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• .NET4: In-Process Side-by-Side Execution Explained

  - by emptyset

  Overview: I'm interested in learning more about the .NET4 "In-Process Side-by-Side Execution" of assemblies, and need additional information to help me demystify it. Motivation: The application in question is built against .NET2, and uses two third-party libraries that also work against .NET2. The application is deployed (via file copy) to client machines in a virtual environment that includes .NET2. Not my architecture, please bear with me. Goal: To see if it's possible to rebuild the application assemblies (or a subset) against .NET4, and ship the application as before, without changing the third-party libraries and including the .NET4 Client Profile (as described here) in the deployment. Steps Taken: The following articles were read, but didn't quite provide me enough information: In-Process Side-by-Side Execution: Browsed this article, and Scenario Two is the closest it comes to describing something that resembles my situation, but doesn't really cover it with any depth. ASP.NET Side-by-Side Execution Overview: This article covers a web application, but I'm dealing with a client WinForms application. CLR Team Blog: In-Process Side-by-Side: This is useful to explain how plug-ins to host processes function under .NET4, but I don't know if this applies to the third-party libraries. Further Steps: I'm also unclear on how to proceed upgrading a single .NET2 assembly to .NET4, with the overall application remaining in .NET2 (i.e. how to configure the solution/project files, if any special code needs to be included, etc.).

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• -[CFString length]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x3881940 when i scroll to near the bottom

  - by James

  Hey guys, i've got a problem debugging an iphone app that i'm attempting to write and it's got me stumped, bear with me, i'm a n00b to programming and might get some of the terminology wrong but i'll try to explain it as best as i can. The app gets an XML doc from the a web site, parses it into an array, and then displays it in a table view, i have the parser in a separate file. The ViewDidLoad in RootViewController sends it a url, the parser goes to work and then returns an NSMutableArray. When i run the app it works fine with small XML files (5 entries or so, and 1-3 sections), but when i use a larger one(20+ rows, over 12 sections) i get the error "-[CFString length]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x3881940" when i scroll near the bottom of the tableview, just as the last section title is about to come onto the viewable area on the screen to be precise. if i return a static string instead of the object in my array in this method it doesn't crash, but i can use NSLog to call the array and it returns the title no problems. - (NSString *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView titleForHeaderInSection:(NSInteger)indexPath { return [[returnedEvents objectAtIndex:indexPath ] objectAtIndex:0]; } The returnedEvents array isn't released until -(void) dealloc {} I have read a few other posts on here, and a few guides on debugging and as of yet am unable to find anything that was able to help me, i'd be more than happy to post some code up here and any more information, i'm just not sure where to start... Thanks in advance for anyone willing to have a go at helping me out.

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• castle PerRequestLifestyle not recognize

  - by Herman

  Hi all, New to Castle/Windsor, please bear with me. I am currently using the framework System.Web.Mvc.Extensibility and in its start up code, it registered HttpContextBase like the following: container.Register(Component.For<HttpContextBase>().LifeStyle.Transient.UsingFactoryMethod(() => new HttpContextWrapper(HttpContext.Current))); What I wanted to do is to change the behavior and change the lifestyle of httpContextBase to be PerWebRequest. so I have change the code to the following: container.Register(Component.For<HttpContextBase>().LifeStyle.PerWebRequest.UsingFactoryMethod(() => new HttpContextWrapper(HttpContext.Current))); However, when I do this, I got the following error: System.Configuration.ConfigurationErrorsException: Looks like you forgot to register the http module Castle.MicroKernel.Lifestyle.PerWebRequestLifestyleModule Add '<add name="PerRequestLifestyle" type="Castle.MicroKernel.Lifestyle.PerWebRequestLifestyleModule, Castle.MicroKernel" />' to the <httpModules> section on your web.config which I did under <system.web> and <system.webServer>, however, I am still getting the same error. Any hints? Thanks in advance.

