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  • WPF Databinding problem

    - by costin
    Hi, I'm new to WPF and I have some difficulties when I'm trying to populate a ListView with a list of custom objects. internal class ApplicationCode { public int Code { get; set; } public IEnumerable<string> InstrumentCodes { get; set; } } I have a list of ApplicationCode which I set to ItemsSource to a ListView. I need to display the ApplicationCode.Code as a string and for the rest of the columns a check box which can be checked/unchecked depending if the column name is contained in the InstrumentCodes collection. In order to set the check box I use a converter on databinding: <DataTemplate x:Key="InstrumentCodeTemplate"> <CheckBox IsEnabled="False" IsChecked="{Binding Mode=OneTime, Converter={StaticResource InstrumentSelectionConverter}}" /> </DataTemplate> The problem I have is because I can't know which is the current column at the time of cell data binding and I can't set the ConverterParameter. public object Convert(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, CultureInfo culture) { ApplicationCode appCode = value as ApplicationCode; return appCode != null && appCode.InstrumentCodes.Contains(parameter.ToString()); } There is a way to find out the column index or name? Or there is another way to solve this problem?

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  • jQuery click event on IE7-8, does not execute on the div, only on its text

    - by user3665301
    I have a problem using the jQuery click event with IE7-8-9. I apply the event on a div. But on these two IE versions, I have to click on the text contained within the div to make the event work. I don't understand because it was still normally working on these versions until I made a few changes (like adding the font css properties) but when I try to delete these changes it stil does not work as I want; Here is a jsfiddle illustrating the situation and its full screen result. http://jsfiddle.net/rC632/ function clickEvent(){ $('.answerDiv').click(function(){ $( "div:animated" ).stop(); if ( idPreviousClick === $(this)[0].id) { } else { if (idPreviousClick != -1) { $("#"+idPreviousClick).css({height:'100px', width:'100px', top:'0', 'line-height': '100px'}); $("#"+idPreviousClick).parent().css({height:'100px', width:'100px', top:'0'}); } $(this).animate({height:'120px', width:'120px', 'line-height': '120px'}); $(this).parent().animate({height:'120px', width:'120px', top:'-10px'}); idPreviousClick = $(this)[0].id; } }); } $(document).ready(function(){ clickEvent(); }); var idPreviousClick = -1; http://jsfiddle.net/rC632/embedded/result/ Could you have any idea of what is missing ? Thanks

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  • WCF - separating service contracts and partial deriving?

    - by dwhittenburg
    So, I've seperated my WCF service contracts into discrete contracts for re-use. I use to have IOneServiceContract that contained 3 functions: Function1, Function2, Function3. I've seperated this service contract into two discrete service contracts: IServiceContract1 and IServiceContract2. IServiceContract1 contains Function1 and IServiceContract2 contains Function2 and Function3. This will allow me to re-use the discrete IServiceContract1 and/or IServiceContract2 to build a new service contract that represents the contract for the public service. Knowing this...and hopefully I haven't messed up the description so that you can't follow the rest... I have two services IService1 and IService2. IService1 implements IServiceContract1 and IServiceContract2. This works perfect as IService1 needs to implement all of the functions: Function1, Function2, Function3. IService2 however doesn't need to implement all of the functions of IServiceContract2, only Function1. Is there a way for IService2 to partially implement the contract? I know that sounds ridiculous. Is the correct way to handle this situation to try and logically separate IServiceContract2 so that IService2 only has to implement the pieces that it needs? Thanks

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  • Looking for Hardware that will easily interface with my .NET code.

    - by SkippyFire
    I'm a .NET C# developer looking to do some hardware interfacing/programming. I just want something super simple to mess around with. I have done one of those basic stamp projects, but I want something with less electrical work. A self-contained piece of hardware would be fine. I'm not really looking to do embedded programming... but that would actually be pretty cool if something was capable of running .net code. I'm looking for something that would be easy to connect, hopefully via USB. Serial ports seems to be more hit or miss nowadays with laptops and netbooks. Something I can easily send data to, like a mini LCD, or series of LED's. Better yet would be something that provides feedback, like a temperature sensor. The best would be something more featured that I could talk to. I would be able to send data to it, and it would send back responses. Maybe something like a servo that could report it's position? Or maybe something that I could set parameters on? Any ideas? Thanks in advance!

