Search Results

Search found 7114 results on 285 pages for 'hope'.

Page 17/285 | < Previous Page | 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24  | Next Page >

  • how to group data in a list

    - by prince23
    I need to group data of a list in c# ex: i have a data like this in a list c# i have a class called information.cs with these properties name,school, parent ex data name school parent kumar fes All manju fes kumar anu frank kumar anitha jss All rohit frank manju anill vijaya manju vani jss kumar soumya jss kumar madhu jss rohit shiva jss rohit vanitha jss anitha anu jss anitha now taking this as an input i wanted the output to be formated with a Hierarchical data when parent is all means it is the topmost level kumar fes All. what i need to do here is i need to create an object[0] and then check in list whether kumar exists as a parent in the list if it exista then add those items as under the object[0] as a parent i need to create one more oject under **manju fes kumar anu frank kumar** what i wanted do here is iterate through the list anD then check the parent level based on name school parent kumar fes All -->obj[0] manju fes kumar -->obj1[0] anu frank kumar -->obj1[1] for obj1-- obj[0] will be parent like this i need to genarte a list or observation class anitha jss All-->obj[1] vanitha jss anitha -->obj1[0] anu jss vanitha -->obj2[0] here obj2[0]--obj1[0]--obj[1] will be an parent like this i need to create a list or an observationclass hope my Question is clear what i am trying ask you people. i wanted to know how i can create an observationclass. any help would be really great. hope my question is clear

    Read the article

  • how to group data in a list c#

    - by prince23
    hi, i need to group data of a list in c# ex: i have a data like this in a list c# i have a class called information.cs with these properties name,school, parent ex data name school parent kumar fes All manju fes kumar anu frank kumar anitha jss All rohit frank manju anill vijaya manju vani jss kumar soumya jss kumar madhu jss rohit shiva jss rohit vanitha jss anitha anu jss anitha now taking this as an input i wanted the output to be formated with a Hierarchical data when parent is all means it is the topmost level kumar fes All. what i need to do here is i need to create an object[0] and then check in list whether kumar exists as a parent in the list if it exista then add those items as under the object[0] as a parent i need to create one more oject under **manju fes kumar anu frank kumar** what i wanted do here is iterate through the list anD then check the parent level based on name school parent kumar fes All -->obj[0] manju fes kumar -->obj1[0] anu frank kumar -->obj1[1] for obj1-- obj[0] will be parent like this i need to genarte a list or observation class anitha jss All-->obj[1] vanitha jss anitha -->obj1[0] anu jss vanitha -->obj2[0] here obj2[0]--obj1[0]--obj[1] will be an parent like this i need to create a list or an observationclass hope my Question is clear what i am trying ask you people. i wanted to know how i can create an observationclass any help would be really great thanks prince hope my question is clear

