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  • how to use window.onload?

    - by Patrick
    I'm refactoring a website using MVC. What was a set of huge pages with javascript, php, html etc etc is becoming a series of controllers and views. I'm trying to do it in a modular way so views are split in 'modules' that I can reuse in other pages when needed eg. "view/searchform displays only one div with the searchform "view/display_events displays a list of events and so on. One of the old pages was supposed to load a google map with a marker on it. Amongst the rest of the code, I can identify the relevant bits as follows <head> <script src="http://maps.google.com/maps?file=api&amp;v=2&amp;key=blablabla" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> //<![CDATA[ function load() { if (GBrowserIsCompatible()) { var map = new GMap2(document.getElementById("map")); var point = new GLatLng(<?php echo ($info->lat && $info->lng) ? $info->lat .",". $info->lng : "51.502759,-0.126171"; ?>); map.setCenter(new GLatLng(<?php echo ($info->lat && $info->lng) ? $info->lat .",". $info->lng : "51.502759,-0.126171"; ?>), 15); map.addControl(new GLargeMapControl()); map.addControl(new GScaleControl()); map.addOverlay(new GMarker(point)); var marker = createMarker(point,GIcon(),"CIAO"); map.addOverlay(marker); } } //]]> </script> </head> ...then <body onload="load()" onunload="GUnload()"> ...and finally this div where the map should be displayed <div id="map" style="width: 440px; height: 300px"> </div> Don't know much about js, but my understanding is that a) I have to include the scripts in the view module I'm writing (directly in the HTML? I would prefer to load a separate script) b) I have to trigger that function using the equivalent of body onload... (obviously there's no body tag in my view. In my ignorance I've tried div onload=.... but didn't seem to be working :) What do you suggest I do? I've read about window.onload but don't know what's the correct syntax for that. please keep in mind that other parts of the page include other js functions (eg, google adsense) that are called after the footer.

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  • Jquery - Loading a page with .load and selector doesn't execute script?

    - by PirateKitten
    I'm trying to load one page into another using the .load() method. This loaded page contains a script that I want to execute when it has finished loading. I've put together a barebones example to demonstrate: Index.html: <html> <head> <title>Jquery Test</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="script/jquery-1.3.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('#nav a').click(function() { $('#contentHolder').load('content.html #toLoad', '', function() {}); return false; }); }); </script> </head> <body> <div id="nav"> <a href="content.html">Click me!</a> </div> <hr /> <div id="contentHolder"> Content loaded will go here </div> </body> </html> Content.html: <div id="toLoad"> This content is from content.html <div id="contentDiv"> This should fade away. </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $('#contentDiv').fadeOut('slow', function() {} ); </script> </div> When the link is clicked, the content should load and the second paragraph should fade away. However it doesn't execute. If I stick a simple alert("") in the script of content.html it doesn't execute either. However, if I do away with the #toLoad selector in the .load() call, it works fine. I am not sure why this is, as the block is clearly in the scope of the #toLoad div. I don't want to avoid using the selector, as in reality the content.html will be a full HTML page, and I'll only want a select part out of it. Any ideas? If the script from content.html was in the .load() callback, it works fine, however I obviously don't want that logic contained within index.html. I could possibly have the callback use .getScript() to load "content.html.js" afterwards and have the logic in there, that seems to work? I'd prefer to keep the script in content.html, if possible, so that it executes fine when loaded normally too. In fact, I might do this anyway, but I would like to know why the above doesn't work.

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  • T-SQL generated from LINQ to SQL is missing a where clause

    - by Jimmy W
    I have extended some functionality to a DataContext object (called "CodeLookupAccessDataContext") such that the object exposes some methods to return results of LINQ to SQL queries. Here are the methods I have defined: public List<CompositeSIDMap> lookupCompositeSIDMap(int regionId, int marketId) { var sidGroupId = CompositeSIDGroupMaps.Where(x => x.RegionID.Equals(regionId) && x.MarketID.Equals(marketId)) .Select(x => x.CompositeSIDGroup); IEnumerator<int> sidGroupIdEnum = sidGroupId.GetEnumerator(); if (sidGroupIdEnum.MoveNext()) return lookupCodeInfo<CompositeSIDMap, CompositeSIDMap>(x => x.CompositeSIDGroup.Equals(sidGroupIdEnum.Current), x => x); else return null; } private List<TResult> lookupCodeInfo<T, TResult>(Func<T, bool> compLambda, Func<T, TResult> selectLambda) where T : class { System.Data.Linq.Table<T> dataTable = this.GetTable<T>(); var codeQueryResult = dataTable.Where(compLambda) .Select(selectLambda); List<TResult> codeList = new List<TResult>(); foreach (TResult row in codeQueryResult) codeList.Add(row); return codeList; } CompositeSIDGroupMap and CompositeSIDMap are both tables in our database that are represented as objects in my DataContext object. I wrote the following code to call these methods and display the T-SQL generated after calling these methods: using (CodeLookupAccessDataContext codeLookup = new CodeLookupAccessDataContext()) { codeLookup.Log = Console.Out; List<CompositeSIDMap> compList = codeLookup.lookupCompositeSIDMap(5, 3); } I got the following results in my log after invoking this code: SELECT [t0].[CompositeSIDGroup] FROM [dbo].[CompositeSIDGroupMap] AS [t0] WHERE ([t0].[RegionID] = @p0) AND ([t0].[MarketID] = @p1) -- @p0: Input Int (Size = 0; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [5] -- @p1: Input Int (Size = 0; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [3] -- Context: SqlProvider(Sql2005) Model: AttributedMetaModel Build: 3.5.30729.1 SELECT [t0].[PK_CSM], [t0].[CompositeSIDGroup], [t0].[InputSID], [t0].[TargetSID], [t0].[StartOffset], [t0].[EndOffset], [t0].[Scale] FROM [dbo].[CompositeSIDMap] AS [t0] -- Context: SqlProvider(Sql2005) Model: AttributedMetaModel Build: 3.5.30729.1 The first T-SQL statement contains a where clause as specified and returns one column as expected. However, the second statement is missing a where clause and returns all columns, even though I did specify which rows I wanted to view and which columns were of interest. Why is the second T-SQL statement generated the way it is, and what should I do to ensure that I filter out the data according to specifications via the T-SQL? Also note that I would prefer to keep lookupCodeInfo() and especially am interested in keeping it enabled to accept lambda functions for specifying which rows/columns to return.