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  • HttpModule.Init - safely add HttpApplication.BeginRequest handler in IIS7 integrated mode

    - by Paul Smith
    My question is similar but not identical to: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1123741/why-cant-my-host-softsyshosting-com-support-beginrequest-and-endrequest-event (I've also read the mvolo blog referenced therein) The goal is to successfully hook HttpApplication.BeginRequest in the IHttpModule.Init event (or anywhere internal to the module), using a normal HttpModule integrated via the system.webServer config, i.e. one that doesn't: invade Global.asax or override the HttpApplication (the module is intended to be self-contained & reusable, so e.g. I have a config like this): <system.webServer> <validation validateIntegratedModeConfiguration="false"/> <modules> <remove name="TheHttpModule" /> <add name="TheHttpModule" type="Company.HttpModules.TheHttpModule" preCondition="managedHandler" /> So far, any strategy I've tried to attach a listener to HttpApplication.BeginRequest results in one of two things, symptom 1 is that BeginRequest never fires, or symptom 2 is that the following exception gets thrown on all managed requests, and I cannot catch & handle it from user code: Stack Trace: [NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object.] System.Web.PipelineModuleStepContainer.GetEventCount(RequestNotification notification, Boolean isPostEvent) +30 System.Web.PipelineStepManager.ResumeSteps(Exception error) +1112 System.Web.HttpApplication.BeginProcessRequestNotification(HttpContext context, AsyncCallback cb) +113 System.Web.HttpRuntime.ProcessRequestNotificationPrivate(IIS7WorkerRequest wr, HttpContext context) +616 Commenting out app.BeginRequest += new EventHandler(this.OnBeginRequest) in Init stops the exception of course. Init does not reference the Context or Request objects at all. I have tried: Removed all references to HttpContext.Current anywhere in the project (still symptom 1) Tested removing all code from the body of my OnBeginRequest method, to ensure the problem wasn't internal to the method (= exception) Sniffing the stack trace and only calling app.BeginRequest+=... when if the stack isn't started by InitializeApplication (= BeginRequest not firing) Only calling app.BeginRequest+= on the second pass through Init (= BeginRequest not firing) Anyone know of a good approach? Is there some indirect strategy for hooking Application_Start within the module (seems unlikely)? Another event which a) one can hook from a module's constructor or Init method, and b) which is subsequently a safe place to attach BeginRequest event handlers? Thanks much

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  • ASP.Net ListView and event handling.

    - by Neil
    I have an .ascx which contains a listview. Let's call it the parent. Within its ItemTemplate I reference a second .ascx which is basically another listview, let's call it the child. On the parent, the child control is wrapped in a placeholder tag. I use this place holder tag to show and hide the child. Psuedo code: The child listview has a 'close' button in its Layout Template. Let's call it "btnClose" with an onClick event of "btnClose_Click". I want to use this button to set the visibility of the containing placeholder. I'm trying to avoid doing something like using PlaceHolder plhChild = (PlaceHolder)childListCtl.NamingContainer since I can't guarantee every instance of the child .ascx will be contained within a placeholder. I tried creating an event in the child that could be subscribed to. Psuedo code: public delegate CloseButtonHandler(); public event CloseButtonHandler CloseButtonEvent; And in the actual btnClose_Click(Object sender, EventArgs e) event I have: if (CloseButtonEvent != null) CloseButtonEvent(); My problem is that the delegate CloseButtonEvent is always null. I've tried assigning the delegate in the listview's OnDatabound event of the parent and on the click event, to set the plhChild.visible = true, and I've stepped through the code and know the delegate instantiation works in both place, but again, when it gets to the btnClose_Click event on the child, the delegate is null. Any help would be appreciated. Neil

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  • UIView coordinate transforms on rotation during keyboard appearance

