Search Results

Search found 4866 results on 195 pages for 'ngu soon hui'.

Page 172/195 | < Previous Page | 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179  | Next Page >

  • why is my centos, nginx, php,mysql server using so much memory

    - by kb2tfa
    i'm not sure where the problem lies. I have: centos 6 mysql php php-fpm wordpress (1 site). this is a dedicated server i'm learning on. as soon as i ran the web url the memory slammed to 125% of a 512k server, i had to upgrade to 1gig, so i'm not sure where the problem lies. I thought by switching to nginx from apache i would have more memory free, but i'm still stuck with the problem. before launching the site with nginx and mysqld running the site was about 5% memory. I reanamed my "my-small.cnf" to my.cnf and put in my /etc folder where the original was, but that seems not to have done it. after looking at my TOP results, i'm starting to think it may be php-fpm eating my memory, but not sure. is php-fpm the preferend way or is there something better to use. I read about possible memory leaks in php-fpm. here is what i have: php-fpm.conf ;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;; ; FPM Configuration ; ;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;; ; All relative paths in this configuration file are relative to PHP's install ; prefix. ; Include one or more files. If glob(3) exists, it is used to include a bunch of ; files from a glob(3) pattern. This directive can be used everywhere in the ; file. include=/etc/php-fpm.d/*.conf ;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;; ; Global Options ; ;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;; [global] ; Pid file ; Default Value: none pid = /var/run/php-fpm/php-fpm.pid ; Error log file ; Default Value: /var/log/php-fpm.log error_log = /var/log/php-fpm/error.log ; Log level ; Possible Values: alert, error, warning, notice, debug ; Default Value: notice ;log_level = notice ; If this number of child processes exit with SIGSEGV or SIGBUS within the time ; interval set by emergency_restart_interval then FPM will restart. A value ; of '0' means 'Off'. ; Default Value: 0 ;emergency_restart_threshold = 0 ; Interval of time used by emergency_restart_interval to determine when ; a graceful restart will be initiated. This can be useful to work around ; accidental corruptions in an accelerator's shared memory. ; Available Units: s(econds), m(inutes), h(ours), or d(ays) ; Default Unit: seconds ; Default Value: 0 ;emergency_restart_interval = 0 ; Time limit for child processes to wait for a reaction on signals from master. ; Available units: s(econds), m(inutes), h(ours), or d(ays) ; Default Unit: seconds ; Default Value: 0 ;process_control_timeout = 0 ; Send FPM to background. Set to 'no' to keep FPM in foreground for debugging. ; Default Value: yes ;daemonize = yes ;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;; ; Pool Definitions ; ;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;; ; See /etc/php-fpm.d/*.conf end php-fpm.conf

    Read the article

  • SQL Server 2000 and SSL Encryption

    - by Angry_IT_Guru
    We are a datacenter that hsots a SQL Server 2000 environment which provides database services for a product we sell that is loaded as a rich-client applicatin at each of our many clients and their workstations. Currently today, the application uses straight ODBC connections from the client site to our datacenter. We need to begin encrypting the credentials -- since everything is clear-text today and the authentication is weakly encrypted -- and I'm trying to determine the best way to implement SSL on the server with minimizing the impact of the client. A few things, however: 1) We have our own Windows domain and all our servers are joined to our private domain. Our clietns no nothing of our domain. 2) Typically, our clients connect to our datacenter servers either by: a) Using TCP/IP address b) Using a DNS name that we publish via internet, zone transfers from our DNS servers to our customers, or the client can add static HOSTS entries. 3) From what I understand from enabling encryption is that I can go to the Network Utility and select the "encryption" option for the protocol that I wish to encrypt. Such as TCP/IP. 4) When the encryption option is selected, I have a choice of installing a third-party certificate or a self-signed. I have tested the self-signed, but do have potential issues. I'll explain in a bit. If I go with a third-party cert, such as Verisign, or Network solutions... what kind of certificate do I request? These aren't IIS certificates? When I go create a self-signed via Microsoft's certificate server, I have to select "Authentication certificate". What does this translate to in the third-party world? 5) If I create a self-signed certificate, I understand that the "issue to" name has to match the FQDN for the server that is running SQL. In my case, I have to use my private domain name. If I use this, what does this do for my clients when trying to connect to my SQL Server? Surely they cannot resolve my private DNS names on their network.... I've also verified that when the self-signed certificate is installed, it has to be in the local personal store for the user account that is running SQL Server. SQL Server will only start if the FQDN matches the "issue to" of the certificate and SQL is running under the account that has the certificate installed. If I use a self-signed certificate, does this mean I have to have every one of my clients install it to verify? 6) If I used a third-party certificate, which sounds like the best option, do all my clients have to have internet access when accessing my private servers of their private WAN connection to use to verify the certificate? What do I do about the FQDN? It sounds like they have to use my private domain name -- which is not published -- and can no longer use the one that I setup for them to use? 7) I plan on upgrading to SQL 2000 soon. Is setup of SSL any easier/better with SQL 2005 than SQL 2000? Any help or guiadance would be appreciated

    Read the article

  • "The server closed the connection without sending any data"

    - by Toby
    Server setup The problem Diagnostic information What I've tried Specific Help needed 1. I have the following server setup: Debian Squeeze Linux 2.6.32-5-amd64 Apache2-mpm-prefork 2.2.16-6+squeeze10 PHP 5.3.3-7+squeeze14 This server is protected with the Suhosin Patch 0.9.9.1 Max Requests Per Child: 0 - Keep Alive: on - Max Per Connection: 100 Timeouts Connection: 300 - Keep-Alive: 15 Loaded Modules core mod_log_config mod_logio prefork http_core mod_so mod_alias mod_auth_basic mod_auth_digest mod_authn_file mod_authz_default mod_authz_groupfile mod_authz_host mod_authz_user mod_cgi mod_deflate mod_dir mod_env mod_mime mod_negotiation mod_php5 mod_reqtimeout mod_rewrite mod_setenvif mod_ssl mod_status Wordpress 3.4.2 (Upgrading to 3.5 soon :) 2. The problem When I restart the server (sudo shutdown -r now), going to any website page results in the following error from the web browser (in this case, Google Chrome, but other browsers also show the same error). This error can also occur an hour or so after all is working ok, seemingly randomly, which is my biggest concern as it means my server is not reliable: No data received Unable to load the web page because the server sent no data. Here are some suggestions: Reload this web page later. Error 324 (net::ERR_EMPTY_RESPONSE): The server closed the connection without sending any data. 3. Diagnostic information The apache error log contains the folowing entries: [Fri Dec 14 22:23:27 2012] [notice] child pid 1955 exit signal Floating point exception (8) [Fri Dec 14 22:23:27 2012] [notice] child pid 1956 exit signal Floating point exception (8) [Fri Dec 14 22:23:29 2012] [notice] child pid 1957 exit signal Floating point exception (8) [Fri Dec 14 22:23:30 2012] [notice] child pid 1958 exit signal Floating point exception (8) [Fri Dec 14 22:23:32 2012] [notice] child pid 1959 exit signal Floating point exception (8) [Fri Dec 14 22:23:32 2012] [notice] child pid 1960 exit signal Floating point exception (8) [Fri Dec 14 22:23:34 2012] [notice] child pid 1961 exit signal Floating point exception (8) [Fri Dec 14 22:23:34 2012] [notice] child pid 1962 exit signal Floating point exception (8) 4. What I've tried a) I can 'fix' the website temporarily by resetting the server twice (resetting it once does not work) using the following commands. NB: the 'reload' option does not work, I have to use restart twice. However, the error can reoccur sometime later. sudo /etc/init.d/apache2 restart sudo /etc/init.d/apache2 restart b) I have tried disabling suhosin by uninstalling php5-suhosin, but a php info page still shows "This server is protected with the Suhosin Patch 0.9.9.1". I have tried putting Suhosin into simulation mode by creating a file /etc/php5/apache2/conf.d/suhosin.ini containing: [suhosin] suhosin.simulation = On The php info page shows the suhosin.ini file in the list of "Additional .ini files parsed" but the php info page still shows "This server is protected with the Suhosin Patch 0.9.9.1" c) Increasing the PHP memory limit In /etc/php5/apache2/ : ; Maximum amount of memory a script may consume (128MB) ; http://php.net/memory-limit memory_limit = 512M d) Disabling all Wordpress plugins, and going back to the default theme. 5. Specific help needed I would very much like help in debugging what is going on here. I am not sure how to determine what processes are in the Apache error log which are exiting "[notice] child pid 1955 exit signal Floating point exception (8)", or what is causing them to exit. And whether suhosin is part of the problem (and how to disable it if it is). Thank you in advance for any advice or tips you can offer in helping me debug this.