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• Strange UIKit bug, table view row stays selected

  - by Can Berk Güder

  I'm facing what appears to be a UIKit bug, and it takes the combination of two less commonly used features to reproduce it, so please bear with me here. I have quite the common view hierarchy: UITabBarController -> UINavigationController -> UITableViewController and the table view controller pushes another table view controller onto the navigation controller's stack when a row is selected. There's absolutely nothing special or fancy in the code here. However, the second UITableViewController, the "detail view controller" if you will, does two things: It sets hidesBottomBarWhenPushed to YES in its init method, so the tab bar is hidden when this controller is pushed: - (id)initWithStyle:(UITableViewStyle)style { if(self = [super initWithStyle:style]) { self.hidesBottomBarWhenPushed = YES; } return self; } It calls setToolbarHidden:NO animated:YES and setToolbarHidden:YES animated:YES on self.navigationController in viewWillAppear: and viewWillDisappear: respectively, causing the UIToolbar provided by UINavigationController to be displayed and hidden with animations: - (void)viewWillAppear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewWillAppear:animated]; [self.navigationController setToolbarHidden:NO animated:YES]; } - (void)viewWillDisappear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewWillDisappear:animated]; [self.navigationController setToolbarHidden:YES animated:YES]; } Now, if the second UITableViewController was pushed by selecting the row at the bottom of the screen (it doesn't have to be the last row) in the first controller, this row does not automatically get deselected when the user immediately or eventually returns to the first controller. Further, the row cannot be deselected by calling deselectRowAtIndexPath:animated: on self.tableView in viewWillAppear: or viewDidAppear: in the first controller. I'm guessing this is a bug in UITableViewController's drawing code which of course only draws visible rows, but unfortunately fails to determine correctly if the bottommost row will be visible in this case. I failed to find anything on this on Google or OpenRadar, and was wondering if anyone else on SO had this problem or knew a solution/workaround.

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• C# Wholesale Order form - textboxes in Gridviews in Repeater

  - by tnriverfish

  I'm building a wholesale order form on a website. The current plan is to... -get an ArrayList of DepartmentUnits -a DepartmentUnit has various attributes like "deptId", "description" and its own ArrayList of StoreItems -The StoreItems have attached ArrayList of various SizeOptions -The SizeOptions have an inventory count integer along with their description -Planning on putting an asp:Repeater on the page that has an asp:GridView in it -Each DepartmentUnit will have its own GridView -EachStore item will have a row in the GridView -Each SizeOption will have a TextBox in the row (approximately 10 options) -Each inventory count will be watermarked over the size option textbox The question becomes how will I then collect all this information correctly once the form has been filled out? I don't like the idea of putting all this information in an update panel and then posting back each time a GridView row or worse one of the row's textboxes changes. Any advice on putting a single save button on the page and looping through each Repeater item - and each GridViewRow - and each textbox - to get all the values entered? Better to try collecting all the items added in a single table at the bottom of the page and updating the string with jquery each time a text box is modified? Then just looping through the new table when saved? Not sure I know how to loop through that table though - updating if quantity is changed might be a bear too. If it considerably simplifies the process I could just remove the Repeater aspect and put separate GridViews on separate pages. Thanks!

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• Perl : get substring which matches regex error

  - by Michael Mao

  I am very new to Perl, so please bear with my simple question: Here is the sample output: Most successful agents in the Emarket climate are (in order of success): 1. agent10896761 ($-8008) 2. flightsandroomsonly ($-10102) 3. agent10479475hv ($-10663) Most successful agents in the Emarket climate are (in order of success): 1. agent10896761 ($-7142) 2. agent10479475hv ($-8982) 3. flightsandroomsonly ($-9124) I am interested only in agent names as well as their corresponding balances, so I am hoping to get the following output: agent10896761 -8008 flightsandroomsonly -10102 agent10479475hv -10663 agent10896761 -7142 agent10479475hv -8982 flightsandroomsonly -9124 For later processes. This is the code I've got so far: #!/usr/bin/perl -w open(MYINPUTFILE, $ARGV[0]); while(<MYINPUTFILE>) { my($line) = $_; chomp($line); # regex match test if($line =~ m/agent10479475/) { if($line =~ m/($-[0-9]+)/) { print "$1\n"; } } if($line =~ m/flightsandroomsonly/) { print "$line\n"; } } The second regex match has nothing wrong, 'cause that is printing out the whole line. However, for the first regex match, I've got some other output such like: $ ./compareResults.pl 3.txt 2. flightsandroomsonly ($-10102) 0479475 0479475 3. flightsandroomsonly ($-9124) 1. flightsandroomsonly ($-8053) 0479475 1. flightsandroomsonly ($-6126) 0479475 If I "escape" the braces like this if($line =~ m/\($-[0-9]+\)/) { print "$1\n"; } Then there is never a match for the first regex... So I'm stuck with a problem of making that particular regex work. Any hints for this? Many thanks in advance.

