need them to appear below. <graphviz> digraph d { subgraph cluster0 { A -> {B1 B2} B2 -> {C1 C2 C3} C1 -> D; } subgraph cluster1 { C2 -> dll1_A; dll1_A -> B1; } subgraph cluster2 { C3 -> dll2_A; } dll1_A -> dll2_A; } </graphviz>

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• Object created in Interface Builder getting dealloc'ed too soon

  - by Collin Allen

  The Project I'm working on a relatively simple iPhone OS project that's navigation controller based, with a root table view and a detail table view. Tap an item in the main list to see its details in a pushed table view. The Setup I broke out the data source for both views into their own objects so as not to muddy the purpose of a view controller. Having done this, the table views no longer have data sources since those methods are now in separate files, so I created an instance of each data source class in the appropriate XIB files with the Object item (dragged it in, then set its class). Then, to actually connect the tableviews to their data sources, I set the dataSource outlet of each tableview to the yellow data source object in Interface Builder. The table view delegates are still set to their view controllers. The Problem The root table view works just fine, but when you tap a row to push to the detail view, the data source object gets instantiated as expected, then immediately dealloc'ed, causing a crash (numberOfSectionsInTableView: gets called on the freed object). I can't figure out why the data source is getting automatically dealloc-ed when I need it right then and there for the detail view, as indicated by my data source object creation and tableview connection in Interface Builder. What's more perplexing is that the very approach works fine for the root tableview! The Question Is there anything obvious I'm missing that would cause this to happen? Or, is this even the right way to instantiate a data source for a table view controller? It seems like poor object oriented programming to do it from within the view controller, which should only be concerned with the view. I could cram everything in two table view controller classes and it would probably work, but it would not be as modular as I'd like. Thanks!

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