    Read the article

  • Network update solutions for a company of ~20 (5 local, 15 remote)?

    - by Margaret
    Hi all This is probably going to be a bit up in the air, because we're still in the "reaching towards solutions" phase, but I figured I'd see what you guys had to say. Plus I honestly know very little about systems and what is good and bad pratice. My organisation has always more or less worked on the concept of local machines; since it primarily employed contractors who were working from home, each of those people was largely responsible for their own machine and backup procedures and the like. We're now expanding, though we're still reasonably small (we're up to about 20 staff members). Most people still work remotely, but we have a central office where about five people are working. But we're getting large enough that we're starting to think it would be a good idea to have a central file server, and things like that - if someone gets hit by a bus, we want someone else to know where to look for the files to continue their work. A lot of the people who work for us remotely work on projects for other companies as well, so I don't want to force them to log in to our server whenever they're on a network. But I do want to make connection to be as painless as possible to do so, to improve utilisation. The other thing is that we're getting more people who would like to remote into the office server and do their work there. Our current remote connection application is an SSH install that allows people access to the network; the problem is, it's a black box to me, and I've never understood how to even connect to it (despite supposedly being de facto sysadmin). Thus far I've been able to bounce questions about how to get it working to the guy who does know it well, but he's leaving the company soon. So we probably need a solution for this that I actually understand. We were knocking around the idea of implementing a VPN with some form of remote desktop, and someone mentioned that this was largely a matter of purchasing a router capable of it; I'm not sure of the truth of that statement. This is what we have in the office: Two shiny new i7 servers, each running Windows Server 2008. Precise eventual layout is still being debated, a little, but the current suggestion is that one is primary database crunching, while the other is a warm backup of the databases, along with running Reporting Services. They currently have SQL Server 2008 installed on them, which is being connected to via the 'sa' account. We're hoping to make each person use their own account (preferably one tied to the 'central' password we set up, so we can use Windows Authentication). An older server, running XP Pro, that we are currently using as a test bed for a project that requires access to older versions of software. This machine is also being used to take backups, but I'm thinking of moving that functionality elsewhere. A spare desktop from a guy who left the company (XP Pro). We're thinking of bumping up the hard disk space and using it as the magical file server that's going to solve one particular everything. Assorted desktops, laptops, etc, at least one for each person in the office (mix of Win XP and Win 7; occasionally a person who normally works remotely might drop in to the office and bring a laptop bearing Vista, but it's pretty rare). All are set up as local user accounts at the moment; I don't know if it's the best arrangement. Purchasing more hardware is not a big problem, but we figure we might as well make use of what we've got first. Is Active Directory a big magic wand that's going to solve all the world's problems? Is there some other arrangement we should be looking to instead?

    Read the article

  • How do I make an external hard drive keep the same drive letter permanently?

    - by andygrunt
    I have a desktop PC (2002 vintage) running Windows XP that I turn on about 2 or 3 times per week. I have a mains powered 250Gb Western Digital hard disk connected to it via USB. I always turn the hard disk on before the PC so it's up and running as the PC boots. When I first connected the external hard disk, the PC assigned it a letter ('i' if it matters) and I've installed software to it, created shortcuts to various files and folders on the disk using that letter. For years everything was fine then I would boot the PC and the hard disk was assigned a different letter. I'd then have to go into 'my computer/manage/disk management' and manually change the letter back to 'i'. If I then rebooted the PC, the hard disk would usually still be 'i' but after the next reboot would be some other random letter and I have to manually change it back to 'i'. This would go on for some time then there'd be periods when the it would always be 'i' then, for no apparent reason (no new devices added, for example), the drive letter would start changing again. At the moment it's in random drive letter mood so I thought I'd ask the following question... How do I assign the external hard disk to be 'i' permanently? Answer: Thanks Molly that seems to have done the trick (after a little fiddling) - slightly disappointed there wasn't a way to do it within Windows without installing something else though. For anyone else trying this, it wasn't completely straightforward so here's what happened with me. I installed USBDLM as per the instructions on its website. I guessed that I had to assign the first USB letter to i so replaced the 'Letter1=' lines to 'Letter=I' in the ini file. To test it, I rebooted the PC only to find it came back up with the display set to 640x480 in 16 colours. After some investigation, I re-installed the display drivers and rebooted and set the display back to its usual setting. The external hard disk now gets set to 'i' but I found I had to re-apply sharing status to it so it was seen from my laptop which is on the same network. The end result of all this is that it now does what I wanted although it does act as though the hard drive has just been plugged in a few seconds after the Windows desktop appears i.e. the little box appears with a progress bar as it searches through the contents of the 'new' hard drive and I eventually get a dialogue box saying 'This disk or device contains more than one type of content. What do you want Windows to do?' and lists options such as play media files, print the pictures or open folder to view the files. This is a tiny pain I wish didn't happen but not exactly a huge price to pay. Other than that - it seems to work fine :) Looks like a spoke too soon... Every time I reboot, I have to re-share the 'i' drive (which I didn't have to do before) so it can be seen by my laptop on the same network. Any ideas how to make that permanent?

    Read the article

  • Hard drive write speed - finding a lighter antivirus?

    - by Shingetsu
    I recently have been getting a lot of system lag here (for example, the mouse and the display in general take about 15 seconds to react in the worst cases). After a lot of monitoring the resources, I found that the problem mainly happens when too much Disk I/O is being done. Three culprits have been identified: My browser had the highest write I/O with 35,000,000 I/O Write Bytes. Steam had the highest read I/O (when IDLE!!!) with 106,000,000 I/O Read Bytes. My antivirus (in both cases I will soon mention) was the runner up in both cases with: 30,000,000ish write and 80,000,000ish read. The first AV I had was Avast! which I had liked on my previous system. After noticing it taking so much I/O I switched to Panda (supposing it wouldn't use TOO much during idle phase). However it only used a bit less I/O. Just a lot less memory and cpu and somewhat more network. My browser at the moment is Maxthon 3 (which I like a lot). Before this I was running chrome which had similar data and much higher cpu when running in the background was enabled. I'm not going to be running steam all the time and there aren't many alternatives to it. I like my browser very much, but I AM willing to switch if there's an obvious problem (I'm in programming, however I'm not a very good sysadmin, especially not when it comes to windows). Finally, my system almost stops lagging when I turn off the antivirus (and preferably steam) (some remains but once in every 5-6 hours for a few seconds so it isn't a big problem). My question (has a few parts): Is it possible to configure steam to lower it's I/O usage? (and maybe network while we're at it?) Which antivirus (very preferably free) uses lowest I/O while idle (I leave PC alone during active scans so that isn't a problem). Is there an obvious problem with my current browser and, if so, is there a way to fix it or should I switch and, if so, to what? (P.S. I've been on FFox for some time too). Info on system: Windows 7 (32 bit T_T, I am getting a new one in a few months but I want to keep using system during that time though). Hard Drive (main) is a Raid0. (Also have an external 1TB one which contains steam (and steam alone). As such it doesn't get used by much anything other than steam and isn't a very large problem. However steam still uses some I/O of registry) CPU: Intel(R) Core(TM)2 CPU [email protected] RAM: 6GB (3.25GB usable) (this and CPU have little effect as shown in next section) Additional info: Memory usage during problematic times: 44% CPU usage during problematic times: 35% Page File: main drive: system managed. 1TB drive: none. The current system I'm using is about 6 years old and is mainly a place holder while I await the new one in a few months. Final words: this is my 1st post on Super User (this question wouldn't feel right on Stack Overflow where I usually stay). If it doesn't have it's place here please tell me. If anything is wrong with it, same. Edit Technically I'm looking for a live thread detection program with minimal IO usage. I already have good active scan capability: Kaspersky (the free scanner uses the paid database) and MalwareBytes. Edit 2 Noticed another one, it seems that windows media player has been using stuff even when off! Turning it off and restarting now. If the problem is fixed I'll tell you guys. The reason I didn't notice it before was because I didn't have resource manager in front of me at the MOMENT of the problem. Now I did and it was at the very top of the list!

