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  • Architecture for new ASP.NET web application

    - by Anders Abel
    I'm maintaining an application which currently is just a web service (built with WCF) and a database backend. The web service is built in layers with a linq-to-sql data access part with core functionality in an own assembly and on top of that the web service assembly which contains the WCF code. The core assembly also handles all business logic rules (very few actually). The customer now wants a Web interface for the application instead of just accessing it through other applications which are consuming the web service. I'm quite lost on modern web application design, so I would like some advice on what architecture and frameworks to use for the web application. The web application will be using the same core assembly with business rules and the linq-to-sql data access layer as the web service. Some concepts I've thought about are: ASP.NET MVC Webforms AJAX controls - possibly leting the AJAX controls access the existing web service through JSON. Are there any more concepts I should look into? Which one is the best for a fresh project? The development tools are Visual Studio 2008 Team Edition for Developers targeting .NET 3.5. An upgrade to Visual Studio 2010 Premium (or maybe even Ultimate) is possible if it gives any benefits.

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  • Ajax UpdatePanels SetFocus issue

    - by George
    I set the AutoPostback property of a textbox to True so I can process the TextChanged event on the server and, based on what they typed in the textbox, appropriately display a message in an update panel. The problem is, when the partial screen refresh is performed, no control on the screen has focus. 99% of the time, when the text in the textbox is changed, it is because the user has tabbed forward, and so, to limit the disruption in the lost of focus, I perform a "Focus" call on teh next control in the tab sequence. For the most part, this works OK, but of course, is disputive if the user is tabbing in the reverse order or has used the mouse to set the focus to another control. In these situations, the focus would be set to the next control even though the user was trying to set focus elsewhere. OK, that sucks. Now what I consider the bigger problem with calling the focus method on the server: In IE, it works OK, but in Mozilla Firefox and Chrome, setting the focus causes a repositioning of the scroll bar, even though none is necessary because the control is already in view. I realize that I could switch to doing AJAX web service calls, but these darn Updae Panels are so convenient if used in moderation. is there anyway to use updatepanels and not have these focus/scroll issues?

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  • Facebook Application with PHP running loosing session

    - by ArneRie
    Iam trying to build an Facebook Application based on PHP. The Application is running under php on my own Webhost inside an Canvas as iFrame. I have included the newest Client Library for PHP from Facebook: facebook-php-sdk-94fcb13 To Authorize the user inside my application iam trying to use Facebook Connect, like the example shipped with the Client. Everything works fine the 1st Login, but when i hit the F5 Key to reload the page, the session is lost and i have to login again. When i call my application outside of the Facebook Canvas everything is fine. Iam not sure, but i think my Browser (Chrome/FireFox - Ubuntu) is not allowing to store an cookie inside an iFrame. Does someone knows an solution for this Problem? Here are some Parts of the Sourcecode: $facebook = new Facebook(array( 'appId' => 'x', 'secret' => 'x', 'cookie' => 'true', )); $session = $facebook->getSession(); $facebook->setSession($session); $me = null; // Session based API call. if ($session) { try { $uid = $facebook->getUser(); $me = $facebook->api('/me'); } catch (FacebookApiException $e) { error_log($e); } } // login or logout url will be needed depending on current user state. if ($me) { $logoutUrl = $facebook->getLogoutUrl(); } else { $loginUrl = $facebook->getLoginUrl(); }

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  • x86_64 assembler: only one call per subroutine?

    - by zneak
    Hello everyone, I decided yesterday to start doing assembler. Most of it is okay (well, as okay as assembler can be), but I'm getting some problems with gas. It seems that I can call functions only once. After that, any subsequent call opcode with the same function name will fail. I must be doing something terribly wrong, though I can't see what. Take this small C function for instance: void path_free(path_t path) { if (path == NULL) return; free(((point_list_t*)path)->points); free(path); } I "translated" it to assembler like that: .globl _path_free _path_free: push rbp mov rbp, rsp cmp rdi, 0 jz byebye push rdi mov rdi, qword ptr [rdi] call _free pop rdi sub rsp, 8 call _free byebye: leave ret This triggers the following error for the second call _free: suffix or operands invalid for ``call''. And if I change it to something else, like free2, everything works (until link time, that is). Assembler code gcc -S gave me looks very similar to what I've done (except it's in AT&T syntax), so I'm kind of lost. I'm doing this on Mac OS X under the x86_64 architecture.