    - by SG
    iPad app; I'm trying to resize my view when the keyboard appears. It amounts to calling this code at appropriate times: CGRect adjustedFrame = self.frame; adjustedFrame.size.height -= keyboardFrame.size.height; [self setFrame:adjustedFrame]; Using this technique for a view contained in a uisplitview-based app works in all 4 orientations, but I've since discovered that a vanilla uiview-based app does not work. What happens is that apparently the uisplitview is smart enough to convert the coordinates of its subviews (their frame) such that the origin is in the "viewer's top left" regardless of the orientation. However, a uiview is not able to correctly report these coordinates. Though the origin is reported as (0,0) in all orientations, the view's effective origin is always as if the ipad were upright. What is weird about this is that the view correctly rotates and draws, but it always originates in the literal device top left. How can I get the view to correctly make its origin the "top left" to the viewer, not the device's fixed top left? What am I missing? Please, for something so trivial I've spent about 6 hours on this already with every brute force technique and research angle I could think of. This is the original source which doesn't work in this case: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1951826/move-up-uitoolbar

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  • Replacing specific HTML tags using Regex

    - by matthewpe
    Alright, an easy one for you guys. We are using ActiveReport's RichTextBox to display some random bits of HTML code. The HTML tags supported by ActiveReport can be found here : http://www.datadynamics.com/Help/ARNET3/ar3conSupportedHtmlTagsInRichText.html An example of what I want to do is replace any match of <div style="text-align:*</div> by <p style=\"text-align:*</p> in order to use a supported tag for text-alignment. I have found the following regex expression to find the correct match in my html input: <div style=\"text-align:(.*?)</div> However, I can't find a way to keep the previous text contained in the tags after my replacement. Any clue? Is it me or Regex are generally a PITA? :) private static readonly IDictionary<string, string> _replaceMap = new Dictionary<string, string> { {"<div style=\"text-align:(.*?)</div>", "<p style=\"text-align:(.*?)</p>"} }; public static string FormatHtml(string html) { foreach(var pair in _replaceMap) { html = Regex.Replace(html, pair.Key, pair.Value); } return html; } Thanks!

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  • Flex 3 - Scroll bar issue

    - by Emma
    Im currently learning Flex, and Im having the hardest time getting scroll bars to work. In short Im pretty much just making a giant form for users to fill out, contained within a viewstack component, the user will type up information in one view, and it will be displayed in the other. But right now in the first canvas i have components that run of the screen and flex doesnt seem to automate a scroll bar, so i added in 'verticalScrollPolicy="on"' to my canvas, now while it gives me a scroll bar, it gives me an empty scroll bar, I still cannot move it up or down, meaning components are still trapped off the bottom of my screen. Im I missing something amazingly simple? Edit - Sorry, Im using Adobe Flex Builder 3, and the components it lets you drag in. http://img12.imageshack.us/img12/218/problem1f.jpg This is a picture of the problem, and i guess relavent code would be. <mx:Application xmlns:mx="adobe.com/2006/mxml"; layout="absolute" width="830" height="835"> <mx:ViewStack x="10" y="72" id="viewstack1" width="790" height="751" > <mx:Canvas label="Design Mode" width="100%" height="100%" verticalScrollPolicy="on" horizontalScrollPolicy="on" > (Components inside) </mx:Canvas> Sorry if Im using this site wrong, still very new

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  • Iterating through folders and files in batch file?

    - by Will Marcouiller
    Here's my situation. A project has as objective to migrate some attachments to another system. These attachments will be located to a parent folder, let's say "Folder 0" (see this question's diagram for better understanding), and they will be zipped/compressed. I want my batch script to be called like so: BatchScript.bat "c:\temp\usd\Folder 0" I'm using 7za.exe as the command line extraction tool. What I want my batch script to do is to iterate through the "Folder 0"'s subfolders, and extract all of the containing ZIP files into their respective folder. It is obligatory that the files extracted are in the same folder as their respective ZIP files. So, files contained in "File 1.zip" are needed in "Folder 1" and so forth. I have read about the FOR...DO command on Windows XP Professional Product Documentation - Using Batch Files. Here's my script: @ECHO OFF FOR /D %folder IN (%%rootFolderCmdLnParam) DO FOR %zippedFile IN (*.zip) DO 7za.exe e %zippedFile I guess that I would also need to change the actual directory before calling 7za.exe e %zippedFile for file extraction, but I can't figure out how in this batch file (through I know how in command line, and even if I know it is the same instruction "cd"). Anyone's help is gratefully appreciated.

