Search Results

Search found 4703 results on 189 pages for 'emit knowledge'.

Page 172/189 | < Previous Page | 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179  | Next Page >

  • Ubuntu 12 crashed and took down network

    - by Leopd
    We recently set up a new Ubuntu 12.04LTS server on our network. It's not fully configured so it's not doing much beyond sshd and a default apache2 install. But this evening it appears to have crashed. It wasn't responding to the network or the keyboard. But the worst part is, it took down the entire network. My knowledge of the network stack below OSI layer 3 is very limited, so the rest confuses me. When this machine was physically connected to the network, no other machine could connect to the outside internet. When things were broken, running arp showed that our gateway's IP address (10.0.1.1) was listed as "invalid." Unplugging the server from the network fixed the problem, and plugging it back in broke it again. So the crashed server was advertising itself as owning the gateway's IP address? There's nothing at all in syslog during the time when it was causing problems. Any ideas about how to figure out what went wrong or what we can do to prevent it from happening again? I'm hesitant to even put the machine back on the network right now. Update ** It crashed again, and I ran tcpdump -penn arp (thanks bahamat!) for several minutes and got this... (timestamps and duplicate lines removed) 00:1e:65:f8:dc:24 > ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff, ethertype ARP (0x0806), length 60: Request who-has 10.0.1.1 tell 10.0.2.191, length 46 00:1e:65:f8:dc:24 > ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff, ethertype ARP (0x0806), length 60: Request who-has 10.0.1.44 tell 10.0.2.191, length 46 60:d8:19:d4:71:d6 > ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff, ethertype ARP (0x0806), length 60: Request who-has 10.0.1.1 tell 10.0.2.125, length 46 d4:9a:20:04:e9:78 > ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff, ethertype ARP (0x0806), length 42: Request who-has 192.168.1.1 tell 192.168.1.100, length 28 Update 2 ** When the network is functioning properly, arping -c4 10.0.1.1 returns this: ARPING 10.0.1.1 60 bytes from c0:c1:c0:77:25:8e (10.0.1.1): index=0 time=267.982 usec 60 bytes from c0:c1:c0:77:25:8e (10.0.1.1): index=1 time=422.955 usec 60 bytes from c0:c1:c0:77:25:8e (10.0.1.1): index=2 time=299.215 usec 60 bytes from c0:c1:c0:77:25:8e (10.0.1.1): index=3 time=366.926 usec --- 10.0.1.1 statistics --- 4 packets transmitted, 4 packets received, 0% unanswered (0 extra) When the bad server is plugged in, arping -c4 10.0.1.1 returns: ARPING 10.0.1.1 --- 10.0.1.1 statistics --- 4 packets transmitted, 0 packets received, 100% unanswered (0 extra) Context ** 10.0.x.x is the main subnet. 10.0.1.1 is the main internet gateway 10.0.1.44 is a printer 10.0.2.* devices are all laptops / workstations I have no idea what's using the 192.168.x.x subnet -- your guesses are at least as good as mine. A VM on a workstation? A misconfigured WAP? Somebody re-sharing wifi? A machine that failed to DHCP? The offending ubuntu server's MAC address ends in cd:80 so isn't listed in the dump. It should DHCP to 10.0.3.3 Thanks for any help. This ARP stuff is all voodoo to me. Packets just go to IP addresses, right? ;)

    Read the article

  • Why do we need different CPU architecture for server & mini/mainframe & mixed-core?

    - by claws
    Hello, I was just wondering what other CPU architectures are available other than INTEL & AMD. So, found List of CPU architectures on Wikipedia. It categorizes notable CPU architectures into following categories. Embedded CPU architectures Microcomputer CPU architectures Workstation/Server CPU architectures Mini/Mainframe CPU architectures Mixed core CPU architectures I was analyzing the purposes and have few doubts. I taking Microcomputer CPU (PC) architecture as reference and comparing others. Embedded CPU architecture: They are a completely new world. Embedded systems are small & do very specific task mostly real time & low power consuming so we do not need so many & such wide registers available in a microcomputer CPU (typical PC). In other words we do need a new small & tiny architecture. Hence new architecture & new instruction RISC. The above point also clarifies why do we need a separate operating system (RTOS). Workstation/Server CPU architectures I don't know what is a workstation. Someone clarify regarding the workstation. As of the server. It is dedicated to run a specific software (server software like httpd, mysql etc.). Even if other processes run we need to give server process priority therefore there is a need for new scheduling scheme and thus we need operating system different than general purpose one. If you have any more points for the need of server OS please mention. But I don't get why do we need a new CPU Architecture. Why cant Microcomputer CPU architecture do the job. Can someone please clarify? Mini/Mainframe CPU architectures Again I don't know what are these & what miniframes or mainframes used for? I just know they are very big and occupy complete floor. But I never read about some real world problems they are trying to solve. If any one working on one of these. Share your knowledge. Can some one clarify its purpose & why is it that microcomputer CPU archicture not suitable for it? Is there a new kind of operating system for this too? Why? Mixed core CPU architectures Never heard of these. If possible please keep your answer in this format: XYZ CPU architectures Purpose of XYZ Need for a new architecture. why can't current microcomputer CPU architecture work? They go upto 3GHZ & have upto 8 cores. Need for a new Operating System Why do we need a new kind of operating system for this kind of archictures?

    Read the article

  • Where should I go with hosting my site: VPS, GAE, another option?

    - by Jonathan Hayward
    My website, http://JonathansCorner.com/, began life before 1994 as www.imsa.edu/~jhayward/ and has been through various iterations and improvements to content, HTML, and the like, but remains a literature site that is from a web administrator's perspective fairly simple and primitive: a fair amount of static HTML and supporting files, a little bit of CGI and URI rewriting, .htaccess files providing Expires: headers and the like. An associated site demoes various CGI scripts that fall under the category of "and other creations"; the site as a whole has the purpose of sharing my creative works, and so far a fairly rudimentary use of Apache functionality, supported by Unix tools to, for instance, update RSS feed and the "starting point" link on the home page, has served that purpose fairly well. I looked around here on web hosting, and found the note on web host reccommendations as a good note for "What are some of people's favorite web hosts overall," but I wanted to ask a more focused question of "What are the best web hosts for criteria XYZ:" I am looking at a VPS so I will have root, be able to install stuff and edit Apache's config files etc., running Gentoo or other Linux, BSD, or the like. I would like a system that is secure enough that the host's vulnerabilities are mostly the ones that come along with what I am trying to do: that is, I won't be trying to administer and secure an ancient Linux like some have complained about at 1and1. I would like good uptime/reliability and competent support staff: if the level 1 help desk is going to tell me to go to "My Computer" on a Linux box, I'd like to be able to get past them. Ideally I would like a site hosted within some place that will have low latency for U.S. visitors in particular. I would like a hosting solution that will be with a stable business, one that will probably be around, and one unlikely to vanish without warning. With those things specified, I would be interested in knowing what are the less expensive options. (I expect that some of the things I've specified will knock out all of the cheapest options, but I'm still interested in price.) With all that stated, I'd like to back up a bit and look at whether I am asking the right question. I am concerned that the above is a very good way of asking, "How can I keep my site in line with the wave of the past?" I am wondering if it might be specifically wiser to look to adapt my site to newer technologies instead of trying to keep it on older technologies. For instance, while I would hardly portray my site as a way to show off the full power of Google App Engine, the main site at least should be a straightforward port if I were to do that. And beyond Google App Engine, my knowledge of cloud solutions is basic. If it is a better and more future-proof solution to port my site to another kind of solution, I would be interested in knowing where those future-proof solutions lie. So I would be interested in wisdom. If the question I asked in detail is still a good question to be asking, what would people suggest? Or if I should seriously consider porting my site to a newer basic option, what should I try there? Any thoughts would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Issues configuring Exchange 2010 as well as SSL problems.