    Read the article

  • Pass table as parameter to SQLCLR TV-UDF

    - by Skeolan
    We have a third-party DLL that can operate on a DataTable of source information and generate some useful values, and we're trying to hook it up through SQLCLR to be callable as a table-valued UDF in SQL Server 2008. Taking the concept here one step further, I would like to program a CLR Table-Valued Function that operates on a table of source data from the DB. I'm pretty sure I understand what needs to happen on the T-SQL side of things; but, what should the method signature look like in the .NET (C#) code? What would be the parameter datatype for "table data from SQL Server?" e.g. /* Setup */ CREATE TYPE InTableType AS TABLE (LocationName VARCHAR(50), Lat FLOAT, Lon FLOAT) GO CREATE TYPE OutTableType AS TABLE (LocationName VARCHAR(50), NeighborName VARCHAR(50), Distance FLOAT) GO CREATE ASSEMBLY myCLRAssembly FROM 'D:\assemblies\myCLR_UDFs.dll' WITH PERMISSION_SET = EXTERNAL_ACCESS GO CREATE FUNCTION GetDistances(@locations InTableType) RETURNS OutTableType AS EXTERNAL NAME myCLRAssembly.GeoDistance.SQLCLRInitMethod GO /* Execution */ DECLARE @myTable InTableType INSERT INTO @myTable(LocationName, Lat, Lon) VALUES('aaa', -50.0, -20.0) INSERT INTO @myTable(LocationName, Lat, Lon) VALUES('bbb', -20.0, -50.0) SELECT * FROM @myTable DECLARE @myResult OutTableType INSERT INTO @myResult MyCLRTVFunction @myTable --returns a table result calculated using the input The lat/lon - distance thing is a silly example that should of course be better handled entirely in SQL; but I hope it illustrates the general intent of table-in - table-out through a table-valued UDF tied to a SQLCLR assembly. I am not certain this is possible; what would the SQLCLRInitMethod method signature look like in the C#? public class GeoDistance { [SqlFunction(FillRowMethodName = "FillRow")] public static IEnumerable SQLCLRInitMethod(<appropriateType> myInputData) { //... } public static void FillRow(...) { //... } } If it's not possible, I know I can use a "context connection=true" SQL connection within the C# code to have the CLR component query for the necessary data given the relevant keys; but that's sensitive to changes in the DB schema. So I hope to just have SQL bundle up all the source data and pass it to the function. Bonus question - assuming this works at all, would it also work with more than one input table?

    Read the article

  • Help with route rewrite in asp.net mvc

    - by NachoF
    Im having a really hard time understanding routing. Please help me with this problem. Each of my controllers have these three actions right now Users have Index, Create and Edit Locations have Index, Create and Edit Companies have Index, Create and Edit The thing is, it all gets done through ajax. I have jquery ui tabs with two tabs for each, Create and Edit So the Index method is always the one that gets called for action links. and inside this main view is that you can call(by clicking on the tab icon) the other methods that return an ajax view that gets output into the jqeury tab (I hope thats clear) I have a sidebar with links to the controllers. and to specific methods of these controllers. The wanted behavior is that it should actually go into the Index Method and then with some logic autoload the wanted tab. It all works just fine right now. But my urls are horrible. To get to the create method for Users I have to go this url http://localhost/Users/Index/1 http://localhost/Users/Index/2 I want the behavior of these links to be remapped to these links http://localhost/Users/Create http://localhost/Users/Edit So even though it seems as if you are calling the Create method of the controller you are actualling always calling the Index Method.... (I know how to transform Create into "1" and Edit into two, so dont worry about that part Hope thats clear. Thanks in advance Edit: Just realized that this might not be possible cause then when I actually need to call the methods (with ajax) it wont know what to do.... am I correct?

    Read the article

  • Google Map GEO Results

    - by Lee
    Hey All I'm getting really frustrated with google geo results and hope someone can advise me the best was to go. I have created a AutoSuggest feature where you can start typing the address and google will repspond with suggestions. User then selects and address to move on. But before I want them to continue on the next page I want to validate their selection. I would have thought this will be easy as we are only checking against what google has already given. But when I do my validation lookup it displays no results. Some example code: Lets say I picked from the suggestion this address: Suffield, CT 06078, USA Then on validation I do a second lookup with this address ie. $string = "Suffield, CT 06078, USA"; echo 'http://maps.google.com/maps/geo?output=json&oe=utf8&gl=us&sensor=false&key=[MyKey]&q='.urlencode($string).''; It gives me Error code 602 (G_GEO_UNKNOWN_ADDRESS) How can it not be found when its given me the address ?? Any suggestions how I can get around this. Hope you can !

    Read the article

  • IIS 7.5 refuses to load 64-bit assembly - possible CAS problem?