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  • Programmatically created GridView cells don't scale to fit screen

    - by ChrisAshton84
    I've read a ton of other responses about GridView already but almost all deal with the XML format (which I had working). I wanted to learn the programmatic way of designing Android, though, so I'm trying to build most of this app without XML. All I define in XML are the GridView and the first TextView. After that I add the other LinearLayouts in onCreate(). I would like to have a 2 column GridView containing a title and several (4 for now) LinearLayouts. I realize from documentation that the GridView won't scale cells unless they have a gravity set, but no matter how I try to do this I can't get it to work. After adding two cells, my GridView tree would look like: GridView -> TextView (colspan 2) -> LinearLayout (Vertical) -> TextView -> LinearLayout (Horizontal) -> TextView -> TextView -> LinearLayout (Horizontal) -> TextView -> TextView -> LinearLayout (Vertical) -> TextView -> LinearLayout (Horizontal) -> TextView -> TextView -> LinearLayout (Horizontal) -> TextView -> TextView I've tried about every combination of FILL and FILL_HORIZONTAL I could think of on either the outermost LinearLayouts, or also trying on the TextViews and inner LinearLayouts. No matter what I do, the LinearLayouts I add are always sized as small as possible and pushed to the left of the screen. Meanwhile, the first TextView (the colspan 2 one) with only CENTER_HORIZONTAL set is correctly centered in the screen. Its as if that TextView gets one idea of the column widths and the LinearLayouts get another! (If I add the FILL Gravity for it, it also moves all the way left.) I believe I had this working accidentally with 100% XML, but I would prefer not to switch back unless this is known to not work programatically. Any ideas what I can try to get this working?

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  • A two player game over the intranet..

    - by Santwana
    Hi everybody.. I am a student of 3rd year engineering and only a novice in my programming skills. I need some help with my project.. I wish to develop a two player game to be played over the network (Intranet). I want to develop a simple website with a few html pages for this.My ideas for the project run as follows: 1.People can log in from different systems and check who ever is online on the network currently. the page also shows who is playing with whom. 2.If a person is interested in playing with a player who is currently online, he sends a request of which the other player is somehow notified( using a message or an alert on his profile page..) 3.If the player accepts the request, a game is started. This is exactly where I am clueless.. How can I make them play the game? I need to develop a turn based game with two players, eg chessboard.. how can I do this? The game has to be played live.. and it is time tracked. i need your help with coding the above.. the other features i wish to include are: 4.The game could not be abruptly terminated by any one if the users.The request to terminate the game should be sent to the other player first and only if he accepts can the game be terminated. Whoever wins the game would get a plus 10 on their credit and if he terminated he gets a minus 10. The credits remains constant even if he loses but the success percentage is reduced. 6.The player with highest winning percentage is projected as the player of the week on the home page and he can post a challenge to all others.. I only have an intermediate knowledge of core java and know the basics of Swing and Awt. I am not at all familiar with networking in java right now. I have 5 to 6 weeks of time for developing the project but I hope to learn the things before I start my project. i would prefer to use a lan to illustrate the project and I know only java,jsp,oracle,html and bit of xml to develop my proj. Also I wish to know if I can code this within 6 weeks, would it be too difficult or complicated? Please spare some time to tell me. Please.. please.. I need your suggestions and help.. thank you so much..

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  • Generate A Simple Read-Only DAL?

    - by David
    I've been looking around for a simple solution to this, trying my best to lean towards something like NHibernate, but so far everything I've found seems to be trying to solve a slightly different problem. Here's what I'm looking at in my current project: We have an IBM iSeries database as a primary repository for a third party software suite used for our core business (a financial institution). Part of what my team does is write applications that report on or key off of a lot of this data in some way. In the past, we've been manually creating ADO .NET connections (we're using .NET 3.5 and Visual Studio 2008, by the way) and manually writing queries, etc. Moving forward, I'd like to simplify the process of getting data from there for the development team. Rather than creating connections and queries and all that each time, I'd much rather a developer be able to simply do something like this: var something = (from t in TableName select t); And, ideally, they'd just get some IQueryable or IEnumerable of generated entities. This would be done inside a new domain core that I'm building where these entities would live and the applications would interface with it through a request/response service layer. A few things to note are: The entities that correspond to the database tables should be generated once and we'd prefer to manually keep them updated over time. That is, if columns/tables are added to the database then we shouldn't have to do anything. (If some are deleted, of course, it will break, but that's fine.) But if we need to use a new column, we should be able to just add it to the necessary class(es) without having to re-gen the whole thing. The whole thing should be SELECT-only. We're not doing a full DAL here because we don't want to be able to break anything in the database (even accidentally). We don't need any kind of mapping between our domain objects and the generated entity types. The domain barely covers a fraction of the data that's in there, most of it we'll never need, and we would rather just create re-usable maps manually over time. I already have a logical separation for the DAL where my "repository" classes return domain objects, I'm just looking for a better alternative to manual ADO to be used inside the repository classes. Any suggestions? It seems like what I'm doing is just enough outside the normal demand for DAL/ORM tools/tutorials online that I haven't been able to find anything. Or maybe I'm just overlooking something obvious?