    - by Eric Smith
    Possibly-Relevant Background Info: I've recently moved up from icky shared hosting to a glorious, Remote Desktop-administrated VPS server running Windows Server 2008 R2. Even though I'm only 21 now and a computer science major, I've tried to play with every Windows Server release since '03, just to learn new things. What usually happens is inevitably I'll do something wrong and pretty much ruin the install. You're dealing with an amateur here :) Through the past few months of working with my new server, I've mastered DNS, IIS, got Team Foundation Server running (yay!), and can install all of the other basics like SQL Server and Active Directory. The Problem: Now, these last few weeks I've been trying to install Exchange Server 2010 (SP1). To make a long story short, it took me several attempts, and I even had to get my server wiped just so I could start fresh since Exchange decided uninstalling properly was for sissies (cost me $20, bah). Today, at long last, I got Exchange mostly working. There were two main problems left, however, that left me unsatisfied: Exchange installed itself and all of its child sites into Default Web Site. I wanted to access Exchange via mail.domain.com, but instead everything was configured to domain.com. My limited server admin knowledge was not enough to configure IIS or Exchange to move itself over to the website I had set up for it, appropriately titled 'mail.domain.com', which I had bound to a dedicated IP address (I was told this was necessary, but he may have been wrong). I have two SSL certificates: one for my main domain and one for my mail subdomain. For whatever reason, I had issues geting Exchange to use my mail certificate, even though I had assigned the proper roles in the MMC. I did, at one point, get it to work (or mostly work, anyways. Frankly, my memory of today is clouded by intense frustration). Additionally, I was confused which type of SSL certificate I should be using for Exchange. My SSL provider, GoDaddy, allows me to request a new certificate whenever, so I can use either the certificate request provided by IIS or the more complicated and specific request you can create with Exchange. Which type should I be using, the IIS or Exchange certificate? If I must use the Exchange certificate, will that 1) cause issues when I bind that certificate to my mail.domain.com subdomain or 2) is that an unnecessary step? The SSL Certificate Strikes Back When I thought I had the proper SSL certificate assigned for those brief, sweet moments, Google Chrome reported the correct mail.domain.com certificate when browsing https://mail.domain.com. However, Outlook 2010 threw up an error when trying to configure my email account claiming that the certificate didn't match the domain of "mail.domain.com". Is this an issue that will be resolved by problem #2 or is it a separate one entirely? Apologies for the massive wall of text, but I wanted to provide as much info as I possibly could. Exchange is the last thing I'd like installed on my server, and naturally it's turning out to be the hardest. Thanks for any info at all. Even a point in a vague direction would be a huge help at this point. Thanks! -Eric P.S.: The reason I keep ruining my install is that when I attempt to uninstall Exchange, something invariably goes wrong. The last time the uninstaller complained that there was still a mailbox active and it couldn't proceed until I deleted it. ... The only mailbox left was the Administrator account, the built-in one I couldn't delete. So I attempted to manually uninstall it following several guides online only to now be stuck unable to launch the installer and have to get my system wiped AGAIN for the second time today ($40 down the drain, bah!). I do not understand at all why "uninstall" just can't mean "hey, you, delete everything and go away". There's not even a force uninstall option, only a "recover system" option that just fails to fix anything and makes it so I can't even use the GUI uninstaller. </rant>

    Read the article

  • Has this server been compromised?

    - by Griffo
    A friend is running a VPS (CentOS) His business partner was the sysadmin but has left him high and dry to look after the system. So, I've been asked to help out in fixing an apparent spam problem. His IP address got blacklisted for unsolicited mail. I'm not sure where to look for a problem, but I started with netstat to see what open connections were running. It looks to me like he has remote hosts connected to his SMTP server. Here's the output: Active Internet connections (w/o servers) Proto Recv-Q Send-Q Local Address Foreign Address State tcp 0 0 78.153.208.195:imap 86-40-60-183-dynamic.:10029 ESTABLISHED tcp 0 0 78.153.208.195:imap 86-40-60-183-dynamic.:10010 ESTABLISHED tcp 0 1 78.153.208.195:35563 news.avanport.pt:smtp SYN_SENT tcp 0 0 78.153.208.195:35559 vip-us-br-mx.terra.com:smtp TIME_WAIT tcp 0 0 78.153.208.195:35560 vip-us-br-mx.terra.com:smtp TIME_WAIT tcp 1 1 78.153.208.195:imaps 86-40-60-183-dynamic.:11647 CLOSING tcp 1 1 78.153.208.195:imaps 86-40-60-183-dynamic.:11645 CLOSING tcp 0 0 78.153.208.195:35562 mx.a.locaweb.com.br:smtp TIME_WAIT tcp 0 0 78.153.208.195:35561 mx.a.locaweb.com.br:smtp TIME_WAIT tcp 0 0 78.153.208.195:imap 86-41-8-64-dynamic.b-:49446 ESTABLISHED Does this indicate that his server may be acting as an open relay? Mail should only be outgoing from localhost. Apologies for my lack of knowledge but I don't work on linux in my day job. EDIT: Here's some output from /var/log/maillog which looks like it may be the result of spam. If it appears to be the case to others, where should I look next to investigate a root cause? I put the server IP through www.checkor.com and it came back clean. Jun 29 00:02:13 vps-1001108-595 qmail: 1309302133.721674 status: local 0/10 remote 9/20 Jun 29 00:02:13 vps-1001108-595 qmail: 1309302133.886182 delivery 74116: deferral: 200.147.36.15_does_not_like_recipient./Remote_host_said:_450_4.7.1_Client_host_rejected:_cannot_find_your_hostname,_[78.153.208.195]/Giving_up_on_200.147.36.15./ Jun 29 00:02:13 vps-1001108-595 qmail: 1309302133.886255 status: local 0/10 remote 8/20 Jun 29 00:02:13 vps-1001108-595 qmail: 1309302133.898266 delivery 74115: deferral: 187.31.0.11_does_not_like_recipient./Remote_host_said:_450_4.7.1_Client_host_rejected:_cannot_find_your_hostname,_[78.153.208.195]/Giving_up_on_187.31.0.11./ Jun 29 00:02:13 vps-1001108-595 qmail: 1309302133.898327 status: local 0/10 remote 7/20 Jun 29 00:02:14 vps-1001108-595 qmail: 1309302134.137833 delivery 74111: deferral: Sorry,_I_wasn't_able_to_establish_an_SMTP_connection._(#4.4.1)/ Jun 29 00:02:14 vps-1001108-595 qmail: 1309302134.137914 status: local 0/10 remote 6/20 Jun 29 00:02:19 vps-1001108-595 qmail: 1309302139.903536 delivery 74000: failure: 209.85.143.27_failed_after_I_sent_the_message./Remote_host_said:_550-5.7.1_[78.153.208.195_______1]_Our_system_has_detected_an_unusual_rate_of/550-5.7.1_unsolicited_mail_originating_from_your_IP_address._To_protect_our/550-5.7.1_users_from_spam,_mail_sent_from_your_IP_address_has_been_blocked./550-5.7.1_Please_visit_http://www.google.com/mail/help/bulk_mail.html_to_review/550_5.7.1_our_Bulk_Email_Senders_Guidelines._e25si1385223wes.137/ Jun 29 00:02:19 vps-1001108-595 qmail: 1309302139.903606 status: local 0/10 remote 5/20 Jun 29 00:02:19 vps-1001108-595 qmail-queue-handlers[15501]: Handlers Filter before-queue for qmail started ... EDIT #2 Here's the output of netstat -p with the imap and imaps lines removed. I also removed my own ssh session Active Internet connections (w/o servers) Proto Recv-Q Send-Q Local Address Foreign Address State PID/Program name tcp 0 1 78.153.208.195:40076 any-in-2015.1e100.net:smtp SYN_SENT 24096/qmail-remote. tcp 0 1 78.153.208.195:40077 any-in-2015.1e100.net:smtp SYN_SENT 24097/qmail-remote. udp 0 0 78.153.208.195:48515 125.64.11.158:4225 ESTABLISHED 20435/httpd