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  • Exception from HRESULT: 0x80020009 (DISP_E_EXCEPTION)) in SharePoint Part 2

    - by BeraCim
    Hi all: Following this post which I posted some time ago, I now get the same error every time I try to rewire 2 web's URLs. Basically, this is the code. It runs in a LongRunningOperationJob: SPWeb existingWeb = null; using (existingWeb = site.OpenWeb(wedId)) { SPWeb destinationWeb = createNewSite(existingWeb); existingWeb.AllowUnsafeUpdates = true; existingWeb.Name = existingWeb.Name + "_old"; existingWeb.Title = existingWeb.Title + "_old"; existingWeb.Description = existingWeb.Description + "_old"; existingWeb.Update() existingWeb.AllowUnsafeUpdates = false; destinationWeb.AllowUnsafeUpdates = true; destinationWeb.Name = existingWeb.Name; destinationWeb.Title = existingWeb.Title; destinationWeb.Description = existingWeb.Description; destinationWeb.Update(); destinationWeb.AllowUnsafeUpdates = false; // null this for what its worth existingWeb = null; destinationWeb = null; } // <---- Exception raised here Basically, the code is trying to rename the existing site's URL to something else, and have the destination web's url point to the old site's URL. When I run this for the first time, I received the Exception mentioned in the subject. However, every run after, I do not see the exception anymore. The webs DO get rewired... but at the cost of the app dying an unnecessary and terrible death. I'm at a complete lost as to what is going on and needs urgent help. Does sharepoint keep any hidden table from me or is the logic above has fatal problems? Thanks.

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  • Open the Word Application from a button on a web page

    - by Andrea
    I'm developing a proof of concept web application: A web page with a button that opens the Word Application installed on the user's PC. I'm stuck with a C# project in Visual Studio 2008 Express (Windows XP client, LAMP server). I've followed the Writing an ActiveX Control in .NET tutorial and after some tuning it worked fine. Then I added my button for opening Word. The problem is that I can reference the Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word from the project, but I'm not able to access it from the web page. The error says "That assembly does not allow partially trusted callers". I've read a lot about security in .NET, but I'm totally lost now. Disclaimer: I'm into .NET since 4 days ago. I've tried to work around this issue but I cannot see the light!! I don't even know if it will ever be possible! using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Drawing; using System.Data; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Forms; using Word = Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word; using System.IO; using System.Security.Permissions; using System.Security; [assembly: AllowPartiallyTrustedCallers] namespace OfficeAutomation { public partial class UserControl1 : UserControl { public UserControl1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void openWord_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { Word.Application Word_App = null; Word_App = new Word.Application(); Word_App.Visible = true; } catch (Exception exc) { MessageBox.Show("Can't open Word application (" + exc.ToString() + ")"); } } } }

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  • Permissions on Mac OSX

    - by Linda
    I think that this is a permissions issue but I am not sure and I am not sure how to repair the problem. I have a new MacBook. I have 2 external drives that were previously used on another MacBook. I have a lot of folders and XCode projects on the external drives. When I try to work on the projects, there is a message similar to this: "This file is not writable. You may not be able to save your changes, but you will be able to Save a Copy somewhere else. Do you want to edit this file anyway?" If I make changes and try to close the project I get this error: "The project and user files project.pbxproj and macbook.pbxuser for project “thirdtry.xcodeproj” are not writeable and cannot be saved. Your changes will be lost if you close the project. You may need to SCM edit these files to gain writability." I have tried just to rename the folder but that permission is not allowed either unless I individually change permissions for every file in an XCode project. As you can imagine, this could be time consuming for tons of files and projects. I can copy the project into internal memory and can run it then after renaming the folder that contains all of the files. This defeats the purpose of having all of the projects on an external drive. Also, in XCode, there is no "Build and Run" there is only "Build and Debug" now. I don't know if this is related or not. Suggestions for how to repair all permissions to all files and folders on my external drives? What about the "Build and Debug" and no "Build and Run" choice? Thanks, Linda

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  • How to replace custom IDs in the order of their appearance with a shell script?