    Read the article

  • My 3D Games crashing in these scenarios

    - by desaivv
    I have a situation here which I am unable to solve. I bought a PC last year March, here are my specs: Intel Core i3 550 @ 3GHz 4 GB RAM @400 MHz XFX GeForce 9500 GT graphics card 1GB @550MHz 500 GB HDD Lately as soon as I load my save game of Skyrim, it crashes. I have been playing Skyrim since I joined Gaming.SE site. Crashes as in the entire scene gets red lines. I can not ALT + TAB back or even CTRL + ALT + DEL either. My only recourse is a hard reset via the power button. Can not take a screen shot either. I have the latest Forceware 296.10 drivers also. This has been happening since the last 2 weeks. I always use Driver Sweeper to clean my old drivers, since that is what XFXForce recommends before installing new drivers. I installed MSI Afterburner lately to see my GPU temperature. My GPU is default, never over-clocked it. In MSI's Afterburner, I can not adjust fan speed. It is greyed out. Also in settings there is no fan tab. With normal Internet browsing it stays at 51 C. Ran Memtest86 over night with level 11. Took about 13 hours, but no errors in my RAM. I even re-installed my OS, with just the 296 drivers. The fan for the GPU does come on. I can play Diablo 2. I can not get past Warcraft 3's menu selection. There WAS some dust in my machine, but I always try and keep everything clean, since in my home town dust is an issue. Always keep cool my entire PC cabinet. My friend came with his functioning graphics card, we bought our PCs at the same time with exact same specifications. His card did not work either. Same problem with the scene freezing with red lines. I did do my research before posting here. That is how I was able to learn about MSI Afterburner, Driver Sweeper, SpeedFan etc. I followed posts on Tom's Hardware too regarding people that had similar problems. One person suggested and was followed by worked as well the suggestion to "Bake the card in an oven". Since I bought it, played Diablo 2 for months, Starcraft 2 campaign for months and Skyrim recently for months. Bought ME3 also. I am at my wits end. I do not know what else to do. I can go out and buy a card, but my friend's card did not work either. I can use the machine for Eclipse or VS2010 development just fine. Just not with 3D gaming. I originally posted this question on Gaming.SE But I was directed here. I have browsed the SU database for my problem and found this, this, and this. But none of these cover my question. My machine is only one year old. Can some experienced superuser(s) shed some light on this scenario? Is it a 3D graphics card problem? Will a brand new card work? What else can I try to pin point the problem? Can it be the Motherboard? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • EXTJS 3.2.1 EditorGridPanel - ComboBox with jsonstore

    - by Yoong Kim
    Hi, I am using EXTJS with an editorgridpanel and I am trying to to insert a combobox, populated with JsonStore. Here is a snapshot of my code: THE STORE: kmxgz.ordercmpappro.prototype.getCmpapproStore = function(my_url) { var myStore = new Ext.data.Store({ proxy: new Ext.data.HttpProxy({ url: my_url , method: 'POST' }) , reader: new Ext.data.JsonReader({ root: 'rows', totalProperty: 'total', id: 'list_cmpappro_id', fields: [ {name: 'list_cmpappro_id', mapping: 'list_cmpappro_id'} , {name: 'list_cmpappro_name', mapping: 'list_cmpappro_name'} ] }) , autoLoad: true , id: 'cmpapproStore' , listeners: { load: function(store, records, options){ //store is loaded, now you can work with it's records, etc. console.info('store load, arguments:', arguments); console.info('Store count = ', store.getCount()); } } }); return myStore; }; THE COMBO: kmxgz.ordercmpappro.prototype.getCmpapproCombo = function(my_store) { var myCombo = new Ext.form.ComboBox({ typeAhead: true, lazyRender:false, forceSelection: true, allowBlank: true, editable: true, selectOnFocus: true, id: 'cmpapproCombo', triggerAction: 'all', fieldLabel: 'CMP Appro', valueField: 'list_cmpappro_id', displayField: 'list_cmpappro_name', hiddenName: 'cmpappro_id', valueNotFoundText: 'Value not found.', mode: 'local', store: my_store, emptyText: 'Select a CMP Appro', loadingText: 'Veuillez patienter ...', listeners: { // 'change' will be fired when the value has changed and the user exits the ComboBox via tab, click, etc. // The 'newValue' and 'oldValue' params will be from the field specified in the 'valueField' config above. change: function(combo, newValue, oldValue){ console.log("Old Value: " + oldValue); console.log("New Value: " + newValue); }, // 'select' will be fired as soon as an item in the ComboBox is selected with mouse, keyboard. select: function(combo, record, index){ console.log(record.data.name); console.log(index); } } }); return myCombo; }; The combobox is inserted in an editorgridpanel. There's a renderer like this: Ext.util.Format.comboRenderer = function(combo){ return function(value, metadata, record){ alert(combo.store.getCount()); <== always 0!! var record = combo.findRecord(combo.valueField || combo.displayField, value); return record ? record.get(combo.displayField) : combo.valueNotFoundText; } }; When the grid is displayed the first time, instead of have the displayField, I have : "Value not found." And I have the alert : 0 (alert(combo.store.getCount())) from the renderer. But I can see in the console that the data have been correctly loaded! Even if I try to reload the store from the renderer (combo.store.load();), I still have the alert (0)! But when I select the combo to change the value, I can see the data and when I change the value, I can see the displayFiel! I don't understand what's the problem? Since now several days, I already tried all the solutions I found...but still nothing! Any advice is welcome! Yoong

    Read the article

  • Deploying MVC2 application to IIS7.5 - Ninject asked to provide controllers for content files