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  • [C++] Multiple inheritance from template class

    - by Tom P.
    Hello, I'm having issues with multiple inheritance from different instantiations of the same template class. Specifically, I'm trying to do this: template <class T> class Base { public: Base() : obj(NULL) { } virtual ~Base() { if( obj != NULL ) delete obj; } template <class T> T* createBase() { obj = new T(); return obj; } protected: T* obj; }; class Something { // ... }; class SomethingElse { // ... }; class Derived : public Base<Something>, public Base<SomethingElse> { }; int main() { Derived* d = new Derived(); Something* smth1 = d->createBase<Something>(); SomethingElse* smth2 = d->createBase<SomethingElse>(); delete d; return 0; } When I try to compile the above code, I get the following errors: 1>[...](41) : error C2440: '=' : cannot convert from 'SomethingElse *' to 'Something *' 1> Types pointed to are unrelated; conversion requires reinterpret_cast, C-style cast or function-style cast 1> [...](71) : see reference to function template instantiation 'T *Base<Something>::createBase<SomethingElse>(void)' being compiled 1> with 1> [ 1> T=SomethingElse 1> ] 1>[...](43) : error C2440: 'return' : cannot convert from 'Something *' to 'SomethingElse *' 1> Types pointed to are unrelated; conversion requires reinterpret_cast, C-style cast or function-style cast The issue seems to be ambiguity due to member obj being inherited from both Base< Something and Base< SomethingElse , and I can work around it by disambiguating my calls to createBase: Something* smth1 = d->Base<Something>::createBase<Something>(); SomethingElse* smth2 = d->Base<SomethingElse>::createBase<SomethingElse>(); However, this solution is dreadfully impractical, syntactically speaking, and I'd prefer something more elegant. Moreover, I'm puzzled by the first error message. It seems to imply that there is an instantiation createBase< SomethingElse in Base< Something , but how is that even possible? Any information or advice regarding this issue would be much appreciated.

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  • C# Type Casting at Runtimefor Array.SetValue

    - by sprocketonline
    I'm trying to create an array using reflection, and insert values into it. I'm trying to do this for many different types so would like a createAndFillArray function capable of this : Type t1 = typeof(A); Type t2 = typeof(B); double exampleA = 22.5; int exampleB = 43; Array arrA = createAndFillArray(t1, exampleA); Array arrB = createAndFillArray(t2, exampleB); private Array createAndFillArray(Type t, object val){ Array arr = Array.CreateInstance( t, 1); //length 1 in this example only, real-world is of variable length. arr.SetValue( val, 0 ); //this causes the following error: "System.InvalidCastException : Object cannot be stored in an array of this type." return arr; } with the class A being as follows: public class A{ public A(){} private double val; public double Value{ get{ return val; } set{ this.val = value; } } public static implicit operator A(double d){ A a = new A(); a.Value = d; return a; } } and class B being very similar, but with int: public class B{ public B(){} private double val; public double Value{ get{ return val; } set{ this.val = value; } } public static implicit operator B(double d){ B b = new B(); b.Value = d; return b; } } I hoped that the implicit operator would have ensured that the double be converted to class A, or the int to class B, and the error avoided; but this is obviously not so. The above is used in a custom deserialization class, which takes data from a custom data format and fills in the corresponding .Net object properties. I'm doing this via reflection and at runtime, so I think both are unavoidable. I'm targeting the C# 2.0 framework. I've dozens, if not hundreds, of classes similar to A and B, so would prefer to find a solution which improved on the createAndFillArray method rather than a solution which altered these classes.

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  • Using Selenium-IDE with a rich Javascript application?

    - by Darien
    Problem At my workplace, we're trying to find the best way to create automated-tests for an almost wholly javascript-driven intranet application. Right now we're stuck trying to find a good tradeoff between: Application code in reusable and nest-able GUI components. Tests which are easily created by the testing team Tests which can be recorded once and then automated Tests which do not break after small cosmetic changes to the site XPath expressions (or other possible expressions, like jQuery selectors) naively generated from Selenium-IDE are often non-repeatable and very fragile. Conversely, having the JS code generate special unique ID values for every important DOM-element on the page... well, that is its own headache, complicated by re-usable GUI components and IDs needing to be consistent when the test is re-run. What successes have other people had with this kind of thing? How do you do automated application-level testing of a rich JS interface? Limitations We are using JavascriptMVC 2.0, hopefully 3.0 soon so that we can upgrade to jQuery 1.4.x. The test-making folks are mostly trained to use Selenium IDE to directly record things. The test leads would prefer a page-unique HTML ID on each clickable element on the page... Training the testers to write or alter special expressions (such as telling them which HTML class-names are important branching points) is a no-go. We try to make re-usable javascript components, but this means very few GUI components can treat themselves (or what they contain) as unique. Some of our components already use HTML ID values in their operation. I'd like to avoid doing this anyway, but it complicates the idea of ID-based testing. It may be possible to add custom facilities (like a locator-builder or new locator method) to the Selenium-IDE installation testers use. Almost everything that goes on occurs within a single "page load" from a conventional browser perspective, even when items are saved Current thoughts I'm considering a system where a custom locator-builder (javascript code) for Selenium-IDE will talk with our application code as the tester is recording. In this way, our application becomes partially responsible for generating a mostly-flexible expression (XPath or jQuery) for any given DOM element. While this can avoid requiring more training for testers, I worry it may be over-thinking things.