    - by Péter Török
    I have a pair of rather large log files with very similar content, except that some identifiers are different between the two. A couple of examples: UnifiedClassLoader3@19518cc | UnifiedClassLoader3@d0357a JBossRMIClassLoader@13c2d7f | JBossRMIClassLoader@191777e That is, wherever the first file contains UnifiedClassLoader3@19518cc, the second contains UnifiedClassLoader3@d0357a, and so on. I want to replace these with identical IDs so that I can spot the really important differences between the two files. I.e. I want to replace all occurrences of both UnifiedClassLoader3@19518cc in file1 and UnifiedClassLoader3@d0357a in file2 with UnifiedClassLoader3@1; all occurrences of both JBossRMIClassLoader@13c2d7f in file1 and JBossRMIClassLoader@191777e in file2 with JBossRMIClassLoader@2 etc. Using the Cygwin shell, so far I managed to list all different identifiers occurring in one of the files with grep -o -e 'ClassLoader[0-9]*@[0-9a-f][0-9a-f]*' file1.log | sort | uniq However, now the original order is lost, so I don't know which is the pair of which ID in the other file. With grep -n I can get the line number, so the sort would preserve the order of appearance, but then I can't weed out the duplicate occurrences. Unfortunately grep can not print only the first match of a pattern. I figured I could save the list of identifiers produced by the above command into a file, then iterate over the patterns in the file with grep -n | head -n 1, concatenate the results and sort them again. The result would be something like 2 ClassLoader3@19518cc 137 ClassLoader@13c2d7f 563 ClassLoader3@1267649 ... Then I could (either manually or with sed itself) massage this into a sed command like sed -e 's/ClassLoader3@19518cc/ClassLoader3@2/g' -e 's/ClassLoader@13c2d7f/ClassLoader@137/g' -e 's/ClassLoader3@1267649/ClassLoader3@563/g' file1.log > file1_processed.log and similarly for file2. However, before I start, I would like to verify that my plan is the simplest possible working solution to this. Is there any flaw in this approach? Is there a simpler way?

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  • Client Web Browser Behavior When Handling 301 Redirect

    - by Jon Swanson
    The RFC seems to suggest that the client should permanently cache the response: http://www.w3.org/Protocols/rfc2616/rfc2616-sec10.html 10.3.2 301 Moved Permanently The requested resource has been assigned a new permanent URI and any future references to this resource SHOULD use one of the returned URIs. Clients with link editing capabilities ought to automatically re-link references to the Request-URI to one or more of the new references returned by the server, where possible. This response is cacheable unless indicated otherwise. The new permanent URI SHOULD be given by the Location field in the response. Unless the request method was HEAD, the entity of the response SHOULD contain a short hypertext note with a hyperlink to the new URI(s). If the 301 status code is received in response to a request other than GET or HEAD, the user agent MUST NOT automatically redirect the request unless it can be confirmed by the user, since this might change the conditions under which the request was issued. Note: When automatically redirecting a POST request after receiving a 301 status code, some existing HTTP/1.0 user agents will erroneously change it into a GET request. I'm having a hard time finding concrete browser documentation for any major browser that states how they handle these. I've started digging through the source code of firefox, but quickly got lost. Is the following scenario true for which (if any) browsers, and is there definitive documentation for either Firefox or IE that states as much?: First Time Around: 1.1: User enters link to site A, or clicks on a link directed at Site A 1.2: Browser interprets link at Site A, first time, no cache. Sends GET to Site A. 1.2: Site A responds with 301 Redirect to Site B 1.3: Browser sends GET to Site B. Any Subsequent Times Around: 2.2: User clicks on a link directed at Site A 2.2: Browser sees that, due to a past 301 redirect, Site A should now be Site B. 2.3: Without initiating any request whatsoever at Site A, browser initiates GET at Site B.

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  • How to update a property using Type.GetProperties() method?