    - by Rune Jacobsen
    I have an application that started life as an MVC (1.0) app in Visual Studio 2008 Sp1 with a bunch of Silverlight 3 projects as part of the site. Nothing fancy at all. Using Ninject for dependency injection (first version 2 beta, now the released version 2 with the MVC extensions). With the release of .Net 4.0, VS2010, MVC2 etc., we decided to move the application to the newest platform. The conversion wizard in VS2010 apparently took care of everything, with one exception - it didn't change references to mvc1 to now point to mvc2, so I had to do that manually. Of course, this makes me think about other MVC2 things that could be missing from my app, that would be there if I did File - New Project... But that is not the focus of this question. When I deploy this application to the IIS 7.5 server (running on Win2008 R2 x64), the application as such works. However, images, scripts and other static content doesn't seem to exist. Of course they are there on disk on the server, but they don't show up in the client web browser. I am fairly new to IIS, so the only trick I knew is to try to open the web page in a browser on the server, as that could give me more information. And here, finally, we meet our enemy. If I try to go directly to the URL of one of the images (http://server/Content/someimage.jpg for instance), I get the following error in the browser: The IControllerFactory 'Ninject.Web.Mvc.NinjectControllerFactory' did not return a controller for a controller named 'Content'. Aha. The web server tries to feed this request to MVC, who with its' default routing setup assumes Content to be a controller, and fails. How can I get it to treat Content/ and Scripts/ (among others) as non-controllers and just pass through the static content? This of course works with Cassini on my developer machine, but as soon as I deploy, this problem hits. I am using the last version of Ninject MVC 2 where the IoC tool should pass missing controllers to the base controller factory, but this has apparently not helped. I have also tried to add ignore routes for Content etc., but this apparently has no effect either. I am not even sure I am addressing the problem on the right level. Does anyone know where to look to get this app going? I have full control of the web server so I can more or less do whatever I want to it, as long as it starts working. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How to automatically resize an EditText widget (with some attributes) in a TableLayout

    - by steff
    Hi everyone, I have a layout issue. What I do is this: create TableLayout in xml with zero children: <TableLayout android:id="@+id/t_layout_contents" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_below="@id/l_layout_tags" android:stretchColumns="1" android:paddingLeft="5dip" android:paddingRight="5dip" /> Insert first row programmatically in onCreate(): tLayoutContents = (TableLayout)findViewById(R.id.t_layout_contents); NoteElement nr_1 = new NoteElement(this); tLayoutContents.addView(nr_1); Class "NoteElement" extends TableRow. The 1st row just consists of a blank ImageView as a placeholder and an EditText to enter text. NoteElement's constructor looks like this: public NoteElement(Context c) { super(c); this.context = c; defaultText = c.getResources().getString(R.string.create_note_help_text); imageView = new ImageView(context); imageView.setImageResource(android.R.color.transparent); LayoutParams params = new LayoutParams(0); imageView.setLayoutParams(params); addView(imageView); addView(addTextField()); } Method addTextField() specifies the attributes for the EditText widget: private EditText addTextField() { editText = new EditText(context); editText.setImeOptions(EditorInfo.IME_ACTION_DONE); editText.setMinLines(4); editText.setRawInputType(InputType.TYPE_TEXT_FLAG_MULTI_LINE); editText.setHint(R.string.create_note_et_blank_text); editText.setAutoLinkMask(Linkify.ALL); editText.setPadding(5, 0, 0, 0); editText.setGravity(Gravity.TOP); editText.setVerticalScrollBarEnabled(true); LayoutParams params = new LayoutParams(1); editText.setLayoutParams(params); return editText; } So far, so good. But my problem occurs as soon as the available space for the chars is depleted. The EditText does not resize itself but switches to a single line EditText. I am desperatly looking for a way in which the EditText resizes itself in its height dynamically, being dependant on the inserted text length. Does anyone have a hint on this? Thanks & regards, steff

    Read the article

  • How to upload web.config file using WebDAV on IIS7?

    - by Martin Liversage
    I want to copy an ASP.NET MVC website to a remote IIS 7 server using WebDAV. I have created a site in IIS, enabled WebDAV and assigned a special application pool I have named "WebDAV Application Pool". Using a Windows 7 or Vista client I'm able to mount the remote site as a network drive. So far, so good. However, I have problems uploading web.config files to the remote site. One problem is that as soon as a web.config has been uploaded it is used to configure the WebDAV site. The web.config file in a Views folder of a MVC project effectively blocks access to that folder. To work around this problem I have configured the application pool in the applicationHost.config file: <configuration> <applicationPools> <add name="WebDAV Application Pool" autoStart="true" enableConfigurationOverride="false" /> </applicationPools> </configuration> The interesting part is the 'enableConfigurationOverride` attribute: When true, indicates that delegated settings in Web.config files will processed for applications within this application pool. When false, all settings in Web.config files will be ignored for this application pool. Doing this makes it possible to upload a web.config file to the Views folder without breaking access to the folder. However, I'm still unable to upload a web.config file to the root folder. I have the following settings in the applicationHost.config file to ensure that request filtering doesn't interfere with WebDAV: <configuration> <location path="webdav.mysite.tld"> <system.webServer> <security> <requestFiltering> <fileExtensions applyToWebDAV="false" /> <verbs applyToWebDAV="false" /> <hiddenSegments applyToWebDAV="false" /> </requestFiltering> </security> </system.webServer> </location> </configuration> In particular hiddenSegments will normally block access to web.config but setting the applyToWebDAV attribute to false should ensure that this file isn't blocked when using WebDAV. Unfortunately, I'm still unable to copy my web.config file to the root folder of the site. Doing drag and drop in Windows Explorer to the mapped WebDAV network drive will result in the following error message: Error 0x80070057: The parameter is incorrect. On the wire it seems that the HTTP status 400 Bad Request is returned. Is there anything I can do to configure WebDAV on IIS 7 to avoid this problem?

    Read the article

  • iPhone App IDs and Provisioning... Does App ID get used instead of provisioning ID if I decide to us

    - by Jann
    This is a question that has been bugging me for a while. I started my app (now submitted -- not yet approved) not wishing to get into the mess that is APNS (Push). I did the following: iPhone Developer Center: Provisioning Portal-Provisioning: Then I created a Development and a Distribution Provisioning Profile. I installed both in XCode. Everything hunky dory. The Development profile scares me a bit by expiring so soon (90 days) but I can remove it from the iPhone(s) and sign it with a new one later. I tested using the Development profile, and later to submitted it by signing it with the Distribution profile. I then uploaded the Distribution profile-signed app to iTunesConnect (app store). Okay, I understand that much. Now, what I don't understand is this: Now that I understand the theories and methods behind how Push works, I am wishing to add it to my app. I already went under: iPhone Developer Center: Provisioning Portal-App IDs: and created a Development Provisioning Profile and Distribution Provisioning Profile there (push & in-app purchase enabled). Here is where it gets confusing to me. All the books and docs I have read say that I have to sign the app with this "App ID" provisioning profile (push-enabled) from now on. Does that mean I no longer ever use the previously created provisioning profiles? If I were to import these "App ID" provisioning profiles into Xcode they will exist alongside my previously generated "non-push" profiles. ~/Library/Mobile Devices/Provisioning Profiles now has 2 files. One Devel and one Distrib. It will now have 4 even though for this app I will not use the "non-push" anymore right? (actually, since they are locked by using bundle-codes and app ids i will never use it again if all of my further versions of this app use Push?) Confused. Can anyone enlighten me? Why not use the "App ID" profiles in the first place for everyone -- even if you are not gonna use push? Would keep it simpler. Should I only generate "Push Enabled" profiles from now on -- even if i am not sure I am gonna use push (or for that matter in-app purchase)? Please give me some insight. I do not wanna do this wrong. Thanks! Jann