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  • SoundManager / Jquery / Regular expression : Parse class name before certain character To Get SoundI

    - by j-man86
    So I am trying to access a jquery soundmanager variable from one script (wpaudio.js – from the wp-audio plugin) inside of another (init.js – my own javascript). I am creating an alternate pause/play button higher up on the page and need to resume the current soundID, which is contained as part of a class name in the DOM. Here is the code that creates that class name in wpaudio.js: function wpaButtonCheck() { if (!this.playState || this.paused) jQuery('#' + this.sID + '_play').attr('src', wpa_url + '/wpa_play.png'); else jQuery('#' + this.sID + '_play').attr('src', wpa_url + '/wpa_pause.png'); } Here is the output: where wpa0 would be the sID of the sound I need. My current script in init.js is: $('.mixesSidebar #currentSong .playBtn').toggle(function() { soundManager.pauseAll(); $(this).addClass('paused'); }, function() { soundManager.resumeAll(); $(this).removeClass('paused'); }); I need to change resumeAll to "resume(this.sID)", but I need to somehow store the sID onclick and call it in the above function. Alternately, I think a regular expression that could get the class name of the current play button and either parse the string up to the "_play" or use a trim function to get rid of "_play"– but I'm not sure how to do this. Thanks for your help!

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  • Java - How to find count of items in a list in another list

    - by David Buckley
    Say I have two lists: List<String>products = new ArrayList<String>(); products.add("computer"); products.add("phone"); products.add("mouse"); products.add("keyboard"); List<String>cart = new ArrayList<String>(); cart.add("phone"); cart.add("monitor"); I need to find how many items in the cart list exist in the products list. For the lists above, the answer would be 1 (as phone is in products and cart). If the cart list was: List<String>cart = new ArrayList<String>(); cart.add("desk"); cart.add("chair"); The result would be 0. If cart contained computer, mouse, desk, chair, the result would be 2 (for computer and mouse). Is there something in the Apache Commons Collections or the Google Collections API? I've looked through them and see ways to get a bag count, but not from another list, although it's possible I'm missing something. Right now, the only way I can think of is to iterate over the cart items and see if products contains the individual item and keep a count. I can't use containsAll as I need the count (not a boolean), and that would fail if all items in cart didn't exist in the product list (which can happen). I'm using Java 1.6 if that matters.

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  • Modifying a const through a non-const pointer

    - by jasonline
    I'm a bit confused what happened in the following code: const int e = 2; int* w = ( int* ) &e; // (1) cast to remove const-ness *w = 5; // (2) cout << *w << endl; // (3) outputs 5 cout << e << endl; // (4) outputs 2 cout << "w = " << w << endl; // (5) w points to the address of e cout << "&e = " << &e << endl; In (1), w points to the address of e. In (2), that value was changed to 5. However, when the values of *w and e were displayed, their values are different. But if you print value of w pointer and &e, they have the same value/address. How come e still contained 2, even if it was changed to 5? Were they stored in a separate location? Or a temporary? But how come the value pointed by w is still the address of e?

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  • How can UISearchDisplayController autorelease cause crash in a different view controller?