    Read the article

  • Bind9 Debian Not responding

    - by Marc
    Im trying to set up a webserver with Bind9, apache2 on Debian 6. I am trying to learn to do it manualy so I do not have any control panels or anything just the command line. I have a domain name lets call it www.example.com I want a virtual host setup so that I can have multiple websites with different names on my server. I have ns1.example.com and ns2.example.com registered at my servers IP (123.456.789.12). Below is my Bind9 named.conf.options options { directory "/var/cache/bind"; // If there is a firewall between you and nameservers you want // to talk to, you may need to fix the firewall to allow multiple // ports to talk. See http://www.kb.cert.org/vuls/id/800113 // If your ISP provided one or more IP addresses for stable // nameservers, you probably want to use them as forwarders. // Uncomment the following block, and insert the addresses replacing // the all-0's placeholder. // forwarders { // 0.0.0.0; // }; auth-nxdomain no; # conform to RFC1035 listen-on-v6 { any; }; }; This is the default I'm not sure if i was supposed to edit it. I didn't. Here is my named.conf.default-zones: // prime the server with knowledge of the root servers zone "." { type hint; file "/etc/bind/db.root"; }; // be authoritative for the localhost forward and reverse zones, and for // broadcast zones as per RFC 1912 zone "localhost" { type master; file "/etc/bind/db.local"; }; zone "127.in-addr.arpa" { type master; file "/etc/bind/db.127"; }; zone "0.in-addr.arpa" { type master; file "/etc/bind/db.0"; }; zone "255.in-addr.arpa" { type master; file "/etc/bind/db.255"; }; zone "example.com.com" { type master; file "etc/bind/example.com.db"; }; named.conf.local Is an empty file with a comment saying to do local configuration here. example.com.db looks like this: ; BIND data file for mywebsite.com ; $ORIGIN example.com. $TTL 604800 @ IN SOA ns1.example.com. [email protected]. ( 2009120101 ; Serial 604800 ; Refresh 86400 ; Retry 2419200 ; Expire 604800 ) ; Negative Cache TTL ; IN NS ns1.example.com. IN NS ns2.example.com. IN MX 10 mail.example.com. localhost IN A 127.0.0.1 example.com. IN A 123.456.789.12 ns1 IN A 123.456.789.12 ns2 IN A 123.456.789.12 www IN A 123.456.789.12 ftp IN A 123.456.789.12 mail IN A 123.456.789.12 boards IN CNAME www These are all settings I've found from various tutorials. Now when i go to intodns I get: You should already know that your NS records at your nameservers are missing, so here it is again: ns1.example.com ns2.example.com Can someone help me? I'm not sure what Im doing wrong.

    Read the article

  • How to use Public IP in case of two ISP when two differs from each other

    - by user1471995
    Please bare with my long explanation but this is important to explain the actual problem. Please also pardon my knowledge with PFsense as i am new to this. I have single PFSense box with 3 Ethernet adapter. Before moving to configuration for these, i want to let you know i have two Ethernet based Internet Leased Line Connectivity let's call them ISP A and ISP B. Then last inetrface is LAN which is connected to network switch. Typical network diagram ISP A ----- PFSense ----> Switch ---- > Servers ISP B ----- ISP A (Initially Purchased) WAN IP:- 113.193.X.X /29 Gateway IP :- 113.193.X.A and other 4 usable public IP in same subnet(So the gateway for those IP are also same). ISP B (Recently Purchased) WAN IP:- 115.115.X.X /30 Gateway IP :- 115.115.X.B and other 5 usable public IP in different subnet(So the gateway for those IP is different), for example if 115.119.X.X2 is one of the IP from that list then the gateway for this IP is 115.119.X.X1. Configuration for 3 Interfaces Interface : WAN Network Port : nfe0 Type : Static IP Address : 113.193.X.X /29 Gateway : 113.193.X.A Interface : LAN Network Port : vr0 Type : Static IP Address : 192.168.1.1 /24 Gateway : None Interface : RELWAN Network Port : rl0 Type : Static IP Address : 115.115.X.X /30 (I am not sure of the subnet) Gateway : 115.115.X.B To use Public IP from ISP A i have done following steps a) Created Virtual IP using either ARP or IP Alias. b) Using Firewall: NAT: Port Forward i have created specific natting from one public IP to my internal Lan private IP for example :- WAN TCP/UDP * * 113.193.X.X1 53 (DNS) 192.168.1.5 53 (DNS) WAN TCP/UDP * * 113.193.X.X1 80 (HTTP) 192.168.1.5 80 (HTTP) WAN TCP * * 113.193.X.X2 80 (HTTP) 192.168.1.7 80 (HTTP) etc., c) Current state for Firewall: NAT: Outbound is Manual and whatever default rule are defined for the WAN those are only present. d) If this section in relevant then for Firewall: Rules at WAN tab then following default rule has been generated. * RFC 1918 networks * * * * * Block private networks * Reserved/not assigned by IANA * * * * * * To use Public IP from ISP B i have done following steps a) Created Virtual IP using either ARP or IP Alias. b) Using Firewall: NAT: Port Forward i have created specific natting from one public IP to my internal Lan private IP for example :- RELWAN TCP/UDP * * 115.119.116.X.X1 80 (HTTP) 192.168.1.11 80 (HTTP) c) Current state for Firewall: NAT: Outbound is Manual and whatever default rule are defined for the RELWAN those are only present. d) If this section in relevant then for Firewall: Rules at RELWAN tab then following default rule has been generated. * RFC 1918 networks * * * * * * Reserved/not assigned by IANA * * * * * * Last thing before my actual query is to make you aware that to have multiple Wan setup i have done following steps a) Under System: Gateways at Groups Tab i have created new group as following MultipleGateway WANGW, RELWAN Tier 2,Tier 1 Multiple Gateway Test b) Then Under Firewall: Rules at LAN tab i have created a rule for internal traffic as follows * LAN net * * * MultipleGateway none c) This setup works if unplug first ISP traffic start routing using ISP 2 and vice-versa. Now my main query and problem is i am not able to use public IP address allocated by ISP B, i have tried many small tweaks but not successful in anyone. The notable difference between the two ISP is a) In case of ISP A there Public usable IP address are on same subnet so the gateway used for the WAN ip is same for the other public IP address. b) In case of ISP B there public usable IP address are on different subnet so the obvious the gateway IP for them is different from WAN gateway's IP. Please let me know how to use ISP B public usable IP address, in future also i am going to rely for more IPs from ISP B only.

    Read the article

  • Windows Media Player won't launch on Vista - how to repair or reinstall it?

    - by rpm1200
    My friend asked me to look at her Acer Aspire laptop with Vista Home Premium as it is no longer playing DVDs. I found that Windows Media Player would not launch. I found this thread, which contained a number of suggestions, none of which solved the problem. Here is what I tried: Tried running WMP via desktop shortcut, QuickLaunch bar or going to Program Files\Windows Media Player\wmplayer.exe. In all cases, wmplayer would launch then terminate immediately (verified through the Processes tab in Task Manager). Tried running wmplayer.exe as Administrator. The UAC dialog would come up, I'd approve, then wmplayer would launch and terminate immediately. Uninstalled all non-Microsoft media programs except RealPlayer, iTunes, QuickTime, Acer Arcade (the laptop owner uses all those apps). Tried running Program Files\Windows Media Player\setup_wm.exe as Administrator, it launched but said that a newer version of WMP was already installed. Deleted the "Windows Media" folder located under %userprofile%\appdata\local\Microsoft then tried starting WMP - wmplayer would launch and terminate immediately. Register wmp.dll by typing "regsvr32 wmp.dll" in an Administrator cmd window then tried starting WMP - wmplayer would launch and terminate immediately. Run "SFC /SCANFILE" in an Administrator cmd window - get an error message that it found invalid system files and could not fix them, so look at the log file cbs.log. The log file shows that there are broken files associated with Windows Sidebar (which the user does not use) but none relating to WMP. Log off to safe mode and run "SFC /SCANFILE" in an Administrator cmd window again - same results. Try to download and install XP WMP - the microsoft.com site recognizes the OS as Genuine and allows the download, but when I launch the installer it says the system is not Genuine. Clicking the link directs me back to IE where I can authenticate the system as Genuine. The installer still fails to recognize the system as Genuine. It is a Genuine Vista installation. Try to run this update (KB931621). The installer said it did not apply to the system. Set Windows Media Player as default in Program Access and Defaults. Same results. Tried running "for %a in (%systemroot%\system32\wm*.dll) do regsvr32 /s %a" in an Administrator cmd window - same results. Went to this Knowledge Base article (947541) and ran the Microsoft Fix It. The Fix It ran successfully, but WMP would still launch and terminate immediately. Multiple reboots in the process of doing all of these steps. After all this, looked in the Application and Security logs. No events pertaining to WMP were logged. The computer was preinstalled with Vista Home Premium and I have the Acer backup DVDs which will reimage the drive. I do not have Vista install DVDs. Reimaging the system is not an option. I'd also rather not restore the system to an earlier point unless it's absolutely necessary. What else can I do to repair or reinstall WMP?

