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  • Which view will be resolved, code from spring's docs

    - by Blankman
    So when you go to /appointments the get() action is called, so then would the view be get.jsp (assuming you are using .jsp, and assuming you are mapping action names to views)? And what about the getnewform? It seems to be returning an object? Is that basically passed into the view? @Controller @RequestMapping("/appointments") public class AppointmentsController { private final AppointmentBook appointmentBook; @Autowired public AppointmentsController(AppointmentBook appointmentBook) { this.appointmentBook = appointmentBook; } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.GET) public Map<String, Appointment> get() { return appointmentBook.getAppointmentsForToday(); } @RequestMapping(value="/{day}", method = RequestMethod.GET) public Map<String, Appointment> getForDay(@PathVariable @DateTimeFormat(iso=ISO.DATE) Date day, Model model) { return appointmentBook.getAppointmentsForDay(day); } @RequestMapping(value="/new", method = RequestMethod.GET) public AppointmentForm getNewForm() { return new AppointmentForm(); } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.POST) public String add(@Valid AppointmentForm appointment, BindingResult result) { if (result.hasErrors()) { return "appointments/new"; } appointmentBook.addAppointment(appointment); return "redirect:/appointments"; } } In the example, the @RequestMapping is used in a number of places. The first usage is on the type (class) level, which indicates that all handling methods on this controller are relative to the /appointments path. The get() method has a further @RequestMapping refinement: it only accepts GET requests, meaning that an HTTP GET for /appointments invokes this method. The post() has a similar refinement, and the getNewForm() combines the definition of HTTP method and path into one, so that GET requests for appointments/new are handled by that method.

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  • Posting forms to a 404 + HttpHandler in IIS7: why has all POST data gone missing?

    - by Rahul
    OK, this might sound a bit confusing and complicated, so bear with me. We've written a framework that allows us to define friendly URLs. If you surf to any arbitrary URL, IIS tries to display a 404 error (or, in some cases, 403;14 or 405). However, IIS is set up so that anything directed to those specific errors is sent to an .aspx file. This allows us to implement an HttpHandler to handle the request and do stuff, which involves finding the an associated template and then executing whatever's associated with it. Now, this all works in IIS 5 and 6 and, to an extent, on IIS7 - but for one catch, which happens when you post a form. See, when you post a form to a non-existent URL, IIS says "ah, but that url doesn't exist" and throws a 405 "method not allowed" error. Since we're telling IIS to redirect those errors to our .aspx page and therefore handling it with our HttpHandler, this normally isn't a problem. But as of IIS7, all POST information has gone missing after being redirected to the 405. And so you can no longer do the most trivial of things involving forms. To solve this we've tried using a HttpModule, which preserves POST data but appears to not have an initialized Session at the right time (when it's needed). We also tried using a HttpModule for all requests, not just the missing requests that hit 404/403;14/405, but that means stuff like images, css, js etc are being handled by .NET code, which is terribly inefficient. Which brings me to the actual question: has anyone ever encountered this, and does anyone have any advice or know what to do to get things working again? So far someone has suggested using Microsoft's own URL Rewriting module. Would this help solve our problem? Thanks.

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  • Code Organization Connundrum: Web Project With Multiple Supporting DLLs?

    - by Code Sherpa
    Hi. I am trying to get a handle on the best practice for code organization within my project. I have looked around on the internet for good examples and, so far, I have seen examples of a web project with one or multiple supporting class libraries that it references or a web project with sub-folders that follow its namespace conventions. Assuming there is no right answer, this is what I currently have for code organization: MyProjectWeb This is my web site. I am referencing my class libraries here. MyProject.DLL As the base namespace, I am using this DLL for files that need to be generally consumable. For example, my class "Enums" that has all the enumerations in my project lives there. As does class MyProjectException for all exception handling. MyProject.IO.DLL This is a grouping of maybe 20 files that handle file upload and download (so far). MyProject.Utilities.DLL ALl my common classes and methods bunched up together in one generally consumable DLL. Each class follows a "XHelper" convention such as "SqlHelper, AuthHelper, SerializationHelper, and so on... MyProject.Web.DLL I am using this DLL as the main client interface. Right now, the majority of class files here are: 1) properties (such as School, Location, Account, Posts) 2) authorization stuff ( such as custom membership, custom role, & custom profile providers) My question is simply - does this seem logical? Also, how do I avoid having to cross reference DLLs from one project library to the next? For example, MyProject.Web.DLL uses code from MyProject.Utilities.DLL and MyProject.Utilities.DLL uses code from MyProject.DLL. Is this solved by clicking on properties and selecting "Dependencies"? I tried that but still don't seem to be accessing the namespaces of the assembly I have selected. Do I have to reference every assembly I need for each class library? Responses appreciated and thanks for your patience.