    - by Richard77
    Hello, I've a collection of a class' properties and would like to update each one's value by iterating over the collection through the index. 1) I create the collection of properties this way private PropertyInfo[] GetPropertiesOfMyClass() { Type myType = (typeof(myClass)); PropertyInfo[] PropertyInfoArray = myType.GetProperties( BindingFlags.Public | BindingFlags.Instance); return PropertyInfoArray; } 2)Now, I'd like to set up the value of each one depending on the index this way public void UpdateProperty(MyClass instanceOfMyClass, string valueToUpdate, int index) { //TODO: //1. Get an individual property from the GetPropertyOfMyClass() using index //2. Update the value of an individual property of the instanceOfMyClass } I'd like to be able to call UpdateProperty from a Controller like this: UpdateProperty(instanceOfMyClass, valueToUpdate, indexOfTheProperty); Honestly, I do not know how to involve the instanceOfMyClass in the game as GetProperty only plays with myClass. Since I saw that I can use Name, PropertyType, ... to get information on the property. So, I've tried also GetPropertyOfMyClass()[index].SetValue(...), but I was lost in the arguments of its constructor, so I abandoned. What I want is to be able to update the value of a property in my collection just by using the index. Thanks for helping

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  • Paypal Encrypted Website payments

    - by John Isaacks
    I am trying to integrate a PayPal Website Payments Standard Cart Upload payment type into my shopping cart. I integrated Google Checkout a while back and I did not find it overly confusing as I do paypal. I am getting info on how to encrypt it from here: https://cms.paypal.com/us/cgi-bin/?&cmd=_render-content&content_ID=developer/e_howto_html_encryptedwebpayments#id08A3I0P017Q Paypal says I need to generate a private key and a public certificate using OpenSSL. I went to OpenSSL and downloaded the latest release, which is just a folder containing various files but I see no application I can use, not sure what to do here. Even if I were to get OpenSSL to generate me a private key and public cert, the next step is to download either an MS or Java command line tool to create the encrypted cart ahead of time with the cart-total, tax, etc. which sounds crazy to me, like I am supposed to manually do this prior to every order?? Obviously I do not know the items in the cart the customer is going to buy before hand so I need this to be done on the fly on my website using PHP. But I am completely lost. There has to be a way to setup dynamic secure cart uploads to paypal. Can someone please point me in the right direction?

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  • why is OOP hard for me?

    - by netrox
    I have trouble writing OOP in PHP... I understand the concept but I never create classes for my projects... mainly because it's often a small project and nothing complex. But when I read OOP, it seems more difficult to code than writing simple procedural statements. It also seems to take a lot of room as well with so many empty abstract classes and that can be easily lost in the land of objects... it's becoming like a junkyard to me. Also, I noticed that virtually all instructions on how to use OOP use "car" or "cat" or "dog" analogies. Hello... we're not dealing with animals or cars... we're dealing with windows or consoles. You can talk about analogies to death and I will never learn. What I want is see a code that's written to show how objects are created - not, "aCow-moo!" For example, I want to see a browser window object displaying say... three inputs. I want to see an "object" created to output a window with three inputs then I want to see how overriding works, like change the window object to display only two inputs instead of three inputs. I think that would make learning more easy, wouldn't it? Any recommended tutorials of that nature instead of quacks, moos, and woofs.

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  • Partially constructed object / Multi threading

    - by reto
    Heya! I'm using joda due to it's good reputation regarding multi threading. It goes great distances to make multi threaded date handling efficient, for example by making all Date/Time/DateTime objects immutable. But here's a situation where I'm not sure if Joda is really doing the right thing. It probably is correct, but I'd be very interested to see the explanation for it. When a toString() of a DateTime is being called Joda does the following: /* org.joda.time.base.AbstractInstant */ public String toString() { return ISODateTimeFormat.dateTime().print(this); } All formatters are thread safe, as they are as well ready-only. But what's about the formatter-factory: private static DateTimeFormatter dt; /* org.joda.time.format.ISODateTimeFormat */ public static DateTimeFormatter dateTime() { if (dt == null) { dt = new DateTimeFormatterBuilder() .append(date()) .append(tTime()) .toFormatter(); } return dt; } This is a common pattern in single threaded applications. I see the following dangers: Race condition during null check -- worst case: two objects get created. No Problem, as this is solely a helper object (unlike a normal singleton pattern situation), one gets saved in dt, the other is lost and will be garbage collected sooner or later. the static variable might point to a partially constructed object before the objec has been finished initialization (before calling me crazy, read about a similar situation in this Wikipedia article. So how does Joda ensure that not partially created formatter gets published in this static variable? Thanks for your explanations! Reto

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  • Temporary storage for keeping data between program iterations?

