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  • highlight query string in more than one field using solr search feature

    - by Romi
    i am using solr indexes for showing my search results. to show serch results i am parsing json data received from solr. i am able to highlight a query string in search result but only in a single field. for this i set hl=true and hl.fl="field1". i did it as $.getJSON("http://192.168.1.9:8983/solr/db/select/?wt=json&&start=0&rows=100&q="+lowerCaseQuery+"&hl=true&hl.fl=description,name&hl.usePhraseHighlighter=true&sort=price asc&json.wrf=?", function(result){ var n=result.response.numFound var highlight = new Array(n); $.each(result.highlighting, function(i, hitem){ var match = hitem.text[0].match(/<em>(.*?)<\/em>/); highlight[i]=match[1]; }); $.each(newresult.response.docs, function(i,item){ var word=highlight[item["UID_PK"]]; var result = item.text[0].replace(new RegExp(word,'g'), '<em>' + word + '</em>'); }); for this json object is as : { "responseHeader": { "status": 0, "QTime": 32 }, "response": { "numFound": 21, "start": 0, "docs": [ { "description": "The matte finish waves on this wedding band contrast with the high polish borders. This sharp and elegant design was finely crafted in Japan.", "UID_PK": "8252", }, { "description": "This elegant ring has an Akoya cultured pearl with a band of bezel-set round diamonds making it perfect for her to wear to work or the night out.", "UID_PK": "8142", }, ] }, "highlighting": { "8252": { "description": [ " and <em>elegant</em> design was finely crafted in Japan." ] }, "8142": { "description": [ "This <em>elegant</em> ring has an Akoya cultured pearl with a band of bezel-set round diamonds making" ] }, } } Now if i want to highlight query string in two fields i did as hl=true hl.fl=descrption, name my json is as: { "responseHeader":{ "status":0, "QTime":16 }, "response":{ "numFound":1904, "start":0, "docs":[ { "description":"", "UID_PK":"7780", "name":[ "Diamond bracelet with Milgrain Bezel1" ] }, { "description":"This pendant is sure to win hearts. Round diamonds form a simple and graceful line.", "UID_PK":"8121", "name":[ "Heartline Diamond Pendant" ] }, "highlighting":{ "7780":{ "name":[ "<em>Diamond</em> bracelet with Milgrain Bezel1" ] }, "8121":{ "description":[ "This pendant is sure to win hearts. Round <em>diamonds</em> form a simple and graceful line." ], "name":[ "Heartline <em>Diamond</em> Pendant" ] } } } Now how should i parse it to get the result. suggest me some general technique, so if i want to highlight query in more fields then i could do so. Thanks

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  • MODX parse error function implode (is it me or modx?)

    - by Ian
    Hi, I cannot for the life of me figure this out, maybe someone can help. Using MODX a form takes user criteria to create a filter and return a list of documents. The form is one text field and a few checkboxes. If both text field and checkbox data is posted, the function works fine; if just the checkbox data is posted the function works fine; but if just the text field data is posted, modx gives me the following error: Error: implode() [function.implode]: Invalid arguments passed. I've tested this outside of modx with flat files and it all works fine leading me to assume a bug exists within modx. But I'm not convinced. Here's my code: <?php $order = array('price ASC'); //default sort order if(!empty($_POST['tour_finder_duration'])){ //duration submitted $days = htmlentities($_POST['tour_finder_duration']); //clean up post array_unshift($order,"duration DESC"); //add duration sort before default $filter[] = 'duration,'.$days.',4'; //add duration to filter[] (field,criterion,mode) $criteria[] = 'Number of days: <strong>'.$days.'</strong>'; //displayed on results page } if(!empty($_POST['tour_finder_dests'])){ //destination/s submitted $dests = $_POST['tour_finder_dests']; foreach($dests as $value){ //iterate through dests array $filter[] = 'searchDests,'.htmlentities($value).',7'; //add dests to filter[] $params['docid'] = $value; $params['field'] = 'pagetitle'; $pagetitle = $modx->runSnippet('GetField',$params); $dests_array[] = '<a href="[~'.$value.'~]" title="Read more about '.$pagetitle.'" class="tourdestlink">'.$pagetitle.'</a>'; } $dests_array = implode(', ',$dests_array); $criteria[] = 'Destinations: '.$dests_array; //displayed on results page } if(is_array($filter)){ $filter = implode('|',$filter);//pipe-separated string } if(is_array($order)){ $order = implode(',',$order);//comma-separated string } if(is_array($criteria)){ $criteria = implode('<br />',$criteria); } echo '<br />Order: '.$order.'<br /> Filter: '.$filter.'<br /> Criteria: '.$criteria; //next: extract docs using $filter and $order, display user's criteria using $criteria... ?> The echo statement is displayed above the MODX error message and the $filter array is correctly imploded. Any help will save my computer from flying out the window. Thanks

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  • CSS selectors : should I minimise my use of the class attribute in the HTML or optimise the speed

    - by Laurent Bourgault-Roy
    As I was working on a small website, I decided to use the PageSpeed extension to check if their was some improvement I could do to make the site load faster. However I was quite surprise when it told me that my use of CSS selector was "inefficient". I was always told that you should keep the usage of the class attribute in the HTML to a minimum, but if I understand correctly what PageSpeed tell me, it's much more efficient for the browser to match directly against a class name. It make sense to me, but it also mean that I need to put more CSS classes in my HTML. It also make my .css file a little harder to read. I usually tend to mark my CSS like this : #mainContent p.productDescription em.priceTag { ... } Which make it easy to read : I know this will affect the main content and that it affect something in a paragraph tag (so I wont start to put all sort of layout code in it) that describe a product and its something that need emphasis. However it seem I should rewrite it as .priceTag { ... } Which remove all context information about the style. And if I want to use differently formatted price tag (for example, one in a list on the sidebar and one in a paragraph), I need to use something like that .paragraphPriceTag { ... } .listPriceTag { ... } Which really annoy me since I seem to duplicate the semantic of the HTML in my classes. And that mean I can't put common style in an unqualified .priceTag { ... } and thus I need to replicate the style in both CSS rule, making it harder to make change. (Altough for that I could use multiple class selector, but IE6 dont support them) I believe making code harder to read for the sake of speed has never been really considered a very good practice . Except where it is critical, of course. This is why people use PHP/Ruby/C# etc. instead of C/assembly to code their site. It's easier to write and debug. So I was wondering if I should stick with few CSS classes and complex selector or if I should go the optimisation route and remove my fancy CSS selectors for the sake of speed? Does PageSpeed make over the top recommandation? On most modern computer, will it even make a difference?