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• ASP.NET MVC: Html.Actionlink() generates empty link.

  - by wh0emPah

  Okay i'm experiencing some problems with the actionlink htmlhelper. I have some complicated routing as follows: routes.MapRoute("Groep_Dashboard_Route", // Route name "{EventName}/{GroupID}/Dashboard", // url with Paramters new {controller = "Group", action="Dashboard"}); routes.MapRoute("Event_Groep_Route", // Route name "{EventName}/{GroupID}/{controller}/{action}/{id}", new {controller = "Home", action = "Index"}); My problem is generating action links that match these patterns. The eventname parameter is really just for having a user friendly link. it doesn't do anything. Now when i'm trying for example to generate a link. that shows the dashboard of a certain groep. Like: mysite.com/testevent/20/Dashboard I'll use the following actionlink: <%: Html.ActionLink("Show dashboard", "Group", "Dashboard", new { EventName_Url = "test", GroepID = item.groepID}, null)%> What my actual result in html gives is: <a href="">Show Dashboard</a> Please bear with me i'm still new at ASP MVC. Could someone tell me what i'm doing wrong? Help would be appreciated!

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• How to inject a Session Bean into a Message Driven Bean?

  - by Hank

  Hi guys, I'm reasonably new to JEE, so this might be stupid.. bear with me pls :D I would like to inject a stateless session bean into a message-driven bean. Basically, the MDB gets a JMS message, then uses a session bean to perform the work. The session bean holds the business logic. Here's my Session Bean: @Stateless public class TestBean implements TestBeanRemote { public void doSomething() { // business logic goes here } } The matching interface: @Remote public interface TestBeanRemote { public void doSomething(); } Here's my MDB: @MessageDriven(mappedName = "jms/mvs.TestController", activationConfig = { @ActivationConfigProperty(propertyName = "acknowledgeMode", propertyValue = "Auto-acknowledge"), @ActivationConfigProperty(propertyName = "destinationType", propertyValue = "javax.jms.Queue") }) public class TestController implements MessageListener { @EJB private TestBean testBean; public TestController() { } public void onMessage(Message message) { testBean.doSomething(); } } So far, not rocket science, right? Unfortunately, when deploying this to glassfish v3, and sending a message to the appropriate JMS Queue, I get errors that glassfish is unable to locate the TestBean EJB: java.lang.IllegalStateException: Exception attempting to inject Remote ejb-ref name=mvs.test.TestController/testBean,Remote 3.x interface =mvs.test.TestBean,ejb-link=null,lookup=null,mappedName=,jndi-name=mvs.test.TestBean,refType=Session into class mvs.test.TestController Caused by: com.sun.enterprise.container.common.spi.util.InjectionException: Exception attempting to inject Remote ejb-ref name=mvs.test.TestController/testBean,Remote 3.x interface =mvs.test.TestBean,ejb-link=null,lookup=null,mappedName=,jndi-name=mvs.test.TestBean,refType=Session into class mvs.test.TestController Caused by: javax.naming.NamingException: Lookup failed for 'java:comp/env/mvs.test.TestController/testBean' in SerialContext [Root exception is javax.naming.NamingException: Exception resolving Ejb for 'Remote ejb-ref name=mvs.test.TestController/testBean,Remote 3.x interface =mvs.test.TestBean,ejb-link=null,lookup=null,mappedName=,jndi-name=mvs.test.TestBean,refType=Session' . Actual (possibly internal) Remote JNDI name used for lookup is 'mvs.test.TestBean#mvs.test.TestBean' [Root exception is javax.naming.NamingException: Lookup failed for 'mvs.test.TestBean#mvs.test.TestBean' in SerialContext [Root exception is javax.naming.NameNotFoundException: mvs.test.TestBean#mvs.test.TestBean not found]]] So my questions are: - is this the correct way of injecting a session bean into another bean (particularly a message driven bean)? - why is the naming lookup failing? Thanks for all your help! Cheers, Hank

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• C# Communication between threads.