    - by mr.b
    I am working on an application that works like this: It fetches data from many sources, resulting in pool of about 500,000-1,500,000 records (depends on time/day) Data is parsed Part of data is processed in a way to compare it to pre-existing data (read from database), calculations are made, and stored in database. Resulting dataset that has to be stored in database is, however, much smaller in size (compared to original data set), and ranges from 5,000-50,000 records. This process almost always updates existing data, perhaps adds few more records. Then, data from step 2 should be kept somehow, somewhere, so that next time data is fetched, there is a data set which can be used to perform calculations, without touching pre-existing data in database. I should point out that this data can be lost, it's not irreplaceable (key information can be read from database if needed), but it would speed up the process next time. Application components can (and will be) run off different computers (in the same network), so storage has to be reachable from multiple hosts. I have considered using memcached, but I'm not quite sure should I do so, because one record is usually no smaller than 200 bytes, and if I have 1,500,000 records, I guess that it would amount to over 300 MB of memcached cache... But that doesn't seem scalable to me - what if data was 5x that amount? If it were to consume 1-2 GB of cache only to keep data in between iterations (which could easily happen)? So, the question is: which temporary storage mechanism would be most suitable for this kind of processing? I haven't considered using mysql temporary tables, as I'm not sure if they can persist between sessions, and be used by other hosts in network... Any other suggestion? Something I should consider?

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  • 500 Worker Threads, what kind of thread pool?

    - by Submerged
    I am wondering if this is the best way to do this. I have about 500 threads that run indefinitely, but Thread.sleep for a minute when done one cycle of processing. ExecutorService es = Executors.newFixedThreadPool(list.size()+1); for (int i = 0; i < list.size(); i++) { es.execute(coreAppVector.elementAt(i)); //coreAppVector is a vector of extends thread objects } The code that is executing is really simple and basically just this class aThread extends Thread { public void run(){ while(true){ Thread.sleep(ONE_MINUTE); //Lots of computation every minute } } } I do need a separate threads for each running task, so changing the architecture isn't an option. I tried making my threadPool size equal to Runtime.getRuntime().availableProcessors() which attempted to run all 500 threads, but only let 8 (4xhyperthreading) of them execute. The other threads wouldn't surrender and let other threads have their turn. I tried putting in a wait() and notify(), but still no luck. If anyone has a simple example or some tips, I would be grateful! Well, the design is arguably flawed. The threads implement Genetic-Programming or GP, a type of learning algorithm. Each thread analyzes advanced trends makes predictions. If the thread ever completes, the learning is lost. That said, I was hoping that sleep() would allow me to share some of the resources while one thread isn't "learning"

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  • Beginning Haskell: "not in scope" Unprecedented error

    - by user1071838
    So I just started learning Haskell, and this (http://learnyouahaskell.com) nifty book is giving a lot of help. So yesterday I wrote in a text file doubleMe x = x + x and saved it as double.hs. So after saving that I open up my command prompt, CD to the right folder, type in "ghci" to get haskell started, and then type in >doubleMe 5 10 and everything seems to work. Now today, I do the same thing and this happens (actual copy paste from command line) . . . C:\Users\myName\haskell>ghci GHCi, version 7.0.3: http://www.haskell.org/ghc/ :? for help Loading package ghc-prim ... linking ... done. Loading package integer-gmp ... linking ... done. Loading package base ... linking ... done. Loading package ffi-1.0 ... linking ... done. Prelude> :l double.hs [1 of 1] Compiling Main ( double.hs, interpreted ) Ok, modules loaded: Main. *Main> doubleMe 5 <interactive>:1:1: Not in scope: `doubleMe' So basically, everything was working fine, but now haskell can't find the function I wrote in double.hs. Can anyone tell what is going on? I'm pretty lost and confused. This is just a guess but does it have to do with *Main at all? Thanks for the help.