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  • Multiple layouts in rails [Newbie Q]

    - by BriteLite
    Hi. As a newb, I decided to build a "home inventory" application. I am now stuck on how to programmatically select a layout based on what type of item it is when viewing it in a browser. According to my planning, so far I should have created a few models to represent types of items I can find in my home: Furniture, Electronics and Books. class Book < ActiveRecord::Base end class Furniture < ActiveRecord::Base end class Electronic < ActiveRecord::Base end Now the Books model has things like isbn, pages, address, and category. Furniture model has things like color, price, address, and category. Electronics has things like name, voltage, address, and category. Here is where I got confused. I know the property address is going to be the same for all of them. I also know that, I will need to create multiple "layouts" for 3 different types of items to show the different properties of said items with appropriate graphics and stylesheets. But how will I go about deciding which category the item is so I can determine which layout to render. According to me, this is how I will do it: class DisplayController < ApplicationController def display @item = Params[:item] if @item.category = "electronics" render :layout => 'electronics' end end In my routes.rb map.display ':item', :controller => 'display', :action => 'display' I only seem to have one concern with this, I probably will add a lot of categories later on and think there should be a more DRY-esque way of dealing, rather than hardcoding them. I understand that I need to add into my layout html tags to display relevant information for that particular category. ----Questions---- Is this the right way to approach this type of problem. Will this approach be compatible when I decide to add a gem like *thinking_sphinx* to run search. What issues do you see with my approach and how can I make it better. I was reading something about "Polymorphic Assoc", does that apply in this case, since category exist for all items? Also, I was trying to get a routes to render a URL like "http://localhost/living-room-tv"

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  • Ruby/Rails - Add records to an object with each loop iteration / Object vs Arrays

    - by ChrisWesAllen
    I'm trying to figure out how to add records to an existing object for each iteration of a loop. I'm having a hard time discovering the difference between an object and an array. I have this @events = Event.find(1) @loops = Choices.find(:all, :limit => 5) #so loop for 5 instances of choice model for loop in @loops @events = Event.find(:all,:conditions => ["event.id = ?", loop.event_id ]) end I'm trying to add a new events to the existing @events object based on the id of whatever the loop variable is. But the ( = ) operator just creates a new instance of the @events object. I tried ( += ) and ( << ) as operators but got the error "You have a nil object when you didn't expect it! You might have expected an instance of Array. The error occurred while evaluating nil" I tried created an array events = [] events << Event.find(1) @loops = Choices.find(:all, :limit => 5) #so loop for 5 instances of choice model for loop in @loops events << Event.find(:all,:conditions => ["event.id = ?", loop.event_id ]) end But I dont know how to call that arrays attributes within the view With objects I was able do create a loop within the view and call all the attributes of that object as well... <table> <% for event in @events %> <tr> <td><%= link_to event.title, event %></td> <td><%= event.start_date %></td> <td><%= event.price %></td> </tr> <% end %> </table> How could i do this with an array set? So the questions are 1) Whats the difference between arrays and objects? 2) Is there a way to add into the existing object for each iteration? 3) If I use an array, is there a way to call the attributes for each array record within the view?

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  • HTML table ignoring element-style width

    - by sangil
    HTML table ignoring element-style width I have an HTML table where certain cells have very long text contents. I want to specify a width (in pixels) for these cells using jQuery, but the rendered table just ignores the given width. Is there any way to force the table to respect this width? Thanks! JSFiddle: http://jsfiddle.net/sangil/6hejy/35/ (If you inspect the cell you can see the the computed width is different than the element-style width) HTML: <div id="tblcont" class="tblcont"> <table id="pivot_table"> <tbody> <tr> <th id="h0" >product</th> <th id="h1" >price</th> <th id="h2" >change</th> </tr> <tr> <!-- this is the cell causing trouble --> <td id="c00" >Acer 2400 aaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa</td> <td id="c01" >3212</td> <td id="c02" >219</td> </tr> <tr> <td id="c10" >Acer</td> <td id="c11" >3821</td> <td id="c12" >206</td> </tr> </tbody> </table> </div> CSS: .tblcont { overflow: hidden; width: 500px; } table { table-layout: fixed; border-collapse: collapse; overflow-x: scroll; border-spacing:0; width: 100%; } th, td { overflow: hidden; text-overflow: ellipsis; word-wrap: break-word; } th { height: 50px; } ?Javascript: $(document).ready(function() { // THIS LINE HAS NO EFFECT! $('#c00').width(30); });

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  • how to reloadData in tableView when tableview access data from database.

    - by Ajeet Kumar Yadav
    I am new in iphone i am developing a application that take value from data base and display data in tableview. in this application we save data from one data table to other data table this is when add first time work and when we do second time application is crash. how to solve this problem i am not understand code is given bellow my appdelegate code for insert value from one table to other is given bellow -(void)sopinglist { //////databaseName= @"SanjeevKapoor.sqlite"; databaseName =@"AjeetTest.sqlite"; NSArray *documentPaths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentsDir = [documentPaths objectAtIndex:0]; databasePath =[documentsDir stringByAppendingPathComponent:databaseName]; [self checkAndCreateDatabase]; list1 = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; sqlite3 *database; if (sqlite3_open([databasePath UTF8String], &database) == SQLITE_OK) { if(addStmt == nil) { ///////////const char *sql = "insert into Dataa(item) Values(?)"; const char *sql = " insert into Slist select * from alootikki"; ///////////// const char *sql =" Update Slist ( Incredients, Recipename,foodtype) Values(?,?,?)"; if(sqlite3_prepare_v2(database, sql, -1, &addStmt, NULL) != SQLITE_OK) NSAssert1(0, @"Error while creating add statement. '%s'", sqlite3_errmsg(database)); } /////for( NSString * j in k) sqlite3_bind_text(addStmt, 1, [k UTF8String], -1, SQLITE_TRANSIENT); //sqlite3_bind_int(addStmt,1,i); // sqlite3_bind_text(addStmt, 1, [coffeeName UTF8String], -1, SQLITE_TRANSIENT); // sqlite3_bind_double(addStmt, 2, [price doubleValue]); if(SQLITE_DONE != sqlite3_step(addStmt)) NSAssert1(0, @"Error while inserting data. '%s'", sqlite3_errmsg(database)); else //SQLite provides a method to get the last primary key inserted by using sqlite3_last_insert_rowid coffeeID = sqlite3_last_insert_rowid(database); //Reset the add statement. sqlite3_reset(addStmt); // sqlite3_clear_bindings(detailStmt); //} } sqlite3_finalize(addStmt); addStmt = nil; sqlite3_close(database); } And the table View code for access data from database is given bellow SanjeevKapoorAppDelegate *appDelegate =(SanjeevKapoorAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; [appDelegate sopinglist]; ////[appDelegate recpies]; /// NSArray *a =[[appDelegate list1] componentsJoinedByString:@","]; k= [[appDelegate list1] componentsJoinedByString:@","];