    - by Tofrizer
    Hi, I have two view controllers A and B. From A, I navigate to view controller B as follows: // in View Controller A // navigateToB method -(void) navigateToB { BViewController *bViewController = [[BViewController alloc] initWithNibName: @"BView" bundle:nil]; bViewController.bProperty1 = SOME_STRING_CONSTANT; bViewController.title = @"A TITLE OF A VC's CHOOSING"; [self.navigationController pushViewController: bViewController animated:YES]; [bViewController release]; //<----- releasing 0x406c1e0 } In BViewController, the property bPropery1 is defined with copy as below (note, B also contains UITableView and other properties): @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *bProperty1; Everything appeared to work fine when navigating back and forth between A and B. That is until I added a UISearchDisplayController to the table view contained in BViewController. Now when I navigate out of B, back to A, the app crashes. Stack trace shows what looks the search display controller being autoreleased at time of crash: #0 0x009663a7 in ___forwarding___ #1 0x009426c2 in __forwarding_prep_0___ #2 0x018c8539 in -[UISearchDisplayController _destroyManagedTableView] #3 0x018c8ea4 in -[UISearchDisplayController dealloc] #4 0x00285ce5 in NSPopAutoreleasePool NSZombies shows: -[BViewController respondsToSelector:]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x406c1e0 And malloc history on this points to the bViewController already released in A's navigateToB method above: Call [2] [arg=132]: thread_a065e720 |start ... <snip> ..._sendActionsForEvents:withEvent:] | -[UIControl sendAction:to:forEvent:] | - [UIApplication sendAction:to:from:forEvent:] | -[**AViewController navigateToB**] | +[NSObject alloc] | +[NSObject allocWithZone:] | _internal_class_createInstance | _internal_class_createInstanceFromZone | calloc | malloc_zone_calloc Can someone please give me any ideas on what is happening here? In navigateToB method, once the bViewController is released (after pushViewController), that's should be it for bViewController. Nothing else even knows about it as it is local to the navigateToB method block and it has been released. When navigating from B back to A, nothing is invoked in viewDidLoad, viewWillAppear etc that will re-enter navigateToB. It looks like somehow search display controller has a reference to something in my AViewController and so as it is autoreleased it is taking this "something" down with it but I cannot understand how this is possible, especially as I'm using copy to pass data between A and B. I'm going potty over this. I'm sure this is my mistake somewhere and so I turn to you, Stack Overflow legends for any words of wisdom or advice on how to resolve this. Many Thanks.

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  • Dynamic Google Maps API InfoWindow HTML Content

    - by Peter Hanneman
    I am working in Flash Builder 4 with Google Map's ActionScript API. I have created a map, loaded some custom markers onto it and added some MouseEvent listeners to each marker. The trouble comes when I load an InfoWindow panel. I want to dynamically set the htmlContent based off of information stored in a database. The trouble is that this information can change every couple of seconds and each marker has a unique data set so I can not statically set it at the time I actually create the markers. I have a method that will every minute or so load all of the records from my database into an Object variable. Everything I need to display in the htmlContent is contained in this object under a unique identifier. The basic crux of the problem is that there is no way for me to uniquely identify an info window, so I can not determine what information to pull into the panel. marker.addEventListener(MapMouseEvent.ROLL_OVER, function(e:MapMouseEvent):void { showInfoWindow(e.latLng) }, false, 0, false); That is my mouse event listener. The function I call, "showInfowindow" looks like this: private function showInfoWindow(latlng:LatLng):void { var options:InfoWindowOptions = new InfoWindowOptions({title: appData[*I NEED A UNIQUE ID HERE!!!*].type + " Summary", contentHTML: appData[*I NEED A UNIQUE ID HERE!!!*].info}); this.map.openInfoWindow(latlng, options); } I thought I was onto something by being able to pass a variable in my event listener declaration, but it simply hates having a dynamic variable passed through, it only returns the last value use. Example: marker.addEventListener(MapMouseEvent.ROLL_OVER, function(e:MapMouseEvent):void { showInfoWindow(e.latLng, record.unit_id) }, false, 0, false); That solution is painfully close to working. I iterate through a loop to create my markers when I try the above solution and roll over a marker I get information, but every marker's information reflects whatever information the last marker created had. I apologize for the long explaination but I just wanted to make my question as clear as possible. Does anyone have any ideas about how to patch up my almost-there-solution that I posted at the bottom or any from the ground up solutions? Thanks in advance, Peter Hanneman

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  • SQL Query - group by more than one column, but distinct