    - by Rune
    Hi, I just downloaded the Orchard CMS, opened it up in VS2008 and hit F5: Everything runs fine. I then created a website in IIS 7.5 and pointed it to the web project's directory and set up permissions correctly (I hope). I downloaded the 64-bit version System.Data.SQLite as suggested here: Orchard Work Item 14798 and here: SO: Could not load file or assembly 'System.Data.SQLite'. The site runs in Full Trust. When I point my browser to the site running through IIS I get Could not load file or assembly 'System.Data.SQLite, Version=1.0.65.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=db937bc2d44ff139' or one of its dependencies. Failed to grant minimum permission requests. I don't know much about Code Access Security (if that is even what's at play here), so I am at a loss here. What am I doing wrong / not understanding / not seeing? How do I provide appropriate permissions and to whom / what? Is there any hope of ever deploying this application to a hoster where I am only allowed to run in Medium Trust? Any help, pointers or suggestions would be greatly appreciated. Thanks. NOTE: the question is not why this initially worked when run through Cassini. The answer to that question is contained in the answer to the SO question referenced above.

    Read the article

  • StackOverFlowException - but oviously NO recursion/endless loop

    - by user567706
    Hi there, I'm now blocked by this problem the entire day, read thousands of google results, but nothing seems to reflect my problem or even come near to it... i hope any of you has a push into the right direction for me. I wrote a client-server-application (so more like 2 applications) - the client collects data about his system, as well as a screenshot, serializes all this into a XML stream (the picture as a byte[]-array]) and sends this to the server in regular intervals. The server receives the stream (via tcp), deserializes the xml to an information-object and shows the information on a windows form. This process is running stable for about 20-25 minutes at a submission interval of 3 seconds. When observing the memory usage there's nothing significant to see, also kinda stable. But after these 20-25 mins the server throws a StackOverflowException at the point where it deserializes the tcp-stream, especially when setting the Image property from the byte[]-array. I thoroughly searched for recursive or endless loops, and regarding the fact that it occurs after thousands of sucessfull intervals, i could hardly imagine that. public byte[] ImageBase { get { MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(); _screen.Save(ms, System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Jpeg); return ms.GetBuffer(); } set { if (_screen != null) _screen.Dispose(); //preventing well-known image memory leak MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(value); try { _screen = Image.FromStream(ms); //<< EXCEPTION THROWING HERE } catch (StackOverflowException ex) //thx to new CLR management this wont work anymore -.- { Console.WriteLine(ex.Message + Environment.NewLine + ex.StackTrace); } ms.Dispose(); ms = null; } } I hope that more code would be unnecessary, or it could get very complex... Please help, i have no clue at all anymore thx Chris

    Read the article

  • Year split in Quarters using basic jQuery

    - by Alexander Corotchi
    Hi, I have a interesting question: I want to split the year into 4 quarters. What is the idea, A quarter can be different: The HTML Code: <div class="quarterBody"> <span>04-29-2010</span> <span>06-29-2010</span> <span>08-29-2010</span> </div> jQuery (javascript) is total wrong, I hope that w: $(document).ready(function(){ var quarter1 = to make interval (01-01-2010 to 03-31-2010); var quarter2 = to make interval (03-01-2010 to 06-31-2010); var quarter3 = to make interval (06-01-2010 to 09-31-2010); var quarter4 = to make interval (09-01-2010 to 12-31-2010); ... $(".quarterBody span").each(function(){ var date = Date.parse($(this).text()); //to apply some magic code $(this).addClass(quarterNumber); }); }); OUTPUT: <div class="quarterBody"> <span class="Quarter1">02-29-2010</span> <span class="Quarter2">04-29-2010</span> <span class="Quarter3">08-29-2010</span> ... </div> I know right now it is a stupid way, but I hope that somebody can help me, or suggest an idea how to do that in a better way!! Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Help with editing data in entity framework.