  - by GT

  Hi, I am using .NET 3.5 and am trying to wrap my head around a problem (not being a supreme threading expert bear with me). I have a windows service which has a very intensive process that is always running, I have put this process onto a separate thread so that the main thread of my service can handle operational tasks - i.e., service audit cycles, handling configuration changes, etc, etc. I'm starting the thread via the typical ThreadStart to a method which kicks the process off - call it workerthread. On this workerthread I am sending data to another server, as is expected the server reboots every now and again and connection is lost and I need to re-establish the connection (I am notified by the lost of connection via an event). From here I do my reconnect logic and I am back in and running, however what I easily started to notice to happen was that I was creating this worker thread over and over again each time (not what I want). Now I could kill the workerthread when I lose the connection and start a new one but this seems like a waste of resources. What I really want to do, is marshal the call (i.e., my thread start method) back to the thread that is still in memory although not doing anything. Please post any examples or docs you have that would be of use. Thanks.

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• DDD principlers and ASP.NET MVC project design

  - by kaivalya

  Two part questions I have a product aggregate that has; Prices PackagingOptions ProductDescriptions ProductImages etc I have modeled one product repository and did not create individual repositories for any of the child classes. All db operations are handled through product repository. Am I understanding the DDD concept correctly so far? Sometimes the question comes to my mind that having a repository for lets say packaging options could make my life easier by directly fetching a the packaging option from the DB by using its ID instead of asking the product repository to find it in its PackagingOptions collection and give it to me.. Second part is managing the edit create operations using ASP.MVC frame work I am currently trying to manage all add edit remove of these child collections of product through product controller(sound right?). One challenge I am now facing is; If I edit a specific packaging option of product through mydomain/product/editpackagingoption/10 I have access to the id of the packaging option But I don't have the ID of the product it self and this forces me to write a query to first find the product that has this specific packaging option then edit that product and the revelant packaging option. I can do this as all packaging option have their unique ID but this would fail if I have collections that don't have unique ID. That feels very wrong.. The next option I thought of is sending both the product and packaging option IDs on the url like; mydomain/product/editpackagingoption/3/10 But I am not sure if that is a good design either. So I am at a point that I am a bit confused. might be having fundamental misunderstandings around all of this... I would appreciate if you bear with the long question and help me put this together. thanks!

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• Get the accordion style for non-accordion elements

  - by SK.

  Hi, I am completely new in jQuery UI's CSS styles so please bear with me. I have to make a list of contact people. <div id="accordion"> <h3><a href="#">George Foo</a></h3> <div> some information </div> <h3><a href="#">Michelle Bar</a></h3> <div> some information </div> <h3><a href="#">Bill Wind</a></h3> <div> some information </div> </div> At first, I thought using the accordion style. However, usage showed me that opening more than one contact might be interesting as well. So I read the note on the bottom of the accordion page to use this instead of accordion: From page: jQuery(document).ready(function(){ $('.accordion .head').click(function() { $(this).next().toggle('slow'); return false; }).next().hide(); }); My problem is that it doesn't look like accordion (smoothness style). I suppose I am not putting the accordion and head class at the right place, but as of now the names look like default links. How can I have the same look for the headers as the accordion effect, without using accordion? I tried searching around but from what I found that specific problem is not much discussed. Thanks.

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• C++ resize a docked Qt QDockWidget programmatically?

  - by Zac

  I've just started working on a new C++/Qt project. It's going to be an MDI-based IDE with docked widgets for things like the file tree, object browser, compiler output, etc. One thing is bugging me so far though: I can't figure out how to programmatically make a QDockWidget smaller. For example, this snippet creates my bottom dock window, "Build Information": m_compilerOutput = new QTextEdit; m_compilerOutput->setReadOnly(true); dock = new QDockWidget(tr("Build Information"), this); dock->setWidget(m_compilerOutput); addDockWidget(Qt::BottomDockWidgetArea, dock); When launched, my program looks like this: http://yfrog.com/6ldreamidep (bear in mind the early stage of development) However, I want it to appear like this: http://yfrog.com/20dreamide2p I can't seem to get this to happen. The Qt Reference on QDockWidget says this: Custom size hints, minimum and maximum sizes and size policies should be implemented in the child widget. QDockWidget will respect them, adjusting its own constraints to include the frame and title. Size constraints should not be set on the QDockWidget itself, because they change depending on whether it is docked Now, this suggests that one method of going about doing this would be to sub-class QTextEdit and override the sizeHint() method. However, I would prefer not to do this just for that purpose, nor have I tried it to find that to be a working solution. I have tried calling dock-resize(m_compilerOutput-width(), m_compilerOutput-minimumHeight()), calling m_compilerOutput-setSizePolicy() with each of its options...nothing so far has affected the size. Like I said, I would prefer a simple solution in a few lines of code to having to create a sub-class just to change sizeHint(). All suggestions are appreciated.