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  • ASP.NET MVC routing issue with Google Chrome client

    - by synergetic
    My Silverlight 4 app is hosted in ASP.NET MVC 2 web application. It works fine when I browse with Internet Explorer 8. However Google Chrome (version 5) cannot find ASP.NET controllers. Specifically, the following ASP.NET controller works both with Chrome and IE. //[OutputCache(NoStore = true, Duration = 0, VaryByParam = "None")] public ContentResult TestMe() { ContentResult result = new ContentResult(); XElement response = new XElement("SvrResponse", new XElement("Data", "my data")); result.Content = response.ToString(); return result; } If I uncomment [OutputCache] attribute then it works with IE but not with Chrome. Also, I use custom model binding with controllers, so if I write the following: public ContentResult TestMe(UserContext userContext) { ... } it also works with IE, but again not with Chrome which gives me error message saying that resource was not found. Of course, I configured IIS 6 for handling all requests via aspnet_isapi.dll and I have registered custom model binder in my web app's Global.asax inside Application_Start() method. Can someone explain me what might be the cause? Thank you.

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  • Is Form validation and Business validation too much?

    - by Robert Cabri
    I've got this question about form validation and business validation. I see a lot of frameworks that use some sort of form validation library. You submit some values and the library validates the values from the form. If not ok it will show some errors on you screen. If all goes to plan the values will be set into domain objects. Here the values will be or, better said, should validated (again). Most likely the same validation in the validation library. I know 2 PHP frameworks having this kind of construction Zend/Kohana. When I look at programming and some principles like Don't Repeat Yourself (DRY) and single responsibility principle (SRP) this isn't a good way. As you can see it validates twice. Why not create domain objects that do the actual validation. Example: Form with username and email form is submitted. Values of the username field and the email field will be populated in 2 different Domain objects: Username and Email class Username {} class Email {} These objects validate their data and if not valid throw an exception. Do you agree? What do you think about this aproach? Is there a better way to implement validations? I'm confused about a lot of frameworks/developers handling this stuff. Are they all wrong or am I missing a point? Edit: I know there should also be client side kind of validation. This is a different ballgame in my Opinion. If You have some comments on this and a way to deal with this kind of stuff, please provide.

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  • Method for launching audio player on Android from web page for streaming media

    - by Brad
    To link to SHOUTcast/HTTP internet radio streams, traditionally you would link to a playlist file, such as an M3U or PLS. From there, the browser would launch the audio player registered to handle the playlist. This works great on any PC, Palm, Blackberry, and iPhone. This method does not work in Android without installing extra software. Sure, Just Playlists or StreamFurious can handle it just fine, but I am assuming there has to be a way to invoke the audio or video player commonly installed by default on Android installations. By default, no audio player is capable of handling M3U or PLS. The player seems to open it, but says "Unsupported Media Type". To make this more annoying, the browser is capable of streaming MP3 audio over HTTP, simply by opening a link to an MP3 file. I have tried simply linking directly to the MP3 stream hosted by SHOUTcast, which should end up in the same result, but SHOUTcast detects "Mozilla" in the user-agent string, and instead of sending the stream, it sends the information page for the station. How should I link to a SHOUTcast stream on Android, from a normal mobile site, without using extra applications?

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  • Distributed Message Ordering

    - by sbanwart
    I have an architectural question on handling message ordering. For purposes of this question, the transport is irrelevant, so I'm not going to specify one. Say we have three systems, a website, a CRM and an ERP. For this example, the ERP will be the "master" system in terms of data ownership. The website and the CRM can both send a new customer message to the ERP system. The ERP system then adds a customer and publishes the customer with the newly assigned account number so that the website and CRM can add the account number to their local customer records. This is a pretty straight forward process. Next we move on to placing orders. The account number is required in order for the CRM or website to place an order with the ERP system. However the CRM will permit the user to place an order even if the customer lacks an account number. (For this example assume we can't modify the CRM behavior) This creates the possibility that a user could create a new customer, and place an order before the account number gets updated in the CRM. What is the best way to handle this scenario? Would it be best to send the order message sans account number and let it go to an error queue? Would it be better to have the CRM endpoint hold the message and wait until the account number is updated in the CRM? Maybe something completely different that I haven't thought of? Thanks in advance for any help.