    - by Levelbit
    Title of this question is simple because there is no an easy explanation for what I'm trying to ask you. I hope you'll understand in the end :). I have to tables in my database: Company and Location (relationship:one to many) and corresponding entity sets. In my wpf application I have some datagrid which I want to fill with locations and to be able to edit every row in separate window as some form of details view (so I don't want to edit my data in datagrid). I did this by accessing Location entity from selected row and creating a new Location entity and then I copy properties from original entity to newly created. Something like cloning the object. After editing if I press OK changed data is copied to original object back, and if I press Cancel nothing happens. Of course, you probably thinking I could use NoTracking option and AttachAsModified method as was mentioned as solution in some earlier questions(see:http://stackoverflow.com/questions/803022/changing-entities-in-the-entityframework) by Alex James, but lets say I had some problems about that and I have my own reasons for doing this. Finally, because navigation property(Company) of my location entity is assigned to newly created location object(during cloning) from some reason in object context additional object as copy of object I want to edit from datagrid is created without my will(similar problem :http://blogs.msdn.com/alexj/archive/2009/12/02/tip-47-how-fix-up-can-make-it-hard-to-change-relationships.aspx). So, when I do ObjectContext.SaveChanges it inserts additional row of data into my database table Location, the same as the one i wanted to edit. I read about sth like this, but I don't quite understand why is that and how to block or override this. I hope I was clear as I could. Please, solutions or some other ideas.

    Read the article

  • Problem with EDM in ASP.NET MVC

    - by Mannsi
    Hello, I have a question that is pretty similar to this question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/899734/strongly-typed-asp-net-mvc-with-entity-framework but the solutions for that question don't work for me. Let me start by saying that I don't know a great deal about the subject I am asking about. I have the following code [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Edit(PaymentInformation paymentInformationToEdit, int pensionFundID) { var originalPaymentInformation = (from PIs in _db.PaymentInformation where PIs.employeeNumber == paymentInformation.employeeNumber select PIs).First(); var laborUnion = (from LUs in _db.LaborUnion where LUs.laborUnionID = laborUnionID select LUs)First(); paymentInformationToEdit.laborUnion = laborUnion; _db.ApplyProperyChanges(originalPaymentInformation.EntityKey.EntitySetName, paymentInformationToEdit); _db.SaveChanges(); } I get an error when I try for the ApplyProperyChanges saying 'The existing object in the ObjectContext is in the Added state. Changes can only be applied when the existing object is in an unchanged or modified state'. I don't know how to change the state to either, or even if I am doing something fundamentally wrong. Please advice. EDIT: I hope this is the way to go here on stackoverflow. I haven't gotten an answer that solved my problem but Gregoire below posted a possible solution that I didn't understand. I hope this edit bumps my question so somebody will see it and help me. Sorry if this is not the way to go.

    Read the article

  • Pinax TemplateSyntaxError

    - by Spikie
    hi, i ran into this errors while trying to modify pinax database model i am using eclipse pydev i have this error on the pydev Exception Type: TemplateSyntaxError at / Exception Value: Caught an exception while rendering: (1146, "Table 'test1.announcements_announcement' doesn't exist") please how do i correct this UPDATE: i asked this question and left unresolved some months back and you what ran into the bug again this week and typed the error message in google hit the page with the question and unanswered so i think i have to answer it and hope it help someone in the future have the same problem. some the problem is that the sqlite path is out of place so django or this case pinax can not find it so to resolve that change the absolute path to sqlite like it DATABASE_ENGINE = 'sqlite3' # 'postgresql_psycopg2', 'postgresql', 'mysql', 'sqlite3' or 'ado_mssql'. DATABASE_NAME = os.path.join(PROJECT_ROOT,'dev.db' ) # Or path to database file if using sqlite3. DATABASE_USER = '' # Not used with sqlite3. DATABASE_PASSWORD = '' # Not used with sqlite3. DATABASE_HOST = '' # Set to empty string for localhost. Not used with sqlite3. DATABASE_PORT = '' # Set to empty string for default. Not used with sqlite3. i hope that help

    Read the article

  • Date formats in ActiveRecord / Rails 3

    - by cbmeeks
    In my model, I have a departure_date and a return_date. I am using a text_field instead of the date_select so that I can use the JQuery datepicker. My app is based in the US for now but I do hope to get international members. So basically this is what is happening. The user (US) types in a date such as 04/01/2010 (April 1st). Of course, MySQL stores it as a datetime such as 2010-04-01... Anyway, when the user goes to edit the date later on, it shows "01/04/2010" because I am using a strftime("%m/%d/%Y) which doesn't make sense....so it thinks it is January 4th instead of the original April 1st. It's like the only way to accurately store the data is for the user to type in: 2010-04-01 I hope all of this makes sense. What I am really after is a way for the user to type in (or use the datepicker) a date in their native format. So someone in Europe could type in 01/04/2010 for April 1st but someone in the US would type in 04/01/2010. Is there an easy, elegant solution to this? Thanks for any suggestions.