    Read the article

  • How to stop windows resizing when the monitor display channel is turned off / switched to different source

    - by Heartspeace
    Have a new 6870 ati radeon adapter with its drivers set to 1080p 60hz resolution hooked up to a 2008 47" high end Samsung HDMI based TV. However, when the tv is turned to a different hdmi input -(when I come back into windows) somehow Windows decides to resize all the open apps to a lower resolution - including some of the side docked hidden pop-outs. When it resizes those though - it just sticked the pop-outs in the middle of the screen and all the resized windows from the open applications in the top left corner - all of them stacked on top of each other and resized to the smaller resolution. The things that seem to be ok after returning are the icons on the desktop, the taskbar, and the sidebar. Anyone have any knowledge of 1) how this happens 2) why it happens 3) how to stop it from resizing the applications and some of the docked pop-outs (they are not really resized after returning - they are just stuck in the middle of the screen approximately where they would be if the right or bottom sidebar should be if the screen was resized to that lower resolution). My hypothesis is that upon losing HDMI signal - that Windows is told by something (driver, or windows itself) that the resolution to be without a signal being present (noting that HDMI signals and handshakes are two way on HDMI devices. If it loses the signal or the tv is switched to another device - then the display adapter must figure that out and tell Windows or figures it out and designs randomly to change the display size). Any and all help is most appreciated. I asked AMD/ATI - but they said they don't know why or how this is happening. I was hoping that maybe this is THE place that the super users truly go to - those that develop display adapter drivers, or that dive deeply into these areas of windows. If there is better sites or just competing sites - please advise - noting I have already written AMD/ATI. HP Response / Additions 4/7/2011 It is really nice to get your reply Shinrai. (BTW is it proper etiquette on these forums to have a discussion?) Yet 'only one issue' - I am using a single display in this case - so Windows doesn't move application windows to another desktop. Windows (or something) decides to shrink the desktop it currently has and resize all windows to the maximum size of the desktop. As such I would be glad if Windows would just keep the current size of the one desktop that is in operation. I also know that this does NOT happen on monitors connected with DVI. There I have had one and two monitors setup and it doesn't resize those screens at all when disconnecting monitors, turning them off, whatever... they stay solid - everything in place - to such an extent that if you forgot the other monitor is off - you will have troubles finding some windows without using one of the control app utilities. So if I could even get the HDMI handling by Windows (or the display driver) ( 1] which is doing this anyway the display driver or Windows - and 2] where is that other resolution size (1024x768) coming from - its not the smallest and its not the largest?) to be having like DVI - Life would be golden (for this aspect anyway). ** found others with same problem in this thread: http://hardforum.com/showthread.php?t=1507324 Thanks, HP

    Read the article

  • Windows Media Player won't launch on Vista - how to repair or reinstall it?

    - by rpm1200
    My friend asked me to look at her Acer Aspire laptop with Vista Home Premium as it is no longer playing DVDs. I found that Windows Media Player would not launch. I found this thread, which contained a number of suggestions, none of which solved the problem. Here is what I tried: Tried running WMP via desktop shortcut, QuickLaunch bar or going to Program Files\Windows Media Player\wmplayer.exe. In all cases, wmplayer would launch then terminate immediately (verified through the Processes tab in Task Manager). Tried running wmplayer.exe as Administrator. The UAC dialog would come up, I'd approve, then wmplayer would launch and terminate immediately. Uninstalled all non-Microsoft media programs except RealPlayer, iTunes, QuickTime, Acer Arcade (the laptop owner uses all those apps). Tried running Program Files\Windows Media Player\setup_wm.exe as Administrator, it launched but said that a newer version of WMP was already installed. Deleted the "Windows Media" folder located under %userprofile%\appdata\local\Microsoft then tried starting WMP - wmplayer would launch and terminate immediately. Register wmp.dll by typing "regsvr32 wmp.dll" in an Administrator cmd window then tried starting WMP - wmplayer would launch and terminate immediately. Run "SFC /SCANFILE" in an Administrator cmd window - get an error message that it found invalid system files and could not fix them, so look at the log file cbs.log. The log file shows that there are broken files associated with Windows Sidebar (which the user does not use) but none relating to WMP. Log off to safe mode and run "SFC /SCANFILE" in an Administrator cmd window again - same results. Try to download and install XP WMP - the microsoft.com site recognizes the OS as Genuine and allows the download, but when I launch the installer it says the system is not Genuine. Clicking the link directs me back to IE where I can authenticate the system as Genuine. The installer still fails to recognize the system as Genuine. It is a Genuine Vista installation. Try to run this update (KB931621). The installer said it did not apply to the system. Set Windows Media Player as default in Program Access and Defaults. Same results. Tried running "for %a in (%systemroot%\system32\wm*.dll) do regsvr32 /s %a" in an Administrator cmd window - same results. Went to this Knowledge Base article (947541) and ran the Microsoft Fix It. The Fix It ran successfully, but WMP would still launch and terminate immediately. Multiple reboots in the process of doing all of these steps. After all this, looked in the Application and Security logs. No events pertaining to WMP were logged. The computer was preinstalled with Vista Home Premium and I have the Acer backup DVDs which will reimage the drive. I do not have Vista install DVDs. Reimaging the system is not an option. I'd also rather not restore the system to an earlier point unless it's absolutely necessary. What else can I do to repair or reinstall WMP?

    Read the article

  • I am getting a 400 Bad Request error when using Nginx and PHP-FPM, why?

    - by Bob
    I am trying to run a website (that requires PHP - it technically doesn't require MySQL at this time, but it may sometime in the near future as I continue developing it, so I went ahead and installed that as well) using nginx 1.2.4 and PHP-FPM 5.3.3 on Ubuntu 12.04.1 LTS. As far as I know, I haven't done anything wrong, but clearly something is not quite right - I seem to be getting a 400 Bad Request error whenever I try to browse to my website. I've been mostly following one guide, and I've done more or less everything it recommends, except for not setting up PHP-FPM to use a Unix Socket and I used service as opposed to /etc/init.d/ when starting/stopping nginx, PHP, and MySQL. Anyways, here are my relevant configuration files (I have only censored personal/sensitive details, like my domain name - which contains my real name): /etc/nginx/nginx.conf user www-data; worker_processes 4; pid /var/run/nginx.pid; events { worker_connections 768; # multi_accept on; } http { ## # Basic Settings ## sendfile on; tcp_nopush on; tcp_nodelay on; keepalive_timeout 15; types_hash_max_size 2048; # server_tokens off; # server_names_hash_bucket_size 64; # server_name_in_redirect off; include /etc/nginx/mime.types; default_type application/octet-stream; ## # Logging Settings ## access_log /var/log/nginx/access.log; error_log /var/log/nginx/error.log; ## # Gzip Settings ## gzip on; gzip_disable "msie6"; # gzip_vary on; # gzip_proxied any; # gzip_comp_level 6; # gzip_buffers 16 8k; # gzip_http_version 1.1; # gzip_types text/plain text/css application/json application/x-javascript text/xml application/xml application/xml+rss text/javascript; ## # nginx-naxsi config ## # Uncomment it if you installed nginx-naxsi ## #include /etc/nginx/naxsi_core.rules; ## # nginx-passenger config ## # Uncomment it if you installed nginx-passenger ## #passenger_root /usr; #passenger_ruby /usr/bin/ruby; ## # Virtual Host Configs ## include /etc/nginx/conf.d/*.conf; include /etc/nginx/sites-enabled/*; } /etc/nginx/sites-enabled/subdomain.mydomain.net server { listen 80; # listen for IPv4 listen [::]:80; # listen for IPv6 server_name www.subdomain.mydomain.net subdomain.mydomain.net; access_log /srv/www/subdomain.mydomain.net/logs/access.log; error_log /srv/www/subdomain.mydomain.net/logs/error.log; location / { root /srv/www/subdomain.mydomain.net/public; index index.php; } location ~ \.php$ { try_files $uri =400; include fastcgi_params; fastcgi_split_path_info ^(.+\.php)(/.+)$; fastcgi_pass 127.0.0.1:9000; fastcgi_index index.php; fastcgi_param SCRIPT_FILENAME /srv/www/subdomain.mydomain.net/public$fastcgi_script_name; } } All the directories listed in the configuration files above are correct on my server (to the extent of my knowledge). I have not included /etc/php5/fpm/pool.d/www.conf or /etc/php5/fpm/php.ini in this post as they're rather long, but I have posted them on Pastebin: http://pastebin.com/ensErJD8 and http://pastebin.com/T23dt7vM, respectively. Although, the only thing I've changed in either of the two files was in php.ini, where I set expose_php to off so as to hide the .php file extension from users. What can I do to resolve my issue? Please let me know if I need to supply any additional details.