    Read the article

  • popView from UITabBarController inside UINavigationController

    - by Manu
    Hi, I'm building an application based on the Utility template from Xcode, to which I have added some more views. My application structure would be as follows: MainView (the app menu) Flip-side view (a calculator) UINavigationController Settings view viewDiDLoad: UITabBarController - Tab1 view (options) - Tab2 view (information text) I can navigate correctly from my MainView to my Flip-side view, which is also the root view of the Navigation Controller. From my Flip-side view, I push a second view of my Navigation Controller (Settings view) that is configured to show an UITabBarController, with two tabs, as soon as it loads (with viewDidLoad). If I remove the UITabBarController, I can return with no problems to my Flip-side view using "popViewController" from my Settings view. The problem comes if I load the UITabBarController in viewDiDLoad in my Settings view... the tabs work perfectly, but I'm not able to return to my Flip-side view (root view of the Navigation Controller) anymore. I CAN return if I use the Navigation Bar of the Navigation Controller, but I want to configure my own buttons and have the Navigation Bar hidden. So far I've tried the following methods: [self.navigationController popViewControllerAnimated:YES]; [self.navigationController popToRootViewControllerAnimated:YES]; [self.navigationController popToViewController:FlipSideViewController animated:YES]; But they don't seem to work. The first two just do nothing (the screen remains as it was), and the third one does not recognize the "FlipsideViewController" (maybe because it's a delegate of the MainViewController?). Is there a way to check what is exactly doing the "back" button of the Navigation Bar if I activate it? Should I be using delegates? Can I call a popViewController method in my Settings view from any of the two Tab views? This is my Flip-side view: - (IBAction)showSettingsView { SettingsViewController *controller = [[SettingsViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"SettingsView" bundle:nil]; controller.title = @"Settings"; [self.navigationController pushViewController:controller animated:YES]; [controller release]; } This is my Settings view: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; tabBarController = [[UITabBarController alloc] init]; Tab1ViewController* vc1 = [[Tab1ViewController alloc] init]; Tab2ViewController* vc2 = [[Tab2ViewController alloc] init]; NSArray* controllers = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:vc1, vc2, nil]; tabBarController.viewControllers = controllers; [self.view addSubview:tabBarController.view]; } And the method to return in one of the Tab views: - (IBAction)backFromTab1View { [self.navigationController popToViewController:FlipSideViewController animated:YES]; } Thanks very much and sorry if the question is too basic!

    Read the article

  • problem with NHibernate and iSeries DB2

    - by chrisjlong
    Ok So I have an AS400/iSeries running v5r4. I have an application that was using classic NHibernate to connect and do some basic crud. Now I have pulled that app (which sat for 2 years) off the shelf of TFS and onto a new PC and cannot seem to get it running. Here is my Hibernate Config: <hibernate-configuration xmlns="urn:nhibernate-configuration-2.2"> <session-factory> <property name="connection.provider"> NHibernate.Connection.DriverConnectionProvider </property> <property name="dialect"> NHibernate.Dialect.DB2400Dialect </property> <property name="proxyfactory.factory_class">NHibernate.ByteCode.LinFu.ProxyFactoryFactory, NHibernate.ByteCode.LinFu</property> <property name="connection.connection_string"> DataSource=207.206.106.19; Database=AS400; userID=XXXXXX; Password=XXXXXXX; LibraryList=FMSFILTST,BEFFILT,HRDBFT,HRCSTFT,J20##X2DEV,GLCUSTDEV,OSL@@F3DEV; Naming=System; Initial Catalog=*SYSBAS; </property> <property name="use_outer_join">true</property> <property name="query.substitutions"> true 1, false 0, yes 'Y', no 'N' </property> <property name="show_sql">false</property> <mapping assembly="BusinessLogic" /> </session-factory> </hibernate-configuration> I have all the proper DLL's included (NHibernate, castle, iesi, antlr3 , log4 etc). Also have this line in my web.config <runtime> <assemblyBinding> <qualifyAssembly partialName="IBM.Data.DB2.iSeries" fullName="IBM.Data.DB2.iSeries,Version=10.0.0.0,PublicKeyToken=9CDB2EBFB1F93A26,Culture=neutral"/> </assemblyBinding> </runtime> Yet I am still getting the following error as soon as I call NHibernate.Cfg.Configuration().Configure().BuildSessionFactory().OpenSession(); The error is as follows Unable to cast object of type 'IBM.Data.DB2.iSeries.iDB2Connection' to type 'System.Data.Common.DbCommand' I am dying to get some help with this. Any assistance is appreciated. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • C# - Alternative to System.Timers.Timer, to call a function at a specific time.

    - by Fábio Antunes
    Hello everybody. I want to call a specific function on my C# application at a specific time. At first i thought about using a Timer (System.Time.Timer), but that soon became impossible to use. Why? Simple. The Timer Class requires a Interval in milliseconds, but considering that i might want the function to be executed, lets says in a week that would mean: 7 Days = 168 hours; 168 Hours = 10,080 minutes; 10,080 Minutes = 6,048,000 seconds; 6,048,000 Seconds = 6,048,000,000 milliseconds; So the Interval would be 6,048,000,000; Now lets remember that the Interval accepted data type is int, and as we know int range goes from -2,147,483,648 to 2,147,483,647. That makes Timer useless in this case once we cannot set a Interval bigger that 2,147,483,647 milliseconds. So i need a solution where i could specify when the function should be called. Something like this: solution.ExecuteAt = "30-04-2010 15:10:00"; solution.Function = "functionName"; solution.Start(); So when the System Time would reach "30-04-2010 15:10:00" the function would be executed in the application. How can this problem be solved? Thanks just by taking the time to read my question. But if you could provide me with some help i would be most grateful. Additional Info: What these functions will do? Getting climate information and based on that info: Starting / Shutting down other Applications (most of them Console Based); Sending custom Commands to those Console Applications; Power down, Rebooting, Sleep, Hibernate the computer; And if possible schedule the BIOS to Power Up the Computer; EDIT: It would seem that the Interval accepted data type is double, however if you set a value bigger that an int to the Interval, and call Start() it throws a exception [0, Int32.MaxValue]. EDIT 2: Jørn Schou-Rode suggested using Ncron to handle the scheduling tasks, and at first look this seems a good solution, but i would like to hear about some who as worked with it.

    Read the article

  • Problem using ‘useLegacyV2RuntimeActivationPolicy’ & supportedRuntime in an application

    - by Notre
    Hello, I've modified a couple of different applications' .config file like this: <startup useLegacyV2RuntimeActivationPolicy="true"> <supportedRuntime version="v4.0"/> </startup> When I did this for devenv.exe.config (VS 2005 - don't ask :) ), things work great - most of the Visual Studio used .NET 2.0 but I was able to make use of an assembly targeting .NET 4.0 framework. I tried to do the same thing for a custom .exe, which happens to be based on MS CAB (slightly modified) and has a hybrid mix of WPF and WinForms content. As soon as I modified this application's app config file, I started getting this exception, sometime during application startup: The Undo operation encountered a context that is different from what was applied in the corresponding Set operation. The possible cause is that a context was Set on the thread and not reverted(undone). System.InvalidOperationException: The Undo operation encountered a context that is different from what was applied in the corresponding Set operation. The possible cause is that a context was Set on the thread and not reverted(undone). There's a big long stack trace that doesn't show anything in my application code directly (just a bunch of MS assemblies). If I modify the application's .config file to this: <startup useLegacyV2RuntimeActivationPolicy="true"> </startup> i.e.I remove the supportedRuntime element, then the application doesn't throw this exception. But when I go to the point in my code where I try to load my .NET 4 assembly, if fails with this: System.BadImageFormatException: Could not load file or assembly '' or one of its dependencies. This assembly is built by a runtime newer than the currently loaded runtime and cannot be loaded. I guess this is expected. I have two questions: 1) Any idea why I'm getting the System.InvalidOperationException exception when I modify this application's configuration file to include the supportedRuntime element, adding .NET 4 support and any suggestions on what I can do about it? 2) If the answer is "no idea why/don't know what you can do about it", then is possible for my .NET 3.5 SP1 code (C#) to provide more fine grain support for conditionally adding .NET 4 runtime support for a certain assembly(ies) without converting my entire application to target .NET 4, or without using the declarative config file approach? At some point I would convert the entire application to target .NET 4, but for the short term this is daunting task and I'm hope for some short term solution/hack. Thank you very much for any advice you can give!