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  • Loosely coupled implicit conversion

    - by ltjax
    Implicit conversion can be really useful when types are semantically equivalent. For example, imagine two libraries that implement a type identically, but in different namespaces. Or just a type that is mostly identical, except for some semantic-sugar here and there. Now you cannot pass one type into a function (in one of those libraries) that was designed to use the other, unless that function is a template. If it's not, you have to somehow convert one type into the other. This should be trivial (or otherwise the types are not so identical after-all!) but calling the conversion explicitly bloats your code with mostly meaningless function-calls. While such conversion functions might actually copy some values around, they essentially do nothing from a high-level "programmers" point-of-view. Implicit conversion constructors and operators could obviously help, but they introduce coupling, so that one of those types has to know about the other. Usually, at least when dealing with libraries, that is not the case, because the presence of one of those types makes the other one redundant. Also, you cannot always change libraries. Now I see two options on how to make implicit conversion work in user-code: The first would be to provide a proxy-type, that implements conversion-operators and conversion-constructors (and assignments) for all the involved types, and always use that. The second requires a minimal change to the libraries, but allows great flexibility: Add a conversion-constructor for each involved type that can be externally optionally enabled. For example, for a type A add a constructor: template <class T> A( const T& src, typename boost::enable_if<conversion_enabled<T,A>>::type* ignore=0 ) { *this = convert(src); } and a template template <class X, class Y> struct conversion_enabled : public boost::mpl::false_ {}; that disables the implicit conversion by default. Then to enable conversion between two types, specialize the template: template <> struct conversion_enabled<OtherA, A> : public boost::mpl::true_ {}; and implement a convert function that can be found through ADL. I would personally prefer to use the second variant, unless there are strong arguments against it. Now to the actual question(s): What's the preferred way to associate types for implicit conversion? Are my suggestions good ideas? Are there any downsides to either approach? Is allowing conversions like that dangerous? Should library implementers in-general supply the second method when it's likely that their type will be replicated in software they are most likely beeing used with (I'm thinking of 3d-rendering middle-ware here, where most of those packages implement a 3D vector).

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  • Building a DataTable in C# with one column at a time

    - by Awaken
    I am trying to build a Retirement Calculator as a chance to make something useful and learn C# better. Currently, I am trying to build a DataTable with a dynamic amount of rows/columns. For context, I ask the user for some inputs regarding salary, % of salary being invested, and expected ROI. I have some other stuff too, but it isn't really part of the issue I am having. Because the number of columns I need for the DataTable is unknown until the formula is run (while+for loop completes), I am having trouble doing things as DataColumns. Hopefully the code below will help. I am really trying to build the table one column at a time. I realize I could reverse it to build it one row at a time because the Years before retirement (yearsRetire) is known, but I would prefer not to and I want to learn more. Sorry for the indentation and commenting. I tried to leave some of my commented coding attempts in there. Thanks for any help. public double calcROI() { double testROI = 0.00; double tempRetireAmount = 0; double adjustRetire = goalAmount * (1 + (Math.Pow(inflation,yearsRetire))); // Loop through ROI values until the calculated retire amount with the test ROI // is greater than the target amount adjusted for inflation while (tempRetireAmount < adjustRetire) { //Increment ROI by 1% per while iteration testROI += .01; //Make a new Column to hold the values for ROI for this while iteration //dtMain.Columns.Add(Convert.ToString(testROI)); //DataColumn tempdc = new DataColumn(Convert.ToString(testROI)); //Loop through the number of years entered by user and see the amount //at Retirement with current ROI for (int i = 0; i < yearsRetire; i++) { //Main formula to calculate amount after i years tempRetireAmount = (tempRetireAmount + salary*savingsPct) * (1 + testROI); // Add value for this year/ROI to table/column //DataRow dr = .NewRow(); //dr tempRetireAmount; //tempdc[i] = tempRetireAmount; } //Need to add column of data to my Main DataTable //dtMain.Rows.Add(dr); //dtMain.Columns.Add(tempdc); } return testROI; }

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  • Using jQuery to store basic text string in mySQL base?

    - by Kenny Bones
    Could someone point me in the right direction here? Basically, I've got this jQuery code snippet: $('.bggallery_images').click(function () { var newBG = "url('" + $(this).attr('src'); var fullpath = $(this).attr('src'); var filename = fullpath.replace('img/Bakgrunner/', ''); $('#wrapper').css('background-image', newBG); // Lagre til SQL $.ajax({ url: "save_to_db.php", // The url to your function to handle saving to the db data: filename, dataType: 'Text', type: 'POST', // Could also use GET if you prefer success: function (data) { // Just for testing purposes. alert('Background changed to: ' + data); } }); }); This is being run when I click a certain button. So it's actually within a click handler. If I understand this correctly, this snippet takes the source if the image I just clicked and strips it so I end up with only the filename. If I do an alert(filename), I get the filename only. So this is working ok. But then, it does an ajax call to a php file called "save_to_db.php" and sends data: filename. This is correct right? Then, it does a callback which does an alert + data. Does this seem correct so far? Cause my php file looks like this: <?php require("dbconnect2.php"); $uploadstring = $_POST['filename']; $sessionid = $_SESSION['id']; echo ($sessionid); mysql_query("UPDATE brukere SET brukerBakgrunn = '$uploadstring' WHERE brukerID=" .$_SESSION['id']); mysql_close(); ?> When I click the image, the jQuery snippet fires and I get the results of this php file as output for the alert box. I think that the variables somehow are empty. Because notice the echo($sessionid); which is a variable I've created just to test what the session ID is. And it returns nothing. What could be the issue here? Edit: I just tried to echo out the $uploadstring variable as well and it also returns nothing. It's like the jQuery snippet doesn't even pass the variable on to the php file?

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  • Webservice for uploading data: security considerations

    - by Philip Daubmeier
    Hi everyone! Im not sure about what authentification method I should use for my webservice. I've searched on SO, and found nothing that helped me. Preliminary Im building an application that uploads data from a local database to a server (running my webservice), where all records are merged and stored in a central database. I am currently binary serializing a DataTable, that holds a small fragment of the local database, where all uninteresting stuff is already filtered out. The byte[] (serialized DataTable), together with the userid and a hash of the users password is then uploaded to the webservice via SOAP. The application together with the webservice already work exactly like intended. The Problem The issue I am thinking about is now: What is if someone just sniffs the network traffic, 'steals' the users id and password hash to send his own SOAP message with modified data that corrupts my database? Options The approaches to solving that problem, I already thought of, are: Using ssl + certificates for establishing the connection: I dont really want to use ssl, I would prefer a simpler solution. After all, every information that is transfered to the webservice can be seen on the website later on. What I want to say is: there is no secret/financial/business-critical information, that has to be hidden. I think ssl would be sort of an overkill for that task. Encrypting the byte[]: I think that would be a performance killer, considering that the goal of the excercise was simply to authenticate the user. Hashing the users password together with the data: I kind of like the idea: Creating a checksum from the data, concatenating that checksum with the password-hash and hashing this whole thing again. That would assure the data was sent from this specific user, and the data wasnt modified. The actual question So, what do you think is the best approach in terms of meeting the following requirements? Rather simple solution (As it doesnt have to be super secure; no secret/business-critical information transfered) Easily implementable retrospectively (Dont want to write it all again :) ) Doesnt impact to much on performance What do you think of my prefered solution, the last one in the list above? Is there any alternative solution I didnt mention, that would fit better? You dont have to answer every question in detail. Just push me in the right direction. I very much appreciate every well-grounded opinion. Thanks in advance!