    Read the article

  • Network config / gear question

    - by mcgee1234
    I have been tasked with setting up a fairly straightforward rack in a data center (we do not even need a whole rack, but this is the smallest allotment available). In a nutshell, 4 to 6 servers need to be able to reach 2 (maybe 3) vendors. The servers needs to be reachable over the internet. A little more detail - the networks the servers need to reach are inside of the data center, and are "trusted". Connections to these networks will be achieved through intra data center cross connects. It is kind of like a manufacturing line where we receive data from one vendor (burst-able up to 200 Mbits), churn through it on the servers, and then send out data to another vendor (bursts up to 20 Mbits). This series of events is very latency sensitive, so much so that it is common practice not to use NAT or a firewall on these segments (or so I hear). To reach the servers over the internet, I plan to use a site to site VPN. (This part is only relevant as far as hardware selection goes). I have 2 configurations in mind: Cisco 2911 (2921) (with the additional wan ports module) and a layer 2 switch - in this scenario, I would use the router also for VPN. Cisco 3560 layer 3 switch to interconnect the networks inside of the data center and an ASA 5510 (which is total overkill, but the 5505 is not rack mountable) as a firewall for the Wan side (internet) and VPN. I envision the setup to be as follows: Internet - ASA - 3560 Vendors - 3560 - Servers The general idea is that the ASA acts as a firewall and VPN device and the 3560 does all the heavy lifting. The first is a fairly traditional setup but my concern is performance. The second is somewhat unorthodox in that the vendors are directly connected to the layer 3 switch without passing through a firewall. Based on my understanding however, a layer 3 switch will perform substantially better as it will do hardware (ASIC) vs. software switching. (Note that number 2 is a little over the budget, but not unworkable (double negative, ugh)) Since this is my first time dealing with a data center, I am not sure what the IP space is going to look like. I suspect I will retain a block(s) of public IPs, vlan them to individual interfaces for the vendor connections and the servers (which will not reachable from the wan side of course) and setup routing on the switch. So here are my questionss: Is there a substantial performance difference between 1 and 2, i.e. hardware based switching on a layer 3 vs a software base on the 2911? I have trolled the internet and found a lot of Cisco literature, but nothing that I could really use to get a good handle. The vendors we connect to are secure and trusted (famous last words) and as I understand it, it is common practice not to NAT or firewall these connections (because of the aforementioned latency sensitivity). But what what kind of latency are we really talking about if I push the data through a router (or even ASA for that matter)? For our purposes, 5 ms will not kill us, 20 or 30 can be very costly. Others measure in microseconds, but they are out of our league. Is there any issues with using public IPs on a layer 3 switch? I am certainly not married to either of these configs, and I am totally open to any ideas. My knowledge (and I use the term loosely) is largely from books so I welcome any advice / insight. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Get Local IP-Address using Boost.Asio

    - by MOnsDaR
    Hey, I'm currently searching for a portable way of getting the local IP-addresses. Because I'm using Boost anyway I thought it would be a good idea to use Boost.Asio for this task. There are serveral examples on the net which should do the trick. Examples: Official Boost.Asio Documentation Some Asian Page I tried both codes with just slight modifications. The Code on Boost.Doc was changed to not resolve "www.boost.org" but "localhost" or my hostname instead. For getting the hostname I used boost::asio::ip::host_name() or typed it directly as a string. Additionally I wrote my own code which was a merge of the above examples and my (little) knowledge I gathered from the Boost Documentation and other examples. All the sources worked, but they did just return the following IP: 127.0.1.1 (Thats not a typo, its .1.1 at the end) I run and compiled the code on Ubuntu 9.10 with GCC 4.4.1 A colleague tried the same code on his machine and got 127.0.0.2 (Not a typo too...) He compiled and run on Suse 11.0 with GCC 4.4.1 (I'm not 100% sure) I don't know if it is possible to change the localhost (127.0.0.1), but I know that neither me or my colleague did it. ifconfig says loopback uses 127.0.0.1. ifconfig also finds the public IP I am searching for (141.200.182.30 in my case, subnet is 255.255.0.0) So is this a Linux-issue and the code is not as portable as I thought? Do I have to change something else or is Boost.Asio not working as a solution for my problem at all? I know there are much questions about similar topics on Stackoverflow and other pages, but I cannot find information which is useful in my case. If you got useful links, it would be nice if you could point me to it. Thanks in advance, MOnsDaR PS: Here is the modified code I used from Boost.Doc: #include <boost/asio.hpp> using boost::asio::ip::tcp; boost::asio::io_service io_service; tcp::resolver resolver(io_service); tcp::resolver::query query(boost::asio::ip::host_name(), ""); tcp::resolver::iterator iter = resolver.resolve(query); tcp::resolver::iterator end; // End marker. while (iter != end) { tcp::endpoint ep = *iter++; std::cout << ep << std::endl; }

    Read the article

  • Debugging XSLT with extension objects in Visual Studio 2010

    - by Alex Ciminian
    I'm currently working on a project that involves a lot of XSLT transformations and I really need a debugger (I have XSLTs that are 1000+ lines long and I didn't write them :-). The project is written in C# and makes use of extension objects: xslArg.AddExtensionObject("urn:<obj>", new <Obj>()); From my knowledge, in this situation Visual Studio is the only tool that can help me debug the transformations step-by-step. The static debugger is no use because of the extension objects (it throws an error when it reaches elements that reference their namespace). Fortunately, I've found this thread which gave me a starting point (at least I know it can be done). After searching MSDN, I found the criteria that makes stepping into the transform possible. They are listed here. In short: the XML and the XSLT must be loaded via a class that has the IXmlLineInfo interface (XmlReader & co.) the XML resolver used in the XSLTCompiledTransform constructor is file-based (XmlUriResolver should work). the stylesheet should be on the local machine or on the intranet (?) From what I can tell, I fit all these criteria, but it still doesn't work. The relevant code samples are posted below: // [...] xslTransform = new XslCompiledTransform(true); xslTransform.Load(XmlReader.Create(new StringReader(contents)), null, new BaseUriXmlResolver(xslLocalPath)); // [...] // I already had the xml loaded in an xmlDocument // so I have to convert to an XmlReader XmlTextReader r = new XmlTextReader(new StringReader(xmlDoc.OuterXml)); XsltArgumentList xslArg = new XsltArgumentList(); xslArg.AddExtensionObject("urn:[...]", new [...]()); xslTransform.Transform(r, xslArg, context.Response.Output); I really don't get what I'm doing wrong. I've checked the interfaces on both XmlReader objects and they implement the required one. Also, BaseUriXmlResolver inherits from XmlUriResolver and the stylesheet is stored locally. The screenshot below is what I get when stepping into the Transform function. First I can see the stylesheet code after stepping through the parameters (on template-match), I get this: If anyone has any idea why it doesn't work or has an alternative way of getting it to work I'd be much obliged :). Thanks, Alex