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  • Write Null/Nothing value with Databinding

    - by clawson
    I have extended a MaskedTextBox component to add some functionality. The text property of the extended MaskedTextBox is bound to a DateTime? property and the format of binding is set to a time format of "HH:mm:ss" (i.e. 24hr time). So that this masked text box will capture the display a time. The extra functionality I have added is to make the component readonly unless the component is double clicked or the enter button is pressed (the back color of the control helps to inform the users if the component is locked/readonly or not). When the enter button is pressed I also suspend the bindings so that bound data is updated the users input won't be lost. The information is then written back to the value and databindings resumed when the user presses the enter key again. This all works fine up to here, with values written and displayed as would be expected. However, I also want to write the null or nothing value to the DateTime? property if the user hasn't entered any text (or invalid text but let's just stick with no text) when enter key is pressed to submit the new value. Unlike with other valid entries in the MaskedTextBox, with no text entered when i execute: Me.DataBindings("Text").WriteValue() (when 'locking' the MaskedTextBox) it then branches to the bound properties Get method as I step into each line of code in the debugger (as opposed to the Set method with other valid entries) How can I write this null/nothing/"" value to the DateTime? property when no text "" is entered into the MaskedTextBox? Thanks for the help!

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  • Dealing with expired session for a partially filled form?

    - by aaronls
    I have a large webform, and would like to prompt the user to login if their session expires, or have them login when they submit the form. It seems that having them login when they submit the form creates alot of challenges because they get redirected to the login page and then the postback data for the original form submission is lost. So I'm thinking about how to prompt them to login asynchrounsly when the session expires. So that they stay on the original form page, have a panel appear telling them the session has expired and they need to login, it submits the login asynchronously, the login panel disapears, and the user is still on the original partially filled form and can submit it. Is this easily doable using the existing ASP.NET Membership controls? When they submit the form will I need to worry about the session key? I mean, I am wondering if the session key the form submits will be the original one from before the session expired which won't match the new one generated after logging in again asynchrounously(I still do not understand the details of how ASP.NET tracks authentication/session IDs). Edit: Yes I am actually concerned about authentication expiration. The user must be authenticated for the submitted data to be considered valid.

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  • State Animation on ListBox ItemTemplate

    - by Peanut
    I have a listbox which reads from Observable collection, and is ItemTemplate'ed: <DataTemplate x:Key="DataTemplate1"> <Grid x:Name="grid" Height="47.333" Width="577" Opacity="0.495"> <Image HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="10.668,8,0,8" Width="34" Source="{Binding ImageLocation}"/> <TextBlock Margin="56,8,172.334,8" TextWrapping="Wrap" Text="{Binding ApplicationName}" FontSize="21.333"/> <Grid x:Name="grid1" HorizontalAlignment="Right" Margin="0,10.003,-0.009,11.33" Width="26" Opacity="0" RenderTransformOrigin="0.5,0.5"> <Image HorizontalAlignment="Stretch" Margin="0" Source="image/downloads.png" Stretch="Fill" MouseDown="Image_MouseDown" /> </Grid> </Grid> </DataTemplate> <ListBox x:Name="searchlist" Margin="8" ItemTemplate="{DynamicResource DataTemplate1}" ItemsSource="{Binding SearchResults}" SelectionChanged="searchlist_SelectionChanged" ItemContainerStyle="{DynamicResource ListBoxItemStyle1}" /> In general, my question is "What is the easiest way to do Animation on Particular Items in this listbox As they are selected? Basically the image inside the "grid1" will be setting its opacity to 1, slowly. I would prefer to use states, but I do not know of any way to just tell blend and xaml to "When a selected item is changed, change the image opacity to 1 over a period of .3 seconds". Infact, I have been doing this in the .cs file using the VisualStateManager. Also, there is another issue. When the selected index is changed, we goto the CS file and look at SelectedItem. SelectedItem returns an instance of the Object in which it was bound to (The object inside the observable collection), and NOT an instance of the DataTemplate/ListItem etc. So how am I able to pull the correct image out of this list? State animation with VisualStateManager I can handle fine if its just normal things, but when it comes to generated listboxes' items, I'm lost. Thanks

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  • Sequential animations in Jquery