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• MATLAB intersection of 2 surfaces

  - by caglarozdag

  Hi everyone, I consider myself a beginner in MATLAB so bear with me if the answer to my question is an obvious one. Phi=0:pi/100:2*pi; Theta=0:pi/100:2*pi; [PHI,THETA]=meshgrid(Phi,Theta); R=(1 + cos(PHI).*cos(PHI)).*(1 + cos(THETA).*cos(THETA)); [X,Y,Z]=sph2cart(THETA,PHI,R); surf(X,Y,Z); %display hold on; x1=-4:.1:4; [X1,Y1] = meshgrid(x1); a=1.8; b=0; c=3; d=0; Z1=(d- a * X1 - b * Y1)/c; shading flat; surf(X1,Y1,Z1); I have written this code which plots a 3d cartesian plot of a plane intersecting a peanut shaped object at an angle. I need to get the intersection of these on 2D (going to be the outline of a peanut, but a bit skewed since the intersection happens at an angle), but don't know how. Thanks

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• Reinterpret a CGImageRef using PyObjC in Python

  - by Michael Rondinelli

  Hi, I'm doing something that's a little complicated to sum up in the title, so please bear with me. I'm writing a Python module that provides an interface to my C++ library, which provides some specialized image manipulation functionality. It would be most convenient to be able to access image buffers as CGImageRefs from Python, so they could be manipulated further using Quartz (using PyObjC, which works well). So I have a C++ function that provides a CGImageRef representation from my own image buffers, like this: CGImageRef CreateCGImageRefForImageBuffer(shared_ptr<ImageBuffer> buffer); I'm using Boost::Python to create my Python bridge. What is the easiest way for me to export this function so that I can use the CGImageRef from Python? Problems: The CGImageRef type can't be exported directly because it is a pointer to an undefined struct. So I could make a wrapper function that wraps it in a PyCObject or something to get it to send the pointer to Python. But then how do I "cast" this object to a CGImageRef from Python? Is there a better way to go about this?

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• Posting xml from classic asp to asp.net

  - by Chris Dunaway

  I apologize if this has been asked before. I searched and didn't find anything that matched my situation. Also bear in mind I am fairly new to asp/asp.net development. My current project is a relatively simple e-commerce site. The customer will connect to the site, select products, input shipping and billing information, payment information (credit card) and submit the order. The project is being split into two parts: The store front which includes displaying the items and taking the customer's shipping and billing information and the payment site which will collect the customers credit card, compute tax, and save the order into the company's system. The reason that the site was split up, was that our side (payment side) already has facilities for credit card handling and tax computation. There may also be some regulatory issues that the store front side does not want to deal with (which we already do). I'm working on the payment portion of the app and I am using asp.net. The store front side is being written in classic asp (not my decision). Each part will be hosted on different servers. The problem I am having is transferring the contents of the "shopping cart" to our app so that we can collect the cc info and submit the order. We had thought that the classic asp could somehow post an xml fragment which contains the billing/shipping info and the items selected. Our side would display a summary of the order, securely collect the credit card info, and submit the order to our system. But I have been unable to post or send the xml from a classic asp on one server, to our asp.net application on another. It all works just fine when I test on the same server. How can I post (or otherwise transfer) the shopping cart data from classic asp to asp.net across server boundaries and transfer control to the asp.net application? As I said, I am new to web development, so this is proving quite a challenge for me. Thanks

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• Asynchronously populate datagridview in Windows Forms application