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  • organizing external libraries and include files

    - by stijn
    Over the years my projects use more and more external libraries, and the way I did it starts feeling more and more awkward (although, that has to be said, it does work flawlessly). I use VS on Windows, CMake on others, and CodeComposer for targetting DSPs on Windows. Except for the DSPs, both 32bit and 64bit platforms are used. Here's a sample of what I am doing now; note that as shown, the different external libraries themselves are not always organized in the same way. Some have different lib/include/src folders, others have a single src folder. Some came ready-to-use with static and/or shared libraries, others were built /path/to/projects /projectA /projectB /path/to/apis /apiA /src /include /lib /apiB /include /i386/lib /amd64/lib /path/to/otherapis /apiC /src /path/to/sharedlibs /apiA_x86.lib -->some libs were built in all possible configurations /apiA_x86d.lib /apiA_x64.lib /apiA_x64d.lib /apiA_static_x86.lib /apiB.lib -->other libs have just one import library /path/to/dlls -->most of this directory also gets distributed to clients /apiA_x86.dll and it's in the PATH /apiB.dll Each time I add an external libary, I roughly use this process: build it, if needed, for different configurations (release/debug/platform) copy it's static and/or import libraries to 'sharedlibs' copy it's shared libraries to 'dlls' add an environment variable, eg 'API_A_DIR' that points to the root for ApiA, like '/path/to/apis/apiA' create a VS property sheet and a CMake file to state include path and eventually the library name, like include = '$(API_A_DIR)/Include' and lib = apiA.lib add the propertysheet/cmake file to the project needing the library It's especially step 4 and 5 that are bothering me. I am pretty sure I am not the only one facing this problem, and would like see how others deal with this. I was thinking to get rid of the environment variables per library, and use just one 'API_INCLUDE_DIR' and populating it with the include files in an organized way: /path/to/api/include /apiA /apiB /apiC This way I do not need the include path in the propertysheets nor the environment variables. For libs that are only used on windows I even don't need a propertysheet at all as I can use #pragmas to instruct the linker what library to link to. Also in the code it will be more clear what gets included, and no need for wrappers to include files having the same name but are from different libraries: #include <apiA/header.h> #include <apiB/header.h> #include <apiC_version1/header.h> The withdrawal is off course that I have to copy include files, and possibly** introduce duplicates on the filesystem, but that looks like a minor price to pay, doesn't it? ** actually once libraries are built, the only thing I need from them is the include files and thie libs. Since each of those would have a dedicated directory, the original source tree is not needed anymore so can be deleted..

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  • Rails only returns blank page

    - by user2793027
    I am new to Ruby on Rails and am trying to find all the orders for a given customer and then search through their order and total it all up. However when I try and test the page I only get a blank page, can anyone tell me why that might be? Also I am running Rails v. 2.3.14 <% # custdisplay.html.erb.rb %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head profile="http://gmpg.org/xfn/11"> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8" /> </head> <body> <% # get the customer data from the customer table @custdata = Customer.find(@data) @orderinfo = Order.find(:all, :conditions => ["customer_id = ?",@custdata.id]) for i in [email protected] @total[i] = 0 @orderparts = Orderline.find(:all, :conditions => ["id = ?", @orderinfo[i].id]) for j in [email protected] @total[j] += @orderparts[i].quantity * @orderparts[i].price end end #for each quanity need to add up the part if @ordertotals.length > 0 %> <h1>customer data for customer: <%=@data %></h1> <table border=1> <tr> <td>Order Number</td> <td>Order Date</td> <td>Cost of Order</td> </tr> <% # for each customer who has this sales rep # display each customer in a row for @orderinfo in @ordertotals %> <tr> <td><%[email protected]%></td> <td><%[email protected]_date%></td> <td><%[email protected]%></td> </tr> <% end %> </table> <% else # no customers with this sales rep %> <h1>NO CUSTOMERS FOR SALES REP <%=@salesrepcust%></h1> <% end %>

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  • jQuery slider onChange auto submit form

    - by bikey77
    I'm using a jQuery slider as a price range selector in a form. I'd like to have the form submit automatically when one of the values has been changed. I used a couple of examples I found on SO but they didn't work with my code. <form action="itemlist.php" method="post" enctype="application/x-www-form-urlencoded" name="priceform" id="priceform" target="_self"> <div id="slider-holder"> Prices: From <span id="pricefromlabel">100 &#8364;</span> To <span id="pricetolabel">500 &#8364;</span> <input type="hidden" id="pricefrom" name="pricefrom" value="100" /> <input type="hidden" id="priceto" name="priceto" value="500" /> <div id="slider-range"></div> <input name="Search" type="submit" value="Search" /> </div> </form> This is the code that displays the values of the slider and updates 2 hidden form fields I use to store the prices in order to submit: <script> $(function() { $("#slider-range" ).slider({ range: true, min: 0, max: 1000, values: [ <?=$minprice?>, <?=$maxprice?> ], start: function (event, ui) { event.stopPropagation(); }, slide: function( event, ui ) { $( "#pricefrom" ).val(ui.values[0]); $( "#priceto" ).val(ui.values[1]); $( "#pricefromlabel" ).html(ui.values[0] + ' &euro;'); $( "#pricetolabel" ).html(ui.values[1] + ' &euro;'); } }); return false; }); </script> I've tried adding this code as well as an data-autosubmit="true" attribute to the div but no result. $(function() { $('[data-autosubmit="true"]').change(function() { parentForm = $(this).('#priceform'); clearTimeout(submitTimeout); submitTimeout = setTimeout(function() { parentForm.submit() }, 100); }); I've also tried adding a $.post() event to the slider but I'm not very good with jQuery so I'm probably doing it wrong. Any help will be appreciated.