    Read the article

  • How to run some code only once in view

    - by Freewind
    I have a partial view called '_comment.erb', and it may be called by parent many times(e.g. in a loop). The '_comment.erb' looks like: <script> function aaa() {} </script> <%= comment.content %> <%=link_to_function 'Do', 'aaa()' %> You can see if the '_comment.erb' be called many times, that the javascript function 'aaa' will be re-defined many times. I hope it can be define only once, but I don't want to move it to parent view. I hope there is a method, say 'run_once', and I can use it like this: <%= run_once do %> <script> function aaa() {} </script> <% end %> <%= comment.content %> <%=link_to_function 'Do', 'aaa()' %> No matter how many time I call the '_comment.erb', the code inside 'run_once' will be run only once. What shall I do?

    Read the article

  • Database relationships using phpmyAdmin (composite keys)

    - by Cool Hand Luke UK
    Hi, I hope this question is not me being dense. I am using phpmyAdmin to create a database. I have the following four tables. Don't worry about that fact place and price are optional they just are. Person (Mandatory) Item (Mandatory) Place (Optional) Price (Optional) Item is the main table. It will always have person linked. * I know you do joins in mysql for the tables. If I want to link the tables together I could use composite keys (using the ids from each table), however is this the most correct way to link the tables? It also means item will have 5 ids including its own. This all cause null values (apparently a big no no, which I can understand) because if place and price are optional and are not used on one entry to the items table I will have a null value there. Please help! Thanks in advance. I hope this makes sense.

    Read the article

  • Location redirect - is tracking possible ?

    - by Gerald Ferreira
    Hi there, I was wondering if someone can help me, I have the following script that redirect users to an affiliate link when they click on a banner. <?php $targets = array( 'site1' => 'http://www.site1.com/', 'site2' => 'http://www.site2.com/', 'site3' => 'http://www.site3.com/', 'site4' => 'http://www.site4.com/', ); if (isset($targets[$_GET['id']])) { header('Location: '.$targets[$_GET['id']]); exit; } ?> Is it possible to track when a user hits the banner telling me the referer site as well as the ip address of the person clicking on the banner. hmmmm something like pixel tracking? I have tried to add an iframe that does the tracking but it creates an error Hope it makes sense Thanks! This is more or less how I would have done it in asp <% var Command1 = Server.CreateObject ("ADODB.Command"); Command1.ActiveConnection = MM_cs_stats_STRING; Command1.CommandText = "INSERT INTO stats.g_stats (g_stats_ip, g_stats_referer) VALUES (?, ? ) "; Command1.Parameters.Append(Command1.CreateParameter("varg_stats_ip", 200, 1, 20, (String(Request.ServerVariables("REMOTE_ADDR")) != "undefined" && String(Request.ServerVariables("REMOTE_ADDR")) != "") ? String(Request.ServerVariables("REMOTE_ADDR")) : String(Command1__varg_stats_ip))); Command1.Parameters.Append(Command1.CreateParameter("varg_stats_referer", 200, 1, 255, (String(Request.ServerVariables("HTTP_REFERER")) != "undefined" && String(Request.ServerVariables("HTTP_REFERER")) != "") ? String(Request.ServerVariables("HTTP_REFERER")) : String(Command1__varg_stats_referer))); Command1.CommandType = 1; Command1.CommandTimeout = 0; Command1.Prepared = true; Command1.Execute(); %> I am not sure how to do it in php - unfortunately for me the hosting is only supporting php so I am more or less clueless on how to do it in php I was thinking if I can somehow call a picture I can do it with pixel tracking in anoter asp page, on another server. Hope this makes better sense