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  • How to call a service operation at a REST style WCF endpoint uri?

    - by Dieter Domanski
    Hi, is it possible to call a service operation at a wcf endpoint uri with a self hosted service? I want to call some default service operation when the client enters the endpoint uri of the service. In the following sample these uris correctly call the declared operations (SayHello, SayHi): - http://localhost:4711/clerk/hello - http://localhost:4711/clerk/hi But the uri - http://localhost:4711/clerk does not call the declared SayWelcome operation. Instead it leads to the well known 'Metadata publishing disabled' page. Enabling mex does not help, in this case the mex page is shown at the endpoint uri. private void StartSampleServiceHost() { ServiceHost serviceHost = new ServiceHost(typeof(Clerk), new Uri( "http://localhost:4711/clerk/")); ServiceEndpoint endpoint = serviceHost.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(IClerk), new WebHttpBinding(), ""); endpoint.Behaviors.Add(new WebHttpBehavior()); serviceHost.Open(); } [ServiceContract] public interface IClerk { [OperationContract, WebGet(UriTemplate = "")] Stream SayWelcome(); [OperationContract, WebGet(UriTemplate = "/hello/")] Stream SayHello(); [OperationContract, WebGet(UriTemplate = "/hi/")] Stream SayHi(); } public class Clerk : IClerk { public Stream SayWelcome() { return Say("welcome"); } public Stream SayHello() { return Say("hello"); } public Stream SayHi() { return Say("hi"); } private Stream Say(string what) { string page = @"<html><body>" + what + "</body></html>"; return new MemoryStream(Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(page)); } } Is there any way to disable the mex handling and to enable a declared operation instead? Thanks in advance, Dieter

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  • need help about process........

    - by adeel amin
    when i start process like process= Runtime.getRuntime().exec("gnome-terminal");, it start shell execution, i want to stop shell execution and want to redirect I/O from process, can anybody tell how i can do this? my code is: public void start_process() { try { process= Runtime.getRuntime().exec("bash"); pw= new PrintWriter(process.getOutputStream(),true); br=new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(process.getInputStream())); err=new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(process.getErrorStream())); } catch (Exception ioe) { System.out.println("IO Exception-> " + ioe); } } public void execution_command() { if(check==2) { try { boolean flag=thread.isAlive(); if(flag==true) thread.stop(); Thread.sleep(30); thread = new MyReader(br,tbOutput,err,check); thread.start(); }catch(Exception ex){ JOptionPane.showMessageDialog(null, ex.getMessage()+"1"); } } else { try { Thread.sleep(30); thread = new MyReader(br,tbOutput,err,check); thread.start(); check=2; }catch(Exception ex){ JOptionPane.showMessageDialog(null, ex.getMessage()+"1"); } } } private void jButton3ActionPerformed(java.awt.event.ActionEvent evt) { // TODO add your handling code here: command=tfCmd.getText().toString().trim(); pw.println(command); execution_command(); } when i enter some command in textfield and press execute button, nothing displayed on my output textarea, how i can stop shellexecution and can redirect Input and output?

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  • Constraining to parent container with MouseDragElementBehavior

    - by anonymous
    Hi all, I just had a question regarding constraining a control's drag and drop movement to its parent canvas. I tried using the ConstrainToParentBounds property on the MouseDragElementBehavior, however, when this is used the drag must be done really slowly or the movement of the control is choppy or stops altogether. So I am attempting to implement my own boundary constraints. I seem to be running into difficulty though. I am still using the MouseDragElementBehavior but am attempting to supplement it by also handling mouseleftbuttondown, mousemove, mouseleftbuttonup events. I know that these are working (haven't been overridden by the MouseDragElementBehavior) as I have tested them using other methods. I will post my current code below: private void Control_MouseMove(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { MyControl mc = (MyControl)sender; Canvas canvas = (Canvas)mc.parent; GeneralTransform ct = canvas.TransformToVisual(Application.Current.RootVisual as UIElement; Point canvas_offset = ct.Transform(new Point(0,0)); double canvasTop = canvas_offset.Y; double canvasLeft = canvas_offset.X; GeneralTransform gt = mc.TransformToVisual(Application.Current.RootVisual as UIElement); Point offset = gt.Transform(new Point(0,0)); double controlTop = offset.Y; double controlLeft = offset.X; if(isMouseCaptured) { if(controlTop < canvasTop) { mc.Opacity = 1; //to test if conditions are being met, seems to indicate ok mc.setValue(Canvas.TopProperty, canvasTop); } if(controlLeft < canvasLeft) { mc.Opacity = 1; mc.setValue(Canvas.TopProperty, canvasTop); } } } This is what my code looks like at the moment (I realize there is nothing there for right/bottom). I've tried a bunch of different things at this point and none of them seem to give the desired result; the control's movement is still not constrained to the canvas. Any help/pointers would be greatly appreciated. Thanks!