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  • Domain-Driven-Design question

    - by Michael
    Hello everyone, I have a question about DDD. I'm building a application to learn DDD and I have a question about layering. I have an application that works like this: UI layer calls = Application Layer - Domain Layer - Database Here is a small example of how the code looks: //****************UI LAYER************************ //Uses Ioc to get the service from the factory. //This factory would be in the MyApp.Infrastructure.dll IImplementationFactory factory = new ImplementationFactory(); //Interface and implementation for Shopping Cart service would be in MyApp.ApplicationLayer.dll IShoppingCartService service = factory.GetImplementationFactory<IShoppingCartService>(); //This is the UI layer, //Calling into Application Layer //to get the shopping cart for a user. //Interface for IShoppingCart would be in MyApp.ApplicationLayer.dll //and implementation for IShoppingCart would be in MyApp.Model. IShoppingCart shoppingCart = service.GetShoppingCartByUserName(userName); //Show shopping cart information. //For example, items bought, price, taxes..etc ... //Pressed Purchase button, so even for when //button is pressed. //Uses Ioc to get the service from the factory again. IImplementationFactory factory = new ImplementationFactory(); IShoppingCartService service = factory.GetImplementationFactory<IShoppingCartService>(); service.Purchase(shoppingCart); //**********************Application Layer********************** public class ShoppingCartService : IShoppingCartService { public IShoppingCart GetShoppingCartByUserName(string userName) { //Uses Ioc to get the service from the factory. //This factory would be in the MyApp.Infrastructure.dll IImplementationFactory factory = new ImplementationFactory(); //Interface for repository would be in MyApp.Infrastructure.dll //but implementation would by in MyApp.Model.dll IShoppingCartRepository repository = factory.GetImplementationFactory<IShoppingCartRepository>(); IShoppingCart shoppingCart = repository.GetShoppingCartByUserName(username); //Do shopping cart logic like calculating taxes and stuff //I would put these in services but not sure? ... return shoppingCart; } public void Purchase(IShoppingCart shoppingCart) { //Do Purchase logic and calling out to repository ... } } I've seem to put most of my business rules in services rather than the models and I'm not sure if this is correct? Also, i'm not completely sure if I have the laying correct? Do I have the right pieces in the correct place? Also should my models leave my domain model? In general I'm I doing this correct according DDD? Thanks!

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  • Rails Active Record find(:all, :order => ) issue.

    - by CodingWithoutComments
    I seem to be unable to use :order_by for more than one column at a time. For example, I have a "Show" model with date and attending columns. If I run the following code: @shows = Show.find(:all, :order => "date") I get the following results: [#<Show id: 7, date: "2009-04-18", attending: 2>, #<Show id: 1, date: "2009-04-18", attending: 78>, #<Show id: 2, date: "2009-04-19", attending: 91>, #<Show id: 3, date: "2009-04-20", attending: 16>, #<Show id: 4, date: "2009-04-21", attending: 136>] If I run the following code: @shows = Show.find(:all, :order => "attending DESC") [#<Show id: 4, date: "2009-04-21", attending: 136>, #<Show id: 2, date: "2009-04-19", attending: 91>, #<Show id: 1, date: "2009-04-18", attending: 78>, #<Show id: 3, date: "2009-04-20", attending: 16>, #<Show id: 7, date: "2009-04-18", attending: 2>] But, if I run: @shows = Show.find(:all, :order => "date, attending DESC") OR @shows = Show.find(:all, :order => "date, attending ASC") OR @shows = Show.find(:all, :order => "date ASC, attending DESC") I get the same results as only sorting by date: [#<Show id: 7, date: "2009-04-18", attending: 2>, #<Show id: 1, date: "2009-04-18", attending: 78>, #<Show id: 2, date: "2009-04-19", attending: 91>, #<Show id: 3, date: "2009-04-20", attending: 16>, #<Show id: 4, date: "2009-04-21", attending: 136>] Where as, I want to get these results: [#<Show id: 1, date: "2009-04-18", attending: 78>, #<Show id: 7, date: "2009-04-18", attending: 2>, #<Show id: 2, date: "2009-04-19", attending: 91>, #<Show id: 3, date: "2009-04-20", attending: 16>, #<Show id: 4, date: "2009-04-21", attending: 136>] This is the query being generated from the logs: [4;35;1mUser Load (0.6ms)[0m [0mSELECT * FROM "users" WHERE ("users"."id" = 1) LIMIT 1[0m [4;36;1mShow Load (3.0ms)[0m [0;1mSELECT * FROM "shows" ORDER BY date ASC, attending DESC[0m [4;35;1mUser Load (0.6ms)[0m [0mSELECT * FROM "users" WHERE ("users"."id" = 1) [0m Finally, here is my model: create_table "shows", :force => true do |t| t.string "headliner" t.string "openers" t.string "venue" t.date "date" t.text "description" t.datetime "created_at" t.datetime "updated_at" t.decimal "price" t.time "showtime" t.integer "attending", :default => 0 t.string "time" end What am I missing? What am I doing wrong? UPDATE: Thanks for all your help, but it seems that all of you were stumped as much as I was. What solved the problem was actually switching databases. I switched from the default sqlite3 to mysql.