    Read the article

  • N-son tabbed/JsScrollbar, trying to force gif play from click of link using jquery

    - by user314286
    Hello everyone, Let me start off by stating the obvious; I am new here. That said I hope I am not violating some standard I missed by posting this. xD For several days now I've been trying to update a rather old site of mine, to which I wont link to given that the update is so drastic that the current product on which I seek your help for doesn't resemble the old site in any other way then appearance. Anywho! I am using the tabbed div and JsScrollbar created by N-son (http://www.downloadjavascripts.com/list/javasitek60/Details.aspx) and so far have only used jquery to dynamically center content on the page. My problem however is this...I have a gif on the page that acts as a background (it's not tiled) and I'd like to be able to have it so that when you click on one of the links used in n-sons tabs (EX: news) it also causes the gif to load and play through itself once. So far all my attempts at accomplishing this myself have failed and break wither the scrollbar or prevent the content from switching when you click the tabs. (Except for one failed attempt where it all worked fine except the handle for the scrollbar would vanish upon switching tabs) I hope I've been clear in this and that someone is able to help. I know it may seem like a silly question but we're all new at some point. :P If need be I'll upload what coding I have but it is not pretty. Thank you in advance.

    Read the article

  • OOP - Handling Automated Instances of a Class - PHP

    - by dscher
    This is a topic that, as a beginner to PHP and programming, sort of perplexes me. I'm building a stockmarket website and want users to add their own stocks. I can clearly see the benefit of having each stock be a class instance with all the methods of a class. What I am stumped on is the best way to give that instance a name when I instantiate it. If I have: class Stock() { ....doing stuff..... } what is the best way to give my instances of it a name. Obviously I can write: $newStock = new Stock(); $newStock.getPrice(); or whatever, but if a user adds a stock via the app, where can the name of that instance come from? I guess that there is little harm in always creating a new child with $newStock = new Stock() and then storing that to the DB which leads me to my next question! What would be the best way to retrieve 20 user stocks(for example) into instances of class Stock()? Do I need to instantiate 20 new instances of class Stock() every time the user logs in or is there something I'm missing? I hope someone answers this and more important hope a bunch of people answer this and it somehow helps someone else who is having a hard time wrapping their head around what probably leads to a really elegant solution. Thanks guys!

    Read the article

  • Is there something like a Filestorage class to store files in?

    - by nebukadnezzar
    Is there something like a class that might be used to store Files and directories in, just like the way Zip files might be used? Since I haven't found any "real" class to write Zip files (real class as in real class), It would be nice to be able to store Files and Directories in a container-like file. A perfect API would probably look like this: int main() { ContainerFile cntf("myContainer.cnt", ContainerFile::CREATE); cntf.addFile("data/some-interesting-stuff.txt"); cntf.addDirectory("data/foo/"); cntf.addDirectory("data/bar/", ContainerFile::RECURSIVE); cntf.close(); } ... I hope you get the Idea. Important Requirements are: The Library must be crossplatform anything *GPL is not acceptable in this case (MIT and BSD License are) I already played with the thought of creating an Implentation based on SQLite (and its ability to store binary blobs). Unfortunately, it seems impossible to store Directory structures in a SQLite Database, which makes it pretty much useless in this case. Is it useless to hope for such a class library?

    Read the article

  • questions on nfa and dfa..

    - by Loop
    Hi Guys... Hope you help me with this one.... I have a main question which is ''how to judge whether a regular expression will be accepted by NFA and/or DFA? For eg. My question says that which of the regular expressions are equivalent? explain... 1.(a+b)*b(a+b)*b(a+b)* 2.a*ba*ba* 3.a*ba*b(a+b)* do we have to draw the NFA and DFA and then find through minimisation algorithm? if we do then how do we come to know that which regular expression is accepted by NFA/DFA so that we can begin with the answer? its so confusing.... Second is a very similar one, the question asks me to show that the language (a^nb^n|n1} is not accepted by DFA...grrrrr...how do i know this? (BTW this is a set of all strings of where a number of a's is followed by the same number of b's).... I hope I explained clearly well....