    Read the article

  • How to troubleshoot a 'System.Management.Automation.CmdletInvocationException'

    - by JamesD
    Does anyone know how best to determine the specific underlying cause of this exception? Consider a WCF service that is supposed to use Powershell 2.0 remoting to execute MSBuild on remote machines. In both cases the scripting environments are being called in-process (via C# for Powershell and via Powershell for MSBuild), rather than 'shelling-out' - this was a specific design decision to avoid command-line hell as well as to enable passing actual objects into the Powershell script. The Powershell script that calls MSBuild is shown below: function Run-MSBuild { [System.Reflection.Assembly]::LoadWithPartialName("Microsoft.Build.Engine") $engine = New-Object Microsoft.Build.BuildEngine.Engine $engine.BinPath = "C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v3.5" $project = New-Object Microsoft.Build.BuildEngine.Project($engine, "3.5") $project.Load("deploy.targets") $project.InitialTargets = "DoStuff" # # Set some initial Properties & Items # # Optionally setup some loggers (have also tried it without any loggers) $consoleLogger = New-Object Microsoft.Build.BuildEngine.ConsoleLogger $engine.RegisterLogger($consoleLogger) $fileLogger = New-Object Microsoft.Build.BuildEngine.FileLogger $fileLogger.Parameters = "verbosity=diagnostic" $engine.RegisterLogger($fileLogger) # Run the build - this is the line that throws a CmdletInvocationException $result = $project.Build() $engine.Shutdown() } When running the above script from a PS command prompt it all works fine. However, as soon as the script is executed from C# it fails with the above exception. The C# code being used to call Powershell is shown below (remoting functionality removed for simplicity's sake): // Build the DTO object that will be passed to Powershell dto = SetupDTO() RunspaceConfiguration runspaceConfig = RunspaceConfiguration.Create(); using (Runspace runspace = RunspaceFactory.CreateRunspace(runspaceConfig)) { runspace.Open(); IList errors; using (var scriptInvoker = new RunspaceInvoke(runspace)) { // The Powershell script lives in a file that gets compiled as an embedded resource TextReader tr = new StreamReader(Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().GetManifestResourceStream("MyScriptResource")); string script = tr.ReadToEnd(); // Load the script into the Runspace scriptInvoker.Invoke(script); // Call the function defined in the script, passing the DTO as an input object var psResults = scriptInvoker.Invoke("$input | Run-MSBuild", dto, out errors); } } Assuming that the issue was related to MSBuild outputting something that the Powershell runspace can't cope with, I have also tried the following variations to the second .Invoke() call: var psResults = scriptInvoker.Invoke("$input | Run-MSBuild | Out-String", dto, out errors); var psResults = scriptInvoker.Invoke("$input | Run-MSBuild | Out-Null", dto, out errors); var psResults = scriptInvoker.Invoke("Run-MSBuild | Out-String"); var psResults = scriptInvoker.Invoke("Run-MSBuild | Out-String"); var psResults = scriptInvoker.Invoke("Run-MSBuild | Out-Null"); I've also looked at using a custom PSHost (based on this sample: http://blogs.msdn.com/daiken/archive/2007/06/22/hosting-windows-powershell-sample-code.aspx), but during debugging I was unable to see any 'interesting' calls to it being made. Do the great and the good of Stackoverflow have any insight that might save my sanity?

    Read the article

  • Detect user logout / shutdown in Python / GTK under Linux - SIGTERM/HUP not received

    - by Ivo Wetzel
    OK this is presumably a hard one, I've got an pyGTK application that has random crashes due to X Window errors that I can't catch/control. So I created a wrapper that restarts the app as soon as it detects a crash, now comes the problem, when the user logs out or shuts down the system, the app exits with status 1. But on some X errors it does so too. So I tried literally anything to catch the shutdown/logout, with no success, here's what I've tried: import pygtk import gtk import sys class Test(gtk.Window): def delete_event(self, widget, event, data=None): open("delete_event", "wb") def destroy_event(self, widget, data=None): open("destroy_event", "wb") def destroy_event2(self, widget, event, data=None): open("destroy_event2", "wb") def __init__(self): gtk.Window.__init__(self, gtk.WINDOW_TOPLEVEL) self.show() self.connect("delete_event", self.delete_event) self.connect("destroy", self.destroy_event) self.connect("destroy-event", self.destroy_event2) def foo(): open("add_event", "wb") def ex(): open("sys_event", "wb") from signal import * def clean(sig): f = open("sig_event", "wb") f.write(str(sig)) f.close() exit(0) for sig in (SIGABRT, SIGILL, SIGINT, SIGSEGV, SIGTERM): signal(sig, lambda *args: clean(sig)) def at(): open("at_event", "wb") import atexit atexit.register(at) f = Test() sys.exitfunc = ex gtk.quit_add(gtk.main_level(), foo) gtk.main() open("exit_event", "wb") Not one of these succeeds, is there any low level way to detect the system shutdown? Google didn't find anything related to that. I guess there must be a way, am I right? :/ EDIT: OK, more stuff. I've created this shell script: #!/bin/bash trap test_term TERM trap test_hup HUP test_term(){ echo "teeeeeeeeeerm" >~/Desktop/term.info exit 0 } test_hup(){ echo "huuuuuuuuuuup" >~/Desktop/hup.info exit 1 } while [ true ] do echo "idle..." sleep 2 done And also created a .desktop file to run it: [Desktop Entry] Name=Kittens GenericName=Kittens Comment=Kitten Script Exec=kittens StartupNotify=true Terminal=false Encoding=UTF-8 Type=Application Categories=Network;GTK; Name[de_DE]=Kittens Normally this should create the term file on logout and the hup file when it has been started with &. But not on my System. GDM doesn't care about the script at all, when I relog, it's still running. I've also tried using shopt -s huponexit, with no success. EDIT2: Also here's some more information aboute the real code, the whole thing looks like this: Wrapper Script, that catches errors and restarts the programm -> Main Programm with GTK Mainloop -> Background Updater Thread The flow is like this: Start Wrapper -> enter restart loop while restarts < max: -> start program -> check return code -> write error to file or exit the wrapper on 0 Now on shutdown, start program return 1. That means either it did hanup or the parent process terminated, the main problem is to figure out which of these two did just happen. X Errors result in a 1 too. Trapping in the shellscript doesn't work. If you want to take a look at the actual code check it out over at GitHub: http://github.com/BonsaiDen/Atarashii

    Read the article

  • How to assess a job offer with stock options? [closed]

    - by seas
    Cannot help expressing my curiosity about this issue. First of all, Russia, a country, I live in, as far as I understand, is a virgin land on this matter. Motivation is purely developed here and options are not existed at all. So, I am absolutely not aware about this. I roughly understand the mechanism of options. And, as far as I understand, the major white spot in the whole that story, how much will a singe share cost. How much will I get from all those N x 1000 options? I see two ways one can get money from the business: 1. Business goes IPO !!! 2. Business is sold as a whole to another owner. Next way is rather questionable about getting money: 3. Business goes without IPO "forever" (a generation would rather die before it IPO). I am also interested some explanations about situation ?3. Situation ?1 is clear - market decides everything, you either wait for stock price you satisfied or sell everything now. But topic is rather about ?2 - business is sold to another business. I am considering the following model: I am well payed specialist with company X. Somebody, with a company Y makes me an offer. Y is a startup. They cannot offer me much money and cannot overbid my salary, but they grow fast and hope to be bought soon. Instead of money, they offer me N x 1000 options. My problem is "how to assess this offer against my current, stable and well-payed job"? Are there any average cost of virtual share during selling one company to another? Are there any average stock price companies prefer to go to IPO? Are there any barriers against spreading the value of sock before selling the company or IPO (hiring too much people with options package too fast will decrease each package value, I mean)? Are there any good articles with explanations? Is all that somehow written in the law?