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  • Unusual RJS error

    - by rrb
    Hi, I am getting the following error in my RoR application: RJS error: TypeError: element is null Element.update("notice", "Comment Posted"); Element.update("allcomments", "\n\n\n \n\n waht now?\n\n \n\n \n\n \n\n asdfasdfa\n \n\n \n\n asdfasdf\n \n\n\n\n\n"); But when I hit the refresh button, I can see my partial updated. Here's my code: show_comments View: <table> <% comments.each do |my_comment| %> <tr> <td><%=h my_comment.comment%></td> </tr> <% end %> </table> show View: <div class="wrapper"> <div class="rescale"> <div class="img-main"> <%= image_tag @deal.photo.url %> </div> </div> <div class="description"> <p class ="description_content"> <%=h @deal.description %> </p> </div> </div> <p> <b>Category:</b> <%=h @deal.category %> </p> <p> <b>Base price:</b> <%=h @deal.base_price %> </p> <%#*<p>%> <%#*<b>Discount:</b>%> <%#=h @deal.discount %> <%#*</p>%> <%= link_to 'Edit', edit_deal_path(@deal) %> | <%= link_to 'Back', deals_path %> <p> <%= render :partial=>'deal_comments', :locals=>{ :comments=>Comment.new(:deal_id=>@deal.id)} %> </p> <div id="allcomments"> <%= render :partial=>'show_comments', :locals=>{ :comments=>Comment.find(@deal.comments)} %> </div> Controller: def create @comment = Comment.new(params[:comment]) render :update do |page| if @comment.save page.replace_html 'notice', 'Comment Posted' else page.replace_html 'notice', 'Something went wrong' end page.replace_html 'allcomments', :partial=> 'deals/show_comments', :locals=>{:comments=> @comment.deal.comments} end end def show_comments @deal = Deal.find(params[:deal_id]) render :partial=> "deals/show_comments", :locals=>{:comments=>@deal.comments} end end

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  • Select options not showing in IE

    - by donkapone
    I have a dynamically generated select with some options and it shows the options fine in normal browsers, but its empty options in IE. Here's the generated HTML: <select name="0" id="custom_0" style="border-bottom: #c0cedb 1px solid; border-left: #c0cedb 1px solid; background-color: #ededed; width: 280px; font-size: 0.87em; border-top: #c0cedb 1px solid; border-right: #c0cedb 1px solid"> <option id="1000" value="0" name="00">1x2GB ECC DDRIII 2GB ECC DDRIII</option> <option id="1001" value="10" name="01">2x2GB ECC DDRIII 4GB ECC DDRIII (+10.00 €)</option> </select> I can't really show you the javascript, since there's so much of it and I would be able to make it simple just for a demo. Maybe you had some of you would've had a similar experience and could figure this one out. Thanks I've added some javascript: $('#custom_order').append('<tr id="custom_'+category+'_row"><td'+padding+'>'+header+'<select id="custom_'+category+'" name="'+category+'" style="background-color:#EDEDED;border:1px solid #C0CEDB;width:280px;font-size:0.87em"></select>'+plusspan+'</td></tr>'); for (var i=0;i<components[category]['value'].length;i++){ $('#custom_'+category).append('<option id="'+components[category]['value'][i]['id']+'" value="'+components[category]['value'][i]['price']+'"></option>'); removals(category,i); dependencies(category,i); selectInput(category); } getDiff(category); getDiff() function adds the values to the options with html() function. The weird thing is, if I alert the html of the option just after the getDiff() function, it shows the value filled out. And it I put the getDiff() function in the for loop where the options are generated, it fills the values and shows them in IE, just not the last one. I'm calling getDiff() outside the loop for optimization, and since I can add the values later after all the options are generated. Well at least I thought I could, since it works on Firefox and Chrome.

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  • ASP.NET MVC 3 NOT showing appropriate view, action called using jquery

    - by TunAntun
    I have a small problem. My action is : public ViewResult SearchForRooms(int HotelDDL) { List<Room> roomsInHotel = bl.ReturnRoomsPerHotel(HotelDDL); return View(roomsInHotel); } Here is the jquery that is calling the action: <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $("#HotelDDL").change(function () { var text = $("#HotelDDL option:selected").text(); var value = $("#HotelDDL option:selected").val(); alert("Selected text=" + text + " Selected value= " + value); $.post("/Home/SearchForRooms", { HotelDDL: $("#HotelDDL option:selected").val() }); }); }); </script> And finally, here is the View that should be called: @model IEnumerable<RoomReservation.Entities.Entities.Room> @{ ViewBag.Title = "Search"; } <h2>Result</h2> <table> <tr> <th> City </th> <th> Hotel </th> <th> Room label </th> <th> Number of beds </th> <th> Price per night </th> <th></th> </tr> @foreach (var item in Model) { <tr> <td> @Html.DisplayFor(modelitem=>item.Hotel.City.Name) </td> <td> @Html.DisplayFor(modelItem => item.Hotel.Name) </td> <td> @Html.DisplayFor(modelItem => item.Name) </td> <td> @Html.DisplayFor(modelItem => item.NumberOfBeds) </td> <td> @Html.DisplayFor(modelItem => item.PricePerNight) </td> </tr> } </table> Everthing is working ok (databse return all rooms correctly) except final view rendering. I have tried Phil's tool but it doesn't give me any suspicious hints: RouteDebug.RouteDebugger.RewriteRoutesForTesting(RouteTable.Routes); So, why is it not showing after jscript send it's post method to SearchForRooms()? Thank you P.S. If you need any other piece of code please just say so.

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  • Looping class, for template engine kind of thing

    - by tarnfeld
    Hey, I am updating my class Nesty so it's infinite but I'm having a little trouble.... Here is the class: <?php Class Nesty { // Class Variables private $text; private $data = array(); private $loops = 0; private $maxLoops = 0; public function __construct($text,$data = array(),$maxLoops = 5) { // Set the class vars $this->text = $text; $this->data = $data; $this->maxLoops = $maxLoops; } // Loop funtion private function loopThrough($data) { if( ($this->loops +1) > $this->maxLoops ) { die("ERROR: Too many loops!"); } else { $keys = array_keys($data); for($x = 0; $x < count($keys); $x++) { if(is_array($data[$keys[$x]])) { $this->loopThrough($data[$keys[$x]]); } else { return $data[$keys[$x]]; } } } } // Templater method public function template() { echo $this->loopThrough($this->data); } } ?> Here is the code you would use to create an instance of the class: <?php // The nested array $data = array( "person" => array( "name" => "Tom Arnfeld", "age" => 15 ), "product" => array ( "name" => "Cakes", "price" => array ( "single" => 59, "double" => 99 ) ), "other" => "string" ); // Retreive the template text $file = "TestData.tpl"; $fp = fopen($file,"r"); $text = fread($fp,filesize($file)); // Create the Nesty object require_once('Nesty.php'); $nesty = new Nesty($text,$data); // Save the newly templated text to a variable $message $message = $nesty->template(); // Print out $message on the page echo("<pre>".$message."</pre>"); ?> Any ideas?