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  • Python and Unicode: How everything should be Unicode

    - by A A
    Forgive if this a long a question: I have been programming in Python for around six months. Self taught, starting with the Python tutorial and then SO and then just using Google for stuff. Here is the sad part: No one told me all strings should be Unicode. No, I am not lying or making this up, but where does the tutorial mention it? And most examples also I see just make use of byte strings, instead of Unicode strings. I was just browsing and came across this question on SO, which says how every string in Python should be a Unicode string. This pretty much made me cry! I read that every string in Python 3.0 is Unicode by default, so my questions are for 2.x: Should I do a: print u'Some text' or just print 'Text' ? Everything should be Unicode, does this mean, like say I have a tuple: t = ('First', 'Second'), it should be t = (u'First', u'Second')? I read that I can do a from __future__ import unicode_literals and then every string will be a Unicode string, but should I do this inside a container also? When reading/ writing to a file, I should use the codecs module. Right? Or should I just use the standard way or reading/ writing and encode or decode where required? If I get the string from say raw_input(), should I convert that to Unicode also? What is the common approach to handling all of the above issues in 2.x? The from __future__ import unicode_literals statement? Sorry for being a such a noob, but this changes what I have been doing for a long time and so clearly I am confused.

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  • RestSharp post object to WCF

    - by steve
    Im having an issue posting an object to my wcf rest webservice. On the WCF side I have the following: [WebInvoke(UriTemplate = "", Method = "POST")] public void Create(myObject object) { //save some stuff to the db } When im debugging this never gets hit - it does however get hit when I remove the parameter so im guessing ive done something wrong on the restSharp side of things. Heres my code for that part: var client = new RestClient(ApiBaseUri); var request = new RestRequest(Method.POST); request.RequestFormat = DataFormat.Xml; request.AddBody(myObject); var response = client.Execute(request); Am I doing this wrong? How can the WCF side see my object? What way should I be making the reqest? Or should I be handling it differently WCF side? Things ive tried: request.AddObject(myObject); and request.AddBody(request.XmlSerialise.serialise(myObject)); Any help and understanding in what could possibly be wrong would be much appreciated. Thanks.

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  • I want my logs sent to my mail with logrotate

    - by lericson
    Not strictly a question about programming as such, more of a log handling question. Anyway. My company has multiple clients, and each of these clients have a set of logs that I'd rather much want to get sent to by e-mail to me. Now, another prerequisite is that they're hilighted by simple HTML. All that is very well, I've managed to make a hilighter for the given log types. So, what I do is I use logrotate's prerotate stuff to send the logs as an e-mail message. Example: /var/log/a.log /var/log/b.log { daily missingok copytruncate prerotate /usr/bin/python /home/foo/hilight_logs /var/log/{a,b}.log | /usr/sbin/sendmail -FLog\ mailer [email protected] [email protected] endscript } The problem with this approach is basically that logrotate sucks: it'll run the command for every log file specified in the specifier, and to my knowledge there's no way to know which of the log files is being handled. (Which wouldn't really help anyway.) Short of repeating the exact same logrotate up to 10 times on different machines, the only thing I can do is just to get bogged down with log spam every night. And I grew tired of it today, so I ask.

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  • Why execution of a portion of code loaded from external file is not halted by the OS?