    Read the article

  • C++ vs Matlab vs Python as a main language for Computer Vision Postgraduate

    - by Hough
    Hi all, Firstly, sorry for a somewhat long question but I think that many people are in the same situation as me and hopefully they can also gain some benefit from this. I'll be starting my PhD very soon which involve the fields of computer vision, pattern recognition and machine learning. Currently, I'm using opencv (2.1) C++ interface and I especially like its powerful Mat class and the overloaded operations available for matrix and image seamless operations and transformations. I've also tried (and implemented many small vision projects) using opencv python interface (new bindings; opencv 2.1) and I really enjoy python's ability to integrate opencv, numpy, scipy and matplotlib. But recently, I went back to opencv C++ interface because I felt that the official python new bindings were not stable enough and no overloaded operations are available for matrices and images, not to mention the lack of machine learning modules and slow speeds in certain operations. I've also used Matlab extensively in the past and although I've used mex files and other means to speed up the program, I just felt that Matlab's performance was inadequate for real-time vision tasks, be it for fast prototyping or not. When the project becomes larger and larger, many tasks have to be re-written in C and compiled into Mex files increasingly and Matlab becomes nothing more than a glue language. Here comes the sub-questions: For postgrad studies in these fields (machine learning, vision, pattern recognition), what is your main or ideal programming language for rapid prototyping of ideas and testing algorithms contained in papers? For postgrad studies, can you list down the pros and cons of using the following languages? C++ (with opencv + gsl + svmlib + other libraries) vs Matlab (with all its toolboxes) vs python (with the imcomplete opencv bindings + numpy + scipy + matplotlib). Are there computer vision PhD/postgrad students here who are using only C++ (with all its availabe libraries including opencv) without even needing to resort to Matlab or python? In other words, given the current existing computer vision or machine learning libraries, is C++ alone sufficient for fast prototyping of ideas? If you're currently using Java or C# for your postgrad work, can you list down the reasons why they should be used and how they compare to other languages in terms of available libraries? What is the de facto vision/machine learning programming language and its associated libraries used in your university research group? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • RuntimeBinderException with dynamic in C# 4.0

    - by Terence Lewis
    I have an interface: public abstract class Authorizer<T> where T : RequiresAuthorization { public AuthorizationStatus Authorize(T record) { // Perform authorization specific stuff // and then hand off to an abstract method to handle T-specific stuff // that should happen when authorization is successful } } Then, I have a bunch of different classes which all implement RequiresAuthorization, and correspondingly, an Authorizer<T> for each of them (each business object in my domain requires different logic to execute once the record has been authorized). I'm also using a UnityContainer, in which I register various Authorizer<T>'s. I then have some code as follows to find the right record out of the database and authorize it: void Authorize(RequiresAuthorization item) { var dbItem = ChildContainer.Resolve<IAuthorizationRepository>() .RetrieveRequiresAuthorizationById(item.Id); var authorizerType = type.GetType(String.Format("Foo.Authorizer`1[[{0}]], Foo", dbItem.GetType().AssemblyQualifiedName)); dynamic authorizer = ChildContainer.Resolve(type) as dynamic; authorizer.Authorize(dbItem); } Basically, I'm using the Id on the object to retrieve it out of the database. In the background NHibernate takes care of figuring out what type of RequiresAuthorization it is. I then want to find the right Authorizer for it (I don't know at compile time what implementation of Authorizer<T> I need, so I've got a little bit of reflection to get the fully qualified type). To accomplish this, I use the non-generic overload of UnityContainer's Resolve method to look up the correct authorizer from configuration. Finally, I want to call Authorize on the authorizer, passing through the object I've gotten back from NHibernate. Now, for the problem: In Beta2 of VS2010 the above code works perfectly. On RC and RTM, as soon as I make the Authorize() call, I get a RuntimeBinderException saying "The best overloaded method match for 'Foo.Authorizer<Bar>.Authorize(Bar)' has some invalid arguments". When I inspect the authorizer in the debugger, it's the correct type. When I call GetType().GetMethods() on it, I can see the Authorize method which takes a Bar. If I do GetType() on dbItem it is a Bar. Because this worked in Beta2 and not in RC, I assumed it was a regression (it seems like it should work) and I delayed sorting it out until after I'd had a chance to test it on the RTM version of C# 4.0. Now I've done that and the problem still persists. Does anybody have any suggestions to make this work? Thanks Terence

    Read the article

  • Google Streetview under V3 Code having hiccups and delays

    - by jeffkee
    http://new.brocksmeaton.com/showlisting.php/196/-7210-Arbutus-Place-Whytecliff-West-Vancouver-west-vancouver-real-estate The really odd thing is I had this working yesterday and today it's not working. I'm using jQuery UI to switch the tabs on the location map/street view module. I've recently upgraded the Google Maps code as well as the Google Streetview code to version 3. So when I open it in Firefox, with Firebug on, as soon as I switch to the Streetview tab, the navigation and zoom in out controls show, but nothing shows.. and then when I try to drag the map around, it does not move around, but instead, causes errors in Firebug: "too much recursion". So it causes the whole browser to become buggy, slows down, and the errors happen, and nothing shows on the streetview pane. Most of the map loading code is located in inline Javascript on the page itself. Some of the code is under showlisting.js <script type="text/javascript" src="/js/showlisting.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> // Call this function when the page has been loaded function loadmap() { var latlng = new google.maps.LatLng(49.374918567425475, -123.28996885871596); var myOptions = { zoom: 14, center: latlng, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP }; var map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById('listingmap'), myOptions); var listingicon = '/images/activehouse.png'; var infowindow = new google.maps.InfoWindow(); homemarker = new google.maps.Marker({position: latlng, map: map, icon: listingicon}); google.maps.event.addListener(homemarker, 'click', function() { infowindow.setContent('<div style="height:80px; width:250px; color:#333;"><p>7210 Arbutus Place<br />Whytecliff, West Vancouver</div>') infowindow.open(map,homemarker); }); } function loadpano() { var latlng = new google.maps.LatLng(49.374918567425475, -123.28996885871596); $('#listingpanorama').slideDown(500, function() { var panoramaOptions = { addressControl:false, position: latlng, pov: { heading: 34, pitch: 30, zoom: 1 } }; var panorama = new google.maps.StreetViewPanorama(document.getElementById('listingpanorama'), panoramaOptions); }); return false; } </script> My old one under GOogle API Version 2 is here FYI if you want to take a look at it: http://demo.brixwork.com/master/showlisting.php/63/1701-388-Drake-Street-False-Creek-North-Vancouver-