  - by dcryptd

  howzit! I'm a web developer that has been recently requested to develop a Windows forms application, so please bear with me (or dont laugh!) if my question is a bit elementary. After many sessions with my client, we eventually decided on an interface that contains a tabcontrol with 5 tabs. Each tab has a datagridview that may eventually hold up to 25,000 rows of data (with about 6 columns each). I have successfully managed to bind the grids when the tab page is loaded and it works fine for a few records, but the UI freezes when I bound the grid with 20,000 dummy records. The "freeze" occurs when I click on the tab itself, and the UI only frees up (and the tab page is rendered) once the bind is complete. I communicated this to the client and mentioned the option of paging for each grid, but she is adament w.r.t. NOT wanting this. My only option then is to look for some asynchronous method of doing this in the background. I don't know much about threading in windows forms, but I know that I can use the BackgroundWorker control to achieve this. My only issue after reading up a bit on it is that it is ideally used for "long-running" tasks and I/O operations. My questions: How does one determine a long-running task? How does one NOT MISUSE the BackgroundWorker control, ie. is there a general guideline to follow when using this? (I understand that opening/spawning multiple threads may be undesirable in certain instances) Most importantly: How can I achieve (asychronously) binding of the datagridview after the tab page - and all its child controls - loads. Thank you for reading this (ahem) lengthy query, and I highly appreciate any responses/thoughts/directions on this matter! Cheers!

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• vlad the deployer: why do I need a scm folder?

  - by egarcia

  I'm learning to use vlad the deployer and I've got a question. Since I'm still learning I don't know what is pertinent to the question and what isn't, so please bear with me if I'm a little verbose. I've got 2 environments for a new application (test and production) besides my development machine. I've figured out this way to do the initial setup in my vlad.rake: namespace :test task :set set :domain, 'test.myserver.com' end end namespace :production task :set set :domain, 'www.myserver.com' end end This way I can have environment-specific stuff inside the namespaces, and still have shared tasks. For example, this would be the initial setup for test: rake vlad:test:set vlad:setup vlad:update This creates the following folders on my test server: releases/ scm/ shared/ current -> symlink to last release (inside the releases folder) My question is: what's the point of the scm folder? Every time I do vlad:update, the following happens: svn checkout on the scm/ folder above svn export on the /releases/{date} folder update current symlink So scm is a copy of my repository... but then there's an "export" copy of the repository on /releases/{date}. And that is the one used by the application... scm doesn't seem to be used by anyone? Wouldn't I be just fine without the scm folder?

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• Minimal-change algorithm which maximises 'swapping'

  - by Kim Bastin

  This is a question on combinatorics from a non-mathematician, so please try to bear with me! Given an array of n distinct characters, I want to generate subsets of k characters in a minimal-change order, i.e. an order in which generation n+1 contains exactly one character that was not in generation n. That's not too hard in itself. However, I also want to maximise the number of cases in which the character that is swapped out in generation n+1 is the same character that was swapped in in generation n. To illustrate, for n=7, k=3: abc abd abe* abf* abg* afg aeg* adg* acg* acd ace* acf* aef adf* ade bde bdf bef bcf* bce bcd* bcg* bdg beg* bfg* cfg ceg* cdg* cde cdf* cef def deg dfg efg The asterisked strings indicate the case I want to maximise; e.g. the e that is new in generation 3, abe, replaces a d that was new in generation 2, abd. It doesn't seem possible to have this happen in every generation, but I want it to happen as often as possible. Typical array sizes that I use are 20-30 and subset sizes around 5-8. I'm using an odd language, Icon (or actually its derivative Unicon), so I don't expect anyone to post code that I can used directly. But I will be grateful for answers or hints in pseudo-code, and will do my best to translate C etc. Also, I have noticed that problems of this kind are often discussed in terms of arrays of integers, and I can certainly apply solutions posted in such terms to my own problem. Thanks Kim Bastin