    - by menjaraz
    I've harnessed a project released on internet a long time ago. Here comes the details, all irrelevant things being stripped off for sake of concision and clarity. A binary file whose content is descibed below HEX DUMP: 55 89 E5 83 EC 08 C7 45 FC 00 00 00 00 8B 45 FC 3B 45 10 72 02 EB 19 8B 45 FC 8B 55 0C 01 C2 8B 45 FC 03 45 08 8A 00 88 02 8D 45 FC FF 00 EB DD C6 45 FA 00 83 7D 10 01 76 6C 80 7D FA 00 74 02 EB 64 C6 45 FA 01 C7 45 FC 00 00 00 00 8B 45 10 48 39 45 FC 72 02 EB E2 8B 45 FC 8B 4D 0C 01 C1 8B 45 FC 03 45 0C 8D 50 01 8A 01 3A 02 73 30 8B 45 FC 03 45 0C 8A 00 88 45 FB 8B 45 FC 8B 55 0C 01 C2 8B 45 FC 03 45 0C 40 8A 00 88 02 8B 45 FC 03 45 0C 8D 50 01 8A 45 FB 88 02 C6 45 FA 00 8D 45 FC FF 00 EB A7 C9 C2 0C 00 90 90 90 90 90 90 is loaded into memory and executed using the following method snippet var MySrcArray, MyDestArray: array [1 .. 15] of Byte; // ... MyBuffer: Pointer; TheProc: procedure; SortIt: procedure(ASrc, ADest: Pointer; ASize: LongWord); stdcall; begin // Initialization of MySrcArray with random Bytes and display here ... // Instructions of loading of the binary file into MyBuffer using merely **GetMem** here ... @SortIt := MyBuffer; try SortIt(@MySrcArray, @MyDestArray, 15); // Display of MyDestArray (The outcome of the processing !) except // Invalid code error handling end; // Cleaning code here ... end; works like a charm on my box. My Question: How comes it works without using VirtualAlloc and/or VirtualProtect?

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  • Magic Methods in Python

    - by dArignac
    Howdy, I'm kind of new to Python and I wonder if there is a way to create something like the magic methods in PHP (http://www.php.net/manual/en/language.oop5.overloading.php#language.oop5.overloading.methods) My aim is to ease the access of child classes in my model. I basically have a parent class that has n child classes. These classes have three values, a language key, a translation key and a translation value. The are describing a kind of generic translation handling. The parent class can have translations for different translation key each in different languages. E.g. the key "title" can be translated into german and english and the key "description" too (and so far and so on) I don't want to get the child classes and filter by the set values (at least I want but not explicitly, the concrete implementation behind the magic method would do this). I want to call parent_class.title['de'] # or also possible maybe parent_class.title('de') for getting the translation of title in german (de). So there has to be a magic method that takes the name of the called method and their params (as in PHP). As far as I dug into Python this is only possible with simple attributes (_getattr_, _setattr_) or with setting/getting directly within the class (_getitem_, _setitem_) which both do not fit my needs. Maybe there is a solution for this? Please help! Thanks in advance!

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  • Which is the better C# class design for dealing with read+write versus readonly

    - by DanM
    I'm contemplating two different class designs for handling a situation where some repositories are read-only while others are read-write. (I don't foresee any need to a write-only repository.) Class Design 1 -- provide all functionality in a base class, then expose applicable functionality publicly in sub classes public abstract class RepositoryBase { protected virtual void SelectBase() { // implementation... } protected virtual void InsertBase() { // implementation... } protected virtual void UpdateBase() { // implementation... } protected virtual void DeleteBase() { // implementation... } } public class ReadOnlyRepository : RepositoryBase { public void Select() { SelectBase(); } } public class ReadWriteRepository : RepositoryBase { public void Select() { SelectBase(); } public void Insert() { InsertBase(); } public void Update() { UpdateBase(); } public void Delete() { DeleteBase(); } } Class Design 2 - read-write class inherits from read-only class public class ReadOnlyRepository { public void Select() { // implementation... } } public class ReadWriteRepository : ReadOnlyRepository { public void Insert() { // implementation... } public void Update() { // implementation... } public void Delete() { // implementation... } } Is one of these designs clearly stronger than the other? If so, which one and why? P.S. If this sounds like a homework question, it's not, but feel free to use it as one if you want :)

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  • How to set WS-SecurityPolicy in an inbound CXF service in Mule?

    - by Brakara
    When configuring the service for handling UsernameToken and signatures, it's setup like this: <service name="serviceName"> <inbound> <cxf:inbound-endpoint address="someUrl" protocolConnector="httpsConnector" > <cxf:inInterceptors> <spring:bean class="org.apache.cxf.binding.soap.saaj.SAAJInInterceptor" /> <spring:bean class="org.apache.cxf.ws.security.wss4j.WSS4JInInterceptor"> <spring:constructor-arg> <spring:map> <spring:entry key="action" value="UsernameToken Timestamp Signature" /> <spring:entry key="passwordCallbackRef" value-ref="serverCallback" /> <spring:entry key="signaturePropFile" value="wssecurity.properties" /> </spring:map> </spring:constructor-arg> </spring:bean> </cxf:inInterceptors> </cxf:inbound-endpoint> </inbound> </service> But how is it possible to create a policy of what algorithms that are allowed, and what parts of the message that should be signed?