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  • Lift session valid ajax callback from a static javascript

    - by ChrisJamesC
    I am currently implementing a graph visualisation tool using lift on the server side and d3 ( a javascript visualisation framework) for all the visualisation. The problem I have is that in the script I want to get session dependent data from the server. So basically, my objective is to write lift-valid ajax callbacks in a static js script. Here is what I tried so far: What I have tried so far If you feel that the best solution is one that I already tried feel free to post a detailed answer telling me how to use it exactly and how it completely solves my problem. REST interface Usually what one would do to get data from a javascript function in lift is to create a REST interface. However this interface will not be linked to any session. This is the solution I got from my previous question: Get json data in d3 from lift snippet Give function as argument of script Another solution would be to give the ajaxcallback as an argument of the main script called to generate my graph. However I expect to have a lot of callbacks and I don't want to have to mess with the arguments of my script. Write the ajax callback in another script using lift and call it from the main script This solution, which is similar to a hidden text input is probably the more likely to work. However it is not elegant and it would mean that I would have to load a lot of scripts on load, which is not really conveniant. Write the whole script in lift and then serve it to the client This solution can be elegant, however my script is very long and I would really prefer that it remainss static. What I want On client side While reviewing the source code of my webpage I found that the callback for an ajaxSelect is: <select onchange="liftAjax.lift_ajaxHandler('F966066257023LYKF4=' + encodeURIComponent(this.value), null, null, null)" name="F96606625703QXTSWU" id="node_delete" class="input"> Moreover, there is a variable containing the state of the page in the end of the webpage: var lift_page = "F96606625700QRXLDO"; So, I am wondering if it is possible to simulate that my ajaxcall is valid using this liftAjax.lift_ajaxHandler function. However I don't know the exact synthax to use. On server side Since I "forged" a request on client side, I would now like to get the request on client side and to dispatch it to the correct function. This is where the LiftRules.dispatch object seems the best solution: when it is called, all the session management has been made (the request is authentified and linked to a session), however I don't know how to write the correct piece of code in the append function. Remark In lift all names of variables are changed to a random string in order to increase the security, I would like to have the same behavior in my application even if that will probably mean that I will have to "give" the javascript these values. However an array of 15 string values is still a better tradeoff than 15 functions as argument of a javascript function.

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  • Do you use logical negation operator (!) in "if" statement or check on "== false"

    - by Taras Terebkov
    Hello everyone, I just want to conduct a little survey about code style developers prefer. For me there are two ways to write "if" in such languages as Java, C#, C++, etc. (1) Logical negation operator public void foo() { if (!SessionManager.getInstance().hasActiveSession()) { . . . . . } } (2) Check on "false" public void foo() { if (SessionManager.getInstance().hasActiveSession() == false) { . . . . . } } I always believe that first way is much worst then the second one. Cause usually you don't "read" the code, but "recognize" it in one brief look. And exclamation symbol slipped from your mind, just disturbing you somewhere on the bottom of your unconscious. And only during reading the "if" block below you understand, that the logic is opposite - no sessions in "if" On the other hand in the second way of writing, an eye immediately catches words "SessionManager", "hasActiveSession" and "false". Also for me, the situation with "true" is different. In code like class SessionManager { private bool hasSession; public void foo() { if (hasSession == true) { . . . . . } else { . . . . . } } } I find "true" superfluous. why we repeating the sentence two times? The following is shorter and quicker to catch. class SessionManager { private bool hasSession; public void foo() { if (hasSession) { . . . . . } else { . . . . . } } } What do YOU think, guys?

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  • Planning to create PDF files in Ruby on Rails

    - by deau
    Hi there, A Ruby on Rails app will have access to a number of images and fonts. The images are components of a visual layout which will be stored separately as a set of rules. The rules specify document dimensions along with which images are used and where. The app needs to take these rules, fetch the images, and generate a PDF that is ready for local printing or emailing. The fonts will also be important. The user needs to customize the layout by inputting text which will be included in the PDF. The PDF must therefore also contain the desired font so that the document renders identically across different machines. Each PDF may have many pages. Each page may have different dimensions but this is not essential. Either way, the ability to manipulate the dimensions and margins given by the PDF is essential. The only thing that needs to be regularly changed is the text. If this is takes too much development then the app can store the layouts in 3rd party PDFs and edit the textual content directly. Eventually though, this will prove too restrictive on the apps intended functionality so I would prefer the app to generate the PDF's itself. I have never worked with PDFs before and, for the most part, I've never had to output anything to the user outside their monitor. A printed medium could require a very different approach to get the best results. If anyone has any advice on how to model the PDF format this it would be really appreciated. The technical aspects of printing such as bleed, resolution and colour have already been factored in to the layouts and images. I am aware that PDF is a proprietary file format and I want to use free or open source software. I have seen a number of Ruby libraries for generating PDF files but because I am new on this scene I have no way to reliably compare them and too little time to implement and test them all. I also have the option of using C to handle this feature and if this is process intensive then that might be preferred. What should I be thinking about and how should I be planning to implement this?