    Read the article

  • Not your usual "The multi-part identifier could not be bound" error

    - by Eugene Niemand
    I have the following query, now the strange thing is if I run this query on my development and pre-prod server it runs fine. If I run it on production it fails. I have figured out that if I run just the Select statement its happy but as soon as I try insert into the table variable it complains. DECLARE @RESULTS TABLE ( [Parent] VARCHAR(255) ,[client] VARCHAR(255) ,[ComponentName] VARCHAR(255) ,[DealName] VARCHAR(255) ,[Purchase Date] DATETIME ,[Start Date] DATETIME ,[End Date] DATETIME ,[Value] INT ,[Currency] VARCHAR(255) ,[Brand] VARCHAR(255) ,[Business Unit] VARCHAR(255) ,[Region] VARCHAR(255) ,[DealID] INT ) INSERT INTO @RESULTS SELECT DISTINCT ClientName 'Parent' ,F.ClientID 'client' ,ComponentName ,A.DealName ,CONVERT(SMALLDATETIME , ISNULL(PurchaseDate , '1900-01-01')) 'Purchase Date' ,CONVERT(SMALLDATETIME , ISNULL(StartDate , '1900-01-01')) 'Start Date' ,CONVERT(SMALLDATETIME , ISNULL(EndDate , '1900-01-01')) 'End Date' ,DealValue 'Value' ,D.Currency 'Currency' ,ShortBrand 'Brand' ,G.BU 'Business Unit' ,C.DMRegion 'Region' ,DealID FROM LTCDB_admin_tbl_Deals A INNER JOIN dbo_DM_Brand B ON A.BrandID = B.ID INNER JOIN LTCDB_admin_tbl_DM_Region C ON A.Region = C.ID INNER JOIN LTCDB_admin_tbl_Currency D ON A.Currency = D.ID INNER JOIN LTCDB_admin_tbl_Deal_Clients E ON A.DealID = E.Deal_ID INNER JOIN LTCDB_admin_tbl_Clients F ON E.Client_ID = F.ClientID INNER JOIN LTCDB_admin_tbl_DM_BU G ON G.ID = A.BU INNER JOIN LTCDB_admin_tbl_Deal_Components H ON A.DealID = H.Deal_ID INNER JOIN LTCDB_admin_tbl_Components I ON I.ComponentID = H.Component_ID WHERE EndDate != '1899-12-30T00:00:00.000' AND StartDate < EndDate AND B.ID IN ( 1 , 2 , 5 , 6 , 7 , 8 , 10 , 12 ) AND C.SalesRegionID IN ( 1 , 3 , 4 , 11 , 16 ) AND A.BU IN ( 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 , 5 , 6 , 8 , 9 , 11 , 12 , 15 , 16 , 19 , 20 , 22 , 23 , 24 , 26 , 28 , 30 ) AND ClientID = 16128 SELECT ... FROM @Results I get the following error Msg 8180, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Statement(s) could not be prepared. Msg 4104, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 The multi-part identifier "Tbl1021.ComponentName" could not be bound. Msg 4104, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 The multi-part identifier "Tbl1011.Currency" could not be bound. Msg 207, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Invalid column name 'Col2454'. Msg 207, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Invalid column name 'Col2461'. Msg 207, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Invalid column name 'Col2491'. Msg 207, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Invalid column name 'Col2490'. Msg 207, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Invalid column name 'Col2482'. Msg 207, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Invalid column name 'Col2478'. Msg 207, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Invalid column name 'Col2477'. Msg 207, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Invalid column name 'Col2475'. EDIT - EDIT - EDIT - EDIT - EDIT - EDIT through a process of elimination I have found that following and wondered if anyone can shed some light on this. If I remove only the DISTINCT the query runs fine, add the DISTINCT and I get strange errors. Also I have found that if I comment the following lines then the query runs with the DISTINCT what is strange is that none of the columns in the table LTCDB_admin_tbl_Deal_Components is referenced so I don't see how the distinct will affect that. INNER JOIN LTCDB_admin_tbl_Deal_Components H ON A.DealID = H.Deal_ID

    Read the article

  • Hooking DirectX EndScene from an injected DLL

    - by Etan
    I want to detour EndScene from an arbitrary DirectX 9 application to create a small overlay. As an example, you could take the frame counter overlay of FRAPS, which is shown in games when activated. I know the following methods to do this: Creating a new d3d9.dll, which is then copied to the games path. Since the current folder is searched first, before going to system32 etc., my modified DLL gets loaded, executing my additional code. Downside: You have to put it there before you start the game. Same as the first method, but replacing the DLL in system32 directly. Downside: You cannot add game specific code. You cannot exclude applications where you don't want your DLL to be loaded. Getting the EndScene offset directly from the DLL using tools like IDA Pro 4.9 Free. Since the DLL gets loaded as is, you can just add this offset to the DLL starting address, when it is mapped to the game, to get the actual offset, and then hook it. Downside: The offset is not the same on every system. Hooking Direct3DCreate9 to get the D3D9, then hooking D3D9-CreateDevice to get the device pointer, and then hooking Device-EndScene through the virtual table. Downside: The DLL cannot be injected, when the process is already running. You have to start the process with the CREATE_SUSPENDED flag to hook the initial Direct3DCreate9. Creating a new Device in a new window, as soon as the DLL gets injected. Then, getting the EndScene offset from this device and hooking it, resulting in a hook for the device which is used by the game. Downside: as of some information I have read, creating a second device may interfere with the existing device, and it may bug with windowed vs. fullscreen mode etc. Same as the third method. However, you'll do a pattern scan to get EndScene. Downside: doesn't look that reliable. How can I hook EndScene from an injected DLL, which may be loaded when the game is already running, without having to deal with different d3d9.dll's on other systems, and with a method which is reliable? How does FRAPS for example perform it's DirectX hooks? The DLL should not apply to all games, just to specific processes where I inject it via CreateRemoteThread.

    Read the article

  • TTLauncherItem: change badge immediately (or: how to refresh TTLauncherView)

    - by vikingosegundo
    I have a TTLauncherView with some TTLauncherItems. These show badges, representing messages from the network. I set the badges in viewWillAppear:, so if I switch to another view and then return, the correct badges are shown. But I want to update the badges as soon a message comes in. Calling setNeedsDisplay on TTLauncherView doesn't help? How can I refresh the TTLauncherView? in my MessageReceiver class I do this: TTNavigator* navigator = [TTNavigator navigator]; [(OverviewController *)[navigator viewControllerForURL:@"tt://launcher"] reloadLauncherView] ; My TTViewController-derived OverviewController @implementation OverviewController - (id)init { if (self = [super init]) { self.title = OverviewTitle; } return self; } - (void)dealloc { [items release]; [overView release]; [super dealloc]; } -(void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; overView = [[TTLauncherView alloc] initWithFrame:self.view.bounds]; overView.backgroundColor = [UIColor whiteColor]; overView.delegate = self; overView.columnCount = 4; items = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; for(int i = 1; i <= NumberOfBars; ++i){ NSString *barID = [NSString stringWithFormat:NameFormat, IDPrefix, i]; TTLauncherItem *item = [[[TTLauncherItem alloc] initWithTitle:barID image:LogoPath URL:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"tt://item/%d", i] canDelete:NO] autorelease]; [barItems addObject: item]; } overView.pages = [NSArray arrayWithObject:items]; [self.view addSubview:overView]; } -(void)viewWillAppear:(BOOL)animated { for(int i = 0; i <[barItems count]; i++){ TTLauncherItem *item = [items objectAtIndex:i]; NSString *barID = [NSString stringWithFormat:NameFormat, IDPrefix, i+1]; P1LOrderDispatcher *dispatcher = [OrderDispatcher sharedInstance]; P1LBarInbox *barInbox = [dispatcher.barInboxMap objectForKey:barID]; item.badgeNumber = [[barInbox ordersWithState:OrderState_New]count]; } [super viewWillAppear:animated]; } - (void)launcherView:(TTLauncherView*)launcher didSelectItem:(TTLauncherItem*)item { TTDPRINT(@"%@", item); TTNavigator *navigator = [TTNavigator navigator]; [navigator openURLAction:[TTURLAction actionWithURLPath:item.URL]]; } -(void)reloadLauncherView { [overView setNeedsDisplay];//This doesn't work } @end

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179  | Next Page >