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  • Designing a general database interface in PHP

    - by lamas
    I'm creating a small framework for my web projects in PHP so I don't have to do the basic work over and over again for every new website. It is not my goal to create a second CakePHP or Codeigniter and I'm also not planning to build my websites with any of the available frameworks as I prefer to use things I've created myself in general. I have no problems in designing that framework when it comes to parts like the core structure, request handling, and so on but I'm getting stuck with designing the database interface for my modules. I've already thought about using the MVC pattern but thought that it would be a bit of a overkill. So the exact problem I'm facing is how my frameworks modules (viewCustomers could be a module, for example) should interact with the database. Is it a good idea to write SQL directly in PHP (mysql_query( 'SELECT firstname, lastname(.....))? How could I abstract a query like SELECT firstname, lastname FROM customers WHERE id=X Would MySQL helper functions like $this->db->get( array('firstname', 'lastname'), array('id'=>X) ) be a good idea? I suppose not because they actually make everything more complicated by requiring arrays to be created and passed. Is the Model pattern from MVC my only real option?

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  • How to check the backtrace of a "USER process" in the Linux Kernel Crash Dump

    - by Biswajit
    I was trying to debug a USER Process in Linux Crash Dump. The normal steps to go to the crash dump are: Go to the path where the dump is located. Use the command crash kernel_link dump.201104181135. Where kernel_link is a soft link I have created for vmlinux image. Now you will be in the CRASH prompt. If you run the command foreach <PID Of the process> bt Eg: crash> **foreach 6920 bt** **PID: 6920 TASK: ffff88013caaa800 CPU: 1 COMMAND: **"**climmon**"**** #0 [ffff88012d2cd9c8] **schedule** at ffffffff8130b76a #1 [ffff88012d2cdab0] **schedule_timeout** at ffffffff8130bbe7 #2 [ffff88012d2cdb50] **schedule_timeout_uninterruptible** at ffffffff8130bc2a #3 [ffff88012d2cdb60] **__alloc_pages_nodemask** at ffffffff810b9e45 #4 [ffff88012d2cdc60] **alloc_pages_curren**t at ffffffff810e1c8c #5 [ffff88012d2cdc90] **__page_cache_alloc** at ffffffff810b395a #6 [ffff88012d2cdcb0] **__do_page_cache_readahead** at ffffffff810bb592 #7 [ffff88012d2cdd30] **ra_submit** at ffffffff810bb6ba #8 [ffff88012d2cdd40] **filemap_fault** at ffffffff810b3e4e #9 [ffff88012d2cdda0] **__do_fault** at ffffffff810caa5f #10 [ffff88012d2cde50] **handle_mm_fault** at ffffffff810cce69 #11 [ffff88012d2cdf00] **do_page_fault** at ffffffff8130f560 #12 [ffff88012d2cdf50] **page_fault** at ffffffff8130d3f5 RIP: 00007fd02b7e9071 RSP: 0000000040e86ea0 RFLAGS: 00010202 RAX: 0000000000000000 RBX: 0000000000000000 RCX: 00007fd02b7e9071 RDX: 0000000000000000 RSI: 0000000000000000 RDI: 0000000040e86ec0 RBP: 0000000040e87140 R8: 0000000000000800 R9: 0000000000000000 R10: 0000000000000000 R11: 0000000000000202 R12: 00007fff16ec43d0 R13: 00007fd02bcadf00 R14: 0000000040e87950 R15: 0000000000001000 ORIG_RAX: ffffffffffffffff CS: 0033 SS: 002b If you check the above backtrace it shows the kernel functions used for scheduling/handling page fault but not the functions that were executed in the USER process (here eg. climmon). So I am not able to debug this process as I am not able to see the functions executed in that process. Can any one help me with this case?