    Read the article

  • MKMapView memory usage grows out of control with setRegion: calls

    - by Kurt
    Hi, I have a single MKMapView instance that I have programmatically added to a UIView. As part of the UI, the user can cycle through a list of addresses and the map view is updated to show the correct map for each address as the user goes through them. I create the map view once, and simply change what it displays with setRegion:animated:. The problem is that each time the map is changed to show a new address, the memory usage of my program increases by 200K-500K (as reported by Memory Monitor in Instruments). According to Object Allocations, it appears that a lot of 1.0K Mallocs are happening each time, and the Extended Detail pane for these 1.0K allocations shows that the Responsible Caller is convert_image_data and the Extended Detail pane shows that this is the result of [MKMapTileView drawLayer:inContext:]. So, seems likely to me that the memory usage is due to MKMapView not freeing memory it uses to redraw the map each time. In fact, when I don't display the map at all (by not even adding it as a subview of my main UIView) but still cycle through the addresses (which changes various UILabels and other displayed info) the memory usage for the app does NOT increase. If I add the map view but never update it with setRegion:, the memory also does NOT increase when changing to a new address. One more bit of info: if I go to a new address (and therefore ask the map to display the new address) the memory jumps as described above. However, if I go back to an address that was already displayed, the memory does not jump when the map redraws with the old address. Also, this happens on iPad (real device) with 3.2 and on iPhone (again, real device) with 3.1.2. Here's how I initialize the MKMapView (I only do this once): CGRect mapFrame; mapFrame.origin.y = 460; // yes, magic numbers. just for testing. mapFrame.origin.x = 0; mapFrame.size.height = 500; mapFrame.size.width = 768; mapView = [[MKMapView alloc] initWithFrame:mapFrame]; mapView.delegate = self; [self.view insertSubview:mapView atIndex:0]; And in response to the user selecting an address, I set the map like so: MKCoordinateRegion region; MKCoordinateSpan span; span.latitudeDelta=kStreetMapSpan; // 0.003 span.longitudeDelta=kStreetMapSpan; // 0.003 region.center = address.coords; // coords is CLLocationCoordinate2D region.span = span; mapView.region.span = span; [mapView setRegion:region animated:NO]; Any thoughts? I've scoured the net but haven't seen mention of this problem, and I've reached the limits of my Instruments knowledge. Thanks for any ideas.

    Read the article

  • Multi-step Workflows: make Workflow A depend on results of Workflow B and/or Workflow C

    - by Joey
    I have been tasked with creating a Software Installation Approval section for our Intranet. When a person requests that a particular piece of software be installed on their workstation, we need to get IT approval and then business approval. Once those are obtained, it is to be installed. I am using Sharepoint Designer to do this. I have List A, where the user enters the information on the requested software. Workflow A then creates a Task in List B, which is then assigned to the IT approver. Workflow B works on List B on item creation, setting the due dates, titles, and other fields, and then pauses until the due date. The IT approver works with the business side and completes the task. Once List B task is complete, the item in List A should be marked as complete -- I have everything up to this point working fine. I want to make this more robust in 2 ways. As the only real option is to mark List B task as "completed", which essentially means "Approved", we have no way of really denying a request. What I want to add is the option to approve or deny a request through the task on List B -- if it is approved, I want the item in List A to continue to show "In Progress" with a custom status of "Approved", and I want to create a new task for software installation; once the installation task is marked as completed, then I want List A to show "Completed" with a status of "Installed". If it is denied, I want the item in List A to show as "Completed", with a status of "Denied". The problem is, I'm not even sure where to start making these modifications. Creating and modifying the custom status fields isn't that big of an issue -- I have messed around with this and I'm fairly confident I can do this easily. My main concern is that I know I will need a Workflow C, but I don't know where or how to trigger this to get the results I need. I've managed to get Workflows A and B working fine, but anything beyond this is really pushing the limit of my knowledge. It's probably obvious that I am rather new to Sharepoint workflows. I was very much thrust into this position and I am still feeling my way around. Thanks in advance for any help!

    Read the article

  • Are PackageMaker installations with preinstall scripts broken on Snow Leopard?

    - by Stu Thompson
    Everything worked on 10.5, but now my PackageMaker installation project is broken. I've been fighting a problem for a few days now, and either Snow Leopard (OS X 10.6.1) has broken PackageMaker installations I am lacking a very, very basic tidbit of knowledge To narrow down the problem, I've gotten to this point: Create a new PackageMaker installation Have it install a jpeg image into my home directoy Define a preinstall script that does nothing #/bin/sh exit 0 Run the above...and watch it fail with the below error message like clock work Sep 14 15:09:45 manoa installd[5620]: PackageKit: ----- Begin install ----- Sep 14 15:09:45 manoa installd[5620]: PackageKit: request=PKInstallRequest <1 packages, destination=/> Sep 14 15:09:45 manoa installd[5620]: PackageKit: packages=(\n "PKLeopardPackage <file://localhost/Users/stu/Desktop/asdf.pkg>"\n) Sep 14 15:09:46 manoa installd[5620]: PackageKit: Extracting /Users/stu/Desktop/asdf.pkg (destination=/var/folders/Hb/HbXJFyEpFaupt5QyLN-pTk+++TI/-Tmp-/PKInstallSandbox-tmp/Root/~, uid=501) Sep 14 15:09:46 manoa installd[5620]: PackageKit: Executing script "./preinstall" in /private/tmp/PKInstallSandbox.cmlS2H/Scripts/test.test.5year_header.pkg.PFrHNB Sep 14 15:09:46 manoa installd[5620]: PackageKit: *** launch path not accessible Sep 14 15:09:46 manoa installd[5620]: PackageKit: Install Failed: PKG: pre-install scripts for "test.test.5year_header.pkg"\nError Domain=PKInstallErrorDomain Code=112 UserInfo=0x100149430 "An error occurred while running scripts from the package “asdf”." {\n NSFilePath = "./preinstall";\n NSLocalizedDescription = "An error occurred while running scripts from the package \U201casdf\U201d.";\n NSURL = "file://localhost/Users/stu/Desktop/asdf.pkg";\n PKInstallPackageIdentifier = "test.test.5year_header.pkg";\n} Sep 14 15:09:46 manoa Installer[5614]: install:didFailWithError:Error Domain=PKInstallErrorDomain Code=112 UserInfo=0x1195917c0 "An error occurred while running scripts from the package “asdf”." Sep 14 15:09:46 manoa Installer[5614]: Install failed: The Installer encountered an error that caused the installation to fail. Contact the software manufacturer for assistance. Sep 14 15:09:47 manoa Installer[5614]: IFDInstallController 144040 state = 7 Sep 14 15:09:47 manoa Installer[5614]: Displaying 'Install Failed' UI. Sep 14 15:09:47 manoa Installer[5614]: 'Install Failed' UI displayed message:'The Installer encountered an error that caused the installation to fail. Contact the software manufacturer for assistance.'. There is no file in /private/tmp/PKInstallSandbox.cmlS2H/Scripts/test.test.5year_header.pkg.PFrHNB/, which makes me think the problem is with PackageMaker, and not me. But I'm new to the world of OS X software installation, so doubts remain. So, the question: Is PackageMaker with a preinstall script broken on OS X 10.6? Or is there some requirement regarding preinstall scripts that I do not understand?