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• Subversion versus Vault

  - by WebDude

  I'm currently reviewing the benefits of moving from SVN to a SourceGear Vault. Has anyone got advice or a link to a detailed comparison between the two? Bear in mind I would have to move my current Source Control system across which works strongly in SVN's favor Here is some info I have found out thus far from my own investigations. I have been taking some time tests between the two and vault seems to perform most operations much faster. Time tests used the same server as the repository, the same workstation client, and the same project. Time Comparisons SVN Add/Commit    12:30 Get Latest Revision    5:35 Tagging/Labelling    0:01 Branching    N/A - I don't think true branching exists in SVN Vault Add/Commit    4:45 Get Latest Revision    0:51 Tagging/Labelling    0:30 Branching    3:23 (can't get this to format correctly) I also found an online source comparing some other points. This is the kind of information i'm looking for. Usage Comparisons Subversion is edit/merge/commit only. Vault allows you to do either edit/merge/commit or checkout/edit/checkin. Vault looks and acts just like VSS, which makes the learning curve effectively zero for VSS users. Vault has a VS plugin, but it only works if you're going to run in checkout-mode. Subversion has clients for pretty much every OS you can imagine; Vault has a GUI client for Windows and a command line client for Mono. Both will support remote work, since both use HTTP as their transport (Subversion uses extended DAV, Vault uses SOAP). Subversion installation, especially w/ Apache, is more complex. Subversion has a lot of third party support. Vault has just a few things. My question Has anyone got advice or a link to a detailed comparison between the two?

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• Memory mapped files and "soft" page faults. Unavoidable?

  - by Robert Oschler

  I have two applications (processes) running under Windows XP that share data via a memory mapped file. Despite all my efforts to eliminate per iteration memory allocations, I still get about 10 soft page faults per data transfer. I've tried every flag there is in CreateFileMapping() and CreateFileView() and it still happens. I'm beginning to wonder if it's just the way memory mapped files work. If anyone there knows the O/S implementation details behind memory mapped files I would appreciate comments on the following theory: If two processes share a memory mapped file and one process writes to it while another reads it, then the O/S marks the pages written to as invalid. When the other process goes to read the memory areas that now belong to invalidated pages, this causes a soft page fault (by design) and the O/S knows to reload the invalidated page. Also, the number of soft page faults is therefore directly proportional to the size of the data write. My experiments seem to bear out the above theory. When I share data I write one contiguous block of data. In other words, the entire shared memory area is overwritten each time. If I make the block bigger the number of soft page faults goes up correspondingly. So, if my theory is true, there is nothing I can do to eliminate the soft page faults short of not using memory mapped files because that is how they work (using soft page faults to maintain page consistency). What is ironic is that I chose to use a memory mapped file instead of a TCP socket connection because I thought it would be more efficient. Note, if the soft page faults are harmless please note that. I've heard that at some point if the number is excessive, the system's performance can be marred. If soft page faults intrinsically are not significantly harmful then if anyone has any guidelines as to what number per second is "excessive" I'd like to hear that. Thanks.

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• How do I extract HTML content using Regex in PHP

  - by gAMBOOKa

  I know, i know... regex is not the best way to extract HTML text. But I need to extract article text from a lot of pages, I can store regexes in the database for each website. I'm not sure how XML parsers would work with multiple websites. You'd need a separate function for each website. In any case, I don't know much about regexes, so bear with me. I've got an HTML page in a format similar to this <html> <head>...</head> <body> <div class=nav>...</div><p id="someshit" /> <div class=body>....</div> <div class=footer>...</div> </body> I need to extract the contents of the body class container. I tried this. $pattern = "/<div class=\"body\">\(.*?\)<\/div>/sui" $text = $htmlPageAsIs; if (preg_match($pattern, $text, $matches)) echo "MATCHED!"; else echo "Sorry gambooka, but your text is in another castle."; What am I doing wrong? My text ends up in another castle.

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• ImageViews in a ListView not aligned vertically [Mono for Android]

  - by shalmon

  I'm very new to developing apps to android, so bear with me. Having said that, I'm trying to make a list with a image to the left and a title and description to the right of the image. The image is downloaded from the web in the background and then set in the UI as they complete. This all works. However, the images are not aligned properly and I simply cannot understand why. I'm thinking it has something to do with the layout defined in the xml file? I tried using android:layout_alignParentLeft="true" and android:layout_gravity="left" but that got me nowhere. Then I didn't know how to proceed, even after googling every way I could think of. I'm sorry if this is very basic, but I would really appreciate some help here. Here's a pic of the situation: And here's my layout: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:id="@+id/widget28" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="80px" > <ImageView android:id="@+id/imageItem" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_gravity="center_vertical" android:layout_alignParentLeft="true" > </ImageView> <LinearLayout android:id="@+id/linearText" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:orientation="vertical" android:layout_marginLeft="10px" android:layout_marginTop="10px" > <TextView android:id="@+id/textTop" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="TextView" > </TextView> <TextView android:id="@+id/textBottom" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="TextView" > </TextView> </LinearLayout> </LinearLayout> I appreciate any help you can offer.