    - by Pickels
    I see a lot people struggling with this(me included). I guess it's mostly due to not perfectly knowing how Javascript scopes work. An image slideshow is a good example of this. So lets say you have series of images, the first one fades in = waits = fades out = next image. When I first created this I was already a little lost. I think the biggest problem for creating the basics is to keep it clean. I noticed working with callbacks can get uggly pretty fast. So to make it even more complicated most slideshows have control buttons. Next, previous, go to img, pause, ... I've been trying this for a while now and this is where I got: $(InitSlideshow); function InitSlideshow() { var img = $("img").hide(); var animate = { wait: undefined, start: function() { img.fadeIn(function() { animate.middle(); }); }, middle: function() { animate.wait = setTimeout(function() { animate.end(); }, 1000); }, end: function() { img.fadeOut(function() { animate.start(); }); }, stop: function() { img.stop(); clearTimeout(animate.wait); } }; $("#btStart").click(animate.start); $("#btStop").click(animate.stop); }; This code works(I think) but I wonder how other people deal with sequentials animations in Jquery? Tips and tricks are most welcome. So are links to good resources dealing with this issue. If this has been asked before I will delete this question. I didn't find a lot of info about this right away. I hope making this community wiki is correct as there is not one correct answer to my question. Kind regards, Pickels

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  • WPF: How can I KEEP the same ItemTemplate instance once its created ??

    - by Samir Sabri
    Hello, Here is a cinario: I have a ListView, with ItemsSource = ProjectModel.Instance.PagesModelsCollection; where PagesModelsCollection is an ObservableCollection In the ListView XAML part: <ListView.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate x:Name="PagesViewDataTemplate"> <DataTemplate.Resources> <Style x:Key="PageHostStyle" TargetType="{x:Type p:KPage}"> </Style> </DataTemplate.Resources> <StackPanel x:Name="MarginStack" Margin="50,50,50,50" > <p:KPage x:Name="PageHost" > </p:KPage> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ListView.ItemTemplate> The problem is the ITemTemplate is re-created each time we refresh the Items. So, if we have 100 Item in the list view, another 100 new ItemTemplate instance will be created if we refresh the items! As a result, if we add UIElements on one of the ItemTemplate intances, those added UIElements will be lost, because the old ITemTemplate is replaced with a new one! How can I KEEP the ItemTemplate instance once its created ??

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  • How do I use IIS6 style metabase paths in IIS7 AppCmd tool?

    - by Mike Atlas
    I'm currently in the process of upgrading old II6 automation scripts that use the IISVdir tool to create/modify/update apps and virtual directories, and replacing them with AppCmd for IIS7. The IIS6, "IISVDir" commands reference paths in that are from the metabase, eg, "/W3SVC/1/ROOT/MyApp" - where 1 is ID of the "Default Web Site" site. The command doesn't actually require the display name of the site to make changes to it. This works well, since on a different language OS, the "Default Web Site" site name could be named, for example, "??? Web ???" or anything else for that matter. But this flexibility is lost if AppCmd can only reference "Default Web Site" via its name, and not a language-neutral identifier. So, how can I script AppCmd to refer to sites, vdirs and apps using language neutral identifiers to reference the "Default App Site"? Perhaps I need to start creating my own site instead, from the start, and name it something else specific, and stop using "Default Web Site" as the root? (Disclosure: I only have a IIS7-English machine that I am working on currently, but I have both IIS6-English and IIS6-Japanese machines for testing my old scripts - so perhaps it really is just "Default Web Site" still on Win2k8-Japanese?)

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  • Put together tiles in android sdk and use as background

    - by Jon
    In a feeble attempt to learn some Android development am I stuck at graphics. My aim here is pretty simple: Take n small images and build a random image, larger than the screen with possibility to scroll around. Have an animated object move around on it I have looked at the SDK examples, Lunar Lander especially but there are a few things I utterly fail to wrap my head around. I've got a birds view plan (which in my head seems reasonably sane): How do I merge the tiles into one large image? The background is static so I figure I should do like this: Make a 2d array with refs to the tiles Make a large Drawable and draw the tiles on it At init draw this big image as the background At each onDraw redraw the background of the previous spot of the moving object, and the moving object at its new location The problem is the hands on things. I load the small images with "Bitmap img1 = BitmapFactory.decodeResource (res, R.drawable.img1)", but then what? Should I make a canvas and draw the images on it with "canvas.drawBitmap (img1, x, y, null);"? If so how to get a Drawable/Bitmap from that? I'm totally lost here, and would really appreciate some hands on help (I would of course be grateful for general hints as well, but I'm primarily trying to understand the Graphics objects). To make you, dear reader, see my level of confusion will I add my last desperate try: Drawable drawable; Canvas canvas = new Canvas (); Bitmap img1 = BitmapFactory.decodeResource (res, R.drawable.img1); // 50 x 100 px image Bitmap img2 = BitmapFactory.decodeResource (res, R.drawable.img2); // 50 x 100 px image canvas.drawBitmap (img1, 0, 0, null); canvas.drawBitmap (img2, 50, 0, null); drawable.draw (canvas); // obviously wrong as draw == null this.setBackground (drawable); Thanks in advance