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  • Undefined template methods trick ?

    - by Matthieu M.
    A colleague of mine told me about a little piece of design he has used with his team that sent my mind boiling. It's a kind of traits class that they can specialize in an extremely decoupled way. I've had a hard time understanding how it could possibly work, and I am still unsure of the idea I have, so I thought I would ask for help here. We are talking g++ here, specifically the versions 3.4.2 and 4.3.2 (it seems to work with both). The idea is quite simple: 1- Define the interface // interface.h template <class T> struct Interface { void foo(); // the method is not implemented, it could not work if it was }; // // I do not think it is necessary // but they prefer free-standing methods with templates // because of the automatic argument deduction // template <class T> void foo(Interface<T>& interface) { interface.foo(); } 2- Define a class, and in the source file specialize the interface for this class (defining its methods) // special.h class Special {}; // special.cpp #include "interface.h" #include "special.h" // // Note that this specialization is not visible outside of this translation unit // template <> struct Interface<Special> { void foo() { std::cout << "Special" << std::endl; } }; 3- To use, it's simple too: // main.cpp #include "interface.h" class Special; // yes, it only costs a forward declaration // which helps much in term of dependencies int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { Interface<Special> special; foo(special); return 0; }; It's an undefined symbol if no translation unit defined a specialization of Interface for Special. Now, I would have thought this would require the export keyword, which to my knowledge has never been implemented in g++ (and only implemented once in a C++ compiler, with its authors advising anyone not to, given the time and effort it took them). I suspect it's got something to do with the linker resolving the templates methods... Do you have ever met anything like this before ? Does it conform to the standard or do you think it's a fortunate coincidence it works ? I must admit I am quite puzzled by the construct...

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  • IE sends multiple cookies with same name?

    - by akach
    I have a strange bug that occurs in IE7/XP and IE8/Vista on my website. IE sends two cookies named PHPSESSID. How to reproduce: Clear cookies in IE (not necessary if you never visited unisender.com). Visit unisender.com (exactly without www to reproduce!) and it will redirect to www.unisender.com Login with any valid username and password (I've registered username testmsdn with password testmsdn - feel free to use for testing) Run your favourite capture-the-traffic program (I prefer wireshark) Now click any menu link (e.g. "messages") Look at captured traffic - you will see that IE sends double PHPSESSID cookie (and you are logged out after click because of this). It seems like first PHPSESSID is from unisender.com and second from www.unisender.com. Captured sample: GET /en/letter_list HTTP/1.1 Accept: image/gif, image/jpeg, image/pjpeg, application/x-ms-application, application/vnd.ms-xpsdocument, application/xaml+xml, application/x-ms-xbap, application/x-shockwave-flash, / Referer: http://www.unisender.com/en/intro Accept-Language: ru User-Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 6.0; Trident/4.0; Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 6.0; Windows NT 5.1; SV1) ; SLCC1; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.5.21022; .NET CLR 3.5.30729; FDM; .NET CLR 3.0.30729) Accept-Encoding: gzip, deflate Host: www.unisender.com Connection: Keep-Alive Cookie: authchallenge=3a9cfcfc9fe33822e3e21d75c8a3d3e4; PHPSESSID=14ea1cb133632951592397c86eaf037e; us_reg_ref=unknown; us_reg_url=http%3A%2F%2Funisender.com%2F; __utma=1.778517853.1271204400.1271204400.1271204400.1; __utmb=1.3.10.1271204400; __utmc=1; __utmz=1.1271204400.1.1.utmcsr=(direct)|utmccn=(direct)|utmcmd=(none); PHPSESSID=65e110aeb995a66b9dc8da5656c7a3da; last_login_name=testmsdn I've tried to use session and non-session cookies, tried to use .unisender.com instead of unisender.com for cookie - nothing helps. I suppose there should not be cookies with same name. Am I right? Is it a bug in IE? If it's a bug then is there a workaround? Or am I wrong and it's an expected behavior?

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  • Better way to write an object generator for an RAII template class?

    - by Dan
    I would like to write an object generator for a templated RAII class -- basically a function template to construct an object using type deduction of parameters so the types don't have to be specified explicitly. The problem I foresee is that the helper function that takes care of type deduction for me is going to return the object by value, which will result in a premature call to the RAII destructor when the copy is made. Perhaps C++0x move semantics could help but that's not an option for me. Anyone seen this problem before and have a good solution? This is what I have: template<typename T, typename U, typename V> class FooAdder { private: typedef OtherThing<T, U, V> Thing; Thing &thing_; int a_; // many other members public: FooAdder(Thing &thing, int a); ~FooAdder(); void foo(T t, U u); void bar(V v); }; The gist is that OtherThing has a horrible interface, and FooAdder is supposed to make it easier to use. The intended use is roughly like this: FooAdder(myThing, 2) .foo(3, 4) .foo(5, 6) .bar(7) .foo(8, 9); The FooAdder constructor initializes some internal data structures. The foo and bar methods populate those data structures. The ~FooAdder dtor wraps things up and calls a method on thing_, taking care of all the nastiness. That would work fine if FooAdder wasn't a template. But since it is, I would need to put the types in, more like this: FooAdder<Abc, Def, Ghi>(myThing, 2) ... That's annoying, because the types can be inferred based on myThing. So I would prefer to create a templated object generator, similar to std::make_pair, that will do the type deduction for me. Something like this: template<typename T, typename U, typename V> FooAdder<T, U, V> AddFoo(Thing &thing, int a) { return FooAdder<T, U, V>(thing, a); } That seems problematic: because it returns by value, the stack temporary object will be destructed, which will cause the RAII dtor to run prematurely. One thought I had was to give FooAdder a copy ctor with move semantics, kinda like std::auto_ptr. But I would like to do this without dynamic memory allocation, so I thought the copy ctor could set a flag within FooAdder indicating the dtor shouldn't do the wrap-up. Like this: FooAdder(FooAdder &rhs) // Note: rhs is not const : thing_(rhs.thing_) , a_(rhs.a_) , // etc... lots of other members, annoying. , moved(false) { rhs.moved = true; } ~FooAdder() { if (!moved) { // do whatever it would have done } } Seems clunky. Anyone got a better way?