    Read the article

  • NHibernate: No persister error

    - by Mike
    Hello, In my quest to further my knowledge, I'm trying to get get NHibernate running. I have the following structure to my solution Core Class Library Project Infrastructure Class Library Project MVC Application Project Test Project In my Core project I have created the following entity: using System; namespace Core.Domain.Model { public class Category { public virtual Guid Id { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } } } In my Infrastructure Project I have the following mapping: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" namespace="Core.Domain.Model" assembly="Core"> <class name="Category" table="Categories" dynamic-update="true"> <cache usage="read-write"/> <id name="Id" column="Id" type="Guid"> <generator class="guid"/> </id> <property name="Name" length="100"/> </class> </hibernate-mapping> With the following config file: <hibernate-configuration xmlns="urn:nhibernate-configuration-2.2"> <session-factory> <property name="connection.driver_class">NHibernate.Driver.SqlClientDriver</property> <property name="connection.connection_string">server=xxxx;database=xxxx;Integrated Security=true;</property> <property name="show_sql">true</property> <property name="dialect">NHibernate.Dialect.MsSql2008Dialect</property> <property name="cache.use_query_cache">false</property> <property name="adonet.batch_size">100</property> <property name="proxyfactory.factory_class">NHibernate.ByteCode.Castle.ProxyFactoryFactory, NHibernate.ByteCode.Castle</property> <mapping assembly="Infrastructure" /> </session-factory> </hibernate-configuration> In my test project, I have the following Test [TestMethod] [DeploymentItem("hibernate.cfg.xml")] public void CanCreateCategory() { IRepository<Category> repo = new CategoryRepository(); Category category = new Category(); category.Name = "ASP.NET"; repo.Save(category); } I get the following error when I try to run the test: Test method Volunteer.Tests.CategoryTests.CanCreateCategory threw exception: NHibernate.MappingException: No persister for: Core.Domain.Model.Category. Any help would be greatly appreciated. I do have the cfg build action set to embedded resource. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Flash -> ByteArray -> AMFPHP -> Invalid Image !??

    - by undefined
    Hi, Im loading images into Flash and using JPGEncoder to encode the image to a ByteArray and send this to AMF PHP which writes out the bytearray to a file. This all appears to work correctly and I can download the resulting file in Photoshop CS4 absolutely fine. When i try to open it from the desktop or open it back in Flash it doesnt work... Picasa my default image browser says "Invalid" Here is the code i use to write the bytearray to a file - $jpg = $GLOBALS["HTTP_RAW_POST_DATA"]; file_put_contents($filename, $jpg); That's it ... I use the NetConnection class to connect and call the service, do I need to say Im sending jpg data? I assumed that JPGEncoder took care of that. How can I validate the bytearray before writing the file? Do I need to set MIME type or something .. excuse the slightly noob questions, a little knowledge can be a dangerous thing. Thanks --------------------------------------- PART II ------------------------------------------ Here is some code - 1) load the image into Flash player item.load(); function _onImageDataLoaded(evt:Event):void { var tmpFileRef:FileReference=FileReference(evt.target); image_loader=new Loader ; image_loader.contentLoaderInfo.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, _onImageLoaded); image_loader.loadBytes(tmpFileRef.data); } function _onImageLoaded(evt:Event):void { bitmap=Bitmap(evt.target.content); bitmap.smoothing=true; if (bitmap.width>MAX_WIDTH||bitmap.height>MAX_HEIGHT) { resizeBitmap(bitmap); } uploadResizedImage(bitmap); } function resizeBitmap(target:Bitmap):void { if (target.height>target.width) { target.width=MAX_WIDTH; target.scaleY=target.scaleX; } else if (target.width >= target.height) { target.height=MAX_HEIGHT; target.scaleX=target.scaleY; } } function uploadResizedImage(target:Bitmap):void { var _bmd:BitmapData=new BitmapData(target.width,target.height); _bmd.draw(target, new Matrix(target.scaleX, 0, 0, target.scaleY)); var encoded_jpg:JPGEncoder=new JPGEncoder(90); var jpg_binary:ByteArray=encoded_jpg.encode(_bmd); _uploadService=new NetConnection(); _uploadService.objectEncoding=ObjectEncoding.AMF3 _uploadService.connect("http://.../amfphp/gateway.php"); _uploadService.call("UploadService.receiveByteArray",new Responder(success, error), jpg_binary, currentImageFilename); } Many thanks for you help

    Read the article

  • Default Database Collations got messed up

    - by dominicdinada
    I am using Ubuntu 9.10 with XAMPP ( Lampp "MYSQL 5.1.45 PHPMYADMIN 3.3.1 PHP 5.3.2 ) What my problem is, is that I set up my testing env to debug my scripts locally and when I did so there arose a problem. This problem is that I used firefox's addon SQLinject ME to test for weakness' and upon doing so it caused mysql to change the default local collations; character sets dir /opt/lampp/share/mysql/charsets/ collation connection latin1_general_ci (Global value) latin1_swedish_ci collation database latin1_swedish_ci collation server latin1_swedish_ci I have searched for quite sometime in regards to a solution to this problem and have come up with searching for the db.opt file which stores this information without success. Upon not finding a solution I removed lampp with the "sudo rm -fR /opt" command and reinstall and the problem still persists. I have tried to change the collations manually and still come up with the database displaying latin1_swedish_ci as the default language. Why is this a problem?? Why is it a problem with mysql? Because the application I am testing and debugging locally is built on the CodeIgnitor with Smarty framework and since this combination of framework is built to detect the LOCALES, Rather what the database defaults are I keep getting errors saying no language file for swedish...... Of course I could get the swedish language file to work around this problem but I do not feel the need to make this work around a perminant solution as with time when I move on to projects I will run into simular problems every time that A; When importing database files, backups etc it will default to import such databases as the locale swedish. B; As time passes on I might completly forget of this error and will be back to square one. I have found this code in searches for a fix,which seems to alter the tables to a desired Collaion; $value) { mysql_query("ALTER TABLE $value COLLATE latin1_general_ci"); }} echo "The collation of your database has been successfully changed!"; ? Which is handy to switch collations in One Schema at a time however this is not a fix when a framework doesnt care that the said database is in one langugae. It tests for the Default of the entire server. Someone with any knowledge of a purge or fix to this I would greatly appricate the help. One more final note is that when I was testing I only figured to back up the applications DataBase and not the entire Schema of the install. No matter if I uninstall or reinstall the database still seems to carry these problems.

    Read the article

  • Objective-C wrapper API design methodology

    - by Wade Williams
    I know there's no one answer to this question, but I'd like to get people's thoughts on how they would approach the situation. I'm writing an Objective-C wrapper to a C library. My goals are: 1) The wrapper use Objective-C objects. For example, if the C API defines a parameter such as char *name, the Objective-C API should use name:(NSString *). 2) The client using the Objective-C wrapper should not have to have knowledge of the inner-workings of the C library. Speed is not really any issue. That's all easy with simple parameters. It's certainly no problem to take in an NSString and convert it to a C string to pass it to the C library. My indecision comes in when complex structures are involved. Let's say you have: struct flow { long direction; long speed; long disruption; long start; long stop; } flow_t; And then your C API call is: void setFlows(flow_t inFlows[4]); So, some of the choices are: 1) expose the flow_t structure to the client and have the Objective-C API take an array of those structures 2) build an NSArray of four NSDictionaries containing the properties and pass that as a parameter 3) create an NSArray of four "Flow" objects containing the structure's properties and pass that as a parameter My analysis of the approaches: Approach 1: Easiest. However, it doesn't meet the design goals Approach 2: For some reason, this seems to me to be the most "Objective-C" way of doing it. However, each element of the NSDictionary would have to be wrapped in an NSNumber. Now it seems like we're doing an awful lot just to pass the equivalent of a struct. Approach 3: Seems the cleanest to me from an object-oriented standpoint and the extra encapsulation could come in handy later. However, like #2, it now seems like we're doing an awful lot (creating an array, creating and initializing objects) just to pass a struct. So, the question is, how would you approach this situation? Are there other choices I'm not considering? Are there additional advantages or disadvantages to the approaches I've presented that I'm not considering?

    Read the article

  • Featureful commercial text editors?