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  • Downloading attachments to directory with IMAP in PHP, randomly works

    - by Nick
    I found PHP code online to download attachments to a directory using IMAP from here. http://www.nerdydork.com/download-pop3imap-email-attachments-with-php.html I modified it slightly changing $structure = imap_fetchstructure($mbox, $jk); $parts = ($structure->parts); to $structure = imap_fetchstructure($mbox, $jk); $parts = ($structure); to get it to run properly, as otherwise I got an error about how stdClass doesn't define a property called $parts. Doing that, I was able to download all the attachments. I tested it again recently though, and it didn't work. Well, it didn't work 6 times, worked the 7th, and then hasn't worked since. I'm thinking it has something to do with me screwing up the parts handling, since count($parts) keeps returning 1 for each message, so it's not finding any attachments I think. Since it downloaded the attachments at one point with no issues, I feel confident that the area things are getting screwed up is right here. Before this block of code is a for loop that goes through each message in the box, and after it is loop that just goes through $parts for each imap structure. Thanks for any help you can provide. I looked at the imap_fetchstructure page on php.net and can't figure out what I'm doing wrong. Edit: I just double-checked the folder after typing up my question and it all popped up. I feel like I'm going nuts. I hadn't run the code since a few minutes before I started typing this, and it doesn't make sense to me that it would take this long to trigger. I have some 800 messages in the mailbox, but I figured since it printed my statement at the very end of the PHP that all of the file creation work was done.

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  • Update parameter not working on bound DropDownList

    - by ProfK
    I have a DropDownList declared like this: <asp:DropDownList ID="campaignTypeList" runat="server" Width="150px" DataTextField="Name" DataValueField="CampaignTypeId" DataSourceID="campaignTypesDataSource" SelectedValue='<%# Bind("CampaignTypeID") %>'> </asp:DropDownList> Using the designer, my SqlDataSource is configured as follows1: <asp:SqlDataSource ID="campaignDataSource" runat="server" ConflictDetection="CompareAllValues" ConnectionString="<%$ ConnectionStrings:ProVantageMediaManagement %>" SelectCommand="ActivationCampaignGetById" SelectCommandType="StoredProcedure" UpdateCommand="ActivationCampaignUpdate" UpdateCommandType="StoredProcedure"> <SelectParameters> <asp:QueryStringParameter DefaultValue="98" Name="campaignId" Direction="Input" QueryStringField="id" Type="Int32" /> </SelectParameters> <UpdateParameters> <asp:QueryStringParameter DefaultValue="98" Name="campaignId" Direction="Input" QueryStringField="id" Type="Int32" /> <asp:Parameter Name="campaignName" Type="String" /> <asp:Parameter Name="campaignTypeId" Type="Int32" /> </UpdateParameters> </asp:SqlDataSource> Yet when the update command is sent to the DB, the campaignTypeId value is always 1, no matter which item is selected in the DropDownList. What am I doing wrong? 1 Bonus points for telling us what a ControlParameter is meant for, if not for handling values of controls in a scenario like this.

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  • Server side form validation and POST data

    - by tomcritchlow
    Hi, I have a user input form here: http://www.7bks.com/create (Google login required) When you first create a list you are asked to create a public username. Unfortuantely currently there is no constraint to make this unique. I'm working on the code to enforce unique usernames at the moment and would like to know the best way to do it. Tech details: appengine, python, webapp framework What I'm planning is something like this: first the /create form posts the data to /inputlist/ (this is the same as currently happens) /inputlist/ queries the datastore for the given username. If it already exists then redirect back to /create display the /create page with all the info previously but with an additional error message of "this username is already taken" My question is: Is this the best way of handling server side validation? What's the best way of storing the list details while I verify and modify the username? As I see it I have 3 options to store the list details but I'm not sure which is "best": Store the list details in the session cookie (I am using GAEsessions for cookies) Define a separate POST class for /create and post the list data back from /inputlist/ to the /create page (currently /create only has a GET class) Store the list in the datastore, even though the username is non-unique. Thank you very much for your help :) I'm pretty new to python and coding in general so if I've missed something obvious my apologies. Tom PS - I'm sure I can eventually figure it out but I can't find any documentation on POSTing data using the webapp appengine framework which I'd need in order to do solution 2 above :s maybe you could point me in the right direction for that too? Thanks! PPS - It's a little out of date now but you can see roughly how the /create and /inputlist/ code works at the moment here: 7bks.com Gist

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  • CarrierWave and nested forms saving empty image object if photo :title is included in form