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  • Newbie jQuery question: Need slideshow to rotate automatically, not just when clicking navigation.

    - by Justin
    Hi everyone, This is my first post, so please forgive me if this question has been asked a million times. I'm a self professed jQuery hack and I need a little guidance on taking this script I found and adapting it to my needs. Anyway, what I'm making is an image slide show with navigation. The script I found does this, but does not automatically cycle through the images. I'm using jQuery 1.3.2 and would rather stick with that than using the newer library. I would also prefer to edit what is already here rather than start from scratch. Anywho, here's the html: <div id="myslide"> <div class="cover"> <div class="mystuff"> <img alt="&nbsp;" src="http://www.mfhc.com/wp/wp-content/uploads/2010/05/current_Denver-skyline.jpg" /> </div> <div class="mystuff"> <img alt="&nbsp;" src="http://www.mfhc.com/wp/wp-content/uploads/2010/05/pepsi_center-IS42RF-0D111C.jpg" /> </div> <div class="mystuff"> <img alt="&nbsp;" src="http://www.mfhc.com/wp/wp-content/uploads/2010/05/columbine-2689820469_D1104.jpg" /> </div> <div class="mystuff"> <img alt="&nbsp;" src="http://www.mfhc.com/wp/wp-content/uploads/2010/05/ist2_10460354-RedRocks.jpg" /> </div> </div> <!-- end of div cover --> </div> <!-- end of div myslide --> And here's the jQuery: <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.3.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/JavaScript"> $(document).ready(function (){ $('#button a').click(function(){ var integer = $(this).attr('rel'); $('#myslide .cover').css({left:-820*(parseInt(integer)-1)}).hide().fadeIn(); /*----- Width of div #mystuff (here 820) ------ */ $('#button a').each(function(){ $(this).removeClass('active'); if($(this).hasClass('button'+integer)){ $(this).addClass('active')} }); }); }); </script> Here's where I got the script: http://www.webdeveloperjuice.com/2010/04/07/create-lightweight-jquery-fade-manual-slideshow/ Again, if this question is too basic for this site please let me know and possibly provide a reference link or two. Thanks a ton!

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  • Refactor the following two C++ methods to move out duplicate code

    - by ossandcad
    I have the following two methods that (as you can see) are similar in most of its statements except for one (see below for details) unsigned int CSWX::getLineParameters(const SURFACE & surface, vector<double> & params) { VARIANT varParams; surface->getPlaneParams(varParams); // this is the line of code that is different SafeDoubleArray sdParams(varParams); for( int i = 0 ; i < sdParams.getSize() ; ++i ) { params.push_back(sdParams[i]); } if( params.size() > 0 ) return 0; return 1; } unsigned int CSWX::getPlaneParameters(const CURVE & curve, vector<double> & params) { VARIANT varParams; curve->get_LineParams(varParams); // this is the line of code that is different SafeDoubleArray sdParams(varParams); for( int i = 0 ; i < sdParams.getSize() ; ++i ) { params.push_back(sdParams[i]); } if( params.size() > 0 ) return 0; return 1; } Is there any technique that I can use to move the common lines of code of the two methods out to a separate method, that could be called from the two variations - OR - possibly combine the two methods to a single method? The following are the restrictions: The classes SURFACE and CURVE are from 3rd party libraries and hence unmodifiable. (If it helps they are both derived from IDispatch) There are even more similar classes (e.g. FACE) that could fit into this "template" (not C++ template, just the flow of lines of code) I know the following could (possibly?) be implemented as solutions but am really hoping there is a better solution: I could add a 3rd parameter to the 2 methods - e.g. an enum - that identifies the 1st parameter (e.g. enum::input_type_surface, enum::input_type_curve) I could pass in an IDispatch and try dynamic_cast< and test which cast is NON_NULL and do an if-else to call the right method (e.g. getPlaneParams() vs. get_LineParams()) The following is not a restriction but would be a requirement because of my teammates resistance: Not implement a new class that inherits from SURFACE/CURVE etc. (They would much prefer to solve it using the enum solution I stated above)

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  • Solution Output Directory

    - by L.E.O
    The project that I'm currently working on is being developed by multiple teams where each team is responsible for different part of the project. They all have set up their own C# projects and solutions with configuration settings specific to their own needs. However, now we need to create another, global solution, which will combine and build all projects into the same output directory. The problem that I have encountered though, is that I have found only one way to make all projects build into the same output directory - I need to modify configurations for all of them. That is what we would like to avoid. We would prefer that all these projects had no knowledge about this "global" solution. Each team must retain possibility to work just with their own sub-solution. One possible workaround is to create a special configuration for all projects just for this "global" solution, but that could create extra problems since now you have to constantly sync this configuration settings with the regular one, used by that specific team. Last thing we want to do is to spend hours trying to figure out why something doesn't work when building under global solution just because of some check box that developers have checked in their configuration, but forgot to do so in the global configuration. So, to simplify, we need some sort of output directory setting or post build event that would only be present when building from that global, all-inclusive solution. Is there any way to achieve this without changing something in projects configurations? Update 1: Some extra details I guess I need to mention: We need this global solution to be as close as possible to what the end user gets when he installs our application, since we intend to use it for debugging of the entire application when we need to figure out which part of the application isn't working before sending this bug to the team working on that part. This means that when building under global solution the output directory hierarchy should be the same as it would be in Program Files after installation, so that if, for example, we have Program Files/MyApplication/Addins folder which contains all the addins developed by different teams, we need the global solution to copy the binaries from addins projects and place them in the output directory accordingly. The thing is, the team developing an addin doest necessary know that it is an addin and that it should be placed in that folder, so they cannot change their relative output directory to be build/bin/Debug/Addins.