    Read the article

  • Help me with the simplest program for "Trusted" application

    - by idazuwaika
    Hi, I hope anyone from the large community here can help me write the simplest "Trusted" program that I can expand from. I'm using Ubuntu Linux 9.04, with TPM emulator 0.60 from Mario Strasser (http://tpm-emulator.berlios.de/). I have installed the emulator and Trousers, and can successfully run programs from tpm-tools after running tpmd and tcsd daemons. I hope to start developing my application, but I have problems compiling the code below. #include <trousers/tss.h> #include <trousers/trousers.h> #include <stdio.h> TSS_HCONTEXT hContext; int main() { Tspi_Context_Create(&hContext); Tspi_Context_Close(hContext); return 0; } After trying to compile with g++ tpm.cpp -o tpmexe I receive errors undefined reference to 'Tspi_Context_Create' undefined reference to 'Tspi_Context_Close' What do I have to #include to successfully compile this? Is there anything that I miss? I'm familiar with C, but not exactly so with Linux/Unix programming environment. ps: I am a part time student in Master in Information Security programme. My involvement with programming has been largely for academic purposes.

    Read the article

  • Get Image from Byte Aarray.

    - by Arun Thakkar
    Hello Everyone!! Hope You all are fine and also in one of your best of moods!! Hope You all are Enjoying iPhone development. I herewith one issue that i am not able to solve, may be i don't know the depth concept of iPhone. So Its my humble requet to you to guide me or suggest or share your ideas. I do find an issue with getting an image from Bytes array. I am calling a webservice which returns an image in form of Bytes Array as response. I have Converted this bytes array in to form of NSData, Now i have NSData, But When i Try to get an image from this NSData, It shows nil. I Did lots of R&D and Find one suggestion to use base64 encoder, But unfortunately because of not proper guidance I was not able to Implement that. I was also suggested to use OPenSSL Library for base64 from url http://www.cocoadev.com/index.pl?BaseSixtyFour But again i was not able to include #include #include these two files. as in Newer Version of SDK 3.X family Apple has depreciated those (as i guess). So Now i need help from you guys. kindly help me if you have solution or if you know the steps to solve these. Looking Forwards. Regards, Arun Thakkar

    Read the article

  • WPF-Can a XAML object be a source as well as a target for bindings?

    - by iambic77
    I was wondering if it's possible to have a TextBlock as a target and a source? Basically I have a bunch of entities which have simple relationships to other entities (like Entity1 Knows Entity3, Entity3 WorksAt Entity2 etc.) I have a Link class that stores SourceEntity, Relationship and TargetEntity details. What I want to be able to do is to select an entity then display the relationships related to that entity, with the target entities of each relationship listed underneath the relationship names. When an entity is selected, an ObservableCollection is populated with the Links for that particular entity (SelectedEntityLinks<Link>). Because each entity could have the same relationship to more than one target entity (Entity1 could know both Entity3 and Entity4 for eg.), I've created a method GetThisRelationshipEntities() that takes a relationship name as a parameter, looks through SelectedEntityLinks for relationship names that match the parameter, and returns an ObservableCollection with the target entities of that relationship. Hope I'm making this clear. In my xaml I have a WrapPanel to display each relationship name in a TextBlock: <TextBlock x:Name="relationship" Text="{Binding Path=Relationship.Name}" /> Then underneath that another Textblock which should display the results of GetThisRelationshipEntities(String relationshipName). So I want the "relationship" TextBlock to both get its Text from the binding I've shown above, but also to provide its Text as a parameter to the GetThisRelationshipEntities() method which I've added to <UserControl.Resources> as an ObjectDataProvider. Sorry if this is a bit wordy but I hope it's clear. Any pointers/advice would be great. Many thanks.