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  • Get values from HTML in a multidimensional array and calculate values using PHP

    - by Frank Nwoko
    I have searched but could not get solution on this issue. I am working on an application which will generate unknown number of items and have users select the quantity from a drop down against each item. Eg. Item(s) | price | Select qty Rice 23 3 Beans 22 4 Eggs 52 5 ... ... ... unknown Please, how can I capture the above in an array and also calculate the total value for all selected items and corresponding fees? I have the following HTML code: <form id='form1' name='form1' method='post' action='item_calc.php'> <?php ..... while($t_row = mysql_fetch_assoc($get_items)) { echo "<p><label>$t_row['$item_name'] <input type='text' READONLY name='item_price[]' value='$t_row['$item_price']' /></label> <input type='text' READONLY name='item_fees[]' value='$t_row['$item_fee']' /> <select name="item_qty"> <option value="1"> <option value="2"> <option value="3"> <option value="4"> <option value="5"> </select> </p><p>"; } echo "<label><input type='submit' name='submit' value='Submit' /></label></p> </form>"; Please, how can I get item_price[] + item_fees[] * item_qty for all selected items? This is what I have tried: for ($i = 0; $i < count($_POST['item_price']); $i++) { // Do something here with $_POST['checkbx'][$i] foreach ($_POST['item_fees'] as $tkey => $tvalue) { //echo "Key: $tkey; Value: $tvalue<br>"; } foreach ($_POST['item_price'] as $pkey => $pvalue) { //echo "Key: $pkey; Value: $pvalue<br>"; } $total = $tvalue + $pvalue; } echo $total;

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  • What is the best approach in SQL to store multi-level descriptions?

    - by gime
    I need a new perspective on how to design a reliable and efficient SQL database to store multi-level arrays of data. This problem applies to many situations but I came up with this example: There are hundreds of products. Each product has an undefined number of parts. Each part is built from several elements. All products are described in the same way. All parts would require the same fields to describe them (let's say: price, weight, part name), all elements of all parts also have uniform design (for example: element code, manufacturer). Plain and simple. One element may be related to only part, and each part is related to one product only. I came up with idea of three tables: Products: -------------------------------------------- prod_id prod_name prod_price prod_desc 1 hoover 120 unused next Parts: ---------------------------------------------------- part_id part_name part_price part_weight prod_id 3 engine 10 20 1 and finally Elements: --------------------------------------- el_id el_code el_manufacturer part_id 1 BFG12 GE 3 Now, select a desired product, select all from PARTS where prod_id is the same, and then select all from ELEMENTS where part_id matches - after multiple queries you've got all data. I'm just not sure if this is the right approach. I've got also another idea, without ELEMENTS table. That would decrease queries but I'm a bit afraid it might be lame and bad practice. Instead of ELEMENTS table there are two more fields in the PARTS table, so it looks like this: part_id, part_name, part_price, part_weight, prod_id, part_el_code, part_el_manufacturer they would be text type, and for each part, information about elements would be stored as strings, this way: part_el_code | code_of_element1; code_of_element2; code_of_element3 part_el_manufacturer | manuf_of_element1; manuf_of_element2; manuf_of_element3 Then all we need is to explode() data from those fields, and we get arrays, easy to display. Of course this is not perfect and has some limitations, but is this idea ok? Or should I just go with the first idea? Or maybe there is a better approach to this problem? It's really hard to describe it in few words, and that means it's hard to search for answer. Also, understanding the principles of designing databases is not that easy as it seems.

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  • Toggling between states on 3 containers in jQuery

    - by Saif Bechan
    Hello, i have an php/mysql/ajax auction application application. Now there is a section that can have 3 states. State one, the user can place a bid.(Bid button is shown) State two, the user has to wait before he can place a new bid(number of sec is shown) State three, the user has an auto bidding system enabled.(The price maximum and amount ate shown). Now i get these values trough jquery ajax, and i want to present the user the right section. Now the code i have is as follows: if(data[i].bidwait >= 0 && data[i].amount == ''){ // In this section the user has no autobiddings, and can place a bidding $(productContainer+' .bid-wrapper').removeClass('none'); $(productContainer+' .bidwait-wrapper').addClass('none'); $(productContainer+' .autobid-wrapper').addClass('none'); }else if(data[i].bidwait < 0 && data[i].amount == ''){ // In this section the user has to wait the amount of sec to place a new bid $(productContainer+' .bid-wrapper').addClass('none'); $(productContainer+' .bidwait-wrapper').removeClass('none'); $(productContainer+' .autobid-wrapper').addClass('none'); $(productContainer+' .bidwait-text').text(data[i].bidwait * -1); }else{ // In the last section the user has the auto bidder enabled, so that is shown $(productContainer+' .bid-wrapper').addClass('none'); $(productContainer+' .bidwait-wrapper').addClass('none'); $(productContainer+' .autobid-wrapper').removeClass('none'); $(productContainer+' .amount').html(data[i].amount == 0 ? '&#8734;' : data[i].amount); $(productContainer+' .maxprice').html(data[i].maxprice == 0 ? '&#8734;' : data[i].maxprice); } This looks like an awful lot of code for something so small. I was wondering if there is an easier method to accomplish such a thing. Speed is a huge issue for me because this has to run every second in the users browser. If there is no other option i am just going to remove this option and go with a no ajax approuch. If you have been, thank you for reading!

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  • Why the only hidden field that is being filled from GET action is not being passed in model?

    - by user1807954
    Sorry for the long title, I didn't know how to make it any shorter. My code: My model: public class CarFilter { public String carMake { get; set; } public String carModel { get; set; } public String carEdition { get; set; } . . . public String SortBy { get; set; } } public class CarSearch : CarFilter { public List<Car> Car { get; set; } } My controller: public ActionResult SearchResult(CarSearch search) { var cars = from d in db.Cars select d; if (Request.HttpMethod == "POST") { search.SortBy = "Price"; } search.Car = new List<Car>(); search.Car.AddRange(cars); var temp = new List<CarSearch>(); temp.Add(search); return View(temp); } My Index view (where user filters results): @model IEnumerable<Cars.Models.CarSearch> @using (Html.BeginForm("SearchResult", "Home", FormMethod.Post)){..forms and other stuff..} My SearchResult view (where user sees the results of filtration): @model IEnumerable<Cars.Models.CarSearch> @using (Html.BeginForm("SearchResult", "Home", FormMethod.Get)) { @Html.Hidden("carMake") @Html.Hidden("carModel") @Html.Hidden("carEdition") . . . @Html.Hidden("SortBy", temp.SortBy) <input name="SortBy" class="buttons" type="submit" value="Make"/> My goal What I'm trying to do is when user clicked on sort by Make it will have to GET back all the variables in hidden field back to the SearchResult action in order to sort the result (same filtered results). Result Is: <input id="SortBy" name="SortBy" type="hidden" value=""/>. The value is null and it's not being passed but all the other hidden fields such as carMake and etc have value. But when I use foreach it works perfect. Question Why is this like this? the SortBy is in the same model class as other fields in the view. The only difference is that SortBy is not being filled in the Index view with other fields, instead it's being filled in controller action. What is the explanation for this? Am I missing any C# definition or something such as dynamic objects or something?