    - by Wasabi Developer
    I'm after some advice in regards to handling nested form data and I would be ever so grateful for any insights. The trouble is I'm not 100% sure why I require the following code in my model accepts_nested_attributes_for :holiday_image, allow_destroy: true, :reject_if => lambda { |a| a[:title].blank? } If I don't understand why I require to tact on on my accepts_nested_attributes_for association: :reject_if => lambda { |a| a[:title].blank? } If I remove this :reject_if lambda, it will save a blank holiday photo object in the database. I presume because it takes the :title field from the form as an empty string? I guess my question is, am I doing this right or is there a better way of this this within nested forms if I want to extend my HolidayImage model to include more strings like description, notes? Sorry If I can't be more succinct. My simple holiday app. # holiday.rb class Holiday < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :holiday_image accepts_nested_attributes_for :holiday_image, allow_destroy: true, :reject_if => lambda { |a| a[:title].blank? } attr_accessible :name, :content, :holiday_image_attributes end I'm using CarrierWave for image uploads. # holiday_image.rb class HolidayImage < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :holiday attr_accessible :holiday_id, :image, :title mount_uploader :image, ImageUploader end Inside my _form partial there is a field_for block <h3>Photo gallery</h3> <%= f.fields_for :holiday_image do |holiday_image| %> <% if holiday_image.object.new_record? %> <%= holiday_image.label :title, "Image Title" %> <%= holiday_image.text_field :title %> <%= holiday_image.file_field :image %> <% else %> Title: <%= holiday_image.object.title %> <%= image_tag(holiday_image.object.image.url(:thumb)) %> Tick to delete: <%= holiday_image.check_box :_destroy %> <% end %> Thanks again for your patience.

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  • Is my method for avoiding dynamic_cast<> faster than dynamic_cast<> itself ?

    - by ereOn
    Hi, I was answering a question a few minutes ago and it raised to me another one: In one of my projects, I do some network message parsing. The messages are in the form of: [1 byte message type][2 bytes payload length][x bytes payload] The format and content of the payload are determined by the message type. I have a class hierarchy, based on a common class Message. To instanciate my messages, i have a static parsing method which gives back a Message* depending on the message type byte. Something like: Message* parse(const char* frame) { // This is sample code, in real life I obviously check that the buffer // is not NULL, and the size, and so on. switch(frame[0]) { case 0x01: return new FooMessage(); case 0x02: return new BarMessage(); } // Throw an exception here because the mesage type is unknown. } I sometimes need to access the methods of the subclasses. Since my network message handling must be fast, I decived to avoid dynamic_cast<> and I added a method to the base Message class that gives back the message type. Depending on this return value, I use a static_cast<> to the right child type instead. I did this mainly because I was told once that dynamic_cast<> was slow. However, I don't know exactly what it really does and how slow it is, thus, my method might be as just as slow (or slower) but far more complicated. What do you guys think of this design ? Is it common ? Is it really faster than using dynamic_cast<> ? Any detailed explanation of what happen under the hood when one use dynamic_cast<> is welcome !

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  • UITouch Events and Table Views

    - by Andy
    I'm working on a navigation-based iPhone-only app that serves two main purposes: One, to present data in a hierarchical view, allowing users to drill down and eventually edit said data, and, two, to all users to perform a default action when the table view cell is tapped. I now need to offer a small set of options tied to the same data; however, both the didSelectRowAtIndexPath: and accessoryButtonTappedForRowAtIndexPath: methods are obviously taken. So, my options seem to be to implement a double-tap method, wherein the small list of additional options would be presented after (you guessed it) a double-tap on said table row; or, preferably, a tap-and-hold method. From what I can tell, tap-and-hold seems like the way to go in SDK 4.0 - which does me no good right this red-hot minute. I decided to go with the double-tap option, but I'm having a little trouble. First and foremost, the touchesBegan:withEvent: method does not seem to be getting called at all; a breakpoint placed within the method is never called while the application runs, and the table view responds exactly as it did before I inserted the method (which is to say, it performs the default action): - (void)touchesBegan:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { UITouch *aTouch = [touches anyObject]; if (aTouch.tapCount == 2) { [NSObject cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget:self]; } } Second, I don't really need to handle a single-tap - the didSelectRowAtIndexPath: method can handle the single-tap just fine. The double-tap is the funky one I want to handle. I suspect the answer is going to contain the phrase, "You can't have the table view handle the single-tap and the touchesBegan: method handle the double-tap. The touch handling methods have to handle all of them." I would really appreciate some guidance from some of you who've dealt with this issue. Thanks in advance.

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