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• Using Regex, how can I remove certain characters from inside angle-brackets, leaving the characters

  - by Iain Fraser

  Edit: To be clear, please understand that I am not using Regex to parse the html, that's crazy talk! I'm simply wanting to clean up a messy string of html so it will parse Edit #2: I should also point out that the control character I'm using is a special unicode character - it's not something that would ever be used in a proper tag under any normal circumstances Suppose I have a string of html that contains a bunch of control characters and I want to remove the control characters from inside tags only, leaving the characters outside the tags alone. For example Here the control character is the numeral "1". Input The quick 1<strong>orange</strong> lemming <sp11a1n 1class1='jumpe111r'11>jumps over</span> 1the idle 1frog Desired Output The quick 1<strong>orange</strong> lemming <span class='jumper'>jumps over</span> 1the idle 1frog So far I can match tags which contain the control character but I can't remove them in one regex. I guess I could perform another regex on my matches, but I'd really like to know if there's a better way. My regex Bear in mind this one only matches tags which contain the control character. <(([^>])*?`([^>])*?)*?> Thanks very much for your time and consideration. Iain Fraser

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• How to use SQLAlchemy to dump an SQL file from query expressions to bulk-insert into a DBMS?

  - by Mahmoud Abdelkader

  Please bear with me as I explain the problem, how I tried to solve it, and my question on how to improve it is at the end. I have a 100,000 line csv file from an offline batch job and I needed to insert it into the database as its proper models. Ordinarily, if this is a fairly straight-forward load, this can be trivially loaded by just munging the CSV file to fit a schema, but I had to do some external processing that requires querying and it's just much more convenient to use SQLAlchemy to generate the data I want. The data I want here is 3 models that represent 3 pre-exiting tables in the database and each subsequent model depends on the previous model. For example: Model C --> Foreign Key --> Model B --> Foreign Key --> Model A So, the models must be inserted in the order A, B, and C. I came up with a producer/consumer approach: - instantiate a multiprocessing.Process which contains a threadpool of 50 persister threads that have a threadlocal connection to a database - read a line from the file using the csv DictReader - enqueue the dictionary to the process, where each thread creates the appropriate models by querying the right values and each thread persists the models in the appropriate order This was faster than a non-threaded read/persist but it is way slower than bulk-loading a file into the database. The job finished persisting after about 45 minutes. For fun, I decided to write it in SQL statements, it took 5 minutes. Writing the SQL statements took me a couple of hours, though. So my question is, could I have used a faster method to insert rows using SQLAlchemy? As I understand it, SQLAlchemy is not designed for bulk insert operations, so this is less than ideal. This follows to my question, is there a way to generate the SQL statements using SQLAlchemy, throw them in a file, and then just use a bulk-load into the database? I know about str(model_object) but it does not show the interpolated values. I would appreciate any guidance for how to do this faster. Thanks!

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• Passing an NSDate

  - by Garry

  I'm new to the iPhone and objective-c and I am still trying to get my head around ownership of objects so bear with me. I have a DOBViewController that has a datepicker on it. I have created a custom init method: -(id)initWithInitialDate(NSDate *)initialDate; Another view controller has a date instance declared (NSDate *dob) that holds a value. I would like to pass this to the DOBViewController so that it can scroll the datepicker to the passed value. Here is the custom init method: - (id)initWithInitialDate:(NSDate *)initialDate { // Initialise ourselves self = [super init]; // Set the date of the date picker if (initialDate != nil) { datePicker.date = initialDate; } else { // Set it to today datePicker.date = [NSDate date]; } return self; } This is how I am sending the dob NSDate object: DOBViewController *dobViewController = [[DOBViewController alloc] initWithInitialDate:dob]; Where dob is a variable of type NSDate that is declared in the header file. This doesn't seem to work as initialDate is always NULL. What am I doing wrong?

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