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  • How can I map a String to a function in Java?

    - by Bears will eat you
    Currently, I have a bunch of Java classes that implement a Processor interface, meaning they all have a processRequest(String key) method. The idea is that each class has a few (say, <10) member Strings, and each of those maps to a method in that class via the processRequest method, like so: class FooProcessor implements Processor { String key1 = "abc"; String key2 = "def"; String key3 = "ghi"; // and so on... String processRequest(String key) { String toReturn = null; if (key1.equals(key)) toReturn = method1(); else if (key2.equals(key)) toReturn = method2(); else if (key3.equals(key)) toReturn = method3(); // and so on... return toReturn; } String method1() { // do stuff } String method2() { // do other stuff } String method3() { // do other other stuff } // and so on... } You get the idea. This was working fine for me, but now I need a runtime-accessible mapping from key to function; not every function actually returns a String (some return void) and I need to dynamically access the return type (using reflection) of each function in each class that there's a key for. I already have a manager that knows about all the keys, but not the mapping from key to function. My first instinct was to replace this mapping using if-else statements with a Map<String, Function>, like I could do in Javascript. But, Java doesn't support first-class functions so I'm out of luck there. I could probably dig up a third-party library that lets me work with first-class functions, but I haven't seen any yet, and I doubt that I need an entire new library. I also thought of putting these String keys into an array and using reflection to invoke the methods by name, but I see two downsides to this method: My keys would have to be named the same as the method - or be named in a particular, consistent way so that it's easy to map them to the method name. This seems WAY slower than the if-else statements I have right now. Efficiency is something of a concern because these methods will tend to get called pretty frequently, and I want to minimize unnecessary overhead. TL; DR: I'm looking for a clean, minimal-overhead way to map a String to some sort of a Function object that I can invoke and call (something like) getReturnType() on. I don't especially mind using a 3rd-party library if it really fits my needs. I also don't mind using reflection, though I would strongly prefer to avoid using reflection every single time I do a method lookup - maybe using some caching strategy that combines the Map with reflection. Thoughts on a good way to get what I want? Cheers!

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  • Calculating all distances between one point and a group of points efficiently in R

    - by dbarbosa
    Hi, First of all, I am new to R (I started yesterday). I have two groups of points, data and centers, the first one of size n and the second of size K (for instance, n = 3823 and K = 10), and for each i in the first set, I need to find j in the second with the minimum distance. My idea is simple: for each i, let dist[j] be the distance between i and j, I only need to use which.min(dist) to find what I am looking for. Each point is an array of 64 doubles, so > dim(data) [1] 3823 64 > dim(centers) [1] 10 64 I have tried with for (i in 1:n) { for (j in 1:K) { d[j] <- sqrt(sum((centers[j,] - data[i,])^2)) } S[i] <- which.min(d) } which is extremely slow (with n = 200, it takes more than 40s!!). The fastest solution that I wrote is distance <- function(point, group) { return(dist(t(array(c(point, t(group)), dim=c(ncol(group), 1+nrow(group)))))[1:nrow(group)]) } for (i in 1:n) { d <- distance(data[i,], centers) which.min(d) } Even if it does a lot of computation that I don't use (because dist(m) computes the distance between all rows of m), it is way more faster than the other one (can anyone explain why?), but it is not fast enough for what I need, because it will not be used only once. And also, the distance code is very ugly. I tried to replace it with distance <- function(point, group) { return (dist(rbind(point,group))[1:nrow(group)]) } but this seems to be twice slower. I also tried to use dist for each pair, but it is also slower. I don't know what to do now. It seems like I am doing something very wrong. Any idea on how to do this more efficiently? ps: I need this to implement k-means by hand (and I need to do it, it is part of an assignment). I believe I will only need Euclidian distance, but I am not yet sure, so I will prefer to have some code where the distance computation can be replaced easily. stats::kmeans do all computation in less than one second.

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  • Can I use accepts_nested_attributes_for with checkboxes in a _form to select potential 'links' from a list

    - by Ryan
    In Rails 3: I have the following models: class System has_many :input_modes # name of the table with the join in it has_many :imodes, :through => :input_modes, :source => 'mode', :class_name => "Mode" has_many :output_modes has_many :omodes, :through => :output_modes, :source => 'mode', :class_name => 'Mode' end class InputMode # OutputMode is identical belongs_to :mode belongs_to :system end class Mode ... fields, i.e. name ... end That works nicely and I can assign lists of Modes to imodes and omodes as intended. What I'd like to do is use accepts_nested_attributes_for or some other such magic in the System model and build a view with a set of checkboxes. The set of valid Modes for a given System is defined elsewhere. I'm using checkboxes in the _form view to select which of the valid modes is actually set in imodes and omodes . I don't want to create new Modes from this view, just select from a list of pre-defined Modes. Below is what I'm currently using in my _form view. It generates a list of checkboxes, one for each allowed Mode for the System being edited. If the checkbox is ticked then that Mode is to be included in the imodes list. <% @allowed_modes.each do |mode| %> <li> <%= check_box_tag :imode_ids, mode.id, @system.imodes.include?(modifier), :name => 'imode_ids[]' %> <%= mode.name %> </li> <% end %> Which passes this into the controller in params: { ..., "imode_ids"=>["2", "14"], ... } In the controller#create I extract and assign the Modes that had their corresponding checkboxes ticked and add them to imodes with the following code: @system = System.new(params[:system]) # Note the the empty list that makes sure we clear the # list if none of the checkboxes are ticked if params.has_key?(:imode_ids) imodes = Mode.find(params[:imode_ids]) else imodes = [] end @system.imodes = imodes Once again that all works nicely but I'll have to copy that cludgey code into the other methods in the controller and I'd much prefer to use something more magical if possible. I feel like I've passed off the path of nice clean rails code and into the forest of "hacking around" rails; it works but I don't like it. What should I have done?

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