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  • Display Commas in Large Numbers: JavaScript

    - by user3723918
    I'm working on a customized calculator, which is working pretty well except that I can't figure out how to get the generated numbers to display commas within the number. For example, it might spit out "450000" when I need it to say "450,000". This thread gives a number of suggestions on how to create a new function to deal with the problem, but I'm rather new to JavaScript and I don't really know how to make such a function interact with what I have now. I'd really appreciate any help as to how to get generated numbers with commas! :) HTML: <table id="inputValues"> <tr> <td>Percentage:</td> <td><input id="sempPer" type="text"></td> </tr> <tr> <td>Price:</td> <td><input id="unitPrice" type="text"></td> </tr> <tr> <td colspan="2"><input id="button" type="submit" value="Calculate"></td> </tr> </table> <table id="revenue" class="TFtable"> <tr> <td class="bold">Market Share</td> <td class="bold">Partner A</td> <td class="bold">Partner B</td> </tr> <tr> <td class="bold">1%</td> <td><span id="moss1"></span></td> <td><span id="semp1"></span></td> </tr> </table> </form> JavaScript: <script> function calc() { var z = Number(document.getElementById('sempPer').value); var x = Number(document.getElementById('unitPrice').value); var y = z / 100; var dm1 = .01 * 50000 * x * (1-y); var se1 = .01 * 50000 * x * y; document.getElementById("moss1").innerHTML= "$"+Number(dm1).toFixed(2); document.getElementById("semp1").innerHTML= "$"+Number(se1).toFixed(2); } </script>

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  • Cheapest way to connect 20-24 Sata II HDDs in a budget storage server?

    - by Joe Hopfgartner
    I need to assemble a high density storage server for as cheap as possible. It's been a while for me and the last systems I integrated didn't even have Sata yet... During my Research I of course stumbled about Nexsan SATA Beast, the BackBlaze storage Pods as well as some ridiculously overpriced HP Proliant or Dell storage solutions. Finally I choose Norco cases as the way to go. My eye is set on the RPC-4020, which is a 4U 19" Rackmount case with 20 Hot Swap 3.5" SATA/SAS Hdd trays (Backplanes included) and room for two 2.5" OS drives as well as a Slim Line CD-Rom. The backplanes connect with a single SATA port for each drive, so there are 20 internal SATA ports to to be connected. They also have redundant power ports which I think is quite nice. The cheapest price I have found is 290$ + 40$ shipping. In europe the cheapest unfortunately is 370€ (500$) + 40 € shipping... A nice alternative would be the RPC-4224 which has SFF-8087 Mini SAS connectors that bundle 4 SATA trays each. But it doesn't seem to be available in Europe (where i am) anywhere. So here comes my problem: What Mainboard/Controller to choose to connect them for as cheap as possible while still having nice data rates? I have to say that the server is intended as a Storage server with 1gps connectivity and the data transfer will be distributed very evenly across all drives. I also don't require any raid functionality. This is all done at application level, I just need JBOD. So for example if I go for the RPC 4020 Model I need to connect 20 Storage + 1 OS + 1 CDROM Sata ports. I searched a bit and stumbled across this very low priced controller: http://www.intel.com/products/server/raid-controllers/SASWT4I/SASWT4I-overview.htm They sell it for 115 € here and the specs say it can control up to 122 hard discs and has 4 Mini SAS connectors. So I would use 4 Mini SAS 36pin - 4 SATA 7pin cables to connect 4 SATA drives to each port and choose a Mainboard taht has 6 SATA on board (for example this one) and hurray, I can connect my 22 SATA devices for as low as about ~ 220 EUR (cpu, ram, psu, case not counted) Question: WOULD THAT WORK? And if not, why? 2nd Question: If I go for the 4220 or 4224 Model, I have internal Mini SAS connectors. Am I right in assuming that the backplane than acts as a "SAS Expander"? And can I just plug these SAS connectors into any SAS port I can find on my controller / mainboard or are there certain requirements? I know that SATA port multipliers only work with controllers that are ready for that. But isn't this expansion already implemented in the SAS standard? I am sorry that this is a very broad question, but I really spent the last week reading up and it seems to be not so clear! Especially all the controlling hardware specifications! 3rd Question: A lot of hardware specs feature "internal channels" and "internal connectors". The connecors are the physical numbers of places where I can plug a cable in. I got that. But are the "internal channels" always the maximum numbers of physical drives that can be used in the end? Or can I enhance this further by Expanders/Fanouts? 4th and last question: What do you think about the setup so far? Do you know any good alternatives? Maby I am completely going the wrong way and some DAS would be way better? Are there any comparable chassis available in europe? Please feel free to say whatever you think is relevant to the subject!

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  • Where should I go with hosting my site: VPS, GAE, another option?