    - by Ranhiru
    I have a bidding table, as follows: SellID INT FOREIGN KEY REFERENCES SellItem(SellID), CusID INT FOREIGN KEY REFERENCES Customer(CusID), Amount FLOAT NOT NULL, BidTime DATETIME DEFAULT getdate() Now in my website I need to show the user the current bids; only the highest bid but without repeating the same user. SELECT CusID, Max(Amount) FROM Bid WHERE SellID = 10 GROUP BY CusID ORDER BY Max(Amount) DESC This is the best I have achieved so far. This gives the CusID of each user with the maximum bid and it is ordered ascending. But I need to get the BidTime for each result as well. When I try to put the BidTime in to the query: SELECT CusID, Max(Amount), BidTime FROM Bid WHERE SellID = 10 GROUP BY CusID ORDER BY Max(Amount) DESC I am told that "Column 'Bid.BidTime' is invalid in the select list because it is not contained in either an aggregate function or the GROUP BY clause." Thus I tried: SELECT CusID, Max(Amount), BidTime FROM Bid WHERE SellID = 10 GROUP BY CusID, BidTime ORDER BY Max(Amount) DESC But this returns all the rows. No distinction. Any suggestions on solving this issue?

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  • Anything speaking against the bitnami.org Ruby/Rails/Redmine Stack?

    - by Pekka
    I am looking to set up a Redmine server on a Windows virtual machine on my local workstation. (Background in this related question.) I have zero knowledge of Ruby nor Rails, and while Redmine may be the opportunity to dip into those platforms somewhat, my first goal is to get it running as quickly and easily as possible. For that, I am eyeing the Bitnami Redmine Package. It promises point-and-click install, and a self-contained environment with everything you need. Apart from the learning factor, are there any serious limitations this method implies? Any serious cutdowns in customizability? I will be wanting to customize the template right away, for example, and install plugins. The package looks o.k. to me but before I install it, I was curious to know whether anybody would advise against it and why. Edit: The first impression is great. From 0 to a working Redmine installation in twelve minutes! Wow.

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  • SoundManager / Jquery : Get SoundID sID

    - by j-man86
    So I am trying to access a jquery soundmanager variable from one script (wpaudio.js – from the wp-audio plugin) inside of another (init.js – my own javascript). I am creating an alternate pause/play button higher up on the page and need to resume the current soundID, which is contained as part of a class name in the DOM. Here is the code that creates that class name in wpaudio.js: function wpaButtonCheck() { if (!this.playState || this.paused) jQuery('#' + this.sID + '_play').attr('src', wpa_url + '/wpa_play.png'); else jQuery('#' + this.sID + '_play').attr('src', wpa_url + '/wpa_pause.png'); } Here is the output: <img src="http://24.232.185.173/wordpress/wp-content/plugins/wpaudio-mp3-player/wpa_play.png" class="wpa_play" id="wpa0_play"> where wpa0 would be the sID of the sound I need. My current script in init.js is: $('.mixesSidebar #currentSong .playBtn').toggle(function() { soundManager.pauseAll(); $(this).addClass('paused'); }, function() { soundManager.resumeAll(); $(this).removeClass('paused'); }); I need to change resumeAll to "resume(this.sID)", but I need to somehow store the sID onclick and call it in the above function. Alternately, I think a regular expression that could get the class name of the current play button and either parse the string up to the "_play" or use a trim function to get rid of "_play"– but I'm not sure how to do this. Thanks for your help!

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  • Asp.Net Cache, modify an object from cache and it changes the cached value

    - by Glen
    Hi, I'm having an issue when using the Asp.Net Cache functionality. I add an object to the Cache then at another time I get that object from the Cache, modify one of it's properties then save the changes to the database. But, the next time I get the object from Cache it contains the changed values. So, when I modify the object it modifies the version which is contained in cache even though I haven't updated it in the Cache specifically. Does anyone know how I can get an object from the Cache which doesn't reference the cached version? i.e. Step 1: Item item = new Item(); item.Title = "Test"; Cache.Insert("Test", item, null, DateTime.Now.AddHours(1), System.Web.Caching.Cache.NoSlidingExpiration); Step 2: Item item = (Item)Cache.Get("test"); item.Title = "Test 1"; Step 3: Item item = (Item)Cache.Get("test"); if(item.Title == "Test 1"){ Response.Write("Object has been changed in the Cache."); } I realise that with the above example it would make sense that any changes to the item get reflected in cache but my situation is a bit more complicated and I definitely don't want this to happen.