    Read the article

  • Java-Eclipse-Spring 3.1 - the fastest way to get familiar with this set

    - by Leron
    I, know almost all of you at some point of your life as a programmer get to the point where you know (more or less) different technologies/languages/IDEs and a times come when you want to get things together and start using them once - more efficient and second - more closely to the real life situation where in fact just knowing Java, or some experience with Eclipse doesn't mean nothing, and what makes you a programmer worth something is the ability to work with the combination of 2 or more combinations. Having this in mind here is my question - what do you think is the optimal way of getting into Java+Eclipse+Spring3.1 world. I've read, and I've read a lot. I started writing real code but almost every step is discovering the wheel again and again, wondering how to do thing you know are some what trivial, but you've missed that one article where this topic was discussed and so on. I don't mind for paying for a good tutorial like for example, after a bit of research I decided that instead of losing a lot of time getting the different parts together I'd rather pay for the videos in http://knpuniversity.com/screencast/starting-in-symfony2-tutorial and save myself a lot of time (I hope) and get as fast as possible to writing a real code instead of wondering what do what and so on. But I find it much more difficult to find such sources of info especially when you want something more specific as me and that's the reason to ask this question. I know a lot of you go through the hard way, and I won't give up if I have to do the same, but to be honest I really hope to get post with good tutorials on the subject (paid or not) because in my situation time is literally money. Thanks Leron

    Read the article

  • URLLoader.load() issue when using the same URLRequest

    - by Rudy
    Hello, I have an issue with my eventListeners with the URLLoader, but this issue happens in IE, not in FF. public function getUploadURL():void { var request:URLRequest = new URLRequest(); request.url = getPath(); request.method = URLRequestMethod.GET; _loader = new URLLoader(); _loader.dataFormat = URLLoaderDataFormat.TEXT; _loader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, getBaseURL); _loader.load(request); } private function getBaseURL(event:Event):void { _loader.removeEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, getBaseURL); } The issue is that my getBaseURL gets executed automatically after I have executed the code at least once, but that is the case only in IE. What happens is I call my getUploadURL, I make sure the server sends an event that will result in an Event.COMPLETE, so the getBaseURL gets executed, and the listener is removed. If I call the getUploadURL method and put the wrong path, I do not get an Event.COMPLETE but some other event, and getBaseURL should not be executed. That is the correct behavior in FireFox. In IE, it looks like the load() method does not actually call the server, it jumps directly to the getBaseURL() for the Event.COMPLETE. I checked the willTrigger() and hasEventListener() on _loader before assigning the new URLLoader, and it turns out the event has been well removed. I hope I make sense, I simplified my code. To sum up quickly: in FireFox it works well, but in IE, the first call will work but the second call won't really call the .load() method; it seems it uses the previously stored result from the first call. I hope someone can please help me, Thank you, Rudy

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to get the parsed text of a SqlCommand with SqlParameters?

    - by Burg
    What I am trying to do is create some arbitrary sql command with parameters, set the values and types of the parameters, and then return the parsed sql command - with parameters included. I will not be directly running this command against a sql database, so no connection should be necessary. So if I ran the example program below, I would hope to see the following text (or something similar): WITH SomeTable (SomeColumn) AS ( SELECT N':)' UNION ALL SELECT N'>:o' UNION ALL SELECT N'^_^' ) SELECT SomeColumn FROM SomeTable And the sample program is: using System; using System.Data; using System.Data.SqlClient; namespace DryEraseConsole { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { const string COMMAND_TEXT = @" WITH SomeTable (SomeColumn) AS ( SELECT N':)' UNION ALL SELECT N'>:o' UNION ALL SELECT @Value ) SELECT SomeColumn FROM SomeTable "; SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(COMMAND_TEXT); cmd.CommandText = COMMAND_TEXT; cmd.Parameters.Add(new SqlParameter { ParameterName = "@Value", Size = 128, SqlDbType = SqlDbType.NVarChar, Value = "^_^" }); Console.WriteLine(cmd.CommandText); Console.ReadKey(); } } } Is this something that is achievable using the .net standard libraries? Initial searching says no, but I hope I'm wrong.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24  | Next Page >