    - by Jonathan Hayward
    My website, http://JonathansCorner.com/, began life before 1994 as www.imsa.edu/~jhayward/ and has been through various iterations and improvements to content, HTML, and the like, but remains a literature site that is from a web administrator's perspective fairly simple and primitive: a fair amount of static HTML and supporting files, a little bit of CGI and URI rewriting, .htaccess files providing Expires: headers and the like. An associated site demoes various CGI scripts that fall under the category of "and other creations"; the site as a whole has the purpose of sharing my creative works, and so far a fairly rudimentary use of Apache functionality, supported by Unix tools to, for instance, update RSS feed and the "starting point" link on the home page, has served that purpose fairly well. I looked around here on web hosting, and found the note on web host reccommendations as a good note for "What are some of people's favorite web hosts overall," but I wanted to ask a more focused question of "What are the best web hosts for criteria XYZ:" I am looking at a VPS so I will have root, be able to install stuff and edit Apache's config files etc., running Gentoo or other Linux, BSD, or the like. I would like a system that is secure enough that the host's vulnerabilities are mostly the ones that come along with what I am trying to do: that is, I won't be trying to administer and secure an ancient Linux like some have complained about at 1and1. I would like good uptime/reliability and competent support staff: if the level 1 help desk is going to tell me to go to "My Computer" on a Linux box, I'd like to be able to get past them. Ideally I would like a site hosted within some place that will have low latency for U.S. visitors in particular. I would like a hosting solution that will be with a stable business, one that will probably be around, and one unlikely to vanish without warning. With those things specified, I would be interested in knowing what are the less expensive options. (I expect that some of the things I've specified will knock out all of the cheapest options, but I'm still interested in price.) With all that stated, I'd like to back up a bit and look at whether I am asking the right question. I am concerned that the above is a very good way of asking, "How can I keep my site in line with the wave of the past?" I am wondering if it might be specifically wiser to look to adapt my site to newer technologies instead of trying to keep it on older technologies. For instance, while I would hardly portray my site as a way to show off the full power of Google App Engine, the main site at least should be a straightforward port if I were to do that. And beyond Google App Engine, my knowledge of cloud solutions is basic. If it is a better and more future-proof solution to port my site to another kind of solution, I would be interested in knowing where those future-proof solutions lie. So I would be interested in wisdom. If the question I asked in detail is still a good question to be asking, what would people suggest? Or if I should seriously consider porting my site to a newer basic option, what should I try there? Any thoughts would be appreciated.

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  • How do I make an external hard drive keep the same drive letter permanently?

    - by andygrunt
    I have a desktop PC (2002 vintage) running Windows XP that I turn on about 2 or 3 times per week. I have a mains powered 250Gb Western Digital hard disk connected to it via USB. I always turn the hard disk on before the PC so it's up and running as the PC boots. When I first connected the external hard disk, the PC assigned it a letter ('i' if it matters) and I've installed software to it, created shortcuts to various files and folders on the disk using that letter. For years everything was fine then I would boot the PC and the hard disk was assigned a different letter. I'd then have to go into 'my computer/manage/disk management' and manually change the letter back to 'i'. If I then rebooted the PC, the hard disk would usually still be 'i' but after the next reboot would be some other random letter and I have to manually change it back to 'i'. This would go on for some time then there'd be periods when the it would always be 'i' then, for no apparent reason (no new devices added, for example), the drive letter would start changing again. At the moment it's in random drive letter mood so I thought I'd ask the following question... How do I assign the external hard disk to be 'i' permanently? Answer: Thanks Molly that seems to have done the trick (after a little fiddling) - slightly disappointed there wasn't a way to do it within Windows without installing something else though. For anyone else trying this, it wasn't completely straightforward so here's what happened with me. I installed USBDLM as per the instructions on its website. I guessed that I had to assign the first USB letter to i so replaced the 'Letter1=' lines to 'Letter=I' in the ini file. To test it, I rebooted the PC only to find it came back up with the display set to 640x480 in 16 colours. After some investigation, I re-installed the display drivers and rebooted and set the display back to its usual setting. The external hard disk now gets set to 'i' but I found I had to re-apply sharing status to it so it was seen from my laptop which is on the same network. The end result of all this is that it now does what I wanted although it does act as though the hard drive has just been plugged in a few seconds after the Windows desktop appears i.e. the little box appears with a progress bar as it searches through the contents of the 'new' hard drive and I eventually get a dialogue box saying 'This disk or device contains more than one type of content. What do you want Windows to do?' and lists options such as play media files, print the pictures or open folder to view the files. This is a tiny pain I wish didn't happen but not exactly a huge price to pay. Other than that - it seems to work fine :) Looks like a spoke too soon... Every time I reboot, I have to re-share the 'i' drive (which I didn't have to do before) so it can be seen by my laptop on the same network. Any ideas how to make that permanent?

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  • What networking hardware do I need in this situation (Fairpoint [ISP] "E-DIA" connection)?

    - by Tegeril
    Right away you'd probably want to say, "Well just ask Fairpoint." I've done that, a number of times in as many different ways I can phrase it and just keep hitting a brick wall where they will not commit to giving any useful information and instead recommend contracting an outside firm and spending a pile of money. Anyway... I'm trying to help a family member out with an office connection that is being setup. I've managed to scrape tiny details here and there from our discussions with the ISP (Fairpoint in Maine) about what is going to be done and what is going to be needed. This is the connection that is being setup: http://www.fairpoint.com/enterprise/vantagepoint/e-dia/index.jsp Information I have been given: Via this connection I can get IPs across different C blocks if that were necessary (it is not) Fairpoint is bringing hardware with them that they claim simply does the conversion from whatever line is coming in the building to ethernet, they have referred to this as the "Fairpoint Netvanta" which I know suggests a line of products that I have looked up, but some (most? all?) of those seems to handle all the routing that I saw. Fairpoint says that I need to bring my own router to sit behind their device. They have literally declined to even suggest products that have worked for other clients in the past and fall back on "any business router works, not a home router." That alone makes my head spin. Detail and clarity hit a brick wall from there. At one moment I got them to cough up that the router I provide needs to be able to do VPN tunneling but they typically fall back to "not a home router" and I was even given "just a business router, Cisco or something, it'll be $500-$1000". Now I know that VPN tunneling routers exist well below that price point and since this connection is going to one machine, possibly two only via ethernet, my desire to purchase networking hardware that over-delivers what I need is not very high. They are literally setting all this up, have provided no configuration details for after they finish, and expect me to just plunk a $500+ router behind it and cross my fingers or contract out to a third party company. If there were other options available for the location, I would have dropped them in a second, but there aren't. The device that is connected requires a static IP and I'm honestly a bit hazy on the necessity of an additional router behind their device and generally a bit over my head. I presume that the router needs to be able to serve external static IPs to its clients, but I really don't know what is going to show up when they come to do the install. This was originally going to be run via an ADSL bridge modem with a range of static IPs (which is easy and is currently setup properly) but the location is too far from the telco to get speeds that we really want for upload and this is also a connection that needs high availability. Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated (I see a number of options in the Cisco Small Business line and other competitors that aren't going to break the bank…), especially if you've worked with Fairpoint before! Thanks for reading my wall of text.

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