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  • How do I avoid repetition in Java ResourceBundle strings?

    - by Trejkaz
    We had a lot of strings which contained the same sub-string, from sentences about checking the log or how to contact support, to branding-like strings containing the company or product name. The repetition was causing a few issues for ourselves (primarily typos or copy/paste errors) but it also causes issues in that it increases the amount of text our translator has to translate. The solution I came up with went something like this: public class ExpandingResourceBundleControl extends ResourceBundle.Control { public static final ResourceBundle.Control EXPANDING = new ExpandingResourceBundleControl(); private ExpandingResourceBundleControl() { } @Override public ResourceBundle newBundle(String baseName, Locale locale, String format, ClassLoader loader, boolean reload) throws IllegalAccessException, InstantiationException, IOException { ResourceBundle inner = super.newBundle(baseName, locale, format, loader, reload); return inner == null ? null : new ExpandingResourceBundle(inner, loader); } } ExpandingResourceBundle delegates to the real resource bundle but performs conversion of {{this.kind.of.thing}} to look up the key in the resources. Every time you want to get one of these, you have to go: ResourceBundle.getBundle("com/acme/app/Bundle", EXPANDING); And this works fine -- for a while. What eventually happens is that some new code (in our case autogenerated code which was spat out of Matisse) looks up the same resource bundle without specifying the custom control. This appears to be non-reproducible if you write a simple unit test which calls it with and then without, but it occurs when the application is run for real. Somehow the cache inside ResourceBundle ejects the good value and replaces it with the broken one. I am yet to figure out why and Sun's jar files were compiled without debug info so debugging it is a chore. My questions: Is there some way of globally setting the default ResourceBundle.Control that I might not be aware of? That would solve everything rather elegantly. Is there some other way of handling this kind of thing elegantly, perhaps without tampering with the ResourceBundle classes at all?

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  • Looking for streaming xml pretty printer in C/C++ using expat or libxml2

    - by Mark Zeren
    I'm looking for a streaming xml pretty printer for C/C++ that's either self contained or that uses libxml2 or expat. I've searched a bit and not found one. It seems like something that would be generally useful. Am I missing an obvious tool that does this? Background: I have a library that outputs xml without whitespace all on one line. In some cases I'd like to pretty print that output. I'm looking for a BSD-ish licensed C/C++ library or sample code that will take a raw xml byte stream and pretty print it. Here's some pseudo code showing one way that I might use this functionality: void my_write(const char* buf, int len); PrettyPrinter pp(bind(&my_write)); while (...) { // ... get some more xml ... const char* buf = xmlSource.get_buf(); int len = xmlSource.get_buf_len(); int written = pp.write(buf, len); // calls my_write with pretty printed xml // ... error handling, maybe call write again, etc. ... } I'd like to avoid instantiating a DOM representation. I already have dependencies on the expat and libxml2 shared libraries, and I'd rather not add any more shared library dependencies.

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  • How best to use XPath with very large XML files in .NET?

    - by glenatron
    I need to do some processing on fairly large XML files ( large here being potentially upwards of a gigabyte ) in C# including performing some complex xpath queries. The problem I have is that the standard way I would normally do this through the System.XML libraries likes to load the whole file into memory before it does anything with it, which can cause memory problems with files of this size. I don't need to be updating the files at all just reading them and querying the data contained in them. Some of the XPath queries are quite involved and go across several levels of parent-child type relationship - I'm not sure whether this will affect the ability to use a stream reader rather than loading the data into memory as a block. One way I can see of making it work is to perform the simple analysis using a stream-based approach and perhaps wrapping the XPath statements into XSLT transformations that I could run across the files afterward, although it seems a little convoluted. Alternately I know that there are some elements that the XPath queries will not run across, so I guess I could break the document up into a series of smaller fragments based on it's original tree structure, which could perhaps be small enough to process in memory without causing too much havoc. I've tried to explain my objective here so if I'm barking up totally the wrong tree in terms of general approach I'm sure you folks can set me right...