    - by wrp
    I'm willing to buy tools if they add genuine value over a FOSS equivalent. One thing I wouldn't mind having is an editor with the power of Emacs, but made more user-friendly. There seem to be several commercial editors out there, but I can't find much discussion of them online. Maybe it's because the kind of people who use commercial software don't have time to do much blogging. ;-) If you have used any, what was your evaluation? I'd especially like to hear how you would compare them to Emacs. I'm thinking of editors like VEDIT, Boxer, Crisp, UltraEdit, SlickEdit, etc. To get things started, I tried EditPad Pro because I needed something on a Win98SE box. I was attracted by its powerful support for regexps, but I didn't use it for long. One annoyance was that find-in-files was only available in a separate product you had to buy. The main problem, though, was stability. It sometimes hung and I lost a few files because it corrupted them while editing. After a couple weeks, I found that I was avoiding using it, so I just uninstalled. Edit: Ah...I need to remove some ambiguity. With reference to Emacs, "power" often means its potential for customization. This malleability comes from having an architecture in which most of the functionality is written in a scripting language that runs on a compiled core. Emacs (with elisp) is by far the most widely known such system among home users, but there have been other heavily used editors such as Freemacs (MINT), JED (S-Lang), XEDIT (Rexx), ADAM (TPU), and SlickEdit (Slick-C). In this case, by "power" I'm not referring to extensibility but to realized features. There are three main areas which I think a commercial text editor might be an improvement over Emacs: Stability The only apps I regularly use on Linux that give me flaky behavior are Emacs, Gedit, and Geany. On Windows, I like the look and features of Notepad++, but I find it extremely unstable, especially if I try to use the plugins. Whatever I happen to be doing, I'm using some text editor practically all day long. If I could switch to an editor that never gave me problems, it would definitely lower my stress level. Tools When I started using Emacs, I searched the manual cover to cover to gleam ideas for clever, useful things I could do with it. I'd like to see lots of useful features for editing code, based on detailed knowledge of what the system can do and the accumulated feedback of users. Polish The rule of threes goes that if you develop something for yourself, it's three times harder to make it usable in-house, and three times harder again to make it a viable product for sale. It's understandable, but free software development doesn't seem to benefit from much usability testing. BTW, texteditors.org is a fantastic resource for researching text editors.

    Read the article

  • How to select one object from a NSArray?

    - by 0SX
    First of all Merry Christmas to everyone!!! Currently I have a NSArray that has parsed content in it. When I do a NSLog of the array it prints out 20 objects with the parsed content that I needed. Like so: 2010-12-24 20:27:32.170 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent 2010-12-24 20:27:32.172 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent1 2010-12-24 20:27:32.172 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent2 2010-12-24 20:27:32.173 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent3 2010-12-24 20:27:32.173 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent4 2010-12-24 20:27:32.173 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent5 2010-12-24 20:27:32.174 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent6 2010-12-24 20:27:32.175 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent7 2010-12-24 20:27:32.176 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent8 2010-12-24 20:27:32.176 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent9 2010-12-24 20:27:32.177 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent10 2010-12-24 20:27:32.177 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent11 2010-12-24 20:27:32.177 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent12 2010-12-24 20:27:32.179 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent13 2010-12-24 20:27:32.179 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent14 2010-12-24 20:27:32.180 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent15 2010-12-24 20:27:32.180 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent16 2010-12-24 20:27:32.181 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent17 2010-12-24 20:27:32.181 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent18 2010-12-24 20:27:32.190 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent19 However, I don't need every object at once. I need to be able to pick out one object at a time so I can put each object into a string of it's own. If anyone knows a easier way to do this then what I'm trying to please let me know. Anyways, I need to be able to choose just one object depending on what object I need. For example, let's say I only need object #5 and not all the array, how can this be done so I can put it into a string? I'm thinking I might have to use the index feature but I'm not sure how to set it up properly. Here is my NSArray that I'm working with: NSArray* myArray = [document selectElements: @"div.someContent"]; NSMutableArray* results = [NSMutableArray array]; for (Element* element in myArray){ NSString* snipet = [element contentsSource]; [results addObject: snipet]; NSLog(@"%@", snipet); } NSLog(@"%i",myArray.count); I've already spent several hours trying to achieve this but my knowledge with array's is limited even with me reading the documentation. :-( Any help is much appreciated. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Custom ViewEngine problem with ASP.NET MVC

    - by mare
    In this question jfar answered with his solution the problem is it does not work for me. In the method FindView() I have to somehow check if the View we are requesting is a ViewUserControl. Because otherwise I get an error saying: "A master name cannot be specified when the view is a ViewUserControl." This is my custom view engine code right now: public class PendingViewEngine : VirtualPathProviderViewEngine { public PendingViewEngine() { // This is where we tell MVC where to look for our files. /* {0} = view name or master page name * {1} = controller name */ MasterLocationFormats = new[] {"~/Views/Shared/{0}.master", "~/Views/{0}.master"}; ViewLocationFormats = new[] { "~/Views/{1}/{0}.aspx", "~/Views/Shared/{0}.aspx", "~/Views/Shared/{0}.ascx", "~/Views/{1}/{0}.ascx" }; PartialViewLocationFormats = new[] {"~/Views/{1}/{0}.ascx", "~/Views/Shared/{0}.ascx"}; } protected override IView CreatePartialView(ControllerContext controllerContext, string partialPath) { return new WebFormView(partialPath, ""); } protected override IView CreateView(ControllerContext controllerContext, string viewPath, string masterPath) { return new WebFormView(viewPath, masterPath); } public override ViewEngineResult FindView(ControllerContext controllerContext, string viewName, string masterName, bool useCache) { if (controllerContext.HttpContext.Request.IsAjaxRequest()) return base.FindView(controllerContext, viewName, "Modal", useCache); return base.FindView(controllerContext, viewName, "Site", useCache); } } The above ViewEngine fails on calls like this: <% Html.RenderAction("Display", "WidgetZoneV2", new { zoneslug = "left-default-zone" }); %> As you can see, I am providing Route values to my RenderAction call. The action I am rendering here is this: // Widget zone name is unique // GET: /WidgetZoneV2/{zoneslug} public ActionResult Display(string zoneslug) { zoneslug = Utility.RemoveIllegalCharacters(zoneslug); // Displaying widget zone creates new widget zone if it does not exist yet; so it prepares our page for // dropping of content widgets WidgetZone zone; if (!_repository.IsUniqueSlug(zoneslug)) zone = (WidgetZone) _repository.GetInstance(zoneslug); else { // replace slug with spaces to convert it into Title zone = new WidgetZone {Slug = zoneslug, Title = zoneslug.Replace('-', ' '), WidgetsList = new ContentList()}; _repository.Insert(zone); } ViewData["ContentItemsList"] = _repository.GetContentItems(); return View("WidgetZoneV2", zone); } I cannot use RenderPartial (at least I don't know how) the way I can RenderAction. To my knowledge there is no way to provide RouteValueDictionary to RenderPartial() like the way you can to RenderAction().

    Read the article

  • jQuery ajax() returning json object to another function on success causes error

    - by Michael Mao
    Hi all: I got stuck in this problem for an hour. I am thinking this is something relates to variable scoping ? Anyway, here is the code : function loadRoutes(from_city) { $.ajax( { url: './ajax/loadRoutes.php', async : true, cache : false, timeout : 10000, type : "POST", dataType: 'json', data : { "from_city" : from_city }, error : function(data) { console.log('error occured when trying to load routes'); }, success : function(data) { console.log('routes loaded successfully.'); $('#upperright').html(""); //reset upperright box to display nothing. return data; //this line ruins all //this section works just fine. $.each(data.feedback, function(i, route) { console.log("route no. :" + i + " to_city : " + route.to_city + " price :" + route.price); doSomethingHere(i); }); } }); } The for each section works just fine inside the success callback region. I can see Firebug console outputs the route ids with no problem at all. For decoupling purpose, I reckon it would be better to just return the data object, which in JSON format, to a variable in the caller function, like this: //ajax load function function findFromCity(continent, x, y) { console.log("clicked on " + continent + ' ' + x + ',' + y); $.ajax( { url: './ajax/findFromCity.php', async : true, cache : false, timeout : 10000, type : "POST", dataType : 'json', data : { "continent" : continent, "x" : x, "y" : y }, error : function(data) { console.log('error occured when trying to find the from city'); }, success : function(data) { var cityname = data.from_city; //only query database if cityname was found if(cityname != 'undefined' && cityname != 'nowhere') { console.log('from city found : ' + cityname); data = loadRoutes(cityname); console.log(data); } } }); } Then all of a sudden, everything stops working! Firebug console reports data object as "undefined"... hasn't that being assigned by the returning object from the method loadRoutes(cityname)? Sorry my overall knowledge on javascript is quite limited, so now I am just like a "copycat" to work on my code in an amateur way.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179  | Next Page >