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  • Diagnosing IIS Shutdowns

    - by Tom Ritter
    Symptoms: I attach a debugger, I wait a little while, it automatically detaches I watch the event log during normal operation - after a single request comes in, it waits a little bit, the shuts down Disagnosing. I've followed the following steps for logging shutdowns in IIS: http://weblogs.asp.net/scottgu/archive/2005/12/14/433194.aspx http://blogs.msdn.com/tess/archive/2006/08/02/asp-net-case-study-lost-session-variables-and-appdomain-recycles.aspx I know these are working because... What I see in the Event Logs when I change the web.config: The description for Event ID 0 from source ASP.NET 2.0.50727.0 cannot be found. Either the component that raises this event is not installed on your local computer or the installation is corrupted. You can install or repair the component on the local computer. If the event originated on another computer, the display information had to be saved with the event. The following information was included with the event: _shutdownMessage=IIS configuration change HostingEnvironment initiated shutdown CONFIG change CONFIG change HostingEnvironment caused shutdown _shutdownStack= at System.Environment.GetStackTrace(Exception e, Boolean needFileInfo) at System.Environment.get_StackTrace() at System.Web.Hosting.HostingEnvironment.InitiateShutdownInternal() at System.Web.Hosting.HostingEnvironment.InitiateShutdown() at System.Web.Hosting.PipelineRuntime.StopProcessing() the message resource is present but the message is not found in the string/message table But it doesn't help because the mysetery error doesn't tell me anything. I see the same thing as from before I added this extra logging: The description for Event ID 0 from source ASP.NET 2.0.50727.0 cannot be found. Either the component that raises this event is not installed on your local computer or the installation is corrupted. You can install or repair the component on the local computer. If the event originated on another computer, the display information had to be saved with the event. The following information was included with the event: _shutdownMessage=HostingEnvironment initiated shutdown HostingEnvironment caused shutdown _shutdownStack= at System.Environment.GetStackTrace(Exception e, Boolean needFileInfo) at System.Environment.get_StackTrace() at System.Web.Hosting.HostingEnvironment.InitiateShutdownInternal() at System.Web.Hosting.HostingEnvironment.InitiateShutdown() at System.Web.Hosting.PipelineRuntime.StopProcessing() the message resource is present but the message is not found in the string/message table Anyone have any ideas for more debugging?

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  • EOFException in ObjectInputStream thrown accessing Servlet. Only for Webstart ?!

    - by Houtman
    Hi, My app. is started from both the commandline and by using an JNLP file. Im running java version 1.6.0_14 First i had the problem that i created the Buffered input and output streams in incorrect order. Found the solution here at StackOverflow . So starting from the commandline works fine now. But when starting the app using Webstart, it ends here java.io.EOFException at java.io.ObjectInputStream$PeekInputStream.readFully(Unknown Source) at java.io.ObjectInputStream$BlockDataInputStream.readShort(Unknown Source) at java.io.ObjectInputStream.readStreamHeader(Unknown Source) at java.io.ObjectInputStream.<init>(Unknown Source) at <..>remoting.thinclient.RemoteSocketChannel.<init>(RemoteSocketChannel.java:76) I found some posts regarding similar problems; at bugs.sun.com - identifies problem as solved in 6u10(b12)? at ibm.com - identifies cookies problem The latter suggests that there is a problem in Webstart with cookies. It doesn't seem to be acknowledged as a proper java bug though.. Still i am a bit lost in the solution provided regarding the cookies. Can anyone expand on the cookie solution? Many thanks.

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