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  • How to return a recordset from a function

    - by Scott
    I'm building a data access layer in Excel VBA and having trouble returning a recordset. The Execute() function in my class is definitely retrieving a row from the database, but doesn't seem to be returning anything. The following function is contained in a class called DataAccessLayer. The class contains functions Connect and Disconnect which handle opening and closing the connection. Public Function Execute(ByVal sqlQuery as String) As ADODB.recordset Set recordset = New ADODB.recordset Dim recordsAffected As Long ' Make sure we are connected to the database. If Connect Then Set command = New ADODB.command With command .ActiveConnection = connection .CommandText = sqlQuery .CommandType = adCmdText End With ' These seem to be equivalent. 'Set recordset = command.Execute(recordsAffected) recordset.Open command.Execute(recordsAffected) Set Execute = recordset recordset.ActiveConnection = Nothing recordset.Close Set command = Nothing Call Disconnect End If Set recordset = Nothing End Function Here's a public function that I'm using in cell A1 of my spreadsheet for testing. Public Function Scott_Test() Dim Database As New DataAccessLayer 'Dim rs As ADODB.recordset 'Set rs = CreateObject("ADODB.Recordset") Set rs = New ADODB.recordset Set rs = Database.Execute("SELECT item_desc_1 FROM imitmidx_sql WHERE item_no = '11001'") 'rs.Open Database.Execute("SELECT item_desc_1 FROM imitmidx_sql WHERE item_no = '11001'") 'rs.Open ' This never displays. MsgBox rs.EOF If Not rs.EOF Then ' This is displaying #VALUE! in cell A1. Scott_Test = rs!item_desc_1 End If rs.ActiveConnection = Nothing Set rs = Nothing End Function What am I doing wrong?

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  • MS Source Server - source stream is apparently not there when viewing with srctool

    - by Tim Peel
    Hi, I have been playing around with the MS Source Server stuff in the MS Debugging Tools install. At present, I am running my code/pdbs through the Subversion indexing command, which is now running as expected. It creates the stream for a given pdb file and writes it to the pdb file. However when I use that DLL and associated pdb in visual studio 2008, it says the source code cannot be retrieved. If I check the pdb against srctool is says none of the source files contained are indexed, which is very strange as the process prior ran fine. If I check the stream that was generated from the svnindex.cmd run for the pdb, srctool says all source files are indexed. Why would there be a difference? I have opened the pdb file in a text editor and I can see the original references to the source files on my machine (also under the srcsrv header name) and the new "injected" source server links to my subversion repository). Should both references still exist in the pdb? I would have expected one to be removed? Either way, visual studio 2008 will not pick up my source references so I am a bit lost as to what to try next. As far as I can tell, I have done everything I should have. Anyone have similar experiences? Many thanks.

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  • WPF compile error "IDictionary must have a Key attribute"

    - by the empirical programmer
    I've created control styles I want to use among multiple xaml pages in my WPF app. To do this I created a Resources.xaml and added the styles there. Then in my pages I add this code <Grid.Resources> <ResourceDictionary> <ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> <ResourceDictionary Source="pack://application:,,,/SampleEventTask;component/Resources.xaml" /> </ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> </ResourceDictionary> </Grid.Resources> On two pages this works fine, but on the 3rd page I get a compile error that says: All objects added to an IDictionary must have a Key attribute or some other type of key associated with them. If I add a key to this, as such ResourceDictionary x:Key="x", then the compile error goes but on running the app it errors finding the style. I can make the compile error go away and have the app run by just moving original (no key specified) "ResourceDictionary" xaml from the top level Grid into a contained Grid on that page. But I don't understand what is going on here. Any suggestions as to what the problem is, I'm just missing something or doing something incorrectly. Is there a better way to